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  • Question 1 - A 31-year-old woman is on day four postpartum, following an emergency Caesarean section...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old woman is on day four postpartum, following an emergency Caesarean section for severe pre-eclampsia. She feels well in herself and is mobilising and breastfeeding well. Her blood pressure has not normalised yet and is 158/106 mmHg today. Urinalysis is negative for protein. Following a long discussion, you decide that she is ready for discharge and can be managed in the community.
      Which of the following is correct regarding postnatal hypertension?

      Your Answer: The general practitioner (GP) at the 6-week postnatal check should convert all women with chronic hypertension (before pregnancy) back to their pre-pregnancy antihypertensive.

      Correct Answer: Women who are discharged and are still hypertensive should have their blood pressure checked every other day in the community until targets are achieved

      Explanation:

      Postnatal Hypertension Management: Guidelines for Discharge and Follow-up

      Women who experience hypertension during the postnatal period require careful management to ensure their blood pressure is controlled and any underlying causes are addressed. Here are some guidelines for managing postnatal hypertension:

      – Women who are discharged and still hypertensive should have their blood pressure checked every other day in the community until targets are achieved.
      – The GP at the 6-week postnatal check should convert all women with chronic hypertension (before pregnancy) back to their pre-pregnancy antihypertensive medication, if not contraindicated in breastfeeding.
      – If blood pressure is found to be > 150/100 mmHg in the community, the patient should be referred back to the hospital.
      – The blood pressure should be checked at least once every two weeks until the woman discontinues antihypertensive treatment.
      – The GP at the 6-week postnatal check should stop antihypertensives in all women who required medical treatment in pregnancy, provided their blood pressure is < 130/80 mmHg.
      – If a woman still has a blood pressure of ≤ 160/110 mmHg and proteinuria at the 6-week postnatal appointment, despite medical management, she will require a specialist referral to the hospital for further assessment of the underlying causes of hypertension.

      By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can ensure that women with postnatal hypertension receive appropriate care and support to manage their condition effectively.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 2 - A 29-year-old woman who is 20-weeks pregnant comes to the emergency department after...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman who is 20-weeks pregnant comes to the emergency department after noticing a vesicular rash on her torso this morning. Upon further questioning, you discover that her 5-year-old daughter developed chickenpox last week and the patient cannot recall if she has had the condition before. She seems at ease while resting.

      Serological testing for varicella zoster virus reveals the following results:
      Varicella IgM Positive
      Varicella IgG Negative

      What is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Varicella zoster vaccination + oral acyclovir

      Correct Answer: Oral acyclovir

      Explanation:

      Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral acyclovir may be given if she is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 3 - A 33-year-old woman gives birth to a healthy baby at 38 weeks gestation...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old woman gives birth to a healthy baby at 38 weeks gestation without any complications during delivery. Following a physiological third stage of labor, the patient experiences suspected uterine atony and loses 800 ml of blood. She has a medical history of asthma.

      An ABCDE approach is taken, and IV access is established. The obstetric consultant attempts uterine compression, but the bleeding persists. The patient's heart rate is 92 bpm, and her blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg.

      What is the next appropriate step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: IV oxytocin

      Explanation:

      Medical treatments available for managing postpartum haemorrhage caused by uterine atony include oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol.

      The correct option for this patient is IV oxytocin. The patient is experiencing primary postpartum haemorrhage (PPH), which is characterized by the loss of more than 500 ml of blood within 24 hours of delivering the baby. Uterine atony, which occurs when the uterus fails to contract after the placenta is delivered, is the most common cause of PPH. The initial steps in managing this condition involve an ABCDE approach, establishing IV access, and resuscitation. Mechanical palpation of the uterine fundus (rubbing the uterus) is also done to stimulate contractions, but it has not been successful in this case. The next step is pharmacological management, which involves administering IV oxytocin.

      IM carboprost is not the correct option. Although it is another medical management option, it should be avoided in patients with asthma, which this patient has.

      IV carboprost is also not the correct option. Carboprost is given intramuscularly, not intravenously. Additionally, it should be avoided in patients with asthma.

      Understanding Postpartum Haemorrhage

      Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) is a condition where a woman experiences blood loss of more than 500 ml after giving birth vaginally. It can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary PPH occurs within 24 hours after delivery and is caused by the 4 Ts: tone, trauma, tissue, and thrombin. The most common cause is uterine atony. Risk factors for primary PPH include previous PPH, prolonged labour, pre-eclampsia, increased maternal age, emergency Caesarean section, and placenta praevia.

      In managing PPH, it is important to involve senior staff immediately and follow the ABC approach. This includes two peripheral cannulae, lying the woman flat, blood tests, and commencing a warmed crystalloid infusion. Mechanical interventions such as rubbing up the fundus and catheterisation are also done. Medical interventions include IV oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol. Surgical options such as intrauterine balloon tamponade, B-Lynch suture, ligation of uterine arteries, and hysterectomy may be considered if medical options fail to control the bleeding.

      Secondary PPH occurs between 24 hours to 6 weeks after delivery and is typically due to retained placental tissue or endometritis. It is important to understand the causes and risk factors of PPH to prevent and manage this life-threatening emergency effectively.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 4 - A woman who is 32 weeks pregnant attends her antenatal appointment for her...

    Incorrect

    • A woman who is 32 weeks pregnant attends her antenatal appointment for her combined screening test. She gives her consent and undergoes the standard screening test, which includes blood tests and an ultrasound scan. After the test, she is informed that her results suggest the possibility of Down's syndrome and is offered further discussion. What are the expected results in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Low beta-HCG, raised PAPP-A, ultrasound demonstrates thickened nuchal translucency

      Correct Answer: Raised beta-HCG, low PAPP-A, ultrasound demonstrates thickened nuchal translucency

      Explanation:

      The presence of Down’s syndrome can be indicated by an increase in beta-HCG, a decrease in PAPP-A, and the observation of a thickened nuchal translucency during ultrasound. The other options involving beta-HCG and PAPP-A are incorrect. The combined screening test is usually conducted between the 10th and 14th week of pregnancy and involves an ultrasound to measure nuchal thickness, as well as blood tests to assess beta-HCG and PAPP-A levels. A positive result suggests a higher risk of Down’s syndrome, Patau’s syndrome, and Edward’s syndrome. In such cases, amniocentesis, chorionic villus sampling, or non-invasive prenatal testing may be offered to confirm the diagnosis. The options involving inhibin A are not part of the combined screening test. If a woman presents later in pregnancy, the quadruple test may be used instead, which involves four blood markers to determine the risk of Down’s syndrome. These markers include inhibin A, alpha-fetoprotein, unconjugated oestriol, and beta-HCG. A positive result for Down’s syndrome would typically show raised beta-HCG and inhibin A, and low unconjugated oestriol and alpha-fetoprotein.

      NICE updated guidelines on antenatal care in 2021, recommending the combined test for screening for Down’s syndrome between 11-13+6 weeks. The test includes nuchal translucency measurement, serum B-HCG, and pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A). The quadruple test is offered between 15-20 weeks for women who book later in pregnancy. Results are interpreted as either a ‘lower chance’ or ‘higher chance’ of chromosomal abnormalities. If a woman receives a ‘higher chance’ result, she may be offered a non-invasive prenatal screening test (NIPT) or a diagnostic test. NIPT analyzes cell-free fetal DNA in the mother’s blood and has high sensitivity and specificity for detecting chromosomal abnormalities. Private companies offer NIPT screening from 10 weeks gestation.

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  • Question 5 - A 35-year-old woman in her fifth pregnancy has been diagnosed with gestational diabetes...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman in her fifth pregnancy has been diagnosed with gestational diabetes at 28 weeks and presents for a fetal growth scan, as per the gestational diabetes protocol. She has had three normal vaginal deliveries, but the last time, she needed an elective Caesarean section for breech presentation. The sonographer calls you into the room to see the patient because the placenta is seen to involve more than half of the myometrium.
      What is the correct diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Placenta increta

      Explanation:

      Placental Abnormalities: Understanding the Spectrum of Disease

      Placental abnormalities can range from mild to severe, with varying degrees of risk to both mother and baby. Placenta increta is a condition where the placenta infiltrates into the myometrium, while placenta percreta is the most severe form where the placental fibres invade beyond the myometrium and require a hysterectomy for management. Placenta accreta is a milder form where the placental fibres attach to the superficial layer of the myometrium. Placenta praevia is a common cause of antepartum haemorrhage, where the placenta lies low and covers part of the internal cervical os. Vasa praevia is a condition where fetal vessels run across or over part of the internal cervical os, increasing the risk of bleeding and fetal distress.

      Risk factors for these conditions include previous Caesarean section, myomectomy, multiparity, maternal age >35, placenta praevia, and uterine anomalies. Diagnosis is typically made through ultrasound, with MRI used in severe cases. Management may involve a Caesarean section for delivery in a controlled setting, or in severe cases, a hysterectomy. Women with vasa praevia or placenta praevia are advised to have an elective Caesarean section to reduce the risk of complications. Understanding the spectrum of placental abnormalities is crucial for appropriate management and reducing the risk of maternal and fetal complications.

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  • Question 6 - A 28-year-old woman comes to the clinic with her worried partner. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman comes to the clinic with her worried partner. She has been exhibiting unpredictable mood swings since giving birth to their daughter 10 days ago. During the appointment, she seems restless and agitated. Her partner shares that she has been avoiding sleep due to her fear that something terrible will happen to their baby. The patient has a history of depression but has not taken her fluoxetine medication for 4 months because of concerns about potential complications. What is the best course of action for managing her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Restart fluoxetine at a low dose, titrating to control symptoms

      Correct Answer: Admit to hospital for urgent assessment

      Explanation:

      The appropriate course of action for a woman exhibiting symptoms of agitation and paranoid delusions after giving birth is to admit her to the hospital for urgent assessment. This is likely a case of postpartum psychosis, which is different from postnatal depression. Postpartum psychosis can include mania, depression, irritability, rapid mood changes, confusion, paranoia, delusions, and/or hallucinations. Prescribing medication to aid in sleep is not appropriate in this case, and reassurance that her low mood will improve with time is also not appropriate due to the risk to herself and her baby. Gradual titration of fluoxetine would not manage her acute symptoms and would not ensure the safety of her or her baby. Ideally, she should be hospitalized in a Mother & Baby Unit.

      Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems

      Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of more than 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, with sensitivity and specificity of more than 90%. The questionnaire also includes a question about self-harm.

      ‘Baby-blues’ is seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occurs 3-7 days following birth. It is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Reassurance and support from healthcare professionals, particularly health visitors, play a key role in managing this condition. Most women with the baby blues will not require specific treatment other than reassurance.

      Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features are similar to depression seen in other circumstances, and cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial. Certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. Although these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant.

      Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and requires admission to hospital, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Onset usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth, and features include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies. Paroxetine is recommended by SIGN because of the low milk/plasma ratio, while fluoxetine is best avoided due to a long half-life.

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  • Question 7 - A 28-year-old pregnant woman is undergoing screening for gestational diabetes. She has no...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old pregnant woman is undergoing screening for gestational diabetes. She has no significant medical history and this is her first pregnancy. During the screening, her fasting blood glucose level is measured at 7.2 mmol/L. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Trial of lifestyle changes for 1-2 weeks

      Correct Answer: Start insulin only

      Explanation:

      The most appropriate course of action for gestational diabetes with a fasting glucose level of >= 7 mmol/L at diagnosis is to commence insulin. While lifestyle changes and co-prescribing metformin should also be discussed, starting insulin is the priority according to NICE guidelines. Re-checking glucose in 2 weeks, starting exenatide, or relying on lifestyle changes alone would not be appropriate. Metformin alone may not be sufficient for glucose levels above 7 mmol/L, but it can be used in combination with insulin. If glucose levels are below 7 mmol/L, lifestyle changes can be trialed before considering metformin.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

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  • Question 8 - A 26-year-old woman presents with significant vaginal bleeding and is diagnosed with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman presents with significant vaginal bleeding and is diagnosed with a hydatidiform mole. The uterus is evacuated, but she continues to feel unwell and her β-human chorionic gonadotrophin (β-HCG) levels continue to increase in the following weeks.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Second, untreated, non-invasive hydatidiform mole

      Correct Answer: Choriocarcinoma

      Explanation:

      Gestational trophoblastic disease (GTD) is a rare condition that includes hydatidiform mole, choriocarcinoma, and placental site trophoblastic tumor. GTD occurs when abnormal trophoblastic tissue forms instead of a fetus after fertilization. Hydatidiform moles are the most common form of GTD and are found in about 1 in every 1000 births. They often present with signs of early pregnancy failure, such as heavy vaginal bleeding. Treatment involves removing the abnormal tissue, and close monitoring of beta-HCG levels is necessary post-evacuation. If levels fail to drop, it may indicate an invasive mole or choriocarcinoma, which requires referral to a specialist center for further treatment. Pituitary and adrenal adenomas are other types of tumors that can produce hormones and cause various symptoms. In contrast, ectopic pregnancy is a separate condition that occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus.

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  • Question 9 - A 26-year-old patient, who is 22 weeks pregnant, has been experiencing severe allergic...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old patient, who is 22 weeks pregnant, has been experiencing severe allergic rhinitis. She complains of bilateral eye puffiness and itching, rhinorrhoea, and chronic nasal congestion. She has tried nasal sprays before, but they were ineffective. Due to her pregnancy, she has refrained from taking any medication, but her symptoms are now affecting her work and sleep. What is the most suitable initial medication to recommend for this patient?

      Your Answer: Oral chlorphenamine

      Correct Answer: Oral loratadine

      Explanation:

      When treating allergic rhinitis in pregnant women, loratadine is the recommended first-line oral antihistamine if symptoms are severe enough to require treatment. It is a non-sedative antihistamine with the most available data and no reported teratogenicity. However, it may cause mild sedation, increased appetite, and headaches. If loratadine is ineffective or causes significant side effects, cetirizine or chlorphenamine can be used. Chlorphenamine is a sedative antihistamine and should only be used if other options fail. Nasal sodium cromoglicate spray is safe to use during pregnancy and breastfeeding, but if oral antihistamines are more effective for the patient, it may not be the best option. Oral chlorphenamine is another option, but non-sedative antihistamines should be preferred if they improve symptoms. Leukotriene receptor antagonists like oral montelukast have limited data on their safety in pregnancy and should be avoided unless the benefits outweigh the risks. Pseudoephedrine hydrochloride, a decongestant, should not be used during pregnancy as it can affect uteroplacental circulation and increase the risk of fetal complications.

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  • Question 10 - A 32-year-old woman presents at 35 weeks’ gestation in clinic. She had a...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman presents at 35 weeks’ gestation in clinic. She had a primary infection with genital herpes at 24 weeks’ gestation, which was treated with acyclovir. She has attended clinic to discuss birth and management options.
      What is the recommended management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Vaginal delivery with intravenous administration of acyclovir

      Correct Answer: acyclovir daily from 36 weeks and expectant delivery

      Explanation:

      Genital herpes is caused by herpes simplex type 1 or 2 and can harm newborns, leading to neonatal herpes. Pregnant women who contract herpes and remain untreated have a higher risk of premature delivery and membrane rupture. Therefore, it is crucial to promptly treat women with herpes simplex infection. acyclovir is a safe treatment option, which speeds up the healing process and suppresses viral shedding. Women with primary herpes infection in the first and second trimesters should be treated with oral acyclovir and offered treatment-dose acyclovir from the 36th week of gestation until delivery to prevent recurrence and reduce the risk of neonatal herpes. Expectant delivery is acceptable in these cases. Women who acquire herpes in the third trimester should be treated with acyclovir until delivery and offered an elective Caesarean section to reduce the risk of neonatal transmission. Women who have acquired a primary genital herpes infection in the first and second trimesters that was treated should be offered acyclovir from 36 weeks onwards to reduce the risk of recurrence, lesion eruption, and viral shedding. Women with primary herpes simplex virus infection in labor who opt for vaginal delivery should receive intravenous acyclovir infusion to reduce the risk of neonatal herpes infection. Invasive procedures should be avoided in these cases.

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  • Question 11 - A 32-year-old female (P0 G1) is 28 weeks pregnant and has just been...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old female (P0 G1) is 28 weeks pregnant and has just been informed that her baby is in the breech position. She is considering the external cephalic version (ECV) and wants to know when she can be offered this procedure?

      Your Answer: 37 weeks

      Correct Answer: 36 weeks

      Explanation:

      It is recommended to wait until the lady reaches 36 weeks of pregnancy to check if the baby has changed position, as she is currently only 30 weeks pregnant. For nulliparous women, such as the lady in this case, ECV should be provided at 36 weeks if the baby remains in the breech position. However, if the lady had previous pregnancies, ECV would be offered at 37 weeks.

      Breech presentation occurs when the caudal end of the fetus is in the lower segment, and it is more common at 28 weeks than near term. Risk factors include uterine malformations, placenta praevia, and fetal abnormalities. Management options include spontaneous turning, external cephalic version (ECV), planned caesarean section, or vaginal delivery. The RCOG recommends informing women that planned caesarean section reduces perinatal mortality and early neonatal morbidity, but there is no evidence that the long-term health of babies is influenced by how they are born. ECV is contraindicated in certain cases, such as where caesarean delivery is required or there is an abnormal cardiotocography.

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  • Question 12 - A 35-year-old pregnant woman of South Asian descent is in her second pregnancy...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old pregnant woman of South Asian descent is in her second pregnancy and is currently 10+0 weeks along. She has previously given birth naturally to a healthy child at 39 weeks and has no other prior pregnancies. Due to her family's history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, she undergoes a fasting glucose test during her booking visit, which reveals a level of 7.2 mmol/L. What is the best initial course of action for managing her fasting glucose level?

      Your Answer: Insulin

      Explanation:

      Immediate insulin (with or without metformin) should be initiated if the fasting glucose level is >= 7 mmol/l at the time of gestational diabetes diagnosis. This is the appropriate course of action, as relying solely on diet and exercise advice would not be sufficient given the patient’s high fasting glucose level. It is important to monitor glucose levels regularly while managing gestational diabetes, but when the fasting glucose level is >7 mmol/L at diagnosis, insulin therapy should be started. Sulfonylureas like gliclazide are not recommended during pregnancy due to the increased risk of fetal macrosomia.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

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  • Question 13 - A 25-year-old woman presents to the emergency department at 37 weeks of pregnancy...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to the emergency department at 37 weeks of pregnancy with a chief complaint of feeling unwell and having a fever. Upon examination, she is found to have a temperature of 38ºC and a heart rate of 110 bpm. The fetus is also tachycardic. The patient reports experiencing urinary incontinence three weeks ago, followed by some discharge, but denies any other symptoms. What is the probable cause of her current condition?

      Your Answer: Chorioamnionitis

      Explanation:

      When dealing with preterm premature rupture of membranes (PPROM), it’s important to consider the possibility of chorioamnionitis in women who exhibit a combination of maternal pyrexia, maternal tachycardia, and fetal tachycardia. While other conditions like pelvic inflammatory disease and urinary tract infections may also be considered, chorioamnionitis is the most probable diagnosis. Immediate cesarean section and intravenous antibiotics will likely be necessary.

      Understanding Chorioamnionitis

      Chorioamnionitis is a serious medical condition that can affect both the mother and the foetus during pregnancy. It is caused by a bacterial infection that affects the amniotic fluid, membranes, and placenta. This condition is considered a medical emergency and can be life-threatening if not treated promptly. It is more likely to occur when the membranes rupture prematurely, but it can also happen when the membranes are still intact.

      Prompt delivery of the foetus is crucial in treating chorioamnionitis, and a cesarean section may be necessary. Intravenous antibiotics are also administered to help fight the infection. This condition affects up to 5% of all pregnancies, and it is important for pregnant women to be aware of the symptoms and seek medical attention immediately if they suspect they may have chorioamnionitis.

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  • Question 14 - A 29-year-old woman presents to the clinic with concerns about her pregnancy. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman presents to the clinic with concerns about her pregnancy. She is currently at 30 weeks gestation and reports that her pregnancy has been going smoothly thus far. However, over the past few days, she has noticed a decrease in fetal movement. She denies any recent illnesses or feeling unwell and has no significant medical history. On obstetric abdominal examination, there are no notable findings and the patient appears to be in good health. What is the recommended initial management in this case?

      Your Answer: Cardiotocography for 20 minutes

      Correct Answer: Handheld Doppler

      Explanation:

      When a pregnant woman reports reduced fetal movements after 28 weeks of gestation, the first step recommended by the RCOG guidelines is to use a handheld Doppler to confirm the fetal heartbeat. If the heartbeat cannot be detected, an ultrasound should be offered immediately. However, if a heartbeat is detected, cardiotocography should be used to monitor the heart rate for 20 minutes. Fetal blood sampling is not necessary in this situation. Referral to a fetal medicine unit would only be necessary if no movements had been felt by 24 weeks.

      Understanding Reduced Fetal Movements

      Introduction:
      Reduced fetal movements can indicate fetal distress and are a response to chronic hypoxia in utero. This can lead to stillbirth and fetal growth restriction. It is believed that placental insufficiency may also be linked to reduced fetal movements.

      Physiology:
      Quickening is the first onset of fetal movements, which usually occurs between 18-20 weeks gestation and increases until 32 weeks gestation. Multiparous women may experience fetal movements sooner. Fetal movements should not reduce towards the end of pregnancy. There is no established definition for what constitutes reduced fetal movements, but less than 10 movements within 2 hours (in pregnancies past 28 weeks gestation) is an indication for further assessment.

      Epidemiology:
      Reduced fetal movements affect up to 15% of pregnancies, with 3-5% of pregnant women having recurrent presentations with RFM. Fetal movements should be established by 24 weeks gestation.

      Risk factors for reduced fetal movements:
      Posture, distraction, placental position, medication, fetal position, body habitus, amniotic fluid volume, and fetal size can all affect fetal movement awareness.

      Investigations:
      Fetal movements are usually based on maternal perception, but can also be objectively assessed using handheld Doppler or ultrasonography. Investigations are dependent on gestation at onset of RFM. If concern remains, despite normal CTG, urgent (within 24 hours) ultrasound can be used.

      Prognosis:
      Reduced fetal movements can represent fetal distress, but in 70% of pregnancies with a single episode of reduced fetal movement, there is no onward complication. However, between 40-55% of women who suffer from stillbirth experience reduced fetal movements prior to diagnosis. Recurrent RFM requires further investigations to consider structural or genetic fetal abnormalities.

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  • Question 15 - During routine antenatal swabs, a mother is found to be colonised with Group...

    Correct

    • During routine antenatal swabs, a mother is found to be colonised with Group B Streptococcus. However, she did not receive adequate intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis and she delivers a healthy baby boy by vaginal delivery. Her baby does not require any resuscitation and remains well in the postnatal ward. The mother is keen to be discharged home. What is the best course of action for her child?

      Your Answer: Regular observations for 24 hours

      Explanation:

      If a mother is colonized with group B streptococcus, there is a slight risk of early onset sepsis in the newborn. If a newborn has only one minor risk factor for early onset sepsis, they should be kept in the hospital for at least 24 hours and monitored closely. If there are two or more minor risk factors or one red flag, the newborn should receive empirical antibiotic therapy with Benzylpenicillin and Gentamicin and undergo a full septic screen. Red flags include suspected or confirmed infection in another baby in the case of a multiple pregnancy, parenteral antibiotic treatment given to the woman for confirmed or suspected invasive bacterial infection during labor or in the 24-hour periods before and after birth (excluding intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis), respiratory distress starting more than 4 hours after birth, seizures, need for mechanical ventilation in a term baby, and signs of shock.

      Group B Streptococcus (GBS) is a common cause of severe infection in newborns. It is estimated that 20-40% of mothers carry GBS in their bowel flora, which can be passed on to their infants during labor and lead to serious infections. Prematurity, prolonged rupture of membranes, previous sibling GBS infection, and maternal pyrexia are all risk factors for GBS infection. The Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has published guidelines on GBS management, which include not offering universal screening for GBS to all women and not offering screening based on maternal request. Women who have had GBS detected in a previous pregnancy should be offered intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis (IAP) or testing in late pregnancy and antibiotics if still positive. IAP should also be offered to women with a previous baby with GBS disease, women in preterm labor, and women with a fever during labor. Benzylpenicillin is the preferred antibiotic for GBS prophylaxis.

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  • Question 16 - A 30-year-old multiparous female at 10 weeks gestation visits her general practitioner to...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old multiparous female at 10 weeks gestation visits her general practitioner to book her pregnancy. She has a history of gestational diabetes and returns the next day for an oral glucose tolerance test. Her blood results show a fasting glucose level of 7.2 mmol/L and a 2-hour glucose level of 8.9 mmol/L. What is the recommended course of action based on these findings?

      Your Answer: Patient to be started on insulin

      Explanation:

      If the fasting glucose level is equal to or greater than 7 mmol/l at the time of gestational diabetes diagnosis, immediate administration of insulin (with or without metformin) is necessary. For patients with a fasting plasma glucose level below 7.0 mmol/L, a trial of diet and exercise with follow-up in 1-2 weeks is appropriate. Within a week of diagnosis, the patient should be seen in a joint antenatal and diabetic clinic. Statins are not recommended during pregnancy due to potential congenital abnormalities resulting from reduced cholesterol synthesis. Sitagliptin, a DPP-4 inhibitor, is also not recommended for use during pregnancy or breastfeeding.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

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  • Question 17 - You are asked to review a 32-year-old woman, who is breastfeeding on day...

    Correct

    • You are asked to review a 32-year-old woman, who is breastfeeding on day two post-emergency Caesarean section, because her wound is tender. On examination, you notice that the skin surrounding the wound is erythematosus, with a small amount of yellow discharge. There is no wound dehiscence. The area is tender on examination. Observations are stable, and the patient is apyrexial. You send a swab from the wound for culture. She has an allergy to penicillin.
      Which of the following is the best next step in this patient’s management?

      Your Answer: Oral erythromycin

      Explanation:

      Treatment of Cellulitis in Post-Caesarean Section Patient

      Cellulitis around the Caesarean wound site requires prompt treatment to prevent the development of sepsis, especially in postpartum women. The initial steps include wound swab for culture and sensitivities, marking the area of cellulitis, and analgesia. Flucloxacillin is the first-line antibiotic for cellulitis, but oral erythromycin is recommended for patients with penicillin allergy. The dose of erythromycin is 500 mg four times a day orally for five to seven days, and it is safe during breastfeeding. Topical treatment is not as effective as systemic treatment, and analgesia is necessary to manage pain. Antibiotics should not be delayed until culture sensitivities are available, and intravenous antibiotics are not indicated unless the patient’s condition deteriorates. Close monitoring of symptoms, observations, and inflammatory markers should guide treatment.

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  • Question 18 - A 38-year-old woman, G1P0, presents with constant pelvic pain at 33 weeks’ gestation....

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman, G1P0, presents with constant pelvic pain at 33 weeks’ gestation. The pain started in early morning and has an intensity of 9/10. There is frequent, intermittent uterine contraction, but no vaginal bleeding. Vital signs are blood pressure of 110/70 and heart rate of 90 bpm. Respiratory rate and body temperature are within normal limits. Investigations revealed a diminished platelet count. D-dimer is elevated. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT) are increased. Schistocytes are noted in the peripheral blood smear.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pelvic thrombophlebitis

      Correct Answer: Placental abruption

      Explanation:

      This pregnant woman is experiencing painful uterine contractions and has developed disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), which is characterized by thrombocytopenia, increased PT and PTT, elevated D-dimer, and the presence of schistocytes in a peripheral blood smear. Although she is not experiencing vaginal bleeding, the most likely cause of her DIC is placental abruption, which can occur without visible bleeding. Placental abruption presents with sudden-onset abdominal pain, contractions, vaginal bleeding, and decreased fetal movement. If there is any fetal or maternal compromise, the fetus needs to be delivered by Caesarean section as soon as possible to prevent fetal or maternal demise. DIC can present with bleeding from multiple sites, extensive bruising, low blood pressure, reduced capillary refill time, or sudden onset of high temperature, general malaise, and purpura. Management includes removing the precipitant (e.g., retained placenta) and blood products such as fibrinogen and cryoprecipitate. Other potential causes of DIC, such as lower limb deep venous thrombosis, pelvic thrombophlebitis, urinary tract infection, and sepsis, are less likely in this pregnant woman in the third trimester.

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  • Question 19 - A woman who is positive for hepatitis B serology and surface antigen gives...

    Correct

    • A woman who is positive for hepatitis B serology and surface antigen gives birth to a healthy baby girl. What treatment should be provided to the newborn?

      Your Answer: Hep B vaccine and 0.5 millilitres of HBIG within 12 hours of birth with a further hepatitis vaccine at 1-2 months and a further vaccine at 6 months

      Explanation:

      When babies are born to mothers who are hepatitis B surface antigen positive or are at high risk of developing hepatitis B, they should receive the first dose of the hepatitis B vaccine shortly after birth. Additionally, babies born to surface antigen positive mothers should receive 0.5 millilitres of hepatitis B immunoglobulin within 12 hours of birth. The second and third doses of the hepatitis B vaccine should be given at 1-2 months and 6 months, respectively.

      Hepatitis B and Pregnancy: Screening and Prevention

      During pregnancy, all women are offered screening for hepatitis B. If a mother is found to be chronically infected with hepatitis B or has had acute hepatitis B during pregnancy, it is important that her baby receives a complete course of vaccination and hepatitis B immunoglobulin. Currently, studies are being conducted to evaluate the effectiveness of oral antiviral treatment, such as Lamivudine, in the latter part of pregnancy.

      There is little evidence to suggest that a caesarean section reduces the risk of vertical transmission of hepatitis B. However, it is important to note that hepatitis B cannot be transmitted through breastfeeding, unlike HIV. It is crucial for pregnant women to undergo screening for hepatitis B to ensure the health and safety of both the mother and the baby. With proper prevention and treatment, the risk of transmission can be greatly reduced.

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  • Question 20 - A 32-year-old woman gives birth to her second child. The baby is born...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman gives birth to her second child. The baby is born via normal vaginal delivery and weighs 3.8 kg. The baby has a normal Newborn and Infant Physical Examination (NIPE) after birth and the mother recovers well following the delivery. The mother wishes to breastfeed her baby and is supported to do so by the midwives on the ward.

      They are visited at home by the health visitor two weeks later. The health visitor asks how they have been getting on and the mother explains that she has been experiencing problems with breastfeeding and that her baby often struggles to latch on to her breast. She explains that this has made her very anxious that she is doing something wrong and has made her feel like she is failing as a mother. When her baby does manage to latch on to feed he occasionally gets reflux and vomits afterward. The health visitor weighs the baby who is now 3.4kg.

      What is the next most appropriate step?

      Your Answer: Refer her to a midwife-led breastfeeding clinic

      Explanation:

      If a baby loses more than 10% of its birth weight, it is necessary to refer the mother and baby to a midwife for assistance in increasing the baby’s weight.

      Breastfeeding Problems and Their Management

      Breastfeeding is a natural process, but it can come with its own set of challenges. Some of the minor problems that breastfeeding mothers may encounter include frequent feeding, nipple pain, blocked ducts, and nipple candidiasis. These issues can be managed by seeking advice on proper positioning, trying breast massage, and using appropriate medication.

      Mastitis is a more serious problem that affects around 1 in 10 breastfeeding women. It is characterized by symptoms such as fever, nipple fissure, and persistent pain. Treatment involves the use of antibiotics, such as flucloxacillin, for 10-14 days. Breastfeeding or expressing milk should continue during treatment to prevent complications such as breast abscess.

      Breast engorgement is another common problem that causes breast pain in breastfeeding women. It occurs in the first few days after birth and affects both breasts. Hand expression of milk can help relieve the discomfort of engorgement. Raynaud’s disease of the nipple is a less common problem that causes nipple pain and blanching. Treatment involves minimizing exposure to cold, using heat packs, and avoiding caffeine and smoking.

      If a breastfed baby loses more than 10% of their birth weight in the first week of life, it may be a sign of poor weight gain. This should prompt consideration of the above breastfeeding problems and an expert review of feeding. Monitoring of weight should continue until weight gain is satisfactory.

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  • Question 21 - A 23-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with her partner, complaining of...

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with her partner, complaining of severe abdominal pain that has worsened over the past few hours. She has vomited twice and feels lightheaded. Upon examination, she experiences tenderness in the left iliac fossa. Her vital signs are stable, except for a mild tachycardia. A urine pregnancy test confirms her pregnancy. An ultrasound performed by the Obstetrics SHO reveals an empty uterus but shows a 40mm pregnancy in her left fallopian tube. What is the appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: She should be taken to theatre for surgical management

      Explanation:

      If an ectopic pregnancy is larger than 35mm or has a serum B-hCG level exceeding 5,000 IU/L, surgical intervention is necessary. The patient in this scenario is experiencing symptoms such as pain and dizziness, and her tachycardia indicates a risk of instability. While she is currently stable, surgical management should be performed promptly. A laparotomy is not immediately necessary, but the procedure should be carried out as soon as possible. Waiting for a blood hCG is unnecessary, and medical management is not appropriate.

      Ectopic pregnancy is a serious condition that requires prompt investigation and management. Women who are stable are typically investigated and managed in an early pregnancy assessment unit, while those who are unstable should be referred to the emergency department. The investigation of choice for ectopic pregnancy is a transvaginal ultrasound, which will confirm the presence of a positive pregnancy test.

      There are three ways to manage ectopic pregnancies: expectant management, medical management, and surgical management. The choice of management will depend on various criteria, such as the size of the ectopic pregnancy, whether it is ruptured or not, and the patient’s symptoms and hCG levels. Expectant management involves closely monitoring the patient over 48 hours, while medical management involves giving the patient methotrexate and requires follow-up. Surgical management can involve salpingectomy or salpingostomy, depending on the patient’s risk factors for infertility.

      Salpingectomy is the first-line treatment for women without other risk factors for infertility, while salpingostomy should be considered for women with contralateral tube damage. However, around 1 in 5 women who undergo a salpingostomy require further treatment, such as methotrexate and/or a salpingectomy. It is important to carefully consider the patient’s individual circumstances and make a decision that will provide the best possible outcome.

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  • Question 22 - A 20-year-old primigravida at 8 weeks comes in with suprapubic pain and vaginal...

    Correct

    • A 20-year-old primigravida at 8 weeks comes in with suprapubic pain and vaginal bleeding. She has passed tissue through her vagina and blood is pooled in the vaginal area. The cervix is closed and an ultrasound reveals an empty uterine cavity. What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Complete miscarriage

      Explanation:

      A complete miscarriage occurs when the entire fetus is spontaneously aborted and expelled through the cervix. Once the fetus has been expelled, the pain and uterine contractions typically cease. An ultrasound can confirm that the uterus is now empty.

      Miscarriage is a common complication that can occur in up to 25% of all pregnancies. There are different types of miscarriage, each with its own set of symptoms and characteristics. Threatened miscarriage is painless vaginal bleeding that occurs before 24 weeks, typically at 6-9 weeks. The bleeding is usually less than menstruation, and the cervical os is closed. Missed or delayed miscarriage is when a gestational sac containing a dead fetus is present before 20 weeks, without the symptoms of expulsion. The mother may experience light vaginal bleeding or discharge, and the symptoms of pregnancy may disappear. Pain is not usually a feature, and the cervical os is closed. Inevitable miscarriage is characterized by heavy bleeding with clots and pain, and the cervical os is open. Incomplete miscarriage occurs when not all products of conception have been expelled, and there is pain and vaginal bleeding. The cervical os is open in this type of miscarriage.

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  • Question 23 - A 28-year-old woman has been diagnosed with gestational diabetes mellitus and is referred...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman has been diagnosed with gestational diabetes mellitus and is referred to the joint antenatal and diabetic clinic. She is currently 25 weeks pregnant and this is her first pregnancy. Her family has no history of pregnancy-related problems, but her father has type 1 diabetes mellitus. On examination, her BMI is 32 kg/m² and otherwise normal. What diagnostic test would confirm her condition?

      Your Answer: Fasting plasma glucose >= 5.6 mmol/L

      Explanation:

      Gestational diabetes can be diagnosed if the patient has a fasting glucose level of 5.6 mmol/L or higher, or a 2-hour glucose level of 7.8 mmol/L or higher. This diagnosis is typically made during an oral glucose tolerance test around 24 weeks into the pregnancy for women with risk factors, such as a high BMI or a first-degree relative with diabetes mellitus. In this patient’s case, she was diagnosed with gestational diabetes mellitus during her first pregnancy due to her risk factors. Therefore, the correct answer is a fasting plasma glucose level above 5.6 mmol/L. It is important to note that a 2-hour glucose level above 5.6 mmol/L is not diagnostic of gestational diabetes mellitus, and random plasma glucose tests are not used for diagnosis. Glucose targets for women with gestational diabetes mellitus include a 2-hour glucose level of 6.4 mmol/L after mealtime and a 1-hour glucose level of 7.8 mmol/L after mealtime.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

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  • Question 24 - A 32-year-old primiparous woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus is at 12 weeks’...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old primiparous woman with type 1 diabetes mellitus is at 12 weeks’ gestation and attended for her nuchal scan. She is currently on insulin treatment. Her HbA1c at booking was 34 mmol/mol (recommended at pregnancy < 48 mmol/mol).
      What is the most appropriate antenatal care for pregnant women with pre-existing diabetes?

      Your Answer: Women with diabetes should be offered serial fetal scanning from 26 weeks’ gestation every four weeks

      Correct Answer: Women with diabetes should be seen in the Joint Diabetes and Antenatal Clinic every one to two weeks throughout their pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Guidelines for Managing Diabetes in Pregnancy

      Managing diabetes in pregnancy requires close monitoring to reduce the risk of maternal and fetal complications. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided guidelines for healthcare professionals to follow when caring for women with diabetes during pregnancy.

      Joint Diabetes and Antenatal Clinic Visits

      Women with diabetes should be seen in a Joint Diabetes and Antenatal Clinic every one to two weeks throughout their pregnancy. This ensures that any problems are addressed promptly and appropriately.

      Serial Fetal Scanning

      Women with diabetes should be offered serial fetal scanning from 26 weeks’ gestation every four weeks. This helps to monitor and prevent complications such as macrosomia, polyhydramnios, stillbirth, and congenital anomalies.

      Delivery by Induction of Labour or Caesarean Section

      Women with diabetes should be advised to deliver by induction of labour or Caesarean section between 38 and 39+6 weeks’ gestation. This is because diabetes is associated with an increased risk of stillbirth, and the risk is managed by inducing labour when the pregnancy reaches term.

      Induction at 41+6 Weeks’ Gestation

      Women with diabetes who do not opt for an elective induction or a Caesarean section between 37+0 to 38+6 weeks’ gestation and wish to await spontaneous labour should be warned of the risks of stillbirth and neonatal complications. In cases of prolonged pregnancy, the patient should be offered induction by, at most, 40+6 weeks’ gestation.

      Retinal Assessment

      All women with pre-existing diabetes should be offered retinal assessment at 16–20 weeks’ gestation. If initial screening is normal, then they are offered a second retinal screening test at 28 weeks’ gestation. If the booking retinal screening is abnormal, then a repeat retinal screening test is offered to these women earlier than 28 weeks, usually between 16 and 20 weeks’ gestation.

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  • Question 25 - You are a healthcare professional in obstetrics & gynaecology. A 27-year-old female patient...

    Correct

    • You are a healthcare professional in obstetrics & gynaecology. A 27-year-old female patient has come to the early pregnancy assessment clinic complaining of light vaginal spotting and lower abdominal pain that has been present for 48 hours. She had taken a home pregnancy test 6 weeks ago, which was positive, and her last menstrual period was 8 weeks ago. A transvaginal ultrasound was performed, but no intrauterine pregnancy was detected. The serum βHCG results show a level of 3,662 IU per ml. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Ectopic pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Understanding Ectopic Pregnancy

      Ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus. This condition is characterized by lower abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding, typically occurring 6-8 weeks after the start of the last period. The pain is usually constant and may be felt on one side of the abdomen due to tubal spasm. Vaginal bleeding is usually less than a normal period and may be dark brown in color. Other symptoms may include shoulder tip pain, pain on defecation/urination, dizziness, fainting, or syncope. Breast tenderness may also be reported.

      During examination, abdominal tenderness and cervical excitation may be observed. However, it is not recommended to examine for an adnexal mass due to the risk of rupturing the pregnancy. Instead, a pelvic examination to check for cervical excitation is recommended. In cases of pregnancy of unknown location, serum bHCG levels >1,500 may indicate an ectopic pregnancy. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if ectopic pregnancy is suspected as it can be life-threatening.

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  • Question 26 - A 29-year-old primigravida is currently in labor for ten hours and has progressed...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old primigravida is currently in labor for ten hours and has progressed through the first stage without any complications. However, the midwife has observed CTG abnormalities and palpated the umbilical cord. The obstetric registrar is called and upon checking the CTG, variable decelerations are noted. What is the primary course of action for addressing the cause of these decelerations?

      Your Answer: O'Sullivan's manoeuvre

      Correct Answer: Place hand into vagina to elevate presenting part

      Explanation:

      The situation involves cord prolapse leading to cord compression and variable decelerations on the CTG. The RCOG has issued guidelines (Green-top Guidelines No.50) for managing cord prolapse. The guidelines recommend elevating the presenting part either manually or by filling the urinary bladder to prevent cord compression. If fetal heart rate anomalies persist despite using mechanical methods to prevent compression, tocolysis (such as terbutaline) can be considered while preparing for a caesarean section.

      Understanding Umbilical Cord Prolapse

      Umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that can occur during delivery. It happens when the umbilical cord descends ahead of the presenting part of the fetus, which can lead to compression or spasm of the cord. This can cause fetal hypoxia and potentially irreversible damage or death. Certain factors increase the risk of cord prolapse, such as prematurity, multiparity, polyhydramnios, twin pregnancy, cephalopelvic disproportion, and abnormal presentations like breech or transverse lie.

      Around half of all cord prolapses occur when the membranes are artificially ruptured. Diagnosis is usually made when the fetal heart rate becomes abnormal and the cord is palpable vaginally or visible beyond the introitus. Cord prolapse is an obstetric emergency that requires immediate management. The presenting part of the fetus may be pushed back into the uterus to avoid compression, and the cord should be kept warm and moist to prevent vasospasm. The patient may be asked to go on all fours or assume the left lateral position until preparations for an immediate caesarian section have been carried out. Tocolytics may be used to reduce uterine contractions, and retrofilling the bladder with saline can help elevate the presenting part. Although caesarian section is the usual first-line method of delivery, an instrumental vaginal delivery may be possible if the cervix is fully dilated and the head is low.

      In conclusion, umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that requires prompt recognition and management. Understanding the risk factors and appropriate interventions can help reduce the incidence of fetal mortality associated with this condition.

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  • Question 27 - A woman experiences a significant post-partum haemorrhage leading to shock. Subsequently, she develops...

    Incorrect

    • A woman experiences a significant post-partum haemorrhage leading to shock. Subsequently, she develops a visual field defect and severe headache. What are the most probable complications that may arise?

      Your Answer: Eclampsia

      Correct Answer: Sheehan’s syndrome

      Explanation:

      Peripartum Complications: Sheehan’s Syndrome, Eclampsia, and Other Causes of Headache and Visual Disturbances

      Peripartum complications can present with a variety of symptoms, including headache and visual disturbances. Sheehan’s syndrome is a condition that results from pituitary infarction due to haemorrhagic shock during labour and the peripartum period. It typically affects the anterior pituitary, leading to hormonal deficiencies that may present acutely or more indolently. Hormone replacement is the mainstay of treatment.

      Eclampsia is another peripartum complication that can cause high blood pressure and seizures, sometimes leading to loss of consciousness. It requires urgent medical attention.

      Other causes of headache and visual disturbances in the peripartum period include subarachnoid haemorrhage, which may present with sudden onset headache and visual disturbances, and extradural haemorrhage, which is typically found in trauma adjacent to fractures of the temporal bone. Occipital haemorrhagic infarction can also cause these symptoms, but a visual field defect is more suggestive of Sheehan’s syndrome.

      It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these potential complications and to promptly evaluate and manage them to ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and baby.

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  • Question 28 - A 24-year-old woman presents to the labour suite after being admitted 45 minutes...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old woman presents to the labour suite after being admitted 45 minutes ago. She is unsure of her gestational age but believes she is around 8 months pregnant based on her positive pregnancy test. She has not received any antenatal care and is currently homeless due to a violent relationship. The patient has been experiencing contractions for the past 3 hours and her waters broke 5 hours ago. Upon examination, her cervix is soft, anterior, 90% effaced, and dilated to 7 cm. The foetus is in a breech position with the presenting part at station 0 and engaged. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Put out a 2222 call and prepare for a crash category 1 caesarean section

      Correct Answer: Arrange caesarean section within 75 minutes

      Explanation:

      A category 2 caesarean section is the best management for a woman with an undiagnosed breech birth in labour who is not fully dilated. The decision to perform the caesarean section should be made within 75 minutes and the procedure should be arranged accordingly. Adopting an all-fours position or attempting external cephalic version with enhanced monitoring are not appropriate in this case. McRoberts manoeuvre is also not the correct management for breech birth.

      Caesarean Section: Types, Indications, and Risks

      Caesarean section, also known as C-section, is a surgical procedure that involves delivering a baby through an incision in the mother’s abdomen and uterus. In recent years, the rate of C-section has increased significantly due to an increased fear of litigation. There are two main types of C-section: lower segment C-section, which comprises 99% of cases, and classic C-section, which involves a longitudinal incision in the upper segment of the uterus.

      C-section may be indicated for various reasons, including absolute cephalopelvic disproportion, placenta praevia grades 3/4, pre-eclampsia, post-maturity, IUGR, fetal distress in labor/prolapsed cord, failure of labor to progress, malpresentations, placental abruption, vaginal infection, and cervical cancer. The urgency of C-section may be categorized into four categories, with Category 1 being the most urgent and Category 4 being elective.

      It is important for clinicians to inform women of the serious and frequent risks associated with C-section, including emergency hysterectomy, need for further surgery, admission to intensive care unit, thromboembolic disease, bladder injury, ureteric injury, and death. C-section may also increase the risk of uterine rupture, antepartum stillbirth, placenta praevia, and placenta accreta in subsequent pregnancies. Other complications may include persistent wound and abdominal discomfort, increased risk of repeat C-section, readmission to hospital, haemorrhage, infection, and fetal lacerations.

      Vaginal birth after C-section (VBAC) may be an appropriate method of delivery for pregnant women with a single previous C-section delivery, except for those with previous uterine rupture or classical C-section scar. The success rate of VBAC is around 70-75%.

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  • Question 29 - On a night shift at the labour ward, the nursing staff pulls the...

    Correct

    • On a night shift at the labour ward, the nursing staff pulls the emergency cord for a patient who is experiencing bleeding after giving birth. The severity of the postpartum hemorrhage can be determined based on the amount of blood loss and the time elapsed since delivery. What is the defining parameter for a major primary postpartum hemorrhage?

      Your Answer: Blood loss > 1000mls, within 24 hours of delivery

      Explanation:

      Understanding Post-Partum Haemorrhage: Types and Management

      Post-partum haemorrhage (PPH) is a common complication of childbirth that can lead to serious maternal morbidity and mortality. There are two types of PPH: primary and secondary. Primary PPH occurs within 24 hours of delivery and is further classified as major or minor based on the amount of blood loss. Major PPH is defined as bleeding from the genital tract with an estimated blood loss of >1000mls, while minor PPH is defined as blood loss <1000mls within 24 hours of delivery. The most common cause of primary PPH is uterine atony. Secondary PPH, on the other hand, occurs from 24 hours until 12 weeks post-partum and is characterized by abnormal bleeding from the genital tract. Any bleeding from 24 hours until 36 hours post-partum with blood loss >500mls is considered secondary PPH.

      Management of PPH centers around adequate resuscitation, bimanual uterine compression to stimulate contraction, and the use of IV oxytocin. While obstetric haemorrhage is no longer a major cause of maternal death in developed countries, it remains a significant problem in developing countries. Understanding the types and management of PPH is crucial in preventing maternal morbidity and mortality.

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  • Question 30 - A 28-year-old primigravida 1+0 arrives at 35 weeks gestation with a blood pressure...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old primigravida 1+0 arrives at 35 weeks gestation with a blood pressure reading of 165/120 mmHg and 3+ proteinuria on dipstick testing. She had a stable blood pressure of approximately 115/75mmHg before becoming pregnant, and her only medical history is well-managed asthma. Which of the following statements is correct regarding her treatment?

      Your Answer: Following treatment with nifedipine into the post-natal period, the patient should be advised not to breastfeed

      Correct Answer: In induced labour, epidural anaesthesia should help reduce blood pressure

      Explanation:

      1. The only effective treatment for pre-eclampsia is delivery, while IV magnesium sulphate is administered to prevent seizures in eclampsia.
      2. Delivery on the same day is a viable option after 34 weeks.
      3. Nifedipine is considered safe for breastfeeding mothers. (However, labetalol is the preferred antihypertensive medication, as beta-blockers should be avoided in patients with a history of asthma.)
      4. Epidural anaesthesia can help lower blood pressure.
      5. It is important to continue hypertension treatment during labour to manage blood pressure levels. Please refer to the NICE guideline on the diagnosis and management of hypertension in pregnancy for further information.

      Pre-eclampsia is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to complications such as eclampsia, neurological issues, fetal growth problems, liver involvement, and cardiac failure. Severe pre-eclampsia is marked by hypertension, proteinuria, headache, visual disturbances, and other symptoms. Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include hypertension in a previous pregnancy, chronic kidney disease, autoimmune disease, diabetes, chronic hypertension, first pregnancy, and age over 40. Aspirin may be recommended for women with high or moderate risk factors. Treatment involves emergency assessment, admission for observation, and medication such as labetalol, nifedipine, or hydralazine. Delivery of the baby is the most important step in management, with timing depending on the individual case.

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  • Question 31 - Which of the following events during pregnancy can potentially sensitize a RhD-negative woman...

    Correct

    • Which of the following events during pregnancy can potentially sensitize a RhD-negative woman and necessitate the administration of anti-D?

      Your Answer: Previously non-sensitised 16 weeks pregnant woman undergoing amniocentesis

      Explanation:

      Sensitization occurs when fetal red blood cells, which are RhD-positive, enter the bloodstream of a mother who is RhD-negative. This can lead to the formation of antibodies in the mother’s circulation that can destroy fetal red blood cells, causing complications such as hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn in subsequent pregnancies where the fetus is RhD-positive. To reduce the risk of sensitization, anti-D immunoglobulin is administered in situations where there is a likelihood of fetomaternal hemorrhage. Anti-D works by neutralizing RhD-antigens from fetal red cells, but it cannot reverse sensitization if the mother already has antibodies in her circulation. Prophylactic anti-D is given to non-sensitized RhD-negative women at 28 and 34 weeks to prevent small fetomaternal hemorrhages in the absence of a known sensitizing event. Various events during pregnancy, such as vaginal bleeding, chorionic villus sampling, and abdominal trauma, can potentially cause sensitization. Source: RCOG. Rhesus D prophylaxis, the use of anti-D immunoglobulin.

      Rhesus negative pregnancies can lead to the formation of anti-D IgG antibodies in the mother if she delivers a Rh +ve child, which can cause haemolysis in future pregnancies. Prevention involves testing for D antibodies and giving anti-D prophylaxis to non-sensitised Rh -ve mothers at 28 and 34 weeks. Anti-D immunoglobulin should be given within 72 hours in various situations. Tests should be done on all babies born to Rh -ve mothers, and affected fetuses may experience various complications and require treatment such as transfusions and UV phototherapy.

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  • Question 32 - A woman attends at three weeks post-delivery with her baby for the general...

    Incorrect

    • A woman attends at three weeks post-delivery with her baby for the general practitioner (GP)’s 3-week postnatal test. She had an elective Caesarean section for breech presentation and is currently breastfeeding.
      Which of the following should be deferred until six weeks after delivery?

      Your Answer: Blood pressure reading

      Correct Answer: Performing a smear test if this was delayed because of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Postnatal Check: What to Expect from Your GP

      After giving birth, it is important to have a postnatal check with your GP to ensure that you are recovering well and to address any concerns you may have. Here are some of the things you can expect during your 6-week postnatal check:

      Performing a Smear Test if Delayed Because of Pregnancy
      If you were due for a routine smear test during pregnancy, it will be deferred until at least three months post-delivery. This is to avoid misinterpreting cell changes that occur during pregnancy and to identify any precancerous changes in the cells of the cervix.

      Assessment of Mood
      Your GP will assess your mood and any psychological disturbance you may be experiencing. This is an opportunity to screen for postnatal depression and identify any need for additional support.

      Assessing Surgical Wound Healing and/or the Perineum if Required
      Depending on the mode of delivery, your GP will assess the healing of any surgical wounds or perineal tears. They will also check for signs of infection or abnormal healing.

      Blood Pressure Reading
      Your GP will perform a blood pressure reading, especially if you had hypertension during pregnancy. Urinalysis may also be performed if you had pre-eclampsia or signs of a urinary tract infection.

      Discussion of Contraceptive Options
      Your GP will discuss family planning and the need for additional contraception, as required. This is important to prevent unintended pregnancies, especially if you are not exclusively breastfeeding.

      Overall, the 6-week postnatal check is an important part of your recovery process and ensures that you receive the necessary care and support during this time.

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  • Question 33 - A 35-year-old woman comes to the obstetric clinic during her 28th week of...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman comes to the obstetric clinic during her 28th week of pregnancy. She has been diagnosed with gestational diabetes and has been taking metformin for the past two weeks. However, her blood glucose levels are still elevated despite following a strict diet and taking the maximum dose of metformin. What is the next best course of action to manage her blood glucose levels?

      Your Answer: Add on insulin therapy

      Explanation:

      When a woman has gestational diabetes, it is important to control her blood glucose levels to prevent complications such as premature birth, stillbirth, and macrosomia. If diet and exercise changes along with metformin do not meet blood glucose targets, insulin therapy should be added, according to NICE guidelines. Sulfonylureas are not recommended for gestational diabetes as they are less effective than the metformin and insulin combination and have been shown to be teratogenic in animals. Metformin should not be stopped as it increases insulin sensitivity, which is lacking during pregnancy. SGLT-2 antagonists are also not recommended due to their teratogenic effects in animals. Continuing metformin alone for two weeks despite high blood glucose levels increases the risk of complications, so insulin therapy should be added at this stage.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 34 - A 35-year-old primigravida, at 39+3 weeks’ gestation, presented to the Labour Ward in...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old primigravida, at 39+3 weeks’ gestation, presented to the Labour Ward in spontaneous labour. The midwife has asked you to review the patient, as the latter has only dilated 2 cm in the last six hours. She is now at 4 cm of cervical dilation at 10 hours since onset of labour. Cardiotocography shows no evidence of fetal distress; uterine contractions are palpable, but irregular and not very strong, and the patient’s observations are stable.
      What is the next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: No action required at present, reassess in one hour

      Correct Answer: Amniotomy and reassess by vaginal examination in two hours

      Explanation:

      Management of Prolonged First Stage of Labour: Interventions and Considerations

      When a patient experiences a prolonged first stage of labour, it is important to assess the three categories where problems could arise: Powers, Passage, and Passenger. In the case of a primigravida who is achieving less than 0.5 cm per hour over the past 6 hours, and with irregular, non-powerful contractions, the first step is to perform a vaginal examination to assess cervical dilation, fetal position and presentation, and membrane integrity. If the membranes are intact, an amniotomy or artificial rupture of membranes can be performed to accelerate the first stage of labour. Progress is then reassessed by vaginal examination after two hours. If progress remains suboptimal, an oxytocin infusion can be commenced, with analgesia taken into consideration. However, oxytocin infusion should be avoided in women with a previous Caesarean section due to the risk of uterine rupture.

      If there is no indication of fetal distress, uncontrolled haemorrhage, or other maternal complications, there is no need for a Caesarean section or instrumental delivery at present. However, if fetal distress or serious maternal complications arise, an emergency Caesarean section would be the preferred mode of delivery. In the absence of these indications, an intervention such as amniotomy should be offered early to increase the chances of a normal vaginal delivery before the patient tires. Therefore, reassessment should be done in one hour to ensure timely intervention.

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  • Question 35 - As a result of her advanced maternal age, a 43-year-old pregnant woman undergoes...

    Correct

    • As a result of her advanced maternal age, a 43-year-old pregnant woman undergoes screening for chromosomal abnormalities. If her fetus is diagnosed with trisomy 21 (Down's syndrome), what outcomes would be anticipated?

      Your Answer: Low pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A)

      Explanation:

      The ‘triple test’ can be utilized at 16 weeks, but its accuracy is lower than the ‘combined test’. Therefore, it should only be employed when screening for trisomy is conducted after 14 weeks. The test involves conducting blood tests for AFP, -HCG, and oestriol. One should note that the false positive rate may be higher with this test.

      NICE updated guidelines on antenatal care in 2021, recommending the combined test for screening for Down’s syndrome between 11-13+6 weeks. The test includes nuchal translucency measurement, serum B-HCG, and pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A). The quadruple test is offered between 15-20 weeks for women who book later in pregnancy. Results are interpreted as either a ‘lower chance’ or ‘higher chance’ of chromosomal abnormalities. If a woman receives a ‘higher chance’ result, she may be offered a non-invasive prenatal screening test (NIPT) or a diagnostic test. NIPT analyzes cell-free fetal DNA in the mother’s blood and has high sensitivity and specificity for detecting chromosomal abnormalities. Private companies offer NIPT screening from 10 weeks gestation.

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  • Question 36 - A pregnant woman who is slightly older is admitted to the Emergency department...

    Incorrect

    • A pregnant woman who is slightly older is admitted to the Emergency department with symptoms of nausea, vomiting, and lethargy. She is in her 38th week of pregnancy and has never been pregnant before. Upon examination, she appears to be clinically jaundiced and has a temperature of 37.7ºC. Her blood pressure and heart rate are normal.

      The results of her blood tests are as follows:
      - Bilirubin: 80 µmol/l
      - ALP: 240 u/l
      - ALT: 550 u/l
      - AST: 430 u/l
      - γGT: 30 u/l
      - INR: 1.8
      - Hb: 110 g/l
      - Platelets: 331 * 109/l
      - WBC: 12.5 * 109/l

      An acute viral hepatitis screen comes back negative. An urgent US doppler liver shows steatosis with patent hepatic and portal vessels. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Viral hepatitis

      Correct Answer: Acute fatty liver of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Based on the presented symptoms, the most probable diagnosis is acute fatty liver of pregnancy. This is supported by the presence of jaundice, mild fever, elevated liver function tests, increased white blood cell count, coagulopathy, and steatosis on imaging. Acute fatty liver of pregnancy typically presents with non-specific symptoms such as fatigue, malaise, and nausea, whereas cholestasis of pregnancy is characterized by severe itching. The absence of abnormalities in hemoglobin, platelet count, and viral screening makes the diagnosis of HELLP syndrome or viral hepatitis unlikely. Additionally, pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria. It is important to note that placental ALP can cause an increase in serum ALP levels during pregnancy.

      Liver Complications During Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, there are several liver complications that may arise. One of the most common is intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, which occurs in about 1% of pregnancies and is typically seen in the third trimester. Symptoms include intense itching, especially in the palms and soles, as well as elevated bilirubin levels. Treatment involves the use of ursodeoxycholic acid for relief and weekly liver function tests. Women with this condition are usually induced at 37 weeks to prevent stillbirth, although maternal morbidity is not typically increased.

      Another rare complication is acute fatty liver of pregnancy, which may occur in the third trimester or immediately after delivery. Symptoms include abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting, headache, jaundice, and hypoglycemia. Severe cases may result in pre-eclampsia. ALT levels are typically elevated, and support care is the primary management until delivery can be performed once the patient is stabilized.

      Finally, conditions such as Gilbert’s and Dubin-Johnson syndrome may be exacerbated during pregnancy. Additionally, HELLP syndrome, which stands for haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets, is a serious complication that can occur in the third trimester and requires immediate medical attention. Overall, it is important for pregnant women to be aware of these potential liver complications and to seek medical attention if any symptoms arise.

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  • Question 37 - A 35-year-old woman gives birth to twins through vaginal delivery after induction. She...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman gives birth to twins through vaginal delivery after induction. She experiences a blood loss of 800ml and continues to bleed, but her haemodynamic status remains stable. What should be the next course of action in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Uterine massage

      Explanation:

      To manage a postpartum haemorrhage, an ABC approach should be followed, which involves palpating the uterine fundus and catheterising the patient. In this case, the cause of PPH is uterine atony, which is indicated by risk factors such as induction of labour and multiple pregnancy. The ABCDE approach should be used in all emergency situations, but since the patient is haemodynamically stable, the focus should be on addressing the bleeding. According to RCOG guidelines, pharmacological and mechanical measures should be taken to stop bleeding when uterine atony is the perceived cause. Uterine massage is the most appropriate option in accordance with the guidelines.

      Understanding Postpartum Haemorrhage

      Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) is a condition where a woman experiences blood loss of more than 500 ml after giving birth vaginally. It can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary PPH occurs within 24 hours after delivery and is caused by the 4 Ts: tone, trauma, tissue, and thrombin. The most common cause is uterine atony. Risk factors for primary PPH include previous PPH, prolonged labour, pre-eclampsia, increased maternal age, emergency Caesarean section, and placenta praevia.

      In managing PPH, it is important to involve senior staff immediately and follow the ABC approach. This includes two peripheral cannulae, lying the woman flat, blood tests, and commencing a warmed crystalloid infusion. Mechanical interventions such as rubbing up the fundus and catheterisation are also done. Medical interventions include IV oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol. Surgical options such as intrauterine balloon tamponade, B-Lynch suture, ligation of uterine arteries, and hysterectomy may be considered if medical options fail to control the bleeding.

      Secondary PPH occurs between 24 hours to 6 weeks after delivery and is typically due to retained placental tissue or endometritis. It is important to understand the causes and risk factors of PPH to prevent and manage this life-threatening emergency effectively.

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  • Question 38 - Sarah is a 26-year-old woman who is 28 weeks pregnant with her first...

    Correct

    • Sarah is a 26-year-old woman who is 28 weeks pregnant with her first child. She has not felt the baby move for 2 hours. Her pregnancy has been normal, but her baby is slightly underweight for its gestational age. She visits the obstetric emergency walk-in unit at her nearby hospital.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Use a handheld doppler to auscultate the fetal heart rate

      Explanation:

      When a pregnant woman reports reduced fetal movements, the first step should be to use a handheld Doppler to confirm the fetal heartbeat. Most women start feeling the baby move around 20 weeks of gestation, and reduced movements at 30 weeks could indicate fetal distress. The Royal College of Obstetrics and Gynaecology recommends that doctors attempt to listen to the fetal heart rate in any woman with reduced fetal movements. Checking a urine sample for a UTI is not a priority in this situation, and performing an ultrasound should only be done after confirming fetal viability with a handheld Doppler. Reassuring the woman that reduced movements are normal is incorrect, as it is abnormal at this stage of pregnancy. CTG is also not necessary until fetal viability has been confirmed with a Doppler.

      Understanding Reduced Fetal Movements

      Introduction:
      Reduced fetal movements can indicate fetal distress and are a response to chronic hypoxia in utero. This can lead to stillbirth and fetal growth restriction. It is believed that placental insufficiency may also be linked to reduced fetal movements.

      Physiology:
      Quickening is the first onset of fetal movements, which usually occurs between 18-20 weeks gestation and increases until 32 weeks gestation. Multiparous women may experience fetal movements sooner. Fetal movements should not reduce towards the end of pregnancy. There is no established definition for what constitutes reduced fetal movements, but less than 10 movements within 2 hours (in pregnancies past 28 weeks gestation) is an indication for further assessment.

      Epidemiology:
      Reduced fetal movements affect up to 15% of pregnancies, with 3-5% of pregnant women having recurrent presentations with RFM. Fetal movements should be established by 24 weeks gestation.

      Risk factors for reduced fetal movements:
      Posture, distraction, placental position, medication, fetal position, body habitus, amniotic fluid volume, and fetal size can all affect fetal movement awareness.

      Investigations:
      Fetal movements are usually based on maternal perception, but can also be objectively assessed using handheld Doppler or ultrasonography. Investigations are dependent on gestation at onset of RFM. If concern remains, despite normal CTG, urgent (within 24 hours) ultrasound can be used.

      Prognosis:
      Reduced fetal movements can represent fetal distress, but in 70% of pregnancies with a single episode of reduced fetal movement, there is no onward complication. However, between 40-55% of women who suffer from stillbirth experience reduced fetal movements prior to diagnosis. Recurrent RFM requires further investigations to consider structural or genetic fetal abnormalities.

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  • Question 39 - A 31-year-old woman arrives at 36 weeks gestation in her first pregnancy. She...

    Correct

    • A 31-year-old woman arrives at 36 weeks gestation in her first pregnancy. She is admitted after experiencing a seizure following a 2 day period of intense abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and visual disturbance. Her family has a history of epilepsy. During the examination, hyperreflexia is observed. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Eclampsia

      Explanation:

      Eclampsia is a medical condition where a pregnant woman with pre-eclampsia experiences seizures. Pre-eclampsia can be identified by early signs such as high blood pressure and protein in the urine. Other symptoms may include abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, and visual disturbances. While prolonged hyperemesis gravidarum can lead to dehydration and metabolic issues that may cause seizures, this is less likely given the patient’s one-day history. There is no indication in the patient’s history to suggest any other diagnoses.

      Understanding Eclampsia and its Treatment

      Eclampsia is a condition that occurs when seizures develop in association with pre-eclampsia, a pregnancy-induced hypertension that is characterized by proteinuria and occurs after 20 weeks of gestation. To prevent seizures in patients with severe pre-eclampsia and treat seizures once they develop, magnesium sulphate is commonly used. However, it is important to note that this medication should only be given once a decision to deliver has been made. In cases of eclampsia, an IV bolus of 4g over 5-10 minutes should be given, followed by an infusion of 1g/hour. During treatment, it is crucial to monitor urine output, reflexes, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturations. Respiratory depression can occur, and calcium gluconate is the first-line treatment for magnesium sulphate-induced respiratory depression. Treatment should continue for 24 hours after the last seizure or delivery, as around 40% of seizures occur post-partum. Additionally, fluid restriction is necessary to avoid the potentially serious consequences of fluid overload.

      In summary, understanding the development of eclampsia and its treatment is crucial in managing this potentially life-threatening condition. Magnesium sulphate is the primary medication used to prevent and treat seizures, but it should only be given once a decision to deliver has been made. Monitoring vital signs and urine output is essential during treatment, and calcium gluconate should be readily available in case of respiratory depression. Finally, fluid restriction is necessary to avoid complications associated with fluid overload.

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  • Question 40 - A 46-year-old primiparous woman, who is 37 weeks pregnant, presents to the emergency...

    Correct

    • A 46-year-old primiparous woman, who is 37 weeks pregnant, presents to the emergency department with a sudden onset of painful vaginal bleeding. She had been feeling unwell for a few days, experiencing lightheadedness upon standing. Despite being pregnant, she has not sought antenatal care, except for her initial booking visit. Upon examination, her heart rate is 130 beats per minute, respiratory rate is 21 breaths per minute, and blood pressure is 96/65 mmHg. Her abdomen is tense, with a firm and fixed uterus. What is the most likely risk factor for this complication in this pregnant woman?

      Your Answer: Older age

      Explanation:

      Placental abruption is a condition that occurs when the placenta separates from the uterine wall, leading to maternal bleeding into the space between them. Although the exact cause of this condition is unknown, certain factors have been associated with it, including proteinuric hypertension, cocaine use, multiparity, maternal trauma, and increasing maternal age. Placental abruption is not a common occurrence, affecting approximately 1 in 200 pregnancies.

      The clinical features of placental abruption include shock that is disproportionate to the visible blood loss, constant pain, a tender and tense uterus, and a normal lie and presentation of the fetus. The fetal heart may be absent or distressed, and there may be coagulation problems. It is important to be aware of other conditions that may present with similar symptoms, such as pre-eclampsia, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and anuria.

      In summary, placental abruption is a serious condition that can have significant consequences for both the mother and the fetus. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms of this condition is important for early detection and appropriate management.

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  • Question 41 - A 35-year-old first-time mother is brought to the GP by her partner, who...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old first-time mother is brought to the GP by her partner, who is worried about her current mood. He reports that she has been sleeping and eating very little since the birth of their baby, which was a month ago. What would be the most appropriate course of action to take next?

      Your Answer: Ask the mother to complete the 'Edinburgh depression scale'

      Explanation:

      The Edinburgh Scale is a useful tool for screening postnatal depression. The fact that the husband is bringing his wife to the GP practice a month after giving birth suggests that her mood change is not due to baby blues, which typically resolve within three days of giving birth. It is more likely that she is suffering from postnatal depression, but it is important to assess her correctly before offering any treatment such as ECT. The Edinburgh depression scale can be used to assess the patient, with a score greater than 10 indicating possible depression. If there is no immediate harm to the mother or baby, watchful waiting is usually the first step in managing this condition. There is no indication in this question that the mother is experiencing domestic abuse.

      Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems

      Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of more than 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, with sensitivity and specificity of more than 90%. The questionnaire also includes a question about self-harm.

      ‘Baby-blues’ is seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occurs 3-7 days following birth. It is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Reassurance and support from healthcare professionals, particularly health visitors, play a key role in managing this condition. Most women with the baby blues will not require specific treatment other than reassurance.

      Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features are similar to depression seen in other circumstances, and cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial. Certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. Although these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant.

      Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and requires admission to hospital, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Onset usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth, and features include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies. Paroxetine is recommended by SIGN because of the low milk/plasma ratio, while fluoxetine is best avoided due to a long half-life.

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  • Question 42 - A 32-year-old woman who is 30 weeks pregnant presents with itch.

    On examination,...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman who is 30 weeks pregnant presents with itch.

      On examination, her abdomen is non-tender with the uterus an appropriate size for her gestation. There is no visible rash, although she is mildly jaundiced. Her heart rate is 76/min, blood pressure 130/64 mmHg, respiratory rate 18/min, oxygen saturations are 99% in air, temperature 36.9°C.

      A set of blood results reveal:
      Hb 112g/l Na+ 140 mmol/l Bilirubin 56 µmol/l Platelets 240 109/l K+ 4.2 mmol/l ALP 360 u/l WBC 8.5 109/l Urea 4.8 mmol/l ALT 86 u/l Neuts 5.9 109/l Creatinine 76 µmol/l γGT 210 u/l Lymphs 1.6 * 109/l Albumin 35 g/l

      What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      The likely diagnosis for this patient is intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, which commonly causes itching in the third trimester. This condition is characterized by elevated liver function tests (LFTs), particularly alkaline phosphatase (ALP) and gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT), with a lesser increase in alanine transaminase (ALT). Patients may also experience jaundice, right upper quadrant pain, and steatorrhea. Treatment often involves ursodeoxycholic acid. Biliary colic is unlikely due to the absence of abdominal pain. Acute fatty liver of pregnancy is rare and presents with a hepatic picture on LFTs, along with nausea, vomiting, jaundice, and potential encephalopathy. HELLP syndrome is characterized by haemolytic anaemia and low platelets, which are not present in this case. Pre-eclampsia is also unlikely as the patient does not have hypertension or other related symptoms, although late pre-eclampsia may cause hepatic derangement on LFTs.

      Liver Complications During Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, there are several liver complications that may arise. One of the most common is intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, which occurs in about 1% of pregnancies and is typically seen in the third trimester. Symptoms include intense itching, especially in the palms and soles, as well as elevated bilirubin levels. Treatment involves the use of ursodeoxycholic acid for relief and weekly liver function tests. Women with this condition are usually induced at 37 weeks to prevent stillbirth, although maternal morbidity is not typically increased.

      Another rare complication is acute fatty liver of pregnancy, which may occur in the third trimester or immediately after delivery. Symptoms include abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting, headache, jaundice, and hypoglycemia. Severe cases may result in pre-eclampsia. ALT levels are typically elevated, and support care is the primary management until delivery can be performed once the patient is stabilized.

      Finally, conditions such as Gilbert’s and Dubin-Johnson syndrome may be exacerbated during pregnancy. Additionally, HELLP syndrome, which stands for haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets, is a serious complication that can occur in the third trimester and requires immediate medical attention. Overall, it is important for pregnant women to be aware of these potential liver complications and to seek medical attention if any symptoms arise.

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  • Question 43 - A 28-year-old woman visits her GP's office and shares the news that she...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman visits her GP's office and shares the news that she has recently discovered she is pregnant. She is overjoyed and eager to proceed with the pregnancy. Currently, she is 6 weeks pregnant and feels fine without symptoms. She has no significant medical history and does not take any regular medications. She is a non-smoker and does not consume alcohol. Her BMI is 34 kg/m², and her blood pressure is 110/60 mmHg. Her urine dip is negative. She has heard that taking vitamin D and folic acid supplements can increase her chances of having a healthy pregnancy. What is the most advisable regimen for her in this situation?

      Your Answer: Vitamin D 400IU daily throughout the pregnancy, and folic acid 5mg daily for the first 12 weeks of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women who are obese (with a BMI greater than 30 kg/m²) should be prescribed a high dose of 5mg folic acid. It is recommended that all pregnant women take 400 IU of vitamin D daily throughout their pregnancy. Additionally, folic acid should be taken daily for the first 12 weeks of pregnancy, with the dosage depending on the presence of risk factors for neural tube defects such as spina bifida. If there are no risk factors, the dose is 400 micrograms daily, but if risk factors are present, the dose should be increased to 5 mg daily. As maternal obesity is a risk factor for neural tube defects, pregnant women with a BMI greater than 30 kg/m² should take the higher dose of folic acid.

      Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention

      Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. It is found in green, leafy vegetables and plays a crucial role in the transfer of 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in the synthesis of DNA and RNA. However, certain factors such as phenytoin, methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause a deficiency in folic acid. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.

      To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, it is recommended that all women take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if they or their partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with certain medical conditions such as coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, or those taking antiepileptic drugs, or who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also considered higher risk.

      In summary, folic acid is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in DNA and RNA synthesis. Deficiency in folic acid can lead to serious health consequences, including neural tube defects. However, taking folic acid supplements during pregnancy can prevent these defects and ensure a healthy pregnancy.

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  • Question 44 - A 35-year-old female presents in the emergency department. She is concerned that her...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old female presents in the emergency department. She is concerned that her waters broke earlier today and reports a sudden 'gush' that soaked her pants. She is currently 28 weeks pregnant and has had an uneventful pregnancy thus far. What is the initial investigation that should be conducted?

      Your Answer: Ultrasound

      Correct Answer: Speculum examination

      Explanation:

      To evaluate a patient with suspected premature rupture of membranes, a thorough medical history should be obtained, including the number of pregnancies. A sterile speculum examination is necessary to check for the accumulation of amniotic fluid in the posterior vaginal vault. Digital examination should be avoided to prevent infection. Serum beta-HCG is not recommended, and the patient should have had previous ultrasound scans and have confirmed her pregnancy by this stage. Ultrasound is the appropriate diagnostic tool if there is no evidence of amniotic fluid pooling in the posterior vaginal vault.

      Preterm prelabour rupture of the membranes (PPROM) is a condition that occurs in approximately 2% of pregnancies, but it is responsible for around 40% of preterm deliveries. This condition can lead to various complications, including prematurity, infection, and pulmonary hypoplasia in the fetus, as well as chorioamnionitis in the mother. To confirm PPROM, a sterile speculum examination should be performed to check for pooling of amniotic fluid in the posterior vaginal vault. However, digital examination should be avoided due to the risk of infection. If pooling of fluid is not observed, testing the fluid for placental alpha microglobulin-1 protein (PAMG-1) or insulin-like growth factor binding protein-1 is recommended. Ultrasound may also be useful to show oligohydramnios.

      The management of PPROM involves admission and regular observations to ensure that chorioamnionitis is not developing. Oral erythromycin should be given for ten days, and antenatal corticosteroids should be administered to reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome. Delivery should be considered at 34 weeks of gestation, but there is a trade-off between an increased risk of maternal chorioamnionitis and a decreased risk of respiratory distress syndrome as the pregnancy progresses. PPROM is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management to minimize the risk of complications for both the mother and the fetus.

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  • Question 45 - A 31-year-old woman arrives at the obstetric department in the initial stages of...

    Correct

    • A 31-year-old woman arrives at the obstetric department in the initial stages of labour. She is 36+4 weeks pregnant and has been experiencing polyhydramnios during this pregnancy. During examination, the foetal head is palpable on the right side of the maternal pelvis, while the buttocks are palpable on the left side. The amniotic sac remains intact. What is the best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Offer external cephalic version

      Explanation:

      The recommended course of action for a patient in early labour with a transverse foetal lie and intact amniotic sac is to offer external cephalic version (ECV) before considering other management options. Conservative management is not appropriate as it poses a high risk of maternal and foetal death. Offering an elective caesarean section is also not the first choice, as ECV should be attempted first. An immediate caesarean section is not necessary if there are no contraindications to ECV.

      Understanding Transverse Lie in Foetal Presentation

      Foetal lie refers to the position of the foetus in relation to the longitudinal axis of the uterus. There are three types of foetal lie: longitudinal, oblique, and transverse. Transverse lie is a rare abnormal foetal presentation where the foetal longitudinal axis is perpendicular to the long axis of the uterus. This means that the foetal head is on the lateral side of the pelvis, and the buttocks are opposite. Transverse lie is more common in women who have had previous pregnancies, have fibroids or other pelvic tumours, are pregnant with twins or triplets, have prematurity, polyhydramnios, or foetal abnormalities.

      Transverse lie can be detected during routine antenatal appointments through abdominal examination or ultrasound scan. Complications of transverse lie include preterm rupture membranes, cord-prolapse, and compound presentation. Management options for transverse lie depend on the gestational age of the foetus. Before 36 weeks gestation, no management is required as most foetuses will spontaneously move into longitudinal lie during pregnancy. After 36 weeks gestation, active management through external cephalic version (ECV) or elective caesarian section is necessary. ECV should be offered to all women who would like a vaginal delivery, while caesarian section is the management for women who opt for it or if ECV is unsuccessful or contraindicated. The decision to perform caesarian section over ECV will depend on various factors, including the risks to the mother and foetus, the patient’s preference, and co-morbidities.

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  • Question 46 - A 28-year-old pregnant woman with type 1 diabetes inquires about the frequency of...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old pregnant woman with type 1 diabetes inquires about the frequency of blood glucose level testing during her pregnancy.

      Your Answer: Daily 1-hour post meal test

      Correct Answer: Daily fasting, pre-meal, 1-hour post-meal and bedtime tests.

      Explanation:

      It is important for pregnant individuals with type 1 diabetes to closely monitor their blood glucose levels by testing multiple times throughout the day. This is recommended by NICE NG3.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

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  • Question 47 - A 32-year-old woman is ready to leave the postnatal ward after giving birth...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman is ready to leave the postnatal ward after giving birth to her daughter through normal vaginal delivery 12 hours ago. She asks about contraceptive options as she feels her family is complete. She has a clean medical history and had no complications during her pregnancy or labour. She has previously used the intrauterine system (IUS) and wishes to continue with it. What recommendations should she receive?

      Your Answer: She may have the IUS inserted up to 48 hours after delivery if she wishes

      Explanation:

      The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after a minimum of 4 weeks. However, it is important to note that insertion between 48 hours and 4 weeks after delivery should be avoided due to the increased risk of expulsion and lack of data on uterine perforation with newer models. In addition to general contraindications, contraindications to postpartum insertion within 48 hours include peripartum chorioamnionitis, endometritis, puerperal sepsis, or post-partum haemorrhage. Waiting a minimum of 6 weeks or 2 months after delivery is not necessary. If waiting the recommended minimum of 4 weeks, the progesterone-only pill may be used as an interim measure to reduce the risk of pregnancy.

      After giving birth, women need to use contraception after 21 days. The progesterone-only pill (POP) can be started at any time postpartum, according to the FSRH. Additional contraception should be used for the first two days after day 21. A small amount of progesterone enters breast milk, but it is not harmful to the infant. On the other hand, the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is absolutely contraindicated (UKMEC 4) if breastfeeding is less than six weeks post-partum. If breastfeeding is between six weeks and six months postpartum, it is a UKMEC 2. The COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers. It should not be used in the first 21 days due to the increased venous thromboembolism risk post-partum. After day 21, additional contraception should be used for the first seven days. The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after four weeks.

      The lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breastfeeding (no supplementary feeds), amenorrhoeic, and less than six months post-partum. It is important to note that an inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and small for gestational age babies.

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  • Question 48 - A 29-year-old woman is being monitored with cardiotocography (CTG) during her labor. What...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman is being monitored with cardiotocography (CTG) during her labor. What would be considered an 'abnormal' characteristic of the CTG tracings?

      Your Answer: Variable decelerations occurring with over 50% of contractions with response to conservative management

      Correct Answer: A single prolonged deceleration lasting 3 minutes or more

      Explanation:

      Cardiotocography (CTG) is a medical procedure that measures pressure changes in the uterus using either internal or external pressure transducers. It is used to monitor the fetal heart rate, which normally ranges between 100-160 beats per minute. There are several features that can be observed during a CTG, including baseline bradycardia (heart rate below 100 beats per minute), which can be caused by increased fetal vagal tone or maternal beta-blocker use. Baseline tachycardia (heart rate above 160 beats per minute) can be caused by maternal pyrexia, chorioamnionitis, hypoxia, or prematurity. Loss of baseline variability (less than 5 beats per minute) can be caused by prematurity or hypoxia. Early deceleration, which is a decrease in heart rate that starts with the onset of a contraction and returns to normal after the contraction, is usually harmless and indicates head compression. Late deceleration, on the other hand, is a decrease in heart rate that lags behind the onset of a contraction and does not return to normal until after 30 seconds following the end of the contraction. This can indicate fetal distress, such as asphyxia or placental insufficiency. Variable decelerations, which are independent of contractions, may indicate cord compression.

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  • Question 49 - A 29-year-old woman is admitted to the labour ward at 38+4 weeks gestation....

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman is admitted to the labour ward at 38+4 weeks gestation. This is her first pregnancy and she reports that contractions began approximately 12 hours ago. Upon examination, her cervix is positioned anteriorly, is soft, and is effaced at around 60-70%. Cervical dilation is estimated at around 3-4 cm and the fetal head is located at the level of the ischial spines. No interventions have been performed yet.
      What is the recommended intervention at this point?

      Your Answer: Vaginal prostaglandin E2

      Correct Answer: No interventions required

      Explanation:

      The patient’s cervical dilation is 3-4 cm with a fetal station of 0, and her Bishop’s score is 10. Since her labor has only been ongoing for 10 hours, no interventions are necessary. A Bishop’s score of 8 or higher indicates a high likelihood of spontaneous labor, and for first-time mothers, the first stage of labor can last up to 12 hours. If the Bishop’s score is less than 5, induction may be necessary, and vaginal prostaglandin E2 is the preferred method.

      If other methods fail to induce labor or if vaginal prostaglandin E2 is not suitable, amniotomy may be performed. However, this procedure carries the risk of infection, umbilical cord prolapse, and breech presentation if the fetal head is not engaged. Maternal oxytocin infusion may be used if labor is not progressing, but it is not appropriate in this scenario at this stage due to the risk of uterine hyperstimulation.

      A membrane sweep is a procedure where a finger is inserted vaginally and through the cervix to separate the chorionic membrane from the decidua. This is an adjunct to labor induction and is typically offered to first-time mothers at 40/41 weeks.

      Induction of labour is a process where labour is artificially started and is required in about 20% of pregnancies. It is indicated in cases of prolonged pregnancy, prelabour premature rupture of the membranes, maternal medical problems, diabetic mother over 38 weeks, pre-eclampsia, obstetric cholestasis, and intrauterine fetal death. The Bishop score is used to assess whether induction of labour is necessary and includes cervical position, consistency, effacement, dilation, and fetal station. A score of less than 5 indicates that labour is unlikely to start without induction, while a score of 8 or more indicates a high chance of spontaneous labour or response to interventions made to induce labour.

      Possible methods of induction include membrane sweep, vaginal prostaglandin E2, oral prostaglandin E1, maternal oxytocin infusion, amniotomy, and cervical ripening balloon. The NICE guidelines recommend vaginal prostaglandins or oral misoprostol if the Bishop score is less than or equal to 6, while amniotomy and an intravenous oxytocin infusion are recommended if the score is greater than 6.

      The main complication of induction of labour is uterine hyperstimulation, which refers to prolonged and frequent uterine contractions that can interrupt blood flow to the intervillous space and result in fetal hypoxemia and acidemia. Uterine rupture is a rare but serious complication. Management includes removing vaginal prostaglandins and stopping the oxytocin infusion if one has been started, and considering tocolysis.

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  • Question 50 - A 23-year-old primigravida comes for her first midwifery appointment at nine weeks’ gestation....

    Correct

    • A 23-year-old primigravida comes for her first midwifery appointment at nine weeks’ gestation. She was born in Romania and is uncertain if she has received the MMR vaccine.
      What is the indicative outcome for rubella immunity resulting from vaccination?

      Your Answer: Rubella IgM antibody negative, IgG antibody positive

      Explanation:

      Understanding Rubella Antibody Results: IgM and IgG

      Rubella, also known as German measles, is a viral infection that can cause serious complications for pregnant women and their babies. Testing for rubella antibodies can help determine if someone is immune to the virus or has recently been infected.

      A negative result for rubella IgM antibodies indicates that there is no current or recent infection. However, a positive result for rubella IgG antibodies indicates that the person has either been vaccinated or previously infected with the virus, making them immune.

      It is important for pregnant women to know their rubella antibody status, as contracting the virus during the first trimester can lead to miscarriage or congenital rubella syndrome in the baby. Women who are not immune to rubella are offered vaccination after pregnancy.

      In summary, understanding rubella antibody results can help individuals and healthcare providers make informed decisions about vaccination and pregnancy planning.

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  • Question 51 - A 35-year-old pregnant woman attends the Obstetric clinic for a routine early pregnancy...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old pregnant woman attends the Obstetric clinic for a routine early pregnancy scan. She has been struggling so far during the pregnancy, suffering from extreme, persistent nausea and vomiting. On the ultrasound scan, the image observed resembles ‘a snow storm’. The physician is concerned that this may be a complete molar pregnancy.
      What percentage of complete molar pregnancies go on to become invasive?

      Your Answer: 15%

      Explanation:

      Hydatidiform Moles and Choriocarcinoma

      Hydatidiform moles are tumours of trophoblastic villi that can be classified into two subtypes: partial and complete. Both subtypes have the potential to become invasive and develop into choriocarcinoma, a malignant trophoblastic tumour. Macroscopically, a complete molar pregnancy resembles a bunch of grapes and appears like a snowstorm on ultrasound scans. Approximately 15% of complete moles become invasive, and the incidence of subsequent choriocarcinoma is around 3%. It is crucial to remove the molar pregnancy from the patient due to the risk of invasion and carcinoma. Post-evacuation, it is essential to monitor serum human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) levels to follow up on the patient’s condition.

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  • Question 52 - A 32-year-old primiparous woman is 33+6 weeks pregnant. At her last antenatal appointment,...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old primiparous woman is 33+6 weeks pregnant. At her last antenatal appointment, she had a blood pressure reading of 152/101 mmHg. She mentions experiencing some swelling in her hands and feet but denies any other symptoms. Her urinalysis shows no protein. She has a history of asthma, which she manages with a salbutamol inhaler as needed, and depression, for which she discontinued her medication upon becoming pregnant. What is the optimal course of action?

      Your Answer: Oral nifedipine

      Explanation:

      Gestational hypertension is a condition where a woman develops high blood pressure after 20 weeks of pregnancy, without significant protein in the urine. This woman has moderate gestational hypertension, with her systolic blood pressure ranging between 150-159 mmHg and diastolic blood pressure ranging between 100-109 mmHg.

      Typically, moderate gestational hypertension does not require hospitalization and can be treated with oral labetalol. However, as this woman has a history of asthma, labetalol is not recommended. Instead, NICE guidelines suggest nifedipine or methyldopa as alternatives. Methyldopa is not recommended for patients with depression, so the best option for this woman is oral nifedipine, which is a calcium channel blocker.

      In cases of eclampsia, IV magnesium sulphate is necessary. It’s important to note that lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, is not safe for use during pregnancy.

      Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.

      There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.

      The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

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  • Question 53 - A 35-year-old primip is being evaluated on day six postpartum for unilateral breast...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old primip is being evaluated on day six postpartum for unilateral breast discomfort. The discomfort began two days ago, and despite continuing to breastfeed, it has not improved. She feels generally fatigued, but she is currently eating and drinking well.
      During the examination, you observe an erythematosus, firm, and swollen area in a wedge-shaped distribution on the right breast. There is a small crack in the nipple. The examination is painful.
      Her vital signs are stable, and her temperature is 37.5 °C.
      What is the most appropriate initial management, given the above information?

      Your Answer: Admit the patient to hospital for intravenous antibiotics and drainage

      Correct Answer: Advise her to continue breastfeeding and start empirical antibiotics

      Explanation:

      Management of Lactational Mastitis: Advice for Patients

      Lactational mastitis is a common condition that affects breastfeeding women. It is important to manage this condition promptly to prevent complications such as breast abscesses. Here are some management options for lactational mastitis:

      1. Advise her to continue breastfeeding and start empirical antibiotics: If the patient presents with lactational mastitis and has a nipple fissure, it is suggestive of an infective cause. In this case, the patient should be reassured, asked to continue breastfeeding, offered adequate analgesia, and started on empirical antibiotics.

      2. Reassure the patient, ask her to continue expressing milk and review if there is no improvement in two days: If there is no evidence of infection, reassurance and advice to continue breastfeeding, as well as simple analgesia, are a good first management option. However, if symptoms do not improve in 24 hours, then there is an indication for starting empirical antibiotics.

      3. Admit the patient to hospital for intravenous antibiotics and drainage: Admission is advisable for intravenous antibiotics and drainage if oral antibiotics fail to improve symptoms, the patient develops sepsis, or there is evidence of the development of a breast abscess.

      4. Advise her to continue breastfeeding and send a breast milk culture and treat if positive: A breast milk culture should be sent before starting antibiotics, but in this case, given the patient fulfils the criteria for starting empirical treatment, you should not delay antibiotic therapy until the breast milk culture is back.

      5. Reassure the patient, advise her to continue breastfeeding and offer simple analgesia: Reassurance, advice to continue breastfeeding, and simple analgesia are offered to women who first present with lactational mastitis. If symptoms do not improve after three days, there is an indication to offer empirical antibiotics.

      In conclusion, lactational mastitis should be managed promptly to prevent complications. Patients should be advised to continue breastfeeding, offered adequate analgesia, and started on empirical antibiotics if necessary. If symptoms do not improve, further management options should be considered.

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  • Question 54 - A 30-year-old woman, mother of three, presents on day eight postpartum with difficulties...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman, mother of three, presents on day eight postpartum with difficulties breastfeeding. She has exclusively breastfed her other two children. She tells you her baby has problems latching, is feeding for a long time and is always hungry. She has sore nipples as a result of the poor latch.
      On examination, you notice that the baby cannot bring his tongue past the lower lip and there is restriction in movement. On lifting the tongue, it acquires a heart shape with a central notch, but you cannot visualise the frenulum.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Posterior tongue tie

      Explanation:

      Common Oral Abnormalities in Infants: Tongue Tie, Upper Lip Tie, Cleft Lip, and Cleft Palate

      Tongue tie, also known as ankyloglossia, is a condition that affects up to 10% of live births, more commonly in boys than girls. It is characterized by a short, thickened frenulum attaching the tongue to the floor of the mouth, limiting tongue movements and causing difficulties with breastfeeding. Mothers may report that their infant takes a long time to feed, is irritable, and experiences nipple injury. Examination findings include limited tongue movements, inability to lift the tongue high or move it past the lower lip, and a characteristic heart-shaped notch when attempting to lift the tongue. Tongue tie can be anterior or posterior, with the latter being deeper in the mouth and more difficult to see.

      Upper lip tie is a similar condition, with a frenulum attaching the upper lip to the gum line. This can also cause difficulties with breastfeeding due to limited movement of the upper lip.

      Cleft lip and cleft palate are congenital malformations that occur when the facial structures fail to fuse properly during development. Cleft lip presents as a gap in the upper lip, while cleft palate is a gap in the roof of the mouth. Both can cause difficulties with feeding and require surgical intervention.

      It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these common oral abnormalities in infants and provide appropriate management and referrals to ensure optimal feeding and development.

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  • Question 55 - A 28-year-old female patient comes to the rheumatology clinic seeking guidance on starting...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old female patient comes to the rheumatology clinic seeking guidance on starting a family. She and her partner are both diagnosed with rheumatoid arthritis and are currently undergoing weekly methotrexate treatment. The patient was informed about the need for pregnancy advice when she began taking the medication. What recommendations should you provide?

      Your Answer: The patient and her partner will both need to wait 6 months after stopping methotrexate before conceiving

      Explanation:

      To avoid teratogenic effects, both men and women must discontinue the use of methotrexate for at least 6 months before attempting to conceive. Methotrexate inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, which affects DNA synthesis and can harm the rapidly dividing cells of the fetus. Additionally, methotrexate can damage various semen parameters. It is not enough for only the patient to stop taking methotrexate; both partners must cease use. Taking folic acid during pregnancy does not counteract the harmful effects of methotrexate on folate metabolism and does not address the partner’s use of the drug. Waiting for 3 months is insufficient; both partners must wait for 6 months to ensure that methotrexate will not cause teratogenic effects.

      Managing Rheumatoid Arthritis During Pregnancy

      Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is a condition that commonly affects women of reproductive age, making issues surrounding conception and pregnancy a concern. While there are no official guidelines for managing RA during pregnancy, expert reviews suggest that patients with early or poorly controlled RA should wait until their disease is more stable before attempting to conceive.

      During pregnancy, RA symptoms tend to improve for most patients, but only a small minority experience complete resolution. After delivery, patients often experience a flare-up of symptoms. It’s important to note that certain medications used to treat RA are not safe during pregnancy, such as methotrexate and leflunomide. However, sulfasalazine and hydroxychloroquine are considered safe.

      Interestingly, studies have shown that the use of TNF-α blockers during pregnancy does not significantly increase adverse outcomes. However, many patients in these studies stopped taking the medication once they found out they were pregnant. Low-dose corticosteroids may also be used to control symptoms during pregnancy.

      NSAIDs can be used until 32 weeks, but should be withdrawn after that due to the risk of early closure of the ductus arteriosus. Patients with RA should also be referred to an obstetric anaesthetist due to the risk of Atlantoaxial subluxation. Overall, managing RA during pregnancy requires careful consideration and consultation with healthcare professionals.

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  • Question 56 - A 28-year-old woman presents at 16 weeks’ gestation, requesting an abortion. Her relationship...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents at 16 weeks’ gestation, requesting an abortion. Her relationship has ended; she has moved back in with her parents, and her anxiety has worsened. She feels overwhelmed and states that, at this point, she cannot handle a baby. She has undergone a comprehensive consultation, and her decision remains the same.
      What is the most suitable course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Oral mifepristone followed by vaginal misoprostol as an outpatient

      Correct Answer: Surgical evacuation of products of conception

      Explanation:

      Management Options for Termination of Pregnancy at 16 Weeks’ Gestation

      Termination of pregnancy at 16 weeks’ gestation can be managed through surgical evacuation of the products of conception or medical management using oral mifepristone followed by vaginal misoprostol. The decision ultimately lies with the patient, and it is important to explain the potential risks and complications associated with each option.

      Surgical Evacuation of Products of Conception
      This procedure involves vacuum aspiration before 14 weeks’ gestation or dilation of the cervix and evacuation of the uterine cavity after 14 weeks. Common side-effects include infection, bleeding, cervical trauma, and perforation of the uterus. It is important to inform the patient that the procedure may need to be repeated if the uterus is not emptied completely.

      No Management Required at Present
      While termination of pregnancy is legal in the UK until 24 weeks’ gestation, it is the patient’s right to make the decision. However, if the patient is unsure, it may be appropriate to reassess in two weeks.

      Oral Mifepristone
      Mifepristone is an anti-progesterone medication that is used in combination with misoprostol to induce termination of pregnancy. It is not effective as monotherapy.

      Oral Mifepristone Followed by Vaginal Misoprostol as an Outpatient
      This is the standard medication regime for medical termination of pregnancy. However, after 14 weeks’ gestation, it is recommended that the procedure be performed in a medical setting for appropriate monitoring.

      Vaginal Misoprostol
      Vaginal misoprostol can be used in conjunction with mifepristone for medical termination of pregnancy or as monotherapy in medical management of miscarriage or induction of labour.

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  • Question 57 - A 28-year-old primigravida woman is rushed for an emergency caesarean section due to...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old primigravida woman is rushed for an emergency caesarean section due to fetal distress and hypoxia detected on cardiotocography. She is currently at 31 weeks gestation.
      After delivery, the baby is admitted to the neonatal intensive care unit (NICU) and given oxygen to aid breathing difficulties.
      Several weeks later, during an ophthalmological examination, the baby is found to have bilateral absent red reflex and retinal neovascularisation.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Retinopathy of prematurity

      Explanation:

      Risks Associated with Prematurity

      Prematurity is a condition that poses several risks to the health of newborns. The risk of mortality increases with decreasing gestational age. Premature babies are at risk of developing respiratory distress syndrome, intraventricular haemorrhage, necrotizing enterocolitis, chronic lung disease, hypothermia, feeding problems, infection, jaundice, and retinopathy of prematurity. Retinopathy of prematurity is a significant cause of visual impairment in babies born before 32 weeks of gestation. The cause of this condition is not fully understood, but it is believed that over oxygenation during ventilation can lead to the proliferation of retinal blood vessels, resulting in neovascularization. Screening for retinopathy of prematurity is done in at-risk groups. Premature babies are also at risk of hearing problems.

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  • Question 58 - A woman in her 12th week of pregnancy arrives at the emergency department...

    Correct

    • A woman in her 12th week of pregnancy arrives at the emergency department with a two-week history of intense vomiting and lack of appetite. The scent of food triggers her nausea. She hasn't consumed any food for the past four days and has only had minimal amounts of water.
      She is currently taking omeprazole and folic acid and has never smoked or consumed alcohol. What is an instance of a risk factor for this ailment?

      Your Answer: Multiple pregnancies

      Explanation:

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is more likely to occur in women who are pregnant with multiple babies. Other factors that may increase the risk of HG include obesity, epilepsy, stress, and a family history of the condition. Treatment options may include corticosteroids like prednisolone, anti-emetic drugs such as ondansetron, and vitamins B6 and B12. While advanced maternal age can increase the risk of certain pregnancy complications, it has not been linked to an increased risk of HG. Similarly, having multiple previous pregnancies does not appear to increase the risk of HG, but a history of the condition in a previous pregnancy may be a risk factor.

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is an extreme form of nausea and vomiting of pregnancy that occurs in around 1% of pregnancies and is most common between 8 and 12 weeks. It is associated with raised beta hCG levels and can be caused by multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, hyperthyroidism, nulliparity, and obesity. Referral criteria for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy include continued symptoms with ketonuria and/or weight loss, a confirmed or suspected comorbidity, and inability to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics. The diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum requires the presence of 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance. Management includes first-line use of antihistamines and oral cyclizine or promethazine, with second-line options of ondansetron and metoclopramide. Admission may be needed for IV hydration. Complications can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth issues.

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  • Question 59 - A 36-year-old woman has given birth to her first child and was given...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman has given birth to her first child and was given a dose of intramuscular syntocinon before the placenta was delivered. During the wait for the placenta, she experiences a blood loss of 400ml. Even after the placenta is delivered, the bleeding continues and she loses an additional 500ml of blood. The medical team initiates the necessary resuscitation measures and the major haemorrhage protocol. The cause of the bleeding is identified as uterine atony, and the patient is given boluses of syntocinon, ergometrine, and carboprost. However, the bleeding persists. What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Hysterectomy

      Correct Answer: Intra-uterine Bakri catheter

      Explanation:

      The correct first-line surgical intervention for postpartum haemorrhage is an intra-uterine Bakri catheter. This device is used to tamponade the bleeding caused by uterine atony, which is a failure of the uterine myometrium cells to contract. Hysterectomy is not the first option as it is a last resort and will make the patient infertile. Lying the patient on her left lateral side is not relevant for a woman who has already delivered her baby. Ligation of the internal iliac artery may be used, but it is not the next most appropriate step as it may lead to ischaemic complications. Intra-uterine balloon tamponade is the first-line surgical intervention if other measures fail.

      Understanding Postpartum Haemorrhage

      Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) is a condition where a woman experiences blood loss of more than 500 ml after giving birth vaginally. It can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary PPH occurs within 24 hours after delivery and is caused by the 4 Ts: tone, trauma, tissue, and thrombin. The most common cause is uterine atony. Risk factors for primary PPH include previous PPH, prolonged labour, pre-eclampsia, increased maternal age, emergency Caesarean section, and placenta praevia.

      In managing PPH, it is important to involve senior staff immediately and follow the ABC approach. This includes two peripheral cannulae, lying the woman flat, blood tests, and commencing a warmed crystalloid infusion. Mechanical interventions such as rubbing up the fundus and catheterisation are also done. Medical interventions include IV oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol. Surgical options such as intrauterine balloon tamponade, B-Lynch suture, ligation of uterine arteries, and hysterectomy may be considered if medical options fail to control the bleeding.

      Secondary PPH occurs between 24 hours to 6 weeks after delivery and is typically due to retained placental tissue or endometritis. It is important to understand the causes and risk factors of PPH to prevent and manage this life-threatening emergency effectively.

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  • Question 60 - A 28-year-old woman who is 20 weeks pregnant visits the obstetric clinic for...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman who is 20 weeks pregnant visits the obstetric clinic for a routine ultrasound scan. During the examination, it is observed that the mother's uterus is smaller than expected for her stage of pregnancy, and the ultrasound scan confirms the presence of intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR). The medical team inquires about any potential risk factors for IUGR that the mother may have.
      What is a known maternal risk factor for intrauterine growth restriction?

      Your Answer: Smoking

      Explanation:

      Understanding Risk Factors for Intrauterine Growth Restriction (IUGR)

      Intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) is a condition where a baby does not grow properly in the womb. There are various risk factors associated with IUGR, including smoking during pregnancy, which can increase the likelihood of developing the condition.

      There are two types of IUGR: symmetrical and asymmetrical. Symmetrical growth retardation occurs at the start or during early pregnancy and is characterized by a small head and short length. Asymmetrical growth retardation occurs in advanced pregnancy and is characterized by reduced abdominal growth compared to head circumference, due to selective shunting of blood to the brain.

      It’s important to note that a baby with a birthweight below the tenth centile is considered small for gestational age (SGA), which may be normal or due to IUGR.

      Contrary to popular belief, hypotension (low blood pressure), obesity, and stress are not recognized risk factors for IUGR. However, poorly controlled diabetes is a risk factor for IUGR, while well-controlled diabetes is not.

      Understanding these risk factors can help healthcare providers identify and manage IUGR early on, leading to better outcomes for both mother and baby.

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  • Question 61 - Which of the following foods should be avoided during pregnancy? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following foods should be avoided during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Cooked liver

      Explanation:

      During pregnancy, it is recommended to avoid consuming liver due to its high levels of vitamin A, which is a teratogen.

      Antenatal Care: Lifestyle Advice for Pregnant Women

      During antenatal care, healthcare providers should provide pregnant women with lifestyle advice to ensure a healthy pregnancy. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has made several recommendations regarding the advice that pregnant women should receive. These recommendations include nutritional supplements, alcohol consumption, smoking, food-acquired infections, work, air travel, prescribed medicines, over-the-counter medicines, complimentary therapies, exercise, and sexual intercourse.

      Nutritional supplements such as folic acid and vitamin D are recommended for pregnant women. However, iron supplementation should not be offered routinely, and vitamin A supplementation should be avoided as it may be teratogenic. Pregnant women should also avoid alcohol consumption as it can lead to long-term harm to the baby. Smoking should also be avoided, and women who have stopped smoking may use nicotine replacement therapy (NRT) after discussing the risks and benefits with their healthcare provider.

      Pregnant women should also be cautious of food-acquired infections such as listeriosis and salmonella. They should avoid certain foods such as unpasteurized milk, ripened soft cheeses, pate, undercooked meat, raw or partially cooked eggs, and meat, especially poultry. Women should also be informed of their maternity rights and benefits at work, and the Health and Safety Executive should be consulted if there are any concerns about possible occupational hazards during pregnancy.

      Air travel during pregnancy should also be approached with caution. Women who are over 37 weeks pregnant with a singleton pregnancy and no additional risk factors should avoid air travel. Women with uncomplicated, multiple pregnancies should avoid air travel once they are over 32 weeks pregnant. Pregnant women should also avoid certain activities such as high-impact sports where there is a risk of abdominal trauma and scuba diving. However, sexual intercourse is not known to be associated with any adverse outcomes during pregnancy.

      Overall, pregnant women should be informed of these lifestyle recommendations to ensure a healthy pregnancy and reduce the risk of harm to the baby.

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  • Question 62 - A 9-year-old girl presents with her daughter, who is two weeks old and...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old girl presents with her daughter, who is two weeks old and was diagnosed a few days following birth with an anterior tongue tie. She is still struggling to establish enough feeding due to poor latch and a poor seal, even though she is alternating between breastfeeding and bottle feeding of expressed milk. She has been reviewed by the health visitor twice who is satisfied with her breastfeeding technique. The baby was over the 50th centile at birth and now has dropped to the 25th centile.
      Given the above, what is the next most appropriate step in the management of this child?

      Your Answer: Refer for frenotomy under general anaesthesia

      Correct Answer: Refer for frenotomy under no anaesthesia

      Explanation:

      Management of Tongue Tie in Infants: Referral for Frenotomy under No Anaesthesia

      Tongue tie is a congenital condition that affects a baby’s ability to move their tongue due to a thickened frenulum. This can cause problems with breastfeeding and bottle feeding, leading to poor weight gain and irritability. In severe cases, a referral for frenotomy is necessary. In infants under three months of age, the procedure can be performed without anaesthesia, though local anaesthesia may be used. Conservative management and support with breastfeeding should be attempted first, but if unsuccessful, a frenotomy should be performed as early as possible to give the baby and mother the best chance at successful feeding. Frenotomy under general anaesthesia is only necessary for infants over three months of age. Converting to bottle feeding is not a solution in severe cases of tongue tie.

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  • Question 63 - You are seeing a G3P1 14-weeks pregnant woman in the GP surgery. She...

    Correct

    • You are seeing a G3P1 14-weeks pregnant woman in the GP surgery. She is concerned about the possibility of developing postpartum psychosis again, as she had experienced it in her previous pregnancy and was hospitalized. What is the likelihood of her developing this condition once more?

      Your Answer: 25-50 %

      Explanation:

      To monitor her throughout her pregnancy and postnatal period, this woman requires a referral to a perinatal mental health team due to her increased risk of postpartum psychosis. It would have been preferable for her to receive preconception advice before becoming pregnant. The recurrence rate is not influenced by the baby’s gender.

      Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems

      Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of more than 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, with sensitivity and specificity of more than 90%. The questionnaire also includes a question about self-harm.

      ‘Baby-blues’ is seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occurs 3-7 days following birth. It is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Reassurance and support from healthcare professionals, particularly health visitors, play a key role in managing this condition. Most women with the baby blues will not require specific treatment other than reassurance.

      Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features are similar to depression seen in other circumstances, and cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial. Certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. Although these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant.

      Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and requires admission to hospital, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Onset usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth, and features include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies. Paroxetine is recommended by SIGN because of the low milk/plasma ratio, while fluoxetine is best avoided due to a long half-life.

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  • Question 64 - A 35-year-old primigravida presents for her 9-week antenatal appointment. She recently had a...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old primigravida presents for her 9-week antenatal appointment. She recently had a private ultrasound which revealed dichorionic, diamniotic twins. The patient has a medical history of hypothyroidism and a BMI of 38 kg/m². Although she has been smoking during her pregnancy, she has reduced her intake from 20 to 5 cigarettes per day and is interested in trying nicotine replacement therapy. Her main concern is that both her mother and sister suffered from hyperemesis gravidarum. What factor in her history is linked to a lower likelihood of developing this condition?

      Your Answer: Twin pregnancy

      Correct Answer: Smoking

      Explanation:

      Smoking has been found to decrease the risk of hyperemesis gravidarum, which is believed to occur due to rapidly rising levels of human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG) and oestrogen. This is because smoking is considered to be anti-oestrogenic. Therefore, despite having other risk factors, the fact that the patient is a smoker may decrease her incidence of hyperemesis gravidarum. On the other hand, hypothyroidism is not a risk factor, but hyperthyroidism increases the risk of hyperemesis gravidarum. Obesity and underweight are associated with an increased risk of hyperemesis, but women with these conditions who smoked before pregnancy have been found to have no increased risk. Primigravida status is also associated with an increased risk of hyperemesis, but the reason for this is not clear. Finally, twin pregnancies carry an increased risk of hyperemesis gravidarum due to higher levels of beta-hCG released from the placenta.

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is an extreme form of nausea and vomiting of pregnancy that occurs in around 1% of pregnancies and is most common between 8 and 12 weeks. It is associated with raised beta hCG levels and can be caused by multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, hyperthyroidism, nulliparity, and obesity. Referral criteria for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy include continued symptoms with ketonuria and/or weight loss, a confirmed or suspected comorbidity, and inability to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics. The diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum requires the presence of 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance. Management includes first-line use of antihistamines and oral cyclizine or promethazine, with second-line options of ondansetron and metoclopramide. Admission may be needed for IV hydration. Complications can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth issues.

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  • Question 65 - A 29-year-old woman who is 10 weeks pregnant presents to the early pregnancy...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old woman who is 10 weeks pregnant presents to the early pregnancy assessment unit with vaginal bleeding and abdominal pain that started yesterday. She has a history of Von Willebrand disease. A trans-vaginal ultrasound scan confirms a missed miscarriage. The patient is currently stable without fever or hemodynamic instability. What is the most suitable initial approach to manage this patient's miscarriage?

      Your Answer: Vaginal misoprostol

      Explanation:

      The recommended medical management for a miscarriage is the administration of vaginal misoprostol, as stated in the 2018 NICE guidelines. This is particularly suitable for patients with a medical history of coagulopathy, such as Von Willebrand disease, as it is a safer option than expectant management. Oral methotrexate is not appropriate for a miscarriage, as it is used for the medical management of ectopic pregnancies. Salpingectomy is a surgical procedure used for tubular ectopic pregnancies, but not for miscarriages. Vacuum aspiration is a surgical option for miscarriages, but medical management is preferred as it is safer and allows the patient to have more control over the process.

      Management Options for Miscarriage

      Miscarriage can be a difficult and emotional experience for women. In the 2019 NICE guidelines, three types of management for miscarriage were discussed: expectant, medical, and surgical. Expectant management involves waiting for a spontaneous miscarriage and is considered the first-line option. However, if it is unsuccessful, medical or surgical management may be offered.

      Medical management involves using tablets to expedite the miscarriage. Vaginal misoprostol, a prostaglandin analogue, is used to cause strong myometrial contractions leading to the expulsion of tissue. It is important to advise patients to contact their doctor if bleeding does not start within 24 hours. Antiemetics and pain relief should also be given.

      Surgical management involves undergoing a surgical procedure under local or general anaesthetic. The two main options are vacuum aspiration (suction curettage) or surgical management in theatre. Vacuum aspiration is done under local anaesthetic as an outpatient, while surgical management is done in theatre under general anaesthetic. This was previously referred to as ‘Evacuation of retained products of conception’.

      It is important to note that some situations are better managed with medical or surgical management, such as an increased risk of haemorrhage, being in the late first trimester, having coagulopathies or being unable to have a blood transfusion, previous adverse and/or traumatic experience associated with pregnancy, evidence of infection, and more. Ultimately, the management option chosen should be based on the individual patient’s needs and preferences.

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  • Question 66 - A 16-year-old female who is 23 weeks pregnant (G1PO) arrives at the emergency...

    Correct

    • A 16-year-old female who is 23 weeks pregnant (G1PO) arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe lower abdominal pain. She has a history of multiple sexual partners and was recently treated for gonorrhoeae with ceftriaxone. Although she does not take any regular medications, she admits to using illicit drugs such as marijuana and cocaine. During the physical examination, you notice that her uterus is hard and tender. What risk factor in her medical history is likely to contribute to her diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cocaine use

      Explanation:

      The risk of placental abruption is increased by cocaine abuse due to its ability to cause vasospasm in the placental blood vessels. Ceftriaxone use, which is the treatment of choice for gonorrhoeae, is not a known risk factor for placental abruption and is therefore a distractor. Although gonorrhoeae can lead to chorioamnionitis, which is a known risk factor for placental abruption, there is no evidence to suggest that this is the case and it is less likely than cocaine use. Primiparity is an incorrect answer as it is actually multiparity that is a risk factor for placental abruption.

      Placental Abruption: Causes, Symptoms, and Risk Factors

      Placental abruption is a condition that occurs when the placenta separates from the uterine wall, leading to maternal bleeding into the space between them. Although the exact cause of this condition is unknown, certain factors have been associated with it, including proteinuric hypertension, cocaine use, multiparity, maternal trauma, and increasing maternal age. Placental abruption is not a common occurrence, affecting approximately 1 in 200 pregnancies.

      The clinical features of placental abruption include shock that is disproportionate to the visible blood loss, constant pain, a tender and tense uterus, and a normal lie and presentation of the fetus. The fetal heart may be absent or distressed, and there may be coagulation problems. It is important to be aware of other conditions that may present with similar symptoms, such as pre-eclampsia, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and anuria.

      In summary, placental abruption is a serious condition that can have significant consequences for both the mother and the fetus. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms of this condition is important for early detection and appropriate management.

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  • Question 67 - A 35-year-old pregnant woman visits antenatal clinic with complaints of headaches and sudden...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old pregnant woman visits antenatal clinic with complaints of headaches and sudden swelling of her ankles within the past 3 days. She is currently 30+4 weeks pregnant, with a history of diabetes mellitus type II that is managed through lifestyle changes. During the examination, it was observed that the fundal height is measuring small for her gestational age. Consequently, an ultrasound scan was ordered, which revealed oligohydramnios. What is the most probable cause of oligohydramnios in this patient?

      Your Answer: Diabetes mellitus

      Correct Answer: Pre-eclampsia

      Explanation:

      Oligohydramnios can be caused by pre-eclampsia, which leads to inadequate blood flow to the placenta. Polyhydramnios, on the other hand, is associated with anencephaly, diabetes mellitus, twin pregnancies, and oesophageal atresia. Twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome is usually the cause of polyhydramnios in twin pregnancies. Foetal hyperglycaemia in diabetic mothers leads to foetal polyuria. In cases of oesophageal atresia and anencephaly, the foetus is unable to swallow the amniotic fluid.

      Oligohydramnios is a condition characterized by a decrease in the amount of amniotic fluid present in the womb. The definition of oligohydramnios varies, but it is generally considered to be present when there is less than 500ml of amniotic fluid at 32-36 weeks of gestation or an amniotic fluid index (AFI) that falls below the 5th percentile.

      There are several potential causes of oligohydramnios, including premature rupture of membranes, Potter sequence, bilateral renal agenesis with pulmonary hypoplasia, intrauterine growth restriction, post-term gestation, and pre-eclampsia. These conditions can all contribute to a reduction in the amount of amniotic fluid present in the womb, which can have significant implications for fetal development and health. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor amniotic fluid levels and identify any potential causes of oligohydramnios in order to provide appropriate care and support for both the mother and the developing fetus.

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  • Question 68 - A 35-year-old woman who is 28 weeks pregnant is brought to the maternity...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman who is 28 weeks pregnant is brought to the maternity ward due to excessive vaginal bleeding. She has a negative Rhesus factor. What is the best course of action for preventing Rhesus sensitization?

      Your Answer: One dose of Anti-D immunoglobulin followed by a Kleihauer test

      Explanation:

      What is the recommended prophylaxis for Rhesus sensitisation in a Rhesus negative mother with antepartum haemorrhage?

      Antepartum haemorrhage increases the risk of Rhesus sensitisation and Rhesus disease of the newborn in subsequent pregnancies due to fetomaternal haemorrhage (FMH). The correct approach is to administer one dose of anti-D immunoglobulin immediately, followed by a Kleihauer test. This test detects fetal cells in the maternal circulation and estimates the volume of FMH, allowing for the calculation of additional anti-D immunoglobulin. While routine prophylaxis at 28 weeks should still be given, there is no such thing as an anti-D immunoglobulin infusion. These recommendations are based on the British Committee for Standards in Haematology guidelines for the prevention of haemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn.

      Rhesus negative pregnancies can lead to the formation of anti-D IgG antibodies in the mother if she delivers a Rh +ve child, which can cause haemolysis in future pregnancies. Prevention involves testing for D antibodies and giving anti-D prophylaxis to non-sensitised Rh -ve mothers at 28 and 34 weeks. Anti-D immunoglobulin should be given within 72 hours in various situations. Tests should be done on all babies born to Rh -ve mothers, and affected fetuses may experience various complications and require treatment such as transfusions and UV phototherapy.

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  • Question 69 - A 25-year-old first-time mother gave birth to a healthy baby girl with an...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old first-time mother gave birth to a healthy baby girl with an APGAR score of 10 at 1, 5, and 10 minutes. However, during delivery, the mother experienced a perineal tear, and the midwife has called the doctor to suture it. Upon examination, it was found that the injury affected the superficial and deep transverse perineal muscles, but the anal sphincter remained intact. What is the degree of injury?

      Your Answer: Second degree

      Explanation:

      The patient in this case had a second degree perineal tear, which is a tear in the skin and soft tissue structures between the vagina and anus that occurs during childbirth due to excessive strain. This type of tear involves the perineal muscle but does not include the anal sphincter. Fifth degree tears do not exist, and first degree tears only involve superficial damage without muscle involvement. Fourth degree tears are severe and involve injury to the anal sphincter complex and rectal mucosa, but in this case, the anal sphincter was spared.

      Perineal tears are a common occurrence during childbirth, and the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists (RCOG) has developed guidelines to classify them based on their severity. First-degree tears are superficial and do not require any repair, while second-degree tears involve the perineal muscle and require suturing by a midwife or clinician. Third-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and require repair in theatre by a trained clinician, with subcategories based on the extent of the tear. Fourth-degree tears involve the anal sphincter complex and rectal mucosa and also require repair in theatre by a trained clinician.

      There are several risk factors for perineal tears, including being a first-time mother, having a large baby, experiencing a precipitant labour, and having a shoulder dystocia or forceps delivery. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these risk factors and to provide appropriate care and management during childbirth to minimize the risk of perineal tears. By following the RCOG guidelines and providing timely and effective treatment, healthcare providers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and baby.

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  • Question 70 - A 35-year-old primigravida woman at 30 weeks gestation arrives at the Emergency Department...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old primigravida woman at 30 weeks gestation arrives at the Emergency Department with premature rupture of membranes. She has had an uncomplicated pregnancy and is in good health. What is the optimal approach to managing her condition?

      Your Answer: Admit her for at least 48 hours and prescribe steroids only

      Correct Answer: Admit her for at least 48 hours and prescribe antibiotics and steroids

      Explanation:

      At 32 weeks gestation, this woman may be experiencing labor with ruptured membranes. It is important to admit her and administer steroids to promote the baby’s lung development. Antibiotics, such as erythromycin, should also be given to prevent sepsis and post-natal infection. Hospital guidelines should always be consulted, especially if Group B streptococcus is present, in which case penicillin and clindamycin may be used. If labor does not progress, the woman may be able to manage at home with temperature checks every 4-8 hours and returning to the hospital if a fever occurs. Delivery at 34 weeks may be considered if the risk of infection outweighs the risk of prematurity now that the baby’s lungs have matured.

      Preterm prelabour rupture of the membranes (PPROM) is a condition that occurs in approximately 2% of pregnancies, but it is responsible for around 40% of preterm deliveries. This condition can lead to various complications, including prematurity, infection, and pulmonary hypoplasia in the fetus, as well as chorioamnionitis in the mother. To confirm PPROM, a sterile speculum examination should be performed to check for pooling of amniotic fluid in the posterior vaginal vault. However, digital examination should be avoided due to the risk of infection. If pooling of fluid is not observed, testing the fluid for placental alpha microglobulin-1 protein (PAMG-1) or insulin-like growth factor binding protein-1 is recommended. Ultrasound may also be useful to show oligohydramnios.

      The management of PPROM involves admission and regular observations to ensure that chorioamnionitis is not developing. Oral erythromycin should be given for ten days, and antenatal corticosteroids should be administered to reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome. Delivery should be considered at 34 weeks of gestation, but there is a trade-off between an increased risk of maternal chorioamnionitis and a decreased risk of respiratory distress syndrome as the pregnancy progresses. PPROM is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management to minimize the risk of complications for both the mother and the fetus.

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  • Question 71 - A 28-year-old woman attends the antenatal clinic at 41 weeks of gestation, worried...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman attends the antenatal clinic at 41 weeks of gestation, worried that she has not yet gone into labour. She reports normal foetal movements and has not been recently ill. She has no significant medical history and this is her first pregnancy. On examination, her abdomen is soft and a palpable uterus is consistent with a term pregnancy. Her Bishop's score is calculated as 5. What is the first step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Membrane sweep

      Explanation:

      Before inducing a pregnancy, it is important to calculate the Bishop’s score to determine if spontaneous labor is likely or if induction may be needed. For this patient who is past her due date, a score below 8 suggests that induction may be necessary. The most initial step in this case is a membrane sweep, which can be performed in the antenatal clinic by a midwife or obstetrician. This method involves separating the chorionic membrane from the decidua to trigger natural labor and is considered an adjunct to labor rather than an actual method of induction.

      While an artificial rupture of membranes (amniotomy) is another method of induction, it carries certain risks such as increased risk of cord prolapse and infection, making it a less favorable option. If a membrane sweep alone is not enough to induce labor, vaginal prostaglandins are recommended according to NICE guidelines. Oxytocin can also be used to stimulate uterine contraction, but it is not recommended as the initial step in induction due to the risks of uterine contraction against an unprimed cervix.

      It is important to note that this patient’s Bishop’s score is 5 and she is already at 41-weeks gestation, which increases the risk of complications such as macrosomia and stillbirth. Therefore, it is inappropriate to discharge her without discussing methods of inducing labor.

      Induction of labour is a process where labour is artificially started and is required in about 20% of pregnancies. It is indicated in cases of prolonged pregnancy, prelabour premature rupture of the membranes, maternal medical problems, diabetic mother over 38 weeks, pre-eclampsia, obstetric cholestasis, and intrauterine fetal death. The Bishop score is used to assess whether induction of labour is necessary and includes cervical position, consistency, effacement, dilation, and fetal station. A score of less than 5 indicates that labour is unlikely to start without induction, while a score of 8 or more indicates a high chance of spontaneous labour or response to interventions made to induce labour.

      Possible methods of induction include membrane sweep, vaginal prostaglandin E2, oral prostaglandin E1, maternal oxytocin infusion, amniotomy, and cervical ripening balloon. The NICE guidelines recommend vaginal prostaglandins or oral misoprostol if the Bishop score is less than or equal to 6, while amniotomy and an intravenous oxytocin infusion are recommended if the score is greater than 6.

      The main complication of induction of labour is uterine hyperstimulation, which refers to prolonged and frequent uterine contractions that can interrupt blood flow to the intervillous space and result in fetal hypoxemia and acidemia. Uterine rupture is a rare but serious complication. Management includes removing vaginal prostaglandins and stopping the oxytocin infusion if one has been started, and considering tocolysis.

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  • Question 72 - A 29-year-old nulliparous woman who is at 39 weeks gestation goes into spontaneous...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old nulliparous woman who is at 39 weeks gestation goes into spontaneous labour. You are summoned to aid in the vaginal delivery. During delivery, you observe the head retracting against the perineum. Downward traction is ineffective in delivering the anterior shoulder. What is a true statement about shoulder dystocia?

      Your Answer: Immediately after shoulder dystocia is recognised, additional help should be called

      Explanation:

      When managing shoulder dystocia, it is important to call for extra assistance immediately. Avoid using fundal pressure and note that an episiotomy may not always be required. Inducing labor at term can lower the occurrence of shoulder dystocia in women with gestational diabetes. The McRoberts manoeuvre is the preferred initial intervention due to its simplicity, speed, and effectiveness in most cases. These guidelines are based on the RCOG Green-top guideline no. 42 from March 2012 on Shoulder Dystocia.

      Shoulder dystocia is a complication that can occur during vaginal delivery when the body of the fetus cannot be delivered after the head has already been delivered. This is usually due to the anterior shoulder of the fetus becoming stuck on the mother’s pubic bone. Shoulder dystocia can cause harm to both the mother and the fetus. Risk factors for shoulder dystocia include fetal macrosomia, high maternal body mass index, diabetes mellitus, and prolonged labor.

      If shoulder dystocia is identified, it is important to call for senior help immediately. The McRoberts’ maneuver is often performed, which involves flexing and abducting the mother’s hips to increase the angle of the pelvis and facilitate delivery. An episiotomy may be performed to provide better access for internal maneuvers, but it will not relieve the bony obstruction. Symphysiotomy and the Zavanelli maneuver are not recommended as they can cause significant maternal morbidity. Oxytocin administration is not indicated for shoulder dystocia.

      Complications of shoulder dystocia can include postpartum hemorrhage and perineal tears for the mother, and brachial plexus injury and neonatal death for the fetus. It is important to manage shoulder dystocia promptly and appropriately to minimize the risk of these complications.

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  • Question 73 - Which of the following statements about hCG is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements about hCG is accurate?

      Your Answer: It is maintained by the corpus luteum

      Correct Answer: It is secreted by syncytiotrophoblasts

      Explanation:

      The syncytiotrophoblast secretes human chorionic gonadotrophin (HCG) into the maternal bloodstream to sustain the production of progesterone by the corpus luteum during the initial stages of pregnancy. HCG can be identified in the maternal blood as soon as day 8 following conception.

      Understanding Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (hCG)

      Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) is a hormone that is initially produced by the embryo and later by the placental trophoblast. Its primary function is to prevent the disintegration of the corpus luteum. During the first few weeks of pregnancy, hCG levels double approximately every 48 hours. These levels peak at around 8-10 weeks gestation. As a result, hCG levels are used as the basis for many pregnancy testing kits.

      In summary, hCG is a hormone that plays a crucial role in pregnancy. Its levels increase rapidly during the early stages of pregnancy and peak at around 8-10 weeks gestation. By measuring hCG levels, pregnancy testing kits can accurately determine whether a woman is pregnant or not.

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  • Question 74 - A 30-year-old woman, para 2+ 0, has given birth to a healthy baby....

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman, para 2+ 0, has given birth to a healthy baby. The third stage of labor was actively managed with Syntocinon, cord clamping, and controlled cord traction. The midwives examined the placenta, which appeared complete. However, the woman is experiencing postpartum bleeding and has lost an estimated 1,500 ml of blood. She has no prior medical history. What is the initial pharmacological treatment of choice to stop the bleeding?

      Your Answer: Oral tranexamic acid

      Correct Answer: IV syntocinon

      Explanation:

      Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) caused by uterine atony can be treated with various medical options including oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol. Initially, non-pharmacological methods such as bimanual uterine compression and catheter insertion should be used. RCOG guidelines recommend starting with Syntocinon 5 Units by slow IV injection, followed by ergometrine (avoid in hypertension), and then a Syntocinon infusion. Carboprost (avoid in asthma) and misoprostol 1000 micrograms rectally are then recommended. If pharmacological management fails, surgical haemostasis should be initiated. In a major PPH, ABCD management should be initiated, including fluids while waiting for appropriate cross-matched blood. Primary PPH is defined as a loss of greater than 500 ml of blood within 24 hours of delivery, with minor PPH being a loss of 500-1000 ml of blood and major PPH being over 1000 ml of blood. The causes of primary PPH can be categorized into the 4 T’s: Tone, Tissue, Trauma, and Thrombin. Uterine atony is the most common cause of primary PPH.

      Understanding Postpartum Haemorrhage

      Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) is a condition where a woman experiences blood loss of more than 500 ml after giving birth vaginally. It can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary PPH occurs within 24 hours after delivery and is caused by the 4 Ts: tone, trauma, tissue, and thrombin. The most common cause is uterine atony. Risk factors for primary PPH include previous PPH, prolonged labour, pre-eclampsia, increased maternal age, emergency Caesarean section, and placenta praevia.

      In managing PPH, it is important to involve senior staff immediately and follow the ABC approach. This includes two peripheral cannulae, lying the woman flat, blood tests, and commencing a warmed crystalloid infusion. Mechanical interventions such as rubbing up the fundus and catheterisation are also done. Medical interventions include IV oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol. Surgical options such as intrauterine balloon tamponade, B-Lynch suture, ligation of uterine arteries, and hysterectomy may be considered if medical options fail to control the bleeding.

      Secondary PPH occurs between 24 hours to 6 weeks after delivery and is typically due to retained placental tissue or endometritis. It is important to understand the causes and risk factors of PPH to prevent and manage this life-threatening emergency effectively.

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  • Question 75 - You are asked to see a patient on the Pediatric Ward who is...

    Correct

    • You are asked to see a patient on the Pediatric Ward who is suffering from severe eclampsia. Two hours previously, she began to bleed profusely from her cannula site. After checking her coagulation screen, you are suspicious she has developed disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC).
      Which one of the following test result would you expect in a diagnosis of DIC?

      Your Answer: Elevated prothrombin time (PT)

      Explanation:

      Understanding DIC: Symptoms and Diagnostic Tests

      Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a condition characterized by abnormal clotting and bleeding at the same time. This widespread disorder of clotting is caused by both thrombin and plasmin activation. Acutely, haemorrhage often occurs as the clotting factors are exhausted. The severity of the condition is variable but can lead to severe organ failure.

      To diagnose DIC, doctors typically perform a full blood picture, coagulation screen, and a group-and-save test. Tests for DIC include elevated prothrombin time (PT) and activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). Platelet counts in DIC are typically low, especially in acute sepsis-associated DIC, but may be increased in malignancy-associated chronic DIC. Fibrinogen level is also tested, as it falls in DIC.

      Symptoms of DIC include abnormal bleeding, such as from the gums or nose, and bruising easily. Patients may also experience organ failure, such as kidney or liver failure. Treatment for DIC typically involves addressing the underlying cause, such as sepsis or cancer, and providing supportive care, such as blood transfusions or medications to prevent clotting.

      In summary, DIC is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. If you experience symptoms of abnormal bleeding or organ failure, seek medical attention immediately.

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  • Question 76 - A 26-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of vaginal bleeding. She is...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of vaginal bleeding. She is currently 6 weeks pregnant and denies experiencing any abdominal pain, dizziness, or shoulder tip pain. She reports passing less than a teaspoon of blood without any clots. The patient has no history of ectopic pregnancy. During examination, her heart rate is 85 beats per minute, blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg, and her abdomen is soft and non-tender. As per the current NICE CKS guidelines, what is the next appropriate step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Monitor expectantly and advise to repeat pregnancy test in 7 days. If negative, this confirms miscarriage. If positive, or continued or worsening symptoms, refer to the early pregnancy assessment unit

      Explanation:

      Conduct a blood test to measure the levels of beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) in the serum, and then repeat the test after 120 hours.

      Bleeding in the First Trimester: Understanding the Causes and Management

      Bleeding in the first trimester of pregnancy is a common concern for many women. It can be caused by various factors, including miscarriage, ectopic pregnancy, implantation bleeding, cervical ectropion, vaginitis, trauma, and polyps. However, the most important cause to rule out is ectopic pregnancy, as it can be life-threatening if left untreated.

      To manage early bleeding, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) released guidelines in 2019. If a woman has a positive pregnancy test and experiences pain, abdominal tenderness, pelvic tenderness, or cervical motion tenderness, she should be referred immediately to an early pregnancy assessment service. If the pregnancy is over six weeks gestation or of uncertain gestation and the woman has bleeding, she should also be referred to an early pregnancy assessment service.

      A transvaginal ultrasound scan is the most important investigation to identify the location of the pregnancy and whether there is a fetal pole and heartbeat. If the pregnancy is less than six weeks gestation and the woman has bleeding but no pain or risk factors for ectopic pregnancy, she can be managed expectantly. However, she should be advised to return if bleeding continues or pain develops and to repeat a urine pregnancy test after 7-10 days and to return if it is positive. A negative pregnancy test means that the pregnancy has miscarried.

      In summary, bleeding in the first trimester of pregnancy can be caused by various factors, but ectopic pregnancy is the most important cause to rule out. Early referral to an early pregnancy assessment service and a transvaginal ultrasound scan are crucial in identifying the location of the pregnancy and ensuring appropriate management. Women should also be advised to seek medical attention if they experience any worrying symptoms or if bleeding or pain persists.

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  • Question 77 - A 28-year-old woman comes in for her regular prenatal check-up at 16 weeks....

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    • A 28-year-old woman comes in for her regular prenatal check-up at 16 weeks. This is her first pregnancy and she is feeling fine, but is worried because her sister was recently diagnosed with diabetes. She has no other complaints and her uterus is consistent with her gestational age. Blood pressure is within normal limits and urinalysis reveals negative nitrites, negative leukocytes, and negative protein. What is your next course of action?

      Your Answer: Arrange oral glucose tolerance test for the 24-28 weeks stage

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Oral Glucose Tolerance Test for Pregnant Women

      Pregnant women with risk factors for gestational diabetes should undergo an oral glucose tolerance test at 24-28 weeks, according to National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines. Risk factors include a BMI over 30, previous macrosomia, high-risk ethnicity, and family history of diabetes. Women without risk factors do not require the test, while those with one risk factor should undergo the test. If a woman has previously had gestational diabetes, she can monitor her glucose levels or undergo an oral glucose tolerance test as soon as possible after her booking appointment and another test at 24-28 weeks if the first one is normal. HbA1c is not recommended for assessing the risk of gestational diabetes, and fasting blood glucose and random blood glucose tests are not indicated. While a healthy diet is important for all pregnant women, it is insufficient for preventing the development of gestational diabetes. A glucose tolerance test is necessary for diagnosis.

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  • Question 78 - You are working at a prenatal care center. A couple comes in who...

    Correct

    • You are working at a prenatal care center. A couple comes in who are 28 weeks pregnant. They had difficulty getting pregnant naturally but were able to conceive through their second attempt at IVF. This is their first child. During their 14 week ultrasound, the sonographer expressed concern about the placement of the placenta and they have returned for a follow-up scan today, which confirms the initial finding. What is the probable anomaly?

      Your Answer: Placenta praevia

      Explanation:

      A study conducted in Norway in 2006 revealed that singleton pregnancies conceived through assisted fertilization had a six-fold higher risk of placenta praevia compared to naturally conceived pregnancies. The risk of placenta previa was also nearly three-fold higher in pregnancies following assisted fertilization for mothers who had conceived both naturally and through assisted fertilization. This abnormal placental placement is believed to be linked to the abnormal ovarian stimulation hormones that occur during IVF. Additionally, the incidence of placenta praevia is associated with previous caesarean sections, multiparity, and previous gynaecological surgeries, while the incidence of other options given increases with the number of previous caesarean sections.

      Understanding Placenta Praevia

      Placenta praevia is a condition where the placenta is located wholly or partially in the lower uterine segment. It is a relatively rare condition, with only 5% of women having a low-lying placenta when scanned at 16-20 weeks gestation. However, the incidence at delivery is only 0.5%, as most placentas tend to rise away from the cervix.

      There are several factors associated with placenta praevia, including multiparity, multiple pregnancy, and embryos implanting on a lower segment scar from a previous caesarean section. Clinical features of placenta praevia include shock in proportion to visible loss, no pain, a non-tender uterus, abnormal lie and presentation, and a usually normal fetal heart. Coagulation problems are rare, and small bleeds may occur before larger ones.

      Diagnosis of placenta praevia should not involve digital vaginal examination before an ultrasound, as this may provoke severe haemorrhage. The condition is often picked up on routine 20-week abdominal ultrasounds, but the Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommends the use of transvaginal ultrasound for improved accuracy and safety. Placenta praevia is classified into four grades, with grade IV being the most severe, where the placenta completely covers the internal os.

      In summary, placenta praevia is a rare condition that can have serious consequences if not diagnosed and managed appropriately. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the associated factors and clinical features, and to use appropriate diagnostic methods for accurate grading and management.

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  • Question 79 - A 29-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant arrives at the Emergency Department...

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    • A 29-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant arrives at the Emergency Department with a complaint of her 'waters breaking'. She reports experiencing a sudden release of clear fluid from her vagina, which has now reduced to a trickle, and she feels some pressure in her pelvis. What is the most suitable test to conduct next?

      Your Answer: Speculum examination

      Explanation:

      The initial investigation for preterm prelabour rupture of the membranes is a thorough speculum examination to check for the accumulation of amniotic fluid in the posterior vaginal vault. It is recommended to avoid bimanual examination to minimize the risk of infection. While cardiotocography can be used to assess foetal wellbeing, it is not the preferred first-line investigation. Foetal blood sampling is not the recommended initial investigation due to the potential risks of infection and miscarriage.

      Preterm prelabour rupture of the membranes (PPROM) is a condition that occurs in approximately 2% of pregnancies, but it is responsible for around 40% of preterm deliveries. This condition can lead to various complications, including prematurity, infection, and pulmonary hypoplasia in the fetus, as well as chorioamnionitis in the mother. To confirm PPROM, a sterile speculum examination should be performed to check for pooling of amniotic fluid in the posterior vaginal vault. However, digital examination should be avoided due to the risk of infection. If pooling of fluid is not observed, testing the fluid for placental alpha microglobulin-1 protein (PAMG-1) or insulin-like growth factor binding protein-1 is recommended. Ultrasound may also be useful to show oligohydramnios.

      The management of PPROM involves admission and regular observations to ensure that chorioamnionitis is not developing. Oral erythromycin should be given for ten days, and antenatal corticosteroids should be administered to reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome. Delivery should be considered at 34 weeks of gestation, but there is a trade-off between an increased risk of maternal chorioamnionitis and a decreased risk of respiratory distress syndrome as the pregnancy progresses. PPROM is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management to minimize the risk of complications for both the mother and the fetus.

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  • Question 80 - A 25-year-old primigravida woman at 36 weeks gestation comes in with mild irregular...

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    • A 25-year-old primigravida woman at 36 weeks gestation comes in with mild irregular labor pains in the lower abdomen. Upon examination, her cervix is firm, posterior, and closed, and fetal heart tones are present. However, the pain subsides during the consultation. What would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Reassure and discharge

      Explanation:

      False labor typically happens during the final month of pregnancy. It is characterized by contractions felt in the lower abdomen that are irregular and spaced out every 20 minutes. However, there are no progressive changes in the cervix.

      Labour is divided into three stages, with the first stage beginning from the onset of true labour until the cervix is fully dilated. This stage is further divided into two phases: the latent phase and the active phase. The latent phase involves dilation of the cervix from 0-3 cm and typically lasts around 6 hours. The active phase involves dilation from 3-10 cm and progresses at a rate of approximately 1 cm per hour. In primigravidas, this stage can last between 10-16 hours.

      During this stage, the baby’s presentation is important to note. Approximately 90% of babies present in the vertex position, with the head entering the pelvis in an occipito-lateral position. The head typically delivers in an occipito-anterior position.

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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Obstetrics (48/80) 60%
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