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Question 1
Correct
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A 2-year-old girl presents with a hoarse cough. You suspect croup as the diagnosis. She has noticeable stridor when upset but none at rest and mild chest retractions are present. Her level of consciousness is normal, and her air entry is normal on chest examination, with no evidence of any crackles. Her SaO2 is 96% on air and does not decrease when upset.
What is this child's Westley croup score?Your Answer: 2 points
Explanation:Croup, also known as laryngo-tracheo-bronchitis, is typically caused by the parainfluenza virus. Other viruses such as rhinovirus, influenza, and respiratory syncytial viruses can also be responsible. Before the onset of stridor, there is usually a mild cold-like illness that lasts for 1-2 days. Symptoms reach their peak at 1-3 days, with the cough often being worse at night. A milder cough may persist for another 7-10 days.
A barking cough is a characteristic symptom of croup, but it does not indicate the severity of the condition. To reduce airway swelling, dexamethasone and prednisolone are commonly used. Nebulized budesonide can be an alternative if the child is experiencing vomiting. However, it’s important to note that steroids do not shorten the duration of the illness. In severe cases, nebulized adrenaline can be administered.
Hospitalization for croup is rare and typically reserved for children who are experiencing increasing respiratory distress or showing signs of drowsiness/agitation. The Westley croup score is a useful tool for assessing the child’s condition and making appropriate management decisions. Children with moderate (score 2-7) or severe croup (score >7) may require hospital admission. On the other hand, many children with mild croup (score 0-1) can be safely discharged and treated at home.
The Westley croup score is determined based on the following criteria: the presence of stridor when agitated, the severity of retractions, air entry, SaO2 levels below 92%, and the child’s conscious level. In this particular case, the child’s Westley croup score is 2 points, indicating the presence of stridor when agitated and mild retractions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 2
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman comes in with a painful left elbow. She is left-handed and participates in various sports. During the examination, you observe tenderness over her medial epicondyle, and her pain intensifies with resisted pronation at the wrist.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Golfer’s elbow
Explanation:Golfer’s elbow, also known as medial epicondylitis, is a condition characterized by inflammation and pain in the flexor tendons that attach to the medial epicondyle. It is commonly caused by repetitive strain, with golf being a frequent culprit. Similarly, tennis elbow, or lateral epicondylitis, occurs when the same strain and inflammation affect the tendons at the lateral epicondyle. In both cases, pain can be worsened by resisted wrist extension. Treatment involves avoiding activities that trigger symptoms and using non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs for flare-ups. In more severe cases, steroid injections may be necessary.
Ulnar neuritis presents with symptoms such as hand clumsiness, muscle weakness, and wasting in the muscles supplied by the ulnar nerve. Patients may also experience numbness or tingling in the little finger and medial half of the ring finger. This condition is caused by narrowing of the ulnar groove and can be associated with risk factors like osteoarthritis, trauma, and rheumatoid arthritis. Nerve conduction studies may be recommended, and surgical decompression may be necessary.
De Quervain’s tenosynovitis occurs when there is inflammation of the tendon sheaths for the thumb extensor and abductor muscles. This leads to pain over the radial styloid, which worsens with forced adduction and flexion of the thumb. Treatment options include anti-inflammatory medications, thumb splints, and steroid injections.
Bursitis can develop from repeated pressure on the olecranon, resulting in swelling and discomfort in that area. Aspiration of fluid may be performed to rule out conditions like gout or sepsis. If these conditions are ruled out, bursitis often resolves on its own.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old boy is brought to the emergency department by his parents. He has been feeling unwell for 3-4 days, experiencing muscle aches, fever, chills, tiredness, and headache. In the past 24 hours, he has developed a severe sore throat. Upon examination, the patient has a temperature of 37.9ºC, tender enlarged posterior cervical lymph nodes, and white exudate covering both tonsils.
His parents inquire about keeping him off school. What is the recommended exclusion period for the likely underlying illness?Your Answer: 5 days from onset of sore throat
Correct Answer: No exclusion required
Explanation:It is unlikely that this patient has glandular fever, as school exclusion is not necessary for this condition. However, it is important to note that in the UK, school exclusion is not required for tonsillitis either. The only exception is if a child has tonsillitis and a rash consistent with scarlet fever, in which case exclusion is necessary for 24 hours after starting antibiotics. The child and parents should be provided with additional information about glandular fever (refer to the notes below).
Further Reading:
Glandular fever, also known as infectious mononucleosis or mono, is a clinical syndrome characterized by symptoms such as sore throat, fever, and swollen lymph nodes. It is primarily caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), with other viruses and infections accounting for the remaining cases. Glandular fever is transmitted through infected saliva and primarily affects adolescents and young adults. The incubation period is 4-8 weeks.
The majority of EBV infections are asymptomatic, with over 95% of adults worldwide having evidence of prior infection. Clinical features of glandular fever include fever, sore throat, exudative tonsillitis, lymphadenopathy, and prodromal symptoms such as fatigue and headache. Splenomegaly (enlarged spleen) and hepatomegaly (enlarged liver) may also be present, and a non-pruritic macular rash can sometimes occur.
Glandular fever can lead to complications such as splenic rupture, which increases the risk of rupture in the spleen. Approximately 50% of splenic ruptures associated with glandular fever are spontaneous, while the other 50% follow trauma. Diagnosis of glandular fever involves various investigations, including viral serology for EBV, monospot test, and liver function tests. Additional serology tests may be conducted if EBV testing is negative.
Management of glandular fever involves supportive care and symptomatic relief with simple analgesia. Antiviral medication has not been shown to be beneficial. It is important to identify patients at risk of serious complications, such as airway obstruction, splenic rupture, and dehydration, and provide appropriate management. Patients can be advised to return to normal activities as soon as possible, avoiding heavy lifting and contact sports for the first month to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.
Rare but serious complications associated with glandular fever include hepatitis, upper airway obstruction, cardiac complications, renal complications, neurological complications, haematological complications, chronic fatigue, and an increased risk of lymphoproliferative cancers and multiple sclerosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Emergencies
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Question 4
Incorrect
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You evaluate a 32-year-old woman who is 14-weeks pregnant. During the examination, you observe a soft early systolic murmur that is most audible at the left sternal edge. Apart from this finding, the patient appears to be in good health, and the rest of the examination was unremarkable.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Aortic stenosis
Correct Answer: Functional murmur
Explanation:Functional murmurs, also referred to as physiological or flow murmurs, are frequently observed during pregnancy and other conditions associated with increased blood flow. These murmurs arise as a result of the heightened resting cardiac output and do not necessitate any additional examination.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics & Gynaecology
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Question 5
Correct
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A 32 year old male presents to the emergency department complaining of sudden shortness of breath. During the initial assessment, the patient mentions that he is currently 28 weeks into his partner's pregnancy. While the nurse is still conducting the assessment, the patient suddenly collapses and the nurse urgently calls for your assistance. The patient has no detectable pulse and is not making any effort to breathe. You decide to initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR).
What adjustments should be made to the management of cardiac arrest when performing CPR on a pregnant patient?Your Answer: Hand position for chest compressions 2-3 cm higher
Explanation:When administering CPR to a pregnant patient, it is important to make certain modifications. Firstly, the hand position for chest compressions should be adjusted to be 2-3 cm higher than usual. Additionally, the uterus should be manually displaced to the left in order to minimize compression on the inferior vena cava. If possible, a 15-30 degree left lateral tilt should be implemented. If resuscitation efforts do not result in the return of spontaneous circulation, it is advisable to seek urgent obstetric input for potential consideration of a C-section delivery. Lastly, when inserting an ET tube, it may be necessary to use a size that is 0.5-1.0mm smaller due to potential narrowing of the trachea caused by edema.
Further Reading:
Cardiopulmonary arrest is a serious event with low survival rates. In non-traumatic cardiac arrest, only about 20% of patients who arrest as an in-patient survive to hospital discharge, while the survival rate for out-of-hospital cardiac arrest is approximately 8%. The Resus Council BLS/AED Algorithm for 2015 recommends chest compressions at a rate of 100-120 per minute with a compression depth of 5-6 cm. The ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths is 30:2.
After a cardiac arrest, the goal of patient care is to minimize the impact of post cardiac arrest syndrome, which includes brain injury, myocardial dysfunction, the ischaemic/reperfusion response, and the underlying pathology that caused the arrest. The ABCDE approach is used for clinical assessment and general management. Intubation may be necessary if the airway cannot be maintained by simple measures or if it is immediately threatened. Controlled ventilation is aimed at maintaining oxygen saturation levels between 94-98% and normocarbia. Fluid status may be difficult to judge, but a target mean arterial pressure (MAP) between 65 and 100 mmHg is recommended. Inotropes may be administered to maintain blood pressure. Sedation should be adequate to gain control of ventilation, and short-acting sedating agents like propofol are preferred. Blood glucose levels should be maintained below 8 mmol/l. Pyrexia should be avoided, and there is some evidence for controlled mild hypothermia but no consensus on this.
Post ROSC investigations may include a chest X-ray, ECG monitoring, serial potassium and lactate measurements, and other imaging modalities like ultrasonography, echocardiography, CTPA, and CT head, depending on availability and skills in the local department. Treatment should be directed towards the underlying cause, and PCI or thrombolysis may be considered for acute coronary syndrome or suspected pulmonary embolism, respectively.
Patients who are comatose after ROSC without significant pre-arrest comorbidities should be transferred to the ICU for supportive care. Neurological outcome at 72 hours is the best prognostic indicator of outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics & Gynaecology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 28-year-old primigravida woman comes in with a slight vaginal bleeding. She describes the bleeding as lighter than her typical menstrual period. She is currently 9 weeks pregnant and her pregnancy test is positive. During the examination, her abdomen is soft and nontender, and the cervical os is closed.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Threatened miscarriage
Explanation:A threatened miscarriage is characterized by bleeding in the first trimester of pregnancy, but without the passing of any products of conception and with a closed cervical os. The main features of a threatened miscarriage include vaginal bleeding, often in the form of brown discharge or spotting, minimal abdominal pain, and a positive pregnancy test. It is important for stable patients who are more than 6 weeks pregnant and experiencing bleeding in early pregnancy, without any signs of an ectopic pregnancy, to seek follow-up care at an early pregnancy assessment unit (EPAU).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics & Gynaecology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Following the case of a 45 year old male who was treated in the resuscitation bay for hypovolaemic shock following a secondary post-tonsillectomy haemorrhage, your consultant requests you to prepare a teaching session for the junior doctors on the topic.
Concerning secondary post-tonsillectomy bleeding, at what age does this usually occur?Your Answer: 12-24 hours post procedure
Correct Answer: 5-10 days post procedure
Explanation:Secondary post-tonsillectomy hemorrhage commonly happens between 5 to 10 days after the procedure. This type of bleeding is usually caused by the shedding of the eschar, injury from eating solid foods, infection in the tonsil bed, use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) after surgery, or unknown reasons.
Further Reading:
Tonsillectomy is a common procedure performed by ENT surgeons in the UK, with over 50,000 surgeries performed each year. While it is considered routine, there are risks of serious complications, including post-tonsillectomy bleeding. Approximately 5% of patients experience bleeding after the procedure, with most cases being self-limiting. However, severe bleeding can lead to hypovolemia and airway obstruction from clots, which can be life-threatening.
Post-tonsillectomy bleeding can be classified as primary (reactive) or secondary (delayed). Primary bleeding occurs within 24 hours of the procedure, while secondary bleeding occurs more than 24 hours post-procedure. Secondary bleeding is often caused by factors such as sloughing of eschar, trauma from solid food ingestion, tonsil bed infection, postoperative NSAID usage, or unknown causes.
Patients may present with symptoms such as vomiting blood, coughing up blood, tasting blood in the throat, finding blood on pillows or bed sheets, or excessive swallowing (especially in children). It is important for clinicians to assess the severity of blood loss, although it can be challenging to accurately estimate in children.
The ABCDE approach should be used to assess patients, with a focus on airway compromise, hemodynamic instability, and evidence of bleeding. Clinicians may use a head torch to identify any bleeding points, which may be actively bleeding or appear as fresh red clots. It is important to note that the tonsillar fossa may appear white or yellow, which is a normal postoperative finding.
Investigations such as a full blood count, coagulation profile, group and save, and venous blood gas may be performed to assess the patient’s condition. Senior support from ENT or anesthesiology should be called if there is active bleeding.
Management of post-tonsillectomy bleeding includes positioning the patient upright and keeping them calm, establishing intravenous access, administering fluids and blood products as needed, and administering tranexamic acid to stop bleeding. Bleeding points may require gentle suction removal of fresh clots, and topical medications such as Co-phenylcaine spray or topical adrenaline may be applied to the oropharynx. All patients with post-tonsillectomy bleeding should be assessed by ENT and observed for a prolonged period, typically 12-24 hours.
If bleeding remains uncontrolled, the patient should be kept nil by mouth in preparation for surgery, and early intervention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 8
Correct
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A 32 year old male attends the emergency department due to sharp chest pain that has come on gradually over the past 48 hours. The patient reports he has general muscle aches and feels more fatigued than usual. The patient indicates the pain is retrosternal and worsens with deep inspiration and lying supine. On auscultation of the chest, a rub is audible that resembles the sound of squeaky leather. The rhythm is regular and quiet heart sounds are noted. Observations are shown below:
Blood pressure: 112/68 mmHg
Pulse rate: 92 bpm
Respiratory rate: 18 rpm
Temperature: 37.4ºC
Oxygen saturations: 98% on air
What is the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Pericarditis
Explanation:Pericardial friction rub is a common finding in pericarditis and is often described as a sound similar to squeaking leather. This patient exhibits symptoms that are consistent with acute pericarditis, including flu-like illness with muscle pain and fatigue, chest pain that worsens when lying down and improves when sitting up or leaning forward, and the presence of a pleural rub. The gradual onset of symptoms rules out conditions like pulmonary embolism or acute myocardial ischemia. It is important to note that while the pericardial rub is often considered part of the classic triad of clinical features, it is only present in about one-third of patients. Additionally, the rub may come and go, so repeated examinations may increase the chances of detecting this sign.
Further Reading:
Pericarditis is an inflammation of the pericardium, which is the protective sac around the heart. It can be acute, lasting less than 6 weeks, and may present with chest pain, cough, dyspnea, flu-like symptoms, and a pericardial rub. The most common causes of pericarditis include viral infections, tuberculosis, bacterial infections, uremia, trauma, and autoimmune diseases. However, in many cases, the cause remains unknown. Diagnosis is based on clinical features, such as chest pain, pericardial friction rub, and electrocardiographic changes. Treatment involves symptom relief with nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), and patients should avoid strenuous activity until symptoms improve. Complicated cases may require treatment for the underlying cause, and large pericardial effusions may need urgent drainage. In cases of purulent effusions, antibiotic therapy is necessary, and steroid therapy may be considered for pericarditis related to autoimmune disorders or if NSAIDs alone are ineffective.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 9
Correct
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A 32-year-old man receives a blood transfusion and experiences a severe transfusion reaction. His condition quickly worsens, and he ultimately succumbs to this reaction. His death is reported to Serious Hazards of Transfusion (SHOT).
Which of the following is the SECOND most common cause of transfusion-related fatalities in the UK?Your Answer: TACO
Explanation:Transfusion-related lung injury (TRALI) is responsible for about one-third of all transfusion-related deaths, making it the leading cause. On the other hand, transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO) accounts for approximately 20% of these fatalities, making it the second leading cause. TACO occurs when a large volume of blood is rapidly infused, particularly in patients with limited cardiac reserve or chronic anemia. Elderly individuals, infants, and severely anemic patients are especially vulnerable to this reaction.
The typical signs of TACO include acute respiratory distress, rapid heart rate, high blood pressure, the appearance of acute or worsening pulmonary edema on a chest X-ray, and evidence of excessive fluid accumulation. In many cases, simply reducing the transfusion rate, positioning the patient upright, and administering diuretics will be sufficient to manage the condition. However, in more severe cases, it is necessary to halt the transfusion and consider non-invasive ventilation.
Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI) is defined as new acute lung injury (ALI) that occurs during or within six hours of transfusion, not explained by another ALI risk factor. Transfusion of part of one unit of any blood product can cause TRALI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man comes in with a painful swelling in his right groin. He had an appendicectomy 25 years ago and has no other medical history. You suspect it may be a hernia. The swelling gradually appears when he stands and can be pushed back in a upward and outward direction. It extends into his scrotum and is located above and towards the center of the pubic tubercle.
What is the MOST likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Incisional hernia
Correct Answer: Indirect inguinal hernia
Explanation:An inguinal hernia occurs when the contents of the abdominal cavity protrude through the inguinal canal. There are two main types of inguinal hernias: indirect and direct. Indirect hernias, which account for 75% of cases, originate lateral to the inferior epigastric artery and follow the path of the spermatic cord or round ligament through the internal inguinal ring and along the inguinal canal. On the other hand, direct hernias, which make up 25% of cases, originate medial to the inferior epigastric artery and protrude through the posterior wall of the inguinal canal.
Indirect inguinal hernias can be distinguished from direct hernias by several features. They have an elliptical shape, unlike the round shape of direct hernias. They are also less likely to be easily reducible and reduce spontaneously on reclining. Additionally, indirect hernias take longer to appear when standing compared to direct hernias, which appear immediately. They can be reduced superiorly then superolaterally, while direct hernias reduce superiorly and posteriorly. Pressure over the deep inguinal ring can control indirect hernias. However, they are more prone to strangulation due to the narrow neck of the deep inguinal ring and can extend into the scrotum.
In contrast, a femoral hernia occurs when the abdominal cavity contents protrude through the femoral canal. These hernias occur below and lateral to the pubic tubercle, whereas inguinal hernias occur above and medial to the pubic tubercle. Femoral hernias are more easily visible when the patient is lying supine.
A sports hernia, also known as athletic pubalgia, is characterized by chronic groin pain in athletes and the presence of a dilated superficial inguinal ring. However, there is no palpable hernia during examination.
It is important to note that the hernia described here is not located near any scars, making it unlikely to be an incisional hernia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgical Emergencies
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 15 year old arrives at the emergency department complaining of a sore throat, swollen glands, and feeling tired for the past 2 weeks. Upon examination, you inform the patient that you suspect they have mononucleosis.
What would be the most suitable course of action?Your Answer: Discharge with prescription for phenoxymethylpenicillin
Correct Answer: Discharge with advise on analgesia
Explanation:Glandular fever is typically treated with conservative management. It is a self-limiting illness that usually resolves within 2-4 weeks and can be effectively managed with over-the-counter pain relievers. Patients should also be informed about the expected duration of the illness, ways to minimize transmission, precautions to prevent complications like splenic rupture, and provided with appropriate support and guidance. These measures are outlined in the following notes.
Further Reading:
Glandular fever, also known as infectious mononucleosis or mono, is a clinical syndrome characterized by symptoms such as sore throat, fever, and swollen lymph nodes. It is primarily caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), with other viruses and infections accounting for the remaining cases. Glandular fever is transmitted through infected saliva and primarily affects adolescents and young adults. The incubation period is 4-8 weeks.
The majority of EBV infections are asymptomatic, with over 95% of adults worldwide having evidence of prior infection. Clinical features of glandular fever include fever, sore throat, exudative tonsillitis, lymphadenopathy, and prodromal symptoms such as fatigue and headache. Splenomegaly (enlarged spleen) and hepatomegaly (enlarged liver) may also be present, and a non-pruritic macular rash can sometimes occur.
Glandular fever can lead to complications such as splenic rupture, which increases the risk of rupture in the spleen. Approximately 50% of splenic ruptures associated with glandular fever are spontaneous, while the other 50% follow trauma. Diagnosis of glandular fever involves various investigations, including viral serology for EBV, monospot test, and liver function tests. Additional serology tests may be conducted if EBV testing is negative.
Management of glandular fever involves supportive care and symptomatic relief with simple analgesia. Antiviral medication has not been shown to be beneficial. It is important to identify patients at risk of serious complications, such as airway obstruction, splenic rupture, and dehydration, and provide appropriate management. Patients can be advised to return to normal activities as soon as possible, avoiding heavy lifting and contact sports for the first month to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.
Rare but serious complications associated with glandular fever include hepatitis, upper airway obstruction, cardiac complications, renal complications, neurological complications, haematological complications, chronic fatigue, and an increased risk of lymphoproliferative cancers and multiple sclerosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 12
Incorrect
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The charge nurse approaches you to ask you to speak to an elderly woman who is dissatisfied and would like to file a complaint. She visited the emergency department with complaints of stomach discomfort and was examined by one of the male junior doctors currently on duty in the department. She alleges that he conducted a pelvic examination without providing sufficient explanation, and she is worried that it was unnecessary. Additionally, there was no chaperone present.
How would you handle this scenario?Your Answer: There is no need to do anything; she is probably just being a bit dramatic.
Correct Answer: Speak to the patient to find out what happened, review the notes, discuss with the nursing staff on duty. Discuss with the consultant on duty; this will need further detailed investigation.
Explanation:Managing a difficult situation that involves teamwork and patient safety can be challenging. The first priority is to ensure the patient’s safety from a clinical standpoint. It is important to promptly inform the consultant on duty about the incident and gather all relevant information.
In the meantime, it is crucial to gather information from the patient, nursing staff, and written notes to fully understand the situation. A thorough investigation will be necessary, including a discussion with the doctor involved. Complaints of this nature must be taken seriously, and it may be necessary to send the doctor home while the investigation takes place.
Additionally, it is important to escalate the matter to the hospital hierarchy to ensure appropriate action is taken. The doctor should also be directed to support services as this process is likely to be stressful for them.
For further guidance on this matter, it is recommended to refer to the GMC Guidance on Intimate Examinations and Chaperones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Safeguarding & Psychosocial Emergencies
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 28 year old female presents to the emergency department after being struck in the face during a night out. The patient reports a possible jaw fracture. You assess the patient for signs of mandibular fracture using the Manchester Mandibular Fracture Decision Rule.
Which of the following signs is NOT included in the Manchester Mandibular Fracture Decision Rule?Your Answer: Malocclusion
Correct Answer: Lacerations to the gum mucosa
Explanation:The Manchester Mandibular Fracture Decision Rule consists of five signs that indicate a possible mandibular fracture: malocclusion, trismus, pain with mouth closed, broken teeth, and step deformity. If none of these signs are present, it is unlikely that a mandibular fracture has occurred. However, if one or more of these signs are present, it is recommended to obtain an X-ray for further evaluation. It is important to note that gum lacerations, although commonly seen in mandibular fractures, are not included in the Manchester Mandibular Fracture Decision Rule.
Further Reading:
Mandibular fractures are a common type of facial fracture that often present to the emergency department. The mandible, or lower jaw, is formed by the fusion of two hemimandibles and articulates with the temporomandibular joints. Fractures of the mandible are typically caused by direct lateral force and often involve multiple fracture sites, including the body, condylar head and neck, and ramus.
When assessing for mandibular fractures, clinicians should use a look, feel, move method similar to musculoskeletal examination. However, it is important to note that TMJ effusion, muscle spasm, and pain can make moving the mandible difficult. Key signs of mandibular fracture include malocclusion, trismus (limited mouth opening), pain with the mouth closed, broken teeth, step deformity, hematoma in the sublingual space, lacerations to the gum mucosa, and bleeding from the ear.
The Manchester Mandibular Fracture Decision Rule uses the absence of five exam findings (malocclusion, trismus, broken teeth, pain with closed mouth, and step deformity) to exclude mandibular fracture. This rule has been found to be 100% sensitive and 39% specific in detecting mandibular fractures. Imaging is an important tool in diagnosing mandibular fractures, with an OPG X-ray considered the best initial imaging for TMJ dislocation and mandibular fracture. CT may be used if the OPG is technically difficult or if a CT is being performed for other reasons, such as a head injury.
It is important to note that head injury often accompanies mandibular fractures, so a thorough head injury assessment should be performed. Additionally, about a quarter of patients with mandibular fractures will also have a fracture of at least one other facial bone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maxillofacial & Dental
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 72 year old male with a history of COPD is brought into the emergency department due to worsening shortness of breath. You observe that the patient has been utilizing home oxygen, home salbutamol and ipratropium nebulizers, and began taking a rescue pack of antibiotics and steroids yesterday.
Which of the following factors would indicate the initiation of BiPAP ventilation?Your Answer: Glasgow coma score less than 8
Correct Answer: pH less than 7.35 on arterial blood gas
Explanation:Non-invasive ventilation is recommended for patients with hypercapnia and acidosis. Respiratory acidosis, indicated by a pH level below 7.35, is a strong indication for the use of BiPAP. However, patients with a pH level of 7.25 or lower may not respond well to non-invasive ventilation and should be considered for intensive care unit (ITU) treatment. Another criterion for the use of BiPAP is hypercapnia, which is characterized by an arterial pCO2 level greater than 6.0 KPa.
Further Reading:
Mechanical ventilation is the use of artificial means to assist or replace spontaneous breathing. It can be invasive, involving instrumentation inside the trachea, or non-invasive, where there is no instrumentation of the trachea. Non-invasive mechanical ventilation (NIV) in the emergency department typically refers to the use of CPAP or BiPAP.
CPAP, or continuous positive airways pressure, involves delivering air or oxygen through a tight-fitting face mask to maintain a continuous positive pressure throughout the patient’s respiratory cycle. This helps maintain small airway patency, improves oxygenation, decreases airway resistance, and reduces the work of breathing. CPAP is mainly used for acute cardiogenic pulmonary edema.
BiPAP, or biphasic positive airways pressure, also provides positive airway pressure but with variations during the respiratory cycle. The pressure is higher during inspiration than expiration, generating a tidal volume that assists ventilation. BiPAP is mainly indicated for type 2 respiratory failure in patients with COPD who are already on maximal medical therapy.
The pressure settings for CPAP typically start at 5 cmH2O and can be increased to a maximum of 15 cmH2O. For BiPAP, the starting pressure for expiratory pressure (EPAP) or positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) is 3-5 cmH2O, while the starting pressure for inspiratory pressure (IPAP) is 10-15 cmH2O. These pressures can be titrated up if there is persisting hypoxia or acidosis.
In terms of lung protective ventilation, low tidal volumes of 5-8 ml/kg are used to prevent atelectasis and reduce the risk of lung injury. Inspiratory pressures (plateau pressure) should be kept below 30 cm of water, and permissible hypercapnia may be allowed. However, there are contraindications to lung protective ventilation, such as unacceptable levels of hypercapnia, acidosis, and hypoxemia.
Overall, mechanical ventilation, whether invasive or non-invasive, is used in various respiratory and non-respiratory conditions to support or replace spontaneous breathing and improve oxygenation and ventilation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 15
Incorrect
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You witness the sudden arrival of a baby in one of the rooms in the Emergency Department. Your supervisor evaluates the newborn one minute after birth and informs you that:
The entire body appears pale
The heart rate is 90 beats per minute
The baby reacts with a grimace when suctioned
There is some bending of the limbs
The cry is feeble, and the baby is gasping for breath
What is the Apgar score of the newborn at one minute?Your Answer: 2
Correct Answer: 4
Explanation:The Apgar score is a straightforward way to evaluate the well-being of a newborn baby right after birth. It consists of five criteria, each assigned a score ranging from zero to two. Typically, the assessment is conducted at one and five minutes after delivery, with the possibility of repeating it later if the score remains low. A score of 7 or higher is considered normal, while a score of 4-6 is considered fairly low, and a score of 3 or below is regarded as critically low. To remember the five criteria, you can use the acronym APGAR:
Appearance
Pulse rate
Grimace
Activity
Respiratory effortThe Apgar score criteria are as follows:
Score of 0:
Appearance (skin color): Blue or pale all over
Pulse rate: Absent
Reflex irritability (grimace): No response to stimulation
Activity: None
Respiratory effort: AbsentScore of 1:
Appearance (skin color): Blue at extremities (acrocyanosis)
Pulse rate: Less than 100 per minute
Reflex irritability (grimace): Grimace on suction or aggressive stimulation
Activity: Some flexion
Respiratory effort: Weak, irregular, gaspingScore of 2:
Appearance (skin color): No cyanosis, body and extremities pink
Pulse rate: More than 100 per minute
Reflex irritability (grimace): Cry on stimulation
Activity: Flexed arms and legs that resist extension
Respiratory effort: Strong, robust cry -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Neonatal Emergencies
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A middle-aged male patient comes in with wheezing, facial swelling, and low blood pressure after being stung by a bee. You suspect that he is experiencing an anaphylactic reaction.
Which immunoglobulins mediate anaphylaxis?Your Answer: IgA
Correct Answer: IgE
Explanation:Anaphylaxis is a prime example of a type I hypersensitivity reaction. It is mediated by IgE antibodies. The complex formed by IgE and the antigen binds to Fc receptors found on the surface of mast cells. This binding triggers the degranulation of mast cells, leading to the release of histamine, proteoglycans, and serum proteases from their granules. It is important to note that anaphylaxis can only occur after prior exposure to the antigen. During the initial exposure, a sensitization reaction takes place, and it is only upon subsequent exposure to the antigen that anaphylaxis is triggered. The degranulation of mast cells is a result of a significant influx of calcium into these cells.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Allergy
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a swollen and red right knee. She recently returned from a trip to Bangkok. During the examination, her temperature is 38.6°C and she has a rash with small blisters on her trunk. The knee feels warm to touch and is immobile. Attempts to flex or extend the knee are unsuccessful. A joint aspiration is done, and Gram-negative diplococci are observed.
Which of the following antibiotics would be the most suitable to prescribe for this patient?Your Answer: Flucloxacillin
Correct Answer: Cefotaxime
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis in this case is septic arthritis, which occurs when an infectious agent invades a joint and causes pus formation. The patient’s recent travel to Bangkok, presence of a vesicular rash on the trunk, and the identification of Gram-negative diplococci support this diagnosis.
Septic arthritis is characterized by several clinical features. These include pain in the affected joint, redness, warmth, and swelling of the joint, and difficulty in moving the joint. Patients may also experience fever and systemic upset.
The most common cause of septic arthritis is Staphylococcus aureus. Other bacteria that can lead to this condition include Streptococcus spp., Haemophilus influenzae, Neisseria gonorrhoea (typically seen in sexually active young adults with macules or vesicles on the trunk), and Escherichia coli (common in intravenous drug users, the elderly, and seriously ill individuals).
According to the current recommendations by NICE (National Institute for Health and Care Excellence) and the BNF (British National Formulary), the treatment for septic arthritis involves the following approaches. Flucloxacillin is the first-line antibiotic. In cases of penicillin allergy, clindamycin is recommended. If there is suspicion of MRSA (methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus), vancomycin should be used. For suspected gonococcal arthritis or Gram-negative infection, cefotaxime is the preferred choice. The suggested duration of treatment is 4-6 weeks, although it may be longer if the infection is complicated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A hiker is airlifted by helicopter after being rescued from a mountain expedition. During chest examination, the doctor detects bibasal crackles and symptoms that indicate altitude sickness.
What type of acid-base imbalance would you anticipate at high elevations?Your Answer: Metabolic alkalosis
Correct Answer: Respiratory alkalosis
Explanation:The following provides a summary of common causes for different acid-base disorders.
Respiratory alkalosis can be caused by hyperventilation, such as during periods of anxiety. It can also be a result of conditions like pulmonary embolism, CNS disorders (such as stroke or encephalitis), altitude, pregnancy, or the early stages of aspirin overdose.
Respiratory acidosis, on the other hand, is often associated with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), life-threatening asthma, pulmonary edema, sedative drug overdose (such as opiates or benzodiazepines), neuromuscular disease, obesity, or other respiratory conditions.
Metabolic alkalosis can occur due to vomiting, potassium depletion (often caused by diuretic usage), Cushing’s syndrome, or Conn’s syndrome.
Metabolic acidosis with a raised anion gap can be caused by lactic acidosis (such as in cases of hypoxemia, shock, sepsis, or infarction), ketoacidosis (such as in diabetes, starvation, or alcohol excess), renal failure, or poisoning (such as in late stages of aspirin overdose, methanol or ethylene glycol ingestion).
Lastly, metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap can be a result of conditions like diarrhea, ammonium chloride ingestion, or adrenal insufficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Environmental Emergencies
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old traveler returns from a vacation in India with a high temperature and stomach issues. After medical examination, he is confirmed to have typhoid fever.
Your Answer: Faget’s sign occurs when patients have a fever accompanied by a tachycardia
Correct Answer: The incubation period is between 7 and 21 days
Explanation:Typhoid fever is a bacterial infection caused by Salmonella typhi. Paratyphoid fever, on the other hand, is a similar illness caused by Salmonella paratyphi. Together, these two conditions are collectively known as the enteric fevers.
Typhoid fever is prevalent in India and many other parts of Asia, Africa, Central America, and South America. It is primarily transmitted through the consumption of contaminated food or water that has been infected by the feces of an acutely infected or recovering person, or a chronic carrier. About 1-6% of individuals infected with S. typhi become chronic carriers. The incubation period for this illness ranges from 7 to 21 days.
During the first week of the illness, patients experience weakness and lethargy, accompanied by a gradually increasing fever. The onset of the illness is usually subtle, and constipation is more common than diarrhea in the early stages. Other early symptoms include headaches, abdominal pain, and nosebleeds. In cases of typhoid fever, the fever can occur with a relatively slow heart rate, known as Faget’s sign.
As the illness progresses into the second week, patients often become too fatigued to get out of bed. Diarrhea becomes more prominent, the fever intensifies, and patients may become agitated and delirious. The abdomen may become tender and swollen, and approximately 75% of patients develop an enlarged spleen. In up to a third of patients, red macules known as Rose spots may appear.
In the third week, the illness can lead to various complications. Intestinal bleeding may occur due to bleeding in congested Peyer’s patches. Other potential complications include intestinal perforation, secondary pneumonia, encephalitis, myocarditis, metastatic abscesses, and septic shock.
After the third week, surviving patients begin to show signs of improvement, with the fever and symptoms gradually subsiding over the course of 7-14 days. Untreated patients have a mortality rate of 15-30%. Traditionally, drugs like ampicillin and trimethoprim have been used for treatment. However, due to the emergence of multidrug resistant cases, azithromycin or fluoroquinolones are now the primary treatment options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 20
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman has been involved in a physical altercation outside a bar. She has been hit multiple times in the face and has a noticeable swelling on her right cheek. Her facial X-ray shows a zygomaticomaxillary complex fracture but no other injuries.
Which of the following will NOT be visible on her X-ray?Your Answer: Fracture of the superior orbital rim
Explanation:Zygomaticomaxillary complex fractures, also known as quadramalar or tripod fractures, make up around 40% of all midface fractures and are the second most common facial bone fractures after nasal bone fractures.
These injuries typically occur when a direct blow is delivered to the malar eminence of the cheek. They consist of four components:
1. Widening of the zygomaticofrontal suture
2. Fracture of the zygomatic arch
3. Fracture of the inferior orbital rim and the walls of the anterior and posterior maxillary sinuses
4. Fracture of the lateral orbital rim. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Maxillofacial & Dental
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 32 year old male is brought into the emergency department by ambulance after complaining of difficulty breathing whilst at a bar. The paramedics administered 15 litres of oxygen as the patient's oxygen saturations at the scene were 82% on air. The saturations improved to 84% on 100% oxygen. You observe that the patient appears pale but is able to speak in full sentences. The patient informs you that he had sniffed poppers a few minutes before feeling unwell. What is the likely cause of this patient's hypoxia?
Your Answer: Pulmonary embolism
Correct Answer: Methaemoglobinaemia
Explanation:Methaemoglobinaemia is a condition that can be caused by nitrates, including amyl nitrite.
Further Reading:
Methaemoglobinaemia is a condition where haemoglobin is oxidised from Fe2+ to Fe3+. This process is normally regulated by NADH methaemoglobin reductase, which transfers electrons from NADH to methaemoglobin, converting it back to haemoglobin. In healthy individuals, methaemoglobin levels are typically less than 1% of total haemoglobin. However, an increase in methaemoglobin can lead to tissue hypoxia as Fe3+ cannot bind oxygen effectively.
Methaemoglobinaemia can be congenital or acquired. Congenital causes include haemoglobin chain variants (HbM, HbH) and NADH methaemoglobin reductase deficiency. Acquired causes can be due to exposure to certain drugs or chemicals, such as sulphonamides, local anaesthetics (especially prilocaine), nitrates, chloroquine, dapsone, primaquine, and phenytoin. Aniline dyes are also known to cause methaemoglobinaemia.
Clinical features of methaemoglobinaemia include slate grey cyanosis (blue to grey skin coloration), chocolate blood or chocolate cyanosis (brown color of blood), dyspnoea, low SpO2 on pulse oximetry (which often does not improve with supplemental oxygen), and normal PaO2 on arterial blood gas (ABG) but low SaO2. Patients may tolerate hypoxia better than expected. Severe cases can present with acidosis, arrhythmias, seizures, and coma.
Diagnosis of methaemoglobinaemia is made by directly measuring the level of methaemoglobin using a co-oximeter, which is present in most modern blood gas analysers. Other investigations, such as a full blood count (FBC), electrocardiogram (ECG), chest X-ray (CXR), and beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (bHCG) levels (in pregnancy), may be done to assess the extent of the condition and rule out other contributing factors.
Active treatment is required if the methaemoglobin level is above 30% or if it is below 30% but the patient is symptomatic or shows evidence of tissue hypoxia. Treatment involves maintaining the airway and delivering high-flow oxygen, removing the causative agents, treating toxidromes and consider giving IV dextrose 5%.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 22
Correct
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A 68 year old male is brought to the emergency department by a concerned coworker who noticed that the patient seemed unsteady on his feet and very short of breath when walking to his car. The patient tells you they usually feel a bit short of breath when doing things like walking to their car or going up the stairs. On examination you note a regular pulse, rate 88 bpm, but an audible ejection systolic murmur loudest at the left sternal edge. Blood pressure is 148/94 mmHg. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Aortic stenosis
Explanation:Severe aortic stenosis (AS) is characterized by several distinct features. These include a slow rising pulse, an ejection systolic murmur that is heard loudest in the aortic area and may radiate to the carotids, and a soft or absent S2 heart sound. Additionally, patients with severe AS often have a narrow pulse pressure and may exhibit an S4 heart sound.
AS is commonly caused by hypertension, although blood pressure findings can vary. In severe cases, patients may actually be hypotensive due to impaired cardiac output. Symptoms of severe AS typically include Presyncope or syncope, exertional chest pain, and shortness of breath. These symptoms can be remembered using the acronym SAD (Syncope, Angina, Dyspnoea).
It is important to note that aortic stenosis primarily affects older individuals, as it is a result of scarring and calcium buildup in the valve. Age-related AS typically begins after the age of 60, but symptoms may not appear until patients are in their 70s or 80s.
Diastolic murmurs, on the other hand, are associated with conditions such as aortic regurgitation, pulmonary regurgitation, and mitral stenosis.
Further Reading:
Valvular heart disease refers to conditions that affect the valves of the heart. In the case of aortic valve disease, there are two main conditions: aortic regurgitation and aortic stenosis.
Aortic regurgitation is characterized by an early diastolic murmur, a collapsing pulse (also known as a water hammer pulse), and a wide pulse pressure. In severe cases, there may be a mid-diastolic Austin-Flint murmur due to partial closure of the anterior mitral valve cusps caused by the regurgitation streams. The first and second heart sounds (S1 and S2) may be soft, and S2 may even be absent. Additionally, there may be a hyperdynamic apical pulse. Causes of aortic regurgitation include rheumatic fever, infective endocarditis, connective tissue diseases like rheumatoid arthritis and systemic lupus erythematosus, and a bicuspid aortic valve. Aortic root diseases such as aortic dissection, spondyloarthropathies like ankylosing spondylitis, hypertension, syphilis, and genetic conditions like Marfan’s syndrome and Ehler-Danlos syndrome can also lead to aortic regurgitation.
Aortic stenosis, on the other hand, is characterized by a narrow pulse pressure, a slow rising pulse, and a delayed ESM (ejection systolic murmur). The second heart sound (S2) may be soft or absent, and there may be an S4 (atrial gallop) that occurs just before S1. A thrill may also be felt. The duration of the murmur is an important factor in determining the severity of aortic stenosis. Causes of aortic stenosis include degenerative calcification (most common in older patients), a bicuspid aortic valve (most common in younger patients), William’s syndrome (supravalvular aortic stenosis), post-rheumatic disease, and subvalvular conditions like hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM).
Management of aortic valve disease depends on the severity of symptoms. Asymptomatic patients are generally observed, while symptomatic patients may require valve replacement. Surgery may also be considered for asymptomatic patients with a valvular gradient greater than 40 mmHg and features such as left ventricular systolic dysfunction. Balloon valvuloplasty is limited to patients with critical aortic stenosis who are not fit for valve replacement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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The Emergency Medicine consultant in charge of the department today asks for your attention to present a case of superior orbital fissure syndrome (SOFS) in a 30-year-old man with a Le Fort II fracture of the midface after a motorcycle accident.
Which of the following anatomical structures traverses the superior orbital fissure?Your Answer: Facial artery
Correct Answer: Lacrimal nerve
Explanation:The superior orbital fissure is a gap in the back wall of the orbit, created by the space between the greater and lesser wings of the sphenoid bone. Several structures pass through it to enter the orbit, starting from the top and going downwards. These include the lacrimal nerve (a branch of CN V1), the frontal nerve (another branch of CN V1), the superior ophthalmic vein, the trochlear nerve (CN IV), the superior division of the oculomotor nerve (CN III), the nasociliary nerve (a branch of CN V1), the inferior division of the oculomotor nerve (CN III), the abducens nerve (CN VI), and the inferior ophthalmic vein.
Adjacent to the superior orbital fissure, on the back wall of the orbit and towards the middle, is the optic canal. The optic nerve (CN II) exits the orbit through this canal, along with the ophthalmic artery.
Superior orbital fissure syndrome (SOFS) is a condition characterized by a combination of symptoms and signs that occur when cranial nerves III, IV, V1, and VI are compressed or injured as they pass through the superior orbital fissure. This condition also leads to swelling and protrusion of the eye due to impaired drainage and congestion. The main causes of SOFS are trauma, tumors, and inflammation. It is important to note that CN II is not affected by this syndrome, as it follows a separate path through the optic canal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Maxillofacial & Dental
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old boy is brought in by his father with a red and itchy right eye. On examination, there is mild redness of the conjunctiva, and small bumps are visible on the inside of the eyelid. The eyelid is swollen, and there are a few small red spots on the white part of the eye. The eye is watery, and there is no pus. He recently had a mild cold. You diagnose him with viral conjunctivitis.
According to the current NICE guidance, which of the following should NOT be included in the management of this patient?Your Answer: Lubricating drops can be prescribed to help manage their symptoms
Correct Answer: The child should be excluded from school until the infection has resolved
Explanation:When it comes to managing viral conjunctivitis, it’s important to reassure the patient that most cases are self-limiting and don’t require antimicrobial treatment. In fact, viral conjunctivitis usually resolves on its own within one to two weeks. However, there are some self-care measures that can help ease symptoms. These include cleaning the eyelids with cotton wool soaked in sterile saline or boiled and cooled water, applying cool compresses around the eye area, and using lubricating drops or artificial tears. It’s also important to avoid prescribing antibiotics if possible.
It’s crucial to inform the person that infective conjunctivitis is contagious and they should take steps to prevent spreading the infection to their other eye and other people. This includes washing hands frequently with soap and water, using separate towels and flannels, and avoiding close contact with others, especially if they are a healthcare professional or child-care provider. It’s worth noting that the infection can be contagious for up to 14 days from onset.
According to Public Health England, there is no recommended exclusion period from school, nursery, or childminders unless there is an outbreak or cluster of cases. It’s important to provide written information to the patient, explain the red flags for an urgent review, and advise them to seek further help if symptoms persist beyond 7 days. If the person returns with symptoms of conjunctivitis, it may be necessary to consider sending swabs for viral PCR and bacterial culture, as well as prescribing empirical topical antibiotics if they haven’t already been prescribed. If symptoms persist for more than 7-10 days after initiating treatment, it may be necessary to discuss with or refer to ophthalmology.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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You conduct a cardiovascular examination on a 62-year-old man who complains of shortness of breath. He informs you that he has a known heart valve issue. During auscultation, you observe a significantly split second heart sound (S2).
What is the most probable cause of this finding?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mitral regurgitation
Explanation:The second heart sound (S2) is created by vibrations produced when the aortic and pulmonary valves close. It marks the end of systole. It is normal to hear a split in the sound during inspiration.
A loud S2 can be associated with certain conditions such as systemic hypertension (resulting in a loud A2), pulmonary hypertension (resulting in a loud P2), hyperdynamic states (like tachycardia, fever, or thyrotoxicosis), and atrial septal defect (which causes a loud P2).
On the other hand, a soft S2 can be linked to decreased aortic diastolic pressure (as seen in aortic regurgitation), poorly mobile cusps (such as calcification of the aortic valve), aortic root dilatation, and pulmonary stenosis (which causes a soft P2).
A widely split S2 can occur during deep inspiration, right bundle branch block, prolonged right ventricular systole (seen in conditions like pulmonary stenosis or pulmonary embolism), and severe mitral regurgitation. However, in the case of atrial septal defect, the splitting is fixed and does not vary with respiration.
Reversed splitting of S2, where P2 occurs before A2 (paradoxical splitting), can occur during deep expiration, left bundle branch block, prolonged left ventricular systole (as seen in hypertrophic cardiomyopathy), severe aortic stenosis, and right ventricular pacing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A young man arrives at the Emergency Department with symptoms of acute alcohol withdrawal. He is seeking admission for 'inpatient detox' and expresses a desire for medication to alleviate his discomfort.
Which ONE of the following medications will you administer to alleviate his symptoms during his stay in the Emergency Department?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chlordiazepoxide
Explanation:Benzodiazepines are commonly prescribed in the UK to help manage symptoms of alcohol withdrawal. Currently, only diazepam and chlordiazepoxide have been approved for this purpose. If you would like to learn more about the NICE pathway for acute alcohol withdrawal or the RCEM syllabus reference, please refer to the provided links. Additionally, information on alcohol and substance misuse can be found in the MHC1 section.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 72 year old female arrives at the emergency department after speaking with her primary care physician over the phone. She explains that while she was shopping, her right arm and right leg suddenly felt weak and became a bit difficult to move. The patient is otherwise alert, oriented, feels well, and has normal speech. A brain CT scan reveals a focal area of ischemia consistent with an acute stroke. You arrange for her transfer to the stroke unit. The patient inquires if she can drive her car before going to the ward. What advice would you give her regarding driving?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Advise them, they must not drive a car for at least 1 month following a confirmed stroke
Explanation:Patients who have experienced a stroke should be aware that they are not allowed to drive for at least one month if they have a type 1 license. If there are no neurological issues after this time period, they may not need to inform the DVLA (Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency). However, they must inform the DVLA if any of the following conditions apply: they have had more than one stroke or transient ischemic attack (TIA), they have a Group 2 license, a medical practitioner has expressed concerns about their ability to drive, they still have residual deficits one month after the stroke (such as weakness in the limbs, visual problems, coordination difficulties, memory or understanding issues), the stroke required neurosurgical treatment, or if they experienced a seizure (unless it was an isolated seizure within 24 hours of the stroke and there is no history of prior seizures).
Further Reading:
Blackouts are a common occurrence in the emergency department and can have serious consequences if they happen while a person is driving. It is crucial for doctors in the ED to be familiar with the guidelines set by the DVLA (Driver and Vehicle Licensing Agency) regarding driving restrictions for patients who have experienced a blackout.
The DVLA has specific rules for different types of conditions that may cause syncope (loss of consciousness). For group 1 license holders (car/motorcycle use), if a person has had a first unprovoked isolated seizure, they must refrain from driving for 6 months or 12 months if there is an underlying causative factor that may increase the risk. They must also notify the DVLA. For group 2 license holders (bus and heavy goods vehicles), the restrictions are more stringent, with a requirement of 12 months off driving for a first unprovoked isolated seizure and 5 years off driving if there is an underlying causative factor.
For epilepsy or multiple seizures, both group 1 and group 2 license holders must remain seizure-free for 12 months before their license can be considered. They must also notify the DVLA. In the case of a stroke or isolated transient ischemic attack (TIA), group 1 license holders need to refrain from driving for 1 month, while group 2 license holders must wait for 12 months before being re-licensed subject to medical evaluation. Multiple TIAs require 3 months off driving for both groups.
Isolated vasovagal syncope requires no driving restriction for group 1 license holders, but group 2 license holders must refrain from driving for 3 months. Both groups must notify the DVLA. If syncope is caused by a reversible and treated condition, group 1 license holders need 4 weeks off driving, while group 2 license holders require 3 months. In the case of an isolated syncopal episode with an unknown cause, group 1 license holders must refrain from driving for 6 months, while group 2 license holders will have their license refused or revoked for 12 months.
For patients who continue to drive against medical advice, the GMC (General Medical Council) has provided guidance on how doctors should manage the situation. Doctors should explain to the patient why they are not allowed to drive and inform them of their legal duty to notify the DVLA or DVA (Driver and Vehicle Agency in Northern Ireland). Doctors should also record the advice given to the patient in their medical record
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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You are requested to aid the team in resuscitating a 42-year-old male who has been admitted to the emergency department with various injuries, including a head injury resulting from a severe assault. The patient shows signs of increased intracranial pressure and has been intubated. The specialist registrar is contemplating the use of hyperventilation. What is the impact of hyperventilation on ICP, and what is its underlying mechanism?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increases blood pH which results in arterial vasoconstriction and reduced cerebral blood flow
Explanation:Hyperventilation leads to the constriction of blood vessels in the brain, which in turn reduces the flow and volume of blood in the brain, ultimately decreasing intracranial pressure (ICP). This is because hyperventilation lowers the levels of carbon dioxide (PaCO2) in the blood, resulting in an increase in pH and causing the arteries in the brain to constrict and reduce blood flow. As a result, cerebral blood volume and ICP decrease. The effects of hyperventilation are immediate, but they gradually diminish over a period of 6-24 hours as the brain adjusts its bicarbonate levels to normalize pH. However, caution must be exercised when discontinuing hyperventilation after a prolonged period, as the sudden increase in PaCO2 can lead to a rapid rise in cerebral blood flow and a detrimental increase in ICP.
Further Reading:
Intracranial pressure (ICP) refers to the pressure within the craniospinal compartment, which includes neural tissue, blood, and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Normal ICP for a supine adult is 5-15 mmHg. The body maintains ICP within a narrow range through shifts in CSF production and absorption. If ICP rises, it can lead to decreased cerebral perfusion pressure, resulting in cerebral hypoperfusion, ischemia, and potentially brain herniation.
The cranium, which houses the brain, is a closed rigid box in adults and cannot expand. It is made up of 8 bones and contains three main components: brain tissue, cerebral blood, and CSF. Brain tissue accounts for about 80% of the intracranial volume, while CSF and blood each account for about 10%. The Monro-Kellie doctrine states that the sum of intracranial volumes is constant, so an increase in one component must be offset by a decrease in the others.
There are various causes of raised ICP, including hematomas, neoplasms, brain abscesses, edema, CSF circulation disorders, venous sinus obstruction, and accelerated hypertension. Symptoms of raised ICP include headache, vomiting, pupillary changes, reduced cognition and consciousness, neurological signs, abnormal fundoscopy, cranial nerve palsy, hemiparesis, bradycardia, high blood pressure, irregular breathing, focal neurological deficits, seizures, stupor, coma, and death.
Measuring ICP typically requires invasive procedures, such as inserting a sensor through the skull. Management of raised ICP involves a multi-faceted approach, including antipyretics to maintain normothermia, seizure control, positioning the patient with a 30º head up tilt, maintaining normal blood pressure, providing analgesia, using drugs to lower ICP (such as mannitol or saline), and inducing hypocapnoeic vasoconstriction through hyperventilation. If these measures are ineffective, second-line therapies like barbiturate coma, optimised hyperventilation, controlled hypothermia, or decompressive craniectomy may be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman presents with a history of severe migraines. This morning's episode was similar to previous ones in that it occurred around her right temple and was so intense that she felt like hitting her head to try and distract from the pain. Further questioning and examination lead you to conclude that she is suffering from cluster headaches.
Which of the following is NOT an effective treatment for cluster headaches?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral codeine phosphate
Explanation:Standard pain relievers are generally not effective in treating cluster headaches. They take too long to work, and by the time they start to relieve the pain, the headache has usually already gone away. It is not recommended to use opioids for cluster headaches as they may actually make the headaches worse, and using them for a long time can lead to dependency.
However, there are other options that can be effective in treating cluster headaches. One option is to use subcutaneous sumatriptan, which is a medication that works by stimulating a specific receptor in the brain. This can help reduce the inflammation in the blood vessels that is associated with migraines and cluster headaches. Most people find that subcutaneous sumatriptan starts to work within 10-15 minutes of being administered.
Another option is to use zolmitriptan nasal spray, which is also a medication that works in a similar way to sumatriptan. However, it may take a bit longer for the nasal spray to start working compared to the subcutaneous injection.
In addition to medication, high-flow oxygen can also be used as an alternative therapy for cluster headaches. This involves breathing in oxygen at a high flow rate, which can help relieve the pain and other symptoms of a cluster headache.
Lastly, octreotide can be administered subcutaneously and has been shown to be more effective than a placebo in treating acute cluster headache attacks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man comes in with severe bloody diarrhea caused by a gastrointestinal infection.
Which organism is the SINGLE LEAST likely cause?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli
Explanation:Enterotoxigenic E.coli is a strain that does not invade the body and does not lead to inflammation or bloody diarrhea. On the other hand, enterogenic strains result in excessive watery diarrhea and are typically not accompanied by abdominal cramping.
There are several infectious causes of bloody diarrhea, including Campylobacter spp., Shigella spp., Salmonella spp., Clostridium difficile, Enterohaemorrhagic Escherichia coli, Yersinia spp., Schistosomiasis, and Amoebiasis (Entamoeba histolytica).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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