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Question 1
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A 10-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her parents due to ongoing disobedience towards her parents and other authority figures for the past three years. At school, she has frequently been involved in physical altercations with her peers and was recently reprimanded for damaging school property.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Conduct disorder
Explanation:Understanding Conduct Disorder and Differential Diagnoses
Conduct disorder is a psychiatric condition characterized by persistent and severe antisocial behaviors that violate social norms and the rights of others. These behaviors may include excessive fighting, cruelty to people or animals, destruction of property, persistent disobedience, and repeated lying. However, conduct disorder can be easily confused with other psychiatric conditions that present with similar symptoms. Here are some differential diagnoses to consider:
Depression: While depressive disorders can present with oppositional symptoms, they are usually accompanied by disturbances to appetite, sleep, and anhedonia, which are not seen in conduct disorder. However, depression can coexist with conduct disorder.
Adjustment reaction: Conduct disturbance can also be a reaction to an external stressor, such as divorce, bereavement, abuse, or trauma. However, these symptoms usually occur within three months of the stressor and can last up to six months. If there is no mention of an external stressor, conduct disorder is more likely.
Attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD): Children with ADHD exhibit symptoms of inattention associated with hyperactivity and impulsiveness, which can affect social and academic functioning. However, unlike conduct disorder, these behaviors do not usually violate societal norms or the rights of others. ADHD can also coexist with conduct disorder.
Autism spectrum disorder: Children with autism spectrum disorder may present with emotional lability, aggressive outbursts, and destructive behavior, usually in response to an unexpected change in routine or sensory overload. However, there are typical features of autism, such as sensory hypersensitivity, that are not mentioned in conduct disorder. Autism can also coexist with conduct disorder.
In conclusion, conduct disorder is a serious psychiatric condition that requires early identification and intervention. However, it is important to consider other differential diagnoses to ensure accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 2
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Which of the following neonatal complications is least frequently observed in pregnancies of women with diabetes?
Your Answer: Microsomia
Explanation:Macrosomia is more likely to occur in individuals with diabetes than microsomia.
Complications of Diabetes during Pregnancy
Diabetes during pregnancy can lead to various complications for both the mother and the baby. Maternal complications may include polyhydramnios, which occurs in 25% of cases and may be due to fetal polyuria. Preterm labor is also a common complication, occurring in 15% of cases and often associated with polyhydramnios.
Neonatal complications may include macrosomia, although diabetes can also cause small for gestational age babies. Hypoglycemia is another potential complication, which can occur due to beta cell hyperplasia. Respiratory distress syndrome may also occur, as surfactant production is delayed. Polycythemia, which leads to more neonatal jaundice, is also a possibility.
Malformation rates may increase 3-4 fold, with sacral agenesis, CNS and CVS malformations (hypertrophic cardiomyopathy) being some of the potential risks. Stillbirth is also a possibility. Hypomagnesemia and hypocalcemia may occur, and shoulder dystocia may cause Erb’s palsy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 3
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A 28-year-old G1P0 woman attends her routine antenatal appointment at 12 weeks gestation and reports experiencing burning retrosternal pain. Omeprazole is prescribed, and a urine sample is taken. The urinalysis shows trace protein with no haematuria, nitrates, or white cells, and the patient denies any urinary symptoms. During the appointment, her blood pressure is measured at 135/88 mmHg. Upon further testing, the urine sample is found to have scant growth of Escherichia coli. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Prescribe a 7 day course of nitrofurantoin
Explanation:Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should be treated promptly with antibiotics. The recommended treatment is a 7-day course of nitrofurantoin. This is important to prevent the development of symptomatic urinary tract infection or pyelonephritis. Nitrofurantoin is safe to use in the first and second trimester, but should be avoided in the third trimester due to the risk of neonatal haemolysis. The patient’s blood pressure is within normal range and does not require treatment. The trace of protein in her urine is likely related to her asymptomatic bacteriuria and should be monitored with subsequent urine dips. Antihypertensive treatment is not necessary based on the trace of protein alone. Prescribing a 7-day course of trimethoprim is not recommended as it is contraindicated in the first trimester of pregnancy due to the increased risk of neural-tube defects. Prescribing aspirin, labetalol, and a 7-day course of nitrofurantoin is not necessary as the patient does not meet the diagnostic criteria for pre-eclampsia or pregnancy-induced hypertension. Similarly, prescribing aspirin, labetalol, and a 7-day course of trimethoprim is not recommended for the same reasons.
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. The management of UTIs depends on various factors such as the patient’s age, gender, and pregnancy status. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed if available. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. However, if the patient is aged over 65 years or has visible or non-visible haematuria, a urine culture should be sent. Pregnant women with UTIs should be treated with nitrofurantoin, amoxicillin, or cefalexin for seven days. Trimethoprim should be avoided during pregnancy as it is teratogenic in the first trimester. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated to prevent progression to acute pyelonephritis. Men with UTIs should be offered a seven-day course of trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin unless prostatitis is suspected. A urine culture should be sent before antibiotics are started. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given. Acute pyelonephritis requires hospital admission and treatment with a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone for 10-14 days. Referral to urology is not routinely required for men who have had one uncomplicated lower UTI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old librarian complains of a persistent cough and difficulty breathing during physical activity. A chest CT scan reveals a ground-glass appearance. What is the most frequently linked mechanism responsible for this reaction?
Your Answer: Type I hypersensitivity reaction
Correct Answer: Type III hypersensitivity reaction
Explanation:Hypersensitivity Reactions: Types and Examples
Hypersensitivity reactions are immune responses that can cause tissue damage and inflammation. There are four types of hypersensitivity reactions, each with different mechanisms and clinical presentations.
Type I hypersensitivity reaction is an immediate hypersensitivity reaction mediated by IgE in response to an innocuous environmental antigen. Examples of such reactions are allergic rhinitis and systemic urticaria.
Type II hypersensitivity reaction is an antibody-mediated reaction. Cellular injury may result from complement activation, antibody-dependent cell-mediated cytotoxicity or phagocytosis. Examples include incompatible blood transfusions, haemolytic disease of the newborn and autoimmune haemolytic anaemias.
Type III hypersensitivity reaction is an immune complex-mediated reaction. Immune complexes are lattices of antibody and antigen. When these are not cleared from the circulation, they may trigger an inflammatory response. An example of this type of reaction is extrinsic allergic alveolitis, otherwise known as ‘bird fancier’s lung’, a hypersensitivity pneumonitis caused by exposure to bird droppings.
Type IV hypersensitivity reaction is a delayed hypersensitivity reaction involving T helper cells that become activated upon contact with an antigen, which results in a clonal expansion over 1–2 weeks. Repeated exposure to the antigen results in cytokine release from sensitised T-cells, leading to macrophage-induced phagocytosis.
Anaphylaxis is a type I-mediated hypersensitivity reaction, involving the release of inflammatory mediators (such as histamine), which precipitate vasodilatation and oedema. Anaphylaxis is characterised by the rapid onset of respiratory and circulatory compromise.
Understanding the different types of hypersensitivity reactions is important for diagnosis and treatment. Treatment may involve removal of the source of hypersensitivity, immunosuppressive therapy, or administration of epinephrine in the case of anaphylaxis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 5
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A 25-year-old female patient presents with a persistent cough and runny nose for the past 48 hours. She seeks treatment for her symptoms, but you explain that she is likely experiencing a common cold that will resolve on its own. What is the most frequent cause of the common cold?
Your Answer: Rhinovirus
Explanation:Rhinoviruses are responsible for causing the common cold, while respiratory syncytial virus is a common cause of bronchiolitis. Influenza virus is the culprit behind the flu, while Streptococcus pneumonia is the most frequent cause of community-acquired pneumonia. Parainfluenza virus is commonly associated with croup.
Respiratory Pathogens and Their Associated Conditions
Respiratory pathogens are microorganisms that cause infections in the respiratory system. The most common respiratory pathogens include respiratory syncytial virus, parainfluenza virus, rhinovirus, influenza virus, Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Staphylococcus aureus, Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Legionella pneumophilia, and Pneumocystis jiroveci. Each of these pathogens is associated with a specific respiratory condition.
Respiratory syncytial virus is known to cause bronchiolitis, while parainfluenza virus is associated with croup. Rhinovirus is the most common cause of the common cold, while influenza virus causes the flu. Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most common cause of community-acquired pneumonia, and Haemophilus influenzae is the most common cause of bronchiectasis exacerbations and acute epiglottitis. Staphylococcus aureus is known to cause pneumonia, particularly following influenza. Mycoplasma pneumoniae causes atypical pneumonia, which is characterized by flu-like symptoms that precede a dry cough. Legionella pneumophilia is another cause of atypical pneumonia, which is typically spread by air-conditioning systems and causes a dry cough. Pneumocystis jiroveci is a common cause of pneumonia in HIV patients, and patients typically have few chest signs and develop exertional dyspnea. Mycobacterium tuberculosis causes tuberculosis, which can present in a wide range of ways, from asymptomatic to disseminated disease. Cough, night sweats, and weight loss may be seen in patients with tuberculosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old woman is brought to her GP by her daughter. She reports that she has a 2-year history of progressive memory impairment (especially for recent events), worsening apathy and occasional disorientation in previously familiar environments. She scores 22/30 on the Mini-Mental State Examination. Her BP is 140/90, and pulse 70 and regular. She is a non-smoker. She takes medication for hypertension.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Mild cognitive impairment
Correct Answer: Alzheimer’s disease
Explanation:Understanding Different Types of Dementia
Dementia is a common condition that affects a significant portion of the elderly population. Alzheimer’s disease is the most common type of dementia, accounting for over 60% of cases. It typically starts with memory impairment, particularly affecting recent events, and gradually progresses to language and visuospatial dysfunction, apathy, and behavioural problems.
Vascular dementia is the second most common type of dementia, and it is often associated with a history of cerebrovascular or cardiovascular disease. Depression can also cause memory impairment and apathy, but the characteristic pattern of memory disturbance seen in Alzheimer’s disease makes it a more likely diagnosis in this case.
Mild cognitive impairment is a condition where memory impairment is present, but other cognitive domains and activities of daily living are preserved. It is estimated that between 5 and 20% of people over 65 have MCI, and about 30% of them will develop dementia within two years.
Lewy-body dementia is another type of dementia that accounts for about 20% of cases. It typically presents with parkinsonism, fluctuating cognitive impairment, and visual hallucinations, which are not present in this vignette.
Understanding the different types of dementia and their characteristic features is important for accurate diagnosis and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 7
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A mother brings in her 2-day-old baby girl to the GP surgery. She expresses concern about some white discharge from the baby's vagina. Upon examination, a small amount of mucoid white discharge is observed at the entrance of the vagina. The external appearance of the genitalia is otherwise normal. What is the recommended next step in management?
Your Answer: Reassure the mother that it is normal at this age
Explanation:It is common for newborn girls to experience a mucoid white vaginal discharge, which typically resolves by the age of 3 months. Reassurance is the most suitable course of action, and there is no need to refer to paediatrics or suspect sexual abuse. Arranging a transvaginal ultrasound for these symptoms is not necessary.
Gynaecological Problems in Children
In children, gynaecological problems are not uncommon. However, it is important to note that vaginal examinations and vaginal swabs should not be performed. Instead, referral to a paediatric gynaecologist is appropriate for persistent problems. One of the most common gynaecological disorders in girls is vulvovaginitis. This condition can be caused by bacterial or fungal organisms and is often associated with poor hygiene, tight clothing, lack of labial fat pads protecting the vaginal orifice, and lack of protective acid secretion found in the reproductive years. In some cases, vulvovaginitis may be a result of sexual abuse, which can present as bloody discharge.
It is important to manage vulvovaginitis appropriately. Advising children about hygiene is crucial, and soothing creams may be useful. Topical antibiotics or antifungals may also be prescribed. In resistant cases, oestrogen cream may be recommended. It is important to note that most newborn girls have some mucoid white vaginal discharge, which usually disappears by three months of age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman has been asked to come back for a follow-up cervical smear by her GP. She had a cervical smear done 18 months ago which revealed the presence of high-risk HPV but no abnormal cytology. The follow-up cervical smear has returned negative for high-risk HPV. What is the best course of action for managing this patient?
Your Answer: Repeat cervical smear in 3 years
Correct Answer: Repeat cervical smear in 5 years
Explanation:If the 1st repeat smear at 12 months for cervical cancer screening is now negative for hrHPV, the patient should return to routine recall, which is repeating the cervical smear in 5 years. Cytological examination of the smear is not necessary as the NHS now follows an HPV first system. Referral for colposcopy is also not indicated unless there is evidence of dyskaryosis or inadequate smears. Repeating the cervical smear in 3 years is not appropriate for a 50-year-old patient, and repeating the smear after 12 months is only necessary if the most recent smear is positive for hrHPV with no cytological abnormalities.
The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hrHPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 9
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A 45-year-old man with known permanent AF (atrial fibrillation) on warfarin has a fast, irregularly irregular pulse. He has no other past medical history. The ECG confirms AF with a rate of 132 beats/min. He is haemodynamically stable and well. He denies any history of palpitations, shortness of breath or syncope.
Which of the following is the most appropriate intervention?Your Answer: Bisoprolol
Explanation:Treatment Options for Atrial Fibrillation: A Comprehensive Guide
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a common cardiac arrhythmia that requires prompt and appropriate management to prevent complications. Here are some treatment options for AF:
Rate Control: This is recommended for patients who have had AF for more than 48 hours. Beta-blockers are the first-line treatment unless there is a contraindication such as asthma. Calcium channel blockers can also be used.
Digoxin: This drug can be used as rate control if the patient cannot have beta-blockers or calcium channel blockers. However, it should only be used as a third-line treatment or as an adjunct because it has been shown to increase mortality. It is also only effective in sedentary patients.
DC Cardioversion: This can be used to treat new-onset AF if the patient has had it for less than 48 hours. It can also be considered in patients who have had it for longer than that, once they have been on stable anticoagulation for at least 3 weeks.
Flecainide: This is a class Ic antiarrhythmic drug that can be used as chemical cardioversion in new AF (<48 hours) or if a patient has been anticoagulated for >3 weeks.
Rhythm Control: Nice guidelines advise that rhythm control can be used if AF onset was <48 hours ago, but should be avoided if longer ago because it can increase the risk of stroke from an atrial thrombus. In longer cases, rate control should be used, which is with beta-blockers or rate-limiting calcium channel blockers. Digoxin can be used third line or as an adjunct. In conclusion, the appropriate treatment for AF depends on the duration of the arrhythmia, the patient’s comorbidities, and other factors. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 10
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A 32-year-old woman presents to the gynaecology clinic with her partner, reporting 2 years of unsuccessful attempts at conceiving. Neither she nor her partner have any children from previous relationships. The patient has a medical history of polycystic ovarian syndrome. On examination, her vital signs are within normal limits and her BMI is 24 kg/m². What is the recommended initial approach to enhance fertility?
Your Answer: Clomifene
Explanation:Clomifene is the recommended first-line treatment for infertility in patients with PCOS. This patient has been diagnosed with PCOS, which can cause infertility and other symptoms such as hirsutism. Clomifene works by inducing ovulation and has been shown to improve fertility outcomes in these patients.
Goserelin is not a suitable treatment for infertility in PCOS patients. It is a gonadotrophin-releasing hormone agonist used for conditions such as prostate carcinoma, endometriosis, and dysfunctional uterine bleeding. In-vitro fertilisation is not typically the first option for improving fertility in PCOS patients and is usually considered later on.
While metformin is an important drug in the management of PCOS, it is not the primary treatment for improving fertility. It is often prescribed in combination with clomifene to address metabolic issues associated with PCOS. However, clomifene is the key drug for improving overall fertility outcomes in these patients.
Managing Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome
Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS) is a condition that affects a significant percentage of women of reproductive age. The exact cause of PCOS is not fully understood, but it is associated with high levels of luteinizing hormone and hyperinsulinemia. Management of PCOS is complex and varies depending on the individual’s symptoms. Weight reduction is often recommended, and a combined oral contraceptive pill may be used to regulate menstrual cycles and manage hirsutism and acne. If these symptoms do not respond to the pill, topical eflornithine or medications like spironolactone, flutamide, and finasteride may be used under specialist supervision.
Infertility is another common issue associated with PCOS. Weight reduction is recommended, and the management of infertility should be supervised by a specialist. There is ongoing debate about the most effective treatment for infertility in patients with PCOS. Clomifene is often used, but there is a potential risk of multiple pregnancies with anti-oestrogen therapies like clomifene. Metformin is also used, either alone or in combination with clomifene, particularly in patients who are obese. Gonadotrophins may also be used to stimulate ovulation. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) published an opinion paper in 2008 and concluded that on current evidence, metformin is not a first-line treatment of choice in the management of PCOS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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