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  • Question 1 - A 28-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 3-week history of...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a 3-week history of fatigue, fever and muscle pain after returning from a trip to Costa Rica. She also reports occasional episodes of vomiting and diarrhea. She has no significant medical history and has been generally healthy.
      Upon examination, she is febrile with a temperature of 38.5 °C. Her heart rate is 110 bpm and regular, with a blood pressure of 118/72 mmHg. Lung and heart sounds are normal. Her abdomen is soft and non-tender, with no palpable organomegaly. She has enlarged cervical and inguinal lymph nodes. She also has bilateral conjunctivitis and mild periorbital edema.
      Electrocardiogram (ECG): sinus tachycardia, PR interval 200 ms.
      Which of the following vectors is most likely responsible for transmitting the causative organism?

      Your Answer: Triatomine bugs

      Explanation:

      Vector-borne Diseases and their Symptoms

      Chagas’ disease, caused by triatomine bugs, is prevalent in Latin America and has an acute and chronic phase. Symptoms include malaise, fever, headaches, myalgia, anorexia, nausea, vomiting, and lymphadenopathy. Unilateral conjunctivitis and periorbital cellulitis may also be seen. Leishmaniasis, spread by sandflies, causes a small red papule that enlarges to up to 2 cm in diameter, ulcerates, and resolves within two months to a year. Dengue fever, transmitted by Aedes mosquitoes, has symptoms similar to Chagas’ disease but does not cause unilateral eye signs. Malaria, spread by Anopheles mosquitoes, causes fever, chills, myalgia, headache, nausea, vomiting, and hepatosplenomegaly. Lyme disease, caused by Borrelia burgdorferi spread by ticks, is not involved in the transmission of Chagas’ disease. Treatment for Chagas’ disease includes bed rest and antiparasitic agents.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 2 - A 21-year-old male presents to the Emergency department following a generalised seizure. He...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old male presents to the Emergency department following a generalised seizure. He has a history of epilepsy and vomited during the seizure. Upon examination, the patient is drowsy but responsive to verbal commands and is covered in vomitus. He has a fever of 38.5°C and coarse crackles are heard in the right upper and mid zones of his chest. A chest radiograph reveals diffuse right upper lobar airway shadowing. What is the appropriate combination of antibiotics to initiate treatment?

      Your Answer: Co-amoxiclav + metronidazole

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Aspiration Pneumonia

      Aspiration pneumonia is a condition that results from the inhalation of foreign substances into the lungs, causing bacterial and chemical pneumonitis. The common organisms involved in this condition include Staph aureus, Strep pneumoniae, Peptostreptococci, and Fusobacterium. The appropriate treatment for aspiration pneumonia is a combination of co-amoxiclav and metronidazole. Co-amoxiclav is used to cover aerobes and facultative aerobes, while metronidazole targets anaerobes. Monotherapy would not be sufficient in treating this condition.

      It is important to note that serious side effects may occur, and the treatment regimen may need to be re-evaluated. Therefore, it is crucial to monitor the patient’s response to the treatment and adjust the medication accordingly. The combination of co-amoxiclav and metronidazole offers optimal cover for the different types of bacteria involved in aspiration pneumonia. Proper treatment is necessary to prevent complications and ensure a full recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 3 - A 25-year-old carpenter arrives at the Emergency department with a hot and erythematous...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old carpenter arrives at the Emergency department with a hot and erythematous patch on the back of his hand. The erythema rapidly spreads up his arm and he begins to feel unwell. Urgent debridement in theatre is scheduled. What antibiotics should be administered, assuming no allergies?

      Your Answer: Amoxicillin and gentamicin

      Correct Answer: Clindamycin and Tazocin

      Explanation:

      Necrotising Fasciitis and Treatment with Clindamycin

      Necrotising fasciitis is a severe medical condition that requires immediate surgical intervention. It is commonly caused by group A Streptococci and can be fatal if left untreated. The classical presentation of this condition is characterised by tissue necrosis and requires surgical debridement.

      Clindamycin is a medication that is used to treat necrotising fasciitis. It works by binding to the 50S ribosomal subunit of rRNA, which inhibits the initiation of peptide chain synthesis. This medication is bacteriostatic and also suppresses bacterial toxin synthesis. Although group A Streptococci are usually sensitive to benzylpenicillin, it is often added to the treatment regimen. However, it is important to note that benzylpenicillin does not neutralise the toxin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 4 - A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of confusion that has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of confusion that has been going on for two months. He has no history of cardiovascular or peripheral vascular disease and denies having a fever or meningism. Upon examination, he is found to have an ataxic gait and reduced coordination.

      What is the most suitable test to aid in the diagnosis of tertiary syphilis?

      Your Answer: Positive VDRL

      Correct Answer: Positive TPHA

      Explanation:

      Tertiary Syphilis and Diagnostic Tests

      Tertiary syphilis is a late-stage manifestation of syphilis that can occur up to 20 years after the primary infection. It can affect various systems in the body, including the mucous membranes, cardiovascular system, and neurological system. Gummatous syphilis, cardiovascular syphilis, and late neurosyphilis are the three types of tertiary syphilis.

      The Venereal Disease Research Laboratory (VDRL) test is a commonly used diagnostic test for syphilis. It detects antibodies to cardiolipin, which is produced in response to treponemal infection. The VDRL test is highly sensitive in early infection but its sensitivity decreases in late-stage infection. It is not specific and may also give false negative results in HIV co-infection.

      The Treponema pallidum haemagglutination (TPHA) test is another diagnostic test for syphilis. It uses specific treponemal antigens and is therefore more specific than the VDRL test. Both the VDRL and TPHA tests are often positive in gummatous syphilis. However, in cardiovascular and neurosyphilis, the TPHA test is positive and the VDRL test is often negative.

      Culture is a rarely used diagnostic test for syphilis because it is expensive and time-consuming. Spinal fluid samples may demonstrate a positive VDRL, low glucose, and raised protein, but results are variable. Overall, a combination of clinical evaluation and diagnostic tests is necessary for the accurate diagnosis of tertiary syphilis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 5 - A 67-year-old man with a history of chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man with a history of chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) presents to the Hematology Clinic complaining of increasing fatigue over the past 6 months. He is normally active, playing golf three times a week, but has not been able to play recently and has started napping in the afternoons. On examination, he has marked lymphadenopathy, mild upper abdominal tenderness, and a palpable spleen and liver. His recent blood work shows a WBC count of 30.4 * 109/l with a lymphocyte count of 23.1 * 109/l, up from 15.3 * 109/l two months ago. The decision is made to start the patient on FCR chemotherapy. What prophylactic medication is most important to start?

      Your Answer: Penicillin V

      Correct Answer: Co-trimoxazole

      Explanation:

      Fludarabine is a medication that inhibits ribonucleotide reductase and DNA polymerase, preventing DNA synthesis. However, it can cause severe lymphopenia and increase the risk of opportunistic infections, particularly pneumocystis pneumonia. Therefore, patients taking fludarabine must receive regular prophylactic co-trimoxazole to prevent morbidity and mortality. Purine analogues can also reactivate herpes simplex, herpes zoster, and cytomegalovirus, so aciclovir is often given as prophylaxis. Fluconazole is commonly used as fungal prophylaxis. Entecavir is prescribed to patients who are HBsAg positive to treat hepatitis B.

      Managing Chronic Lymphocytic Leukaemia

      Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) is a type of cancer that affects the blood and bone marrow. Treatment is only necessary when certain indications are present. These include progressive marrow failure, massive or progressive lymphadenopathy or splenomegaly, progressive lymphocytosis, systemic symptoms, and autoimmune cytopaenias. Patients who do not have any of these indications are monitored with regular blood counts.

      The initial treatment of choice for the majority of CLL patients is fludarabine, cyclophosphamide, and rituximab (FCR). This combination therapy has shown promising results in managing the disease. However, in cases where previous therapies have failed, ibrutinib may be used as an alternative treatment option.

      It is important to note that CLL management should be tailored to each patient’s individual needs and circumstances. Regular monitoring and communication with healthcare professionals are crucial in ensuring the best possible outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 6 - A 65-year-old man presented with a history of excessive urination, especially at night,...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presented with a history of excessive urination, especially at night, which disturbs his sleep, excessive thirst, and tiredness for the past 2 months. He was a known HIV positive patient and has been on highly active anti-retroviral therapy (HAART) for the last 6 months. The physician suspected HIV-related diabetes mellitus. On clinical examination, everything was within normal limits. The following are his blood investigations:

      Hb: 150 g/l
      Platelets: 150 * 109/l
      WBC: 7 * 109/l
      Fasting blood glucose: 10 mmol/l
      Postprandial blood glucose: 13.9 mmol/l
      Serum creatinine: 130 umol/L

      The physician planned to start him on metformin therapy. What investigation is important to check before starting metformin in this patient?

      Your Answer: Liver enzymes

      Correct Answer: Venous lactate

      Explanation:

      Antiretroviral therapy (ART) is a treatment for HIV that involves a combination of at least three drugs. This combination typically includes two nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI) and either a protease inhibitor (PI) or a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NNRTI). ART reduces viral replication and the risk of viral resistance emerging. The 2015 BHIVA guidelines recommend that patients start ART as soon as they are diagnosed with HIV, rather than waiting until a particular CD4 count.

      Entry inhibitors, such as maraviroc and enfuvirtide, prevent HIV-1 from entering and infecting immune cells. Nucleoside analogue reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NRTI), such as zidovudine, abacavir, and tenofovir, can cause peripheral neuropathy and other side effects. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors (NNRTI), such as nevirapine and efavirenz, can cause P450 enzyme interaction and rashes. Protease inhibitors (PI), such as indinavir and ritonavir, can cause diabetes, hyperlipidaemia, and other side effects. Integrase inhibitors, such as raltegravir and dolutegravir, block the action of integrase, a viral enzyme that inserts the viral genome into the DNA of the host cell.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 7 - A 32-year-old male presents to the emergency department with complaints of red eyes,...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male presents to the emergency department with complaints of red eyes, fever, myalgia, and headache for the past 10 days. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications. He recently returned from a vacation with friends where they went kayaking and swimming in a freshwater lake. They had to cut their trip short due to concerns about exposure to raw sewage in the lake.

      During examination, bilateral erythema of the conjunctiva is observed. Cardiovascular and respiratory examinations are normal. Mild right upper quadrant tenderness and hepatomegaly are noted during abdominal examination. There is no photophobia or nuchal rigidity.

      Urinalysis is normal, and chest radiography shows clear lung fields. Blood tests reveal elevated levels of CRP, bilirubin, ALP, ALT, and γGT, along with leukocytosis and elevated creatinine.

      What is the most appropriate diagnostic test to confirm the suspected diagnosis based on the patient's clinical presentation?

      Your Answer: Blood culture

      Correct Answer: Serology

      Explanation:

      The most commonly used method for diagnosing leptospirosis is serological testing, although it may not detect antibodies until at least 7 days after infection. In this case, the patient’s symptoms and potential exposure to infected urine suggest a diagnosis of leptospirosis, and serological testing for IgM antibodies is the appropriate diagnostic test. However, this method has limitations, including false positives and the persistence of antibodies in the blood for months after infection. Blood culture is not a useful diagnostic tool due to its lengthy turnaround time, while urine PCR testing is not commonly used outside of reference laboratories. Urinary antigen testing is not relevant to this case as it is used to diagnose pneumonia caused by pneumococcus or legionella.

      Leptospirosis: A Tropical Disease with Early and Late Phases

      Leptospirosis is a disease caused by the bacterium Leptospira interrogans, which is commonly spread through contact with infected rat urine. While it is often associated with certain occupations such as sewage workers, farmers, and vets, it is more prevalent in tropical regions and should be considered in returning travelers. The disease has two phases: an early phase characterized by flu-like symptoms and fever, and a later immune phase that can lead to more severe symptoms such as acute kidney injury, hepatitis, and aseptic meningitis. Diagnosis can be made through serology, PCR, or culture, but treatment typically involves high-dose benzylpenicillin or doxycycline.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 8 - A 28-year-old female patient complains of a yellow vaginal discharge that is causing...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old female patient complains of a yellow vaginal discharge that is causing itching and has a foul odor. During the examination, the vulva appears red, and there is inflammation in the vagina. The cervix shows punctuate haemorrhages, and microscopy of the genital specimen reveals motile flagellated protozoans. What is the best initial treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Metronidazole 2g stat

      Explanation:

      Trichomoniasis: A Protozoan Infection

      Trichomoniasis is an infection caused by Trichomonas vaginalis, a flagellated protozoan. The incubation period for this infection ranges from five to 28 days. While most men and 50% of women may not show any symptoms, some may experience urethritis and vaginitis emphysematosa.

      Diagnosis of trichomoniasis can be done through dark-ground microscopy of genital wet preps or culture. Treatment involves a single dose of metronidazole 2 g. It is important to treat contacts to prevent re-infection. However, metronidazole is not recommended during the first trimester of pregnancy, and treatment should be delayed until the second trimester in such cases.

      In summary, trichomoniasis is a protozoan infection that can be asymptomatic or cause urethritis and vaginitis emphysematosa. Diagnosis can be done through microscopy or culture, and treatment involves a single dose of metronidazole. It is important to treat contacts and avoid metronidazole during the first trimester of pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 9 - A 65-year-old man with COPD is prescribed doxycycline for a flare-up. What is...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with COPD is prescribed doxycycline for a flare-up. What is the mechanism of action of doxycycline?

      Your Answer: Tetracyclines

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Tetracyclines, macrolides, trimethoprim, quinolones, and penicillin are antibiotics that work by inhibiting different bacterial processes. Tetracyclines prevent the binding of transfer RNA to messenger RNA at the ribosomal subunit, inhibiting protein synthesis. Macrolides inhibit the action of bacterial peptidyltransferase, preventing the addition of amino acids to polypeptide chains. Trimethoprim blocks the production of bacterial DNA by inhibiting dihydrofolate reductase. Quinolones interfere with DNA replication by blocking the action of DNA gyrase. Penicillin inhibits peptidoglycan cross-linking in bacterial cell walls, blocking bacterial cell division. Each antibiotic has its own unique mechanism of action and is used to treat different types of bacterial infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 10 - A 25-year-old woman presents to the Gynecology Clinic with a complaint of painful...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to the Gynecology Clinic with a complaint of painful urination for the past week. She is otherwise healthy. In her sexual history, she has had unprotected intercourse with two partners in the past 3 months. The patient is allergic to penicillin-based antibiotics.

      During the examination, there is no vaginal discharge or tenderness. The abdomen is soft and non-tender. A vaginal swab reveals 25 neutrophils per high-power field, and no organisms are seen.

      What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Metronidazole

      Correct Answer: Azithromycin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Non-Specific Urethritis

      Non-specific urethritis (NSU) is a common sexually transmitted infection that can be caused by various bacteria, including chlamydia, Ureaplasma urealyticum, and Mycoplasma genitalium. The diagnosis is made by the presence of neutrophils on a penile swab, and treatment is necessary to prevent complications.

      The first-line treatment recommended by the British Association for Sexual Health and HIV (BASHH) is doxycycline b.d, which is effective against most NSU-causing bacteria. Azithromycin is also commonly used as an alternative treatment option. Less commonly used alternatives include ofloxacin.

      Metronidazole is the correct treatment for bacterial vaginosis, which is not related to NSU. Nitrofurantoin is a possible treatment for urinary tract infections, but it is unlikely to be the correct diagnosis in a male patient with a history of unprotected sexual encounters. Ceftriaxone is the treatment for gonorrhoeae, which is a different sexually transmitted infection that requires a different treatment approach.

      In summary, the appropriate treatment for NSU depends on the specific bacteria causing the infection, but doxycycline and azithromycin are effective against most cases. It is important to seek medical attention and follow the recommended treatment plan to prevent complications and reduce the risk of transmission.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 11 - A 25-year-old female patient presents to the Obstetrician with complaints of bilateral lower...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female patient presents to the Obstetrician with complaints of bilateral lower abdominal pain and a thick, yellowish vaginal discharge that has a foul odour for the past week. She reports engaging in unprotected sexual intercourse with multiple partners. Her menstrual cycles are regular and her last menstrual period was five days ago.

      On physical examination, the patient has bilateral lower abdominal tenderness and cervical motion tenderness on bimanual vaginal examination. Her blood pressure is 120/70 mmHg, heart rate 96 bpm and temperature 37.8 °C.

      What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Intramuscular ceftriaxone single dose, oral doxycycline and metronidazole for 14 days

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Pelvic Inflammatory Disease

      Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a common infection of the female reproductive system that can lead to serious complications if left untreated. The following are treatment options for PID:

      Intramuscular ceftriaxone single dose, oral doxycycline and metronidazole for 14 days: This treatment provides microbiological cover for Neisseria gonorrhoeae and prevents the development of resistance to ceftriaxone. Metronidazole is included to improve coverage of anaerobic bacteria.

      Oral ofloxacin with oral metronidazole for 14 days: This is a second-line therapy for PID.

      Intravenous ceftriaxone and intravenous doxycycline for 14 days: This treatment is recommended for patients with severe PID.

      Oral moxifloxacin for 14 days: This treatment alone is not recommended for PID.

      Oral azithromycin single dose: Combination drug therapy is preferred for PID treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 12 - A 26-year-old HIV-positive male presents to his GP with new-onset headache and weakness...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old HIV-positive male presents to his GP with new-onset headache and weakness on the left side of his body. Upon examination, his temperature is 38ºC, blood pressure is 115/70 mmHg, respirations are 14/min, and pulse is 73/min. Neurological assessment reveals reduced strength, hyperreflexia in the left upper and lower limb, and upgoing plantars. A CT scan of the head shows multiple ring-enhancing lesions.

      What would be the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole

      Correct Answer: Sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine

      Explanation:

      Toxoplasmosis is the most common cause of central nervous system mass lesion in AIDS patients, and this patient’s symptoms are consistent with cerebral toxoplasmosis. Treatment for toxoplasmosis involves sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine, while trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole is used for prophylaxis. Brain irradiation is used for primary CNS lymphoma, which presents with weakly enhancing single or multiple lesions and afebrile patients. Brain biopsy is only considered if lesions do not respond to sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine. Albendazole is used for neurocysticercosis, which is not typically seen in AIDS patients.

      Neurological complications are common in patients with HIV. Focal neurological lesions such as toxoplasmosis, primary CNS lymphoma, and tuberculosis can cause symptoms such as headache, confusion, and drowsiness. Toxoplasmosis is the most common cause of cerebral lesions in HIV patients and is treated with sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine. Primary CNS lymphoma, which is associated with the Epstein-Barr virus, is treated with steroids, chemotherapy, and whole brain irradiation. Differentiating between toxoplasmosis and lymphoma is important for proper treatment. Generalized neurological diseases such as encephalitis, cryptococcus, progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML), and AIDS dementia complex can also occur in HIV patients. Encephalitis may be due to CMV or HIV itself, while cryptococcus is the most common fungal infection of the CNS. PML is caused by infection of oligodendrocytes by JC virus, and AIDS dementia complex is caused by the HIV virus itself. Proper diagnosis and treatment of these neurological complications is crucial for improving outcomes in HIV patients.

      Neurological Complications in HIV Patients
      Introduction to the common neurological complications in HIV patients, including focal neurological lesions such as toxoplasmosis, primary CNS lymphoma, and tuberculosis.
      Details on the diagnosis and treatment of toxoplasmosis and primary CNS lymphoma, including the importance of differentiating between the two.
      Overview of generalized neurological diseases in HIV patients, including encephalitis, cryptococcus, PML, and AIDS dementia complex.
      Importance of proper diagnosis and treatment for improving outcomes in HIV patients with neurological complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 13 - A 19-year-old male presents with a six week history of generalised pruritus which...

    Correct

    • A 19-year-old male presents with a six week history of generalised pruritus which is also interrupting his sleep. His symptoms began shortly after returning from a holiday on the Greek island of Mykonos.

      Examination reveals a normal temperature, he has a pulse of 70 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 110/78 mmHg. Examination of the skin reveals tiny erythematous papules in the finger webs but nil else.

      Investigations revealed:

      Hb 135 g/L (130-180)
      White cell count 5.5 ×109/L (4-11)
      Platelets 320 ×109/L (150-400)
      Electrolytes Normal
      Alkaline phosphatase 90 U/L (45-105)
      AST 22 U/L (1-31)
      Bilirubin 10 µmol/L (1-22)
      ESR 12 mm/hr (0-10)

      Which investigation would you request next?

      Your Answer: Skin scrapings

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Scabies

      Scabies is a condition that should be considered in any sexually active young person who complains of generalized itching without any specific signs. It is important to look for tiny red burrows in the web spaces of the fingers, as they are almost always present in cases of scabies. These burrows are a telltale sign of the condition and should be sought out during diagnosis. To confirm the diagnosis, skin scrapings should be taken to demonstrate the presence of Sarcoptes scabiei. By following these steps, healthcare professionals can accurately diagnose scabies and provide appropriate treatment to their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 14 - A 30-year-old woman with a history of IV drug use is admitted with...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman with a history of IV drug use is admitted with fever, arthralgia, and a rash. She has been deteriorating over the past six weeks and admits to using injection sites around her groin and feet. On examination, she has a soft systolic murmur at the lower left sternal edge. Her blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, pulse is 85/min and regular, and her temperature is 37.8 °C. Investigations reveal abnormal results including focal segmental proliferative glomerulonephritis on renal biopsy. Which of the following is an appropriate next investigation?

      Your Answer: Anti-double stranded DNA antibodies

      Correct Answer: Serial blood cultures

      Explanation:

      Investigations for a Patient with Hypocomplementaemia and Glomerulonephritis

      When a patient presents with hypocomplementaemia and glomerulonephritis, it is important to investigate the underlying cause. In this case, the patient’s history and examination suggest infective endocarditis as the likely culprit. Serial blood cultures from different sites and an echocardiogram are the next investigations of choice. Treatment with intravenous flucloxacillin and gentamicin should be started immediately, without waiting for test results.

      A computed tomography (CT) scan of the thorax and abdomen may be useful in identifying any malignancies or abnormal masses, but it is not helpful in diagnosing infective endocarditis. Similarly, tests for anti-double-stranded DNA antibodies, anticardiolipin antibodies, and rheumatoid factor are not useful in this context.

      Overall, a careful evaluation of the patient’s symptoms and medical history, along with appropriate laboratory and imaging tests, can help identify the underlying cause of hypocomplementaemia and glomerulonephritis and guide effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 15 - A 35-year-old man presents to the medical admissions unit with joint pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents to the medical admissions unit with joint pain and swelling in his hands and feet. He had recently traveled to Colombia and developed an illness characterized by fever, headache, rash, and debilitating polyarthralgia. Mild hepatomegaly was noted by his treating physicians. Despite recovering well from the illness, he continues to experience musculoskeletal symptoms. On examination, he has small joint polyarthritis in his hands and feet, and his abdominal examination is unremarkable. Serological testing reveals positive results for an RNA virus. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dengue

      Correct Answer: Chikungunya virus

      Explanation:

      Chikungunya is the correct answer as it can manifest with severe joint pain that can be disabling. This virus belongs to the RNA alpha-virus family and is characterized by an abrupt onset of fever, skin rashes, and joint pain, followed by long-lasting rheumatic symptoms. Unlike the other conditions mentioned, which can also cause fever, headache, and rash, Chikungunya is most commonly associated with persistent musculoskeletal symptoms. Additionally, while hepatomegaly may be present in Chikungunya, it is not a typical feature of Zika or dengue. Although EBV can cause hepatomegaly, it is a DNA virus and is less likely to cause long-term musculoskeletal symptoms.

      Chikungunya: A Mosquito-Borne Alphavirus Disease

      Chikungunya is a disease caused by infected mosquitoes that is prevalent in Africa, Asia, and the Indian subcontinent. Although it has been rare in Southern Europe, there have been a few reported cases in recent years. The first reported case was in Tanzania.

      The disease is characterized by severe joint pain and a sudden onset of high fever. Other symptoms include muscle aches, headaches, and fatigue, which are similar to those of dengue fever. However, chikungunya tends to cause more joint pain, which can be debilitating. A rash may also develop, and joint swelling is common.

      There is no specific treatment for chikungunya, and relief of symptoms is the only available option.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 16 - A 35-year-old man presented to the Medical Admission Unit with a chief complaint...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man presented to the Medical Admission Unit with a chief complaint of watery diarrhea that has been ongoing for the past few weeks. He denied the presence of blood or mucous in his stool but reported transient pain on swallowing and a weight loss of 2 stones over the last year. He had no history of respiratory symptoms or abdominal pain, and his past medical history was unremarkable. However, he did consume 20 cans of standard strength lager per week, smoked 20 cigarettes per day, and had no fixed abode.

      Upon examination, the patient appeared unkempt and disheveled with a BMI of 17.1 kg/m². His cardiovascular and respiratory examinations were unremarkable, except for an oxygen saturation of 94% on room air. His heart rate was 92/min, blood pressure 112/62 mmHg, and temperature 36.7ºC. Abdominal examination was also unremarkable, but multiple aphthous ulcers were present in his oral cavity. Examination of the neck revealed multiple small palpable cervical lymph nodes, and fundoscopy revealed the presence of white patches. Skin examination revealed multiple pearly pink umbilicated nodules.

      Initial investigations revealed a Hb of 122 g/l, platelets of 189 * 109/l, and WBC of 3.6 * 109/l. Chest x-ray and ECG were normal, and urinalysis showed no abnormalities. Stool MCS had normal interim results, pending further analysis.

      What is the single investigation that is most likely to lead to the underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer: HIV serology

      Explanation:

      This man displays multiple symptoms that strongly indicate he has Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS). He exhibits signs of CMV retinitis and oesophagitis, which could be caused by CMV or other infections like HSV and candidiasis. His diarrhea is likely due to Cryptosporidium infection, which cannot be detected through a standard initial stool analysis. Additionally, he has a skin infection consistent with Molluscum contagiosum.

      Understanding HIV Seroconversion

      HIV seroconversion is a process that occurs in individuals who have been recently infected with the virus. It is characterized by symptoms that resemble those of glandular fever, such as sore throat, lymphadenopathy, malaise, myalgia, arthralgia, diarrhea, maculopapular rash, and mouth ulcers. In some rare cases, it can also lead to meningoencephalitis. The severity of the symptoms is associated with the long-term prognosis of the patient, with more severe symptoms indicating a poorer prognosis.

      Diagnosing HIV seroconversion can be challenging, as antibodies to the virus may not be present in the early stages of infection. However, HIV PCR and p24 antigen tests can confirm the diagnosis. Understanding the process of HIV seroconversion is crucial for early detection and treatment of the virus, as well as for preventing its spread to others. By recognizing the symptoms and seeking medical attention promptly, individuals can receive the care they need to manage the virus and improve their long-term outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 17 - A 29-year-old construction worker was referred to the hospital by his primary care...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old construction worker was referred to the hospital by his primary care physician. He had visited the doctor a week ago, complaining of malaise, headache, and myalgia for three days. Despite being prescribed amoxicillin/clavulanic acid, his symptoms persisted and he developed a dry cough and fever. At the time of referral, he was experiencing mild dyspnea, a global headache, myalgia, and arthralgia. Upon examination, he appeared unwell, had a fever of 39°C, and had a maculopapular rash on his upper body. Fine crackles were audible in the left mid-zone of his chest, and mild neck stiffness was noted.

      The following investigations were conducted:
      - Hb: 84 g/L (130-180)
      - WBC: 8 ×109/L (4-11)
      - Platelets: 210 ×109/L (150-400)
      - Reticulocytes: 8% (0.5-2.4)
      - Na: 129 mmol/L (137-144)
      - K: 4.2 mmol/L (3.5-4.9)
      - Urea: 5.0 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      - Creatinine: 110 µmol/L (60-110)
      - Bilirubin: 27 µmol/L (1-22)
      - Alk phos: 130 U/L (45-105)
      - AST: 54 U/L (1-31)
      - GGT: 48 IU/L (<50)

      Additionally, a chest x-ray revealed patchy consolidation in both mid-zones. What is the most likely cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Mycoplasma pneumoniae

      Explanation:

      Mycoplasma pneumonia commonly affects individuals aged 15-30 years and presents with systemic upset, dry cough, fever, myalgia, and arthralgia. It can also cause extrapulmonary manifestations such as haemolytic anaemia, renal failure, hepatitis, myocarditis, meningism, transverse myelitis, cerebellar ataxia, and erythema multiforme. Haemolysis is associated with the presence of cold agglutinins. Diagnosis is based on the demonstration of anti-mycoplasma antibodies in paired sera.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 18 - A 33-year-old man came to the clinic complaining of general malaise, lethargy, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old man came to the clinic complaining of general malaise, lethargy, and difficulty swallowing with occasional regurgitation of undigested food for the past 6 months. He had been working as a relief worker in Bolivia for 6 years. During the examination, his blood pressure was 110/70 mmHg, his pulse was 95 bpm, and his jugular venous pulse was elevated. Bilateral basal inspiratory crackles were heard on chest auscultation, and he had bilateral pitting leg edema. A dilated esophagus was seen on a barium swallow. What is the most likely organism responsible for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Entamoeba histolytica

      Correct Answer: Trypanosoma cruzi

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis: Mega-oesophagus in a Traveler

      Mega-oesophagus is a condition characterized by the dilation and impaired motility of the esophagus. In a traveler, it can be caused by various infectious agents. However, the most likely culprit in this case is Trypanosoma cruzi, the parasite responsible for Chagas’ disease. Other potential causes, such as Leishmania donovani, Borrelia burgdorferi, Entamoeba histolytica, and Rickettsia rickettsii, can be ruled out based on the patient’s travel history and clinical presentation. A thorough differential diagnosis is crucial in guiding appropriate management and treatment of the underlying condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 19 - A 28-year-old woman presents to the clinic for evaluation. She has a history...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to the clinic for evaluation. She has a history of unprotected sexual intercourse with multiple partners and has been advised to use protection, particularly during drug use. On physical examination, she has a painless ulcer with raised edges on the labia majora, and there is mild swelling of the nearby lymph nodes.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Syphilis

      Explanation:

      When presented with a patient exhibiting painless ulcer formation, the diagnosis of primary syphilis should be considered. The usual investigation of choice for primary syphilis is EIA IgM, and treatment options include a single IM dose of Benzylpenicillin, a 2-week course of Doxycycline, or a single oral dose of Azithromycin. It is important to note that the course of the disease is similar in patients with early HIV compared to those who are HIV negative. Other potential diagnoses, such as lymphogranuloma venereum, chlamydia trachomatis, herpes simplex, and trichomoniasis, should also be considered and ruled out based on their associated symptoms and characteristics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 20 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with weakness in both legs...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with weakness in both legs and a feeling of general malaise. She had recently returned from a four week trip to Eastern Europe. During examination, she appeared unwell and had a fever of 38.9°C. Large cervical lymph nodes were palpable on both sides of her neck, and her pharynx was inflamed with exudate on the pharyngeal wall. Neurological examination revealed global weakness in both legs and absent reflexes. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Diphtheria

      Explanation:

      The Resurgence of Diphtheria in the Former USSR

      The decline of healthcare services in the former USSR led to a significant increase in cases of diphtheria. Pharyngeal diphtheria is characterized by symptoms such as fever, sore throat, cervical lymphadenopathy, and the presence of a grayish pharyngeal membrane. The diphtheria toxin can cause damage to the heart and nervous system. Treatment for diphtheria involves the use of antibiotics and diphtheria antitoxin. It is important to address the breakdown of healthcare services in order to prevent the resurgence of preventable diseases like diphtheria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 21 - A 60-year-old man has recently returned from a trip to India and is...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old man has recently returned from a trip to India and is experiencing bloody diarrhoea and fevers for the past two weeks. He noticed rose coloured spots on his abdomen yesterday. He has no significant medical history except for a prosthetic aortic valve. His blood tests show elevated inflammatory markers and stool microbiology has identified a gram-negative bacillus as a non-typhoidal Salmonella. Sensitivities are pending. What is the most appropriate initial empiric management?

      Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      The NICE guidelines recommend that individuals who are 50 years or older, have a weakened immune system, or suffer from cardiac valve disease/endovascular abnormalities should receive empirical treatment with ciprofloxacin 500mg BD upon diagnosis of non-typhoidal Salmonella gastroenteritis.

      Enteric fever, also known as typhoid or paratyphoid, is caused by Salmonella typhi and Salmonella paratyphi respectively. These bacteria are not normally found in the gut and are transmitted through contaminated food and water or the faecal-oral route. The symptoms of enteric fever include headache, fever, and joint pain, as well as abdominal pain and distension. Constipation is more common in typhoid than diarrhoea, and rose spots may appear on the trunk in 40% of patients with paratyphoid. Possible complications of enteric fever include osteomyelitis, gastrointestinal bleeding or perforation, meningitis, cholecystitis, and chronic carriage. Chronic carriage is more likely in adult females and occurs in 1% of cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 22 - A 39-year-old sheep farmer presents to the Emergency Department with jaundice, fevers and...

    Correct

    • A 39-year-old sheep farmer presents to the Emergency Department with jaundice, fevers and right upper quadrant pain, which has developed over the past 24 hours. He also has diarrhoea and feels that he is passing much smaller amounts of dark urine compared to his normal toilet habits. He tells you that he has been clearing dead wood out of some flooded hedges over the past few days. Examination reveals a temperature of 38.9 °C and his blood pressure is 95/60 mmHg; pulse is 95 bpm. He is jaundiced. Abdominal palpation reveals marked right upper quadrant tenderness. Investigations show abnormal results for Haemoglobin (Hb), White cell count (WCC), Platelets (PLT), Sodium (Na+), Potassium (K+), Creatinine (Cr), International normalised ratio (INR), Glucose, Alanine aminotransferase (ALT), Alkaline phosphatase (ALP), and Bilirubin. The patient's urine shows Blood ++ and Protein ++. What is the most appropriate antibiotic therapy for this patient?

      Your Answer: Intravenous (IV) benzylpenicillin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Severe Leptospirosis: Choosing the Right Antibiotic

      Leptospirosis is a bacterial infection that can cause severe symptoms such as fever, jaundice, and renal impairment. When treating severe cases of leptospirosis, intravenous antibiotics are the appropriate choice. Oral antibiotics like amoxicillin or doxycycline are only effective for mild to moderate forms of the infection.

      The first choice for severe leptospirosis treatment is IV benzylpenicillin or IV cephalosporins. In this case, the patient requires IV benzylpenicillin due to the severity of their condition. Other supportive measures, such as correcting clotting abnormalities, should also be considered.

      While macrolides like clarithromycin or azithromycin can be used in mild to moderate disease, they are not appropriate for severe cases. Similarly, doxycycline is only indicated for mild to moderate forms of the infection.

      It is important to note that the role of steroids in treating leptospirosis has not been fully established. However, they may reduce the risk of vasculitic complications such as pulmonary haemorrhage and acute renal failure. Overall, choosing the right antibiotic is crucial in effectively treating severe leptospirosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 23 - A 36 year old known HIV positive patient complains of a gradual decline...

    Incorrect

    • A 36 year old known HIV positive patient complains of a gradual decline in his vision. He reports that this has been happening for a few weeks. Reviewing his medical history, it is evident that he has been non-adherent to his antiretroviral therapy. His latest CD4 count is 177 cells/mm3. What would be the primary approach to managing this patient's most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Oral aciclovir

      Correct Answer: Intravenous ganciclovir

      Explanation:

      The individual in question has developed a treatment for cytomegalovirus retinitis, which involves administering intravenous ganciclovir or its prodrug oral valganciclovir.

      CMV retinitis is typically observed in individuals who are HIV positive and have CD4 counts below 200 cells/mm3. Although patients may not exhibit any symptoms initially, they tend to experience a gradual decline in their visual acuity and visual blurring. The ‘pizza pie’ fundus and flame hemorrhages are common fundoscopic features.

      Intravenous ganciclovir or oral valganciclovir are the preferred treatment options for CMV retinitis. Pneumocystis jirovecii (previously known as Pneumocystis carinii) is treated with intravenous pentamidine and oral co-trimoxazole, while oral pyrimethamine and sulfadiazine, along with folinic acid, are used to treat toxoplasmosis.

      Understanding HIV-Related Cytomegalovirus Retinitis

      Cytomegalovirus (CMV) retinitis is a common condition that affects individuals with a CD4 count of less than 50. It is diagnosed clinically as there are no specific diagnostic tests available. The condition is characterized by visual impairment, such as blurred vision, and can be identified through fundoscopy, which shows a characteristic appearance of retinal haemorrhages and necrosis, often referred to as a pizza retina.

      Management of CMV retinitis involves the use of IV ganciclovir, which was previously a lifelong treatment. However, new evidence suggests that it may be discontinued once the CD4 count reaches 150 after HAART. Alternatively, IV foscarnet or cidofovir may be used as an alternative treatment option.

      In summary, CMV retinitis is a common condition that affects individuals with a low CD4 count. It is diagnosed clinically and can be identified through fundoscopy. Management involves the use of IV ganciclovir, which may be discontinued once the CD4 count reaches 150 after HAART, or alternative treatments such as IV foscarnet or cidofovir.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 24 - A 29-year-old man with a medical history of HIV and poor medication compliance...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old man with a medical history of HIV and poor medication compliance presents to the Emergency Department with symptoms of fever, shortness of breath, weight loss, and diarrhea. On examination, he has general lymphadenopathy, tender hepatosplenomegaly, and bilateral basal crackles on chest auscultation. His laboratory results show low hemoglobin, white cell count, and platelets, as well as a severely decreased CD4 count. His liver function tests are also abnormal. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cryptosporidium infection

      Correct Answer: Mycobacterium avium infection

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Management of Mycobacterium Avium Infection in HIV Patients

      The presented symptoms of respiratory distress, weight loss, diarrhoea, lymphadenopathy, and abnormal liver function tests suggest a diagnosis of Mycobacterium avium infection (MAI) in an HIV patient. Confirmation of the diagnosis can be done through quantitative polymerase chain reaction (PCR). Highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART) should be resumed if the patient has not been compliant with medication. The optimal management for MAI is triple therapy with a macrolide, ethambutol, and rifabutin.

      Other differentials such as cryptococcosis, cryptosporidium infection, non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma, and Pneumocystis jirovecii infection should also be considered. Cryptococcosis is usually associated with CNS infection, while cryptosporidium infection presents with more profuse watery diarrhoea. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma should be excluded through computed tomography (CT) of the thorax, abdomen, and pelvis. Pneumocystis jirovecii infection is not typically associated with diarrhoea but presents with breathlessness, weight loss, and night sweats.

      In conclusion, prompt diagnosis and management of MAI in HIV patients are crucial to prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 25 - A 35-year-old male patient who is HIV positive has been admitted with Pneumocystis...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male patient who is HIV positive has been admitted with Pneumocystis jirovici pneumonia (PCP). He had stopped taking co-trimoxazole therapy three weeks ago due to a rash. Blood gases show a pH of 7.19 (normal range: 7.36-7.44), pCO2 of 5.3 kPa (normal range: 4.7-6.0), and pO2 of 7.3 kPa (normal range: 11.3-12.6). Which drug combination would you choose for treating this patient?

      Your Answer: High dose Cotrimoxazole and prednisolone

      Correct Answer: Clindamycin, primaquine and prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Severe PCP in Allergic Patients

      Patients with severe PCP, as indicated by a pO2 below 10, require immediate treatment. However, if the patient is allergic to co-trimoxazole, alternative therapies such as IV pentamidine or clindamycin with primaquine can be used. In addition, steroids have been found to be effective in reducing mortality and preventing lung damage in patients with moderate-to-severe PCP. The severity of the condition is determined by arterial blood gas results, with a room air arterial oxygen pressure of less than 9 kPa (70 mmHg) or an arterial-alveolar O2 gradient that exceeds 4.5 kPa (35 mmHg) indicating severe PCP.

      It is crucial to start steroids immediately if they are indicated, as their purpose is to stabilize the patient during the first few days of treatment. Although long-term steroid use can be immunosuppressive, a 21-day tapering course has been proven to be safe and effective. Therefore, patients with severe PCP who are allergic to co-trimoxazole have alternative treatment options available, and the use of steroids can significantly improve their outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 26 - A 28-year-old man presents to his first HIV clinic appointment. He has routine...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents to his first HIV clinic appointment. He has routine three month HIV tests. He received contact tracing notification last week and was tested and found to be HIV positive. He has just started antiretroviral treatment.

      During the appointment, he expresses concern about his upcoming travel plans to South America and whether his new HIV diagnosis will affect his ability to receive necessary vaccinations. He understands that he is currently immunosuppressed and at risk of infections, but is committed to taking his medication as prescribed.

      The following are his laboratory results:
      - Hemoglobin: 115 g/L (130-180)
      - White blood cell count: 6.8 10^9/L (4.0-11.0)
      - Neutrophil count: 5.2 10^9/L (1.5-7.0)
      - Platelet count: 175 10^9/L (150-400)
      - CD4 count: 200 cells/mm3 (600-1500)

      Which of the travel vaccinations is safe for him to receive?

      Your Answer: Oral polio

      Correct Answer: Meningococcal C

      Explanation:

      Due to his recent HIV diagnosis and low CD4 count, this gentleman is immunocompromised and should avoid receiving live vaccines to prevent the risk of disseminated infection. Examples of live vaccines that he should not receive include Yellow Fever, BCG, and Oral Polio.

      Immunisation Guidelines for HIV-Infected Adults

      The Department of Health’s ‘Greenbook’ on immunisation refers to the British HIV Association for guidelines on immunisation of HIV-infected adults. According to these guidelines, there are vaccines that can be used in all HIV-infected adults, such as Hepatitis A, Hepatitis B, Haemophilus influenzae B (Hib), Influenza-parenteral, Japanese encephalitis, Meningococcus-MenC, Meningococcal-ACWY I, Pneumococcal-PPV23, Rabies, Tetanus-Diphtheria (Td), Measles, Mumps, Rubella (MMR), Varicella, and Yellow Fever. However, some vaccines are contraindicated in HIV-infected adults, such as Cholera, CVD103-HgR, Influenza-intranasal, Poliomyelitis-oral (OPV), and Tuberculosis (BCG). Vaccines that can be used if CD4 count is above 200 include Influenza-parenteral and Pneumococcal-PPV23. It is important for healthcare providers to follow these guidelines to ensure the safety and effectiveness of immunisation in HIV-infected adults.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 27 - A 24-year-old medical student presents to the emergency department after accidentally cutting herself...

    Correct

    • A 24-year-old medical student presents to the emergency department after accidentally cutting herself while cooking, resulting in significant blood loss. Routine blood tests are ordered and the results show:

      - Hb: 145 g/L (Male: 135-180, Female: 115-160)
      - Platelets: 235 * 109/L (150-400)
      - WBC: 7.2 * 109/L (4.0-11.0)
      - Eosinophils: 0.91 * 109/L (0.0-0.4)

      The patient recently returned from her elective in Malawi, where she spent six weeks with two friends. She reports taking all recommended vaccines before travel and completing the course of malaria prophylaxis as advised. However, she frequently walked barefoot around the banks of the lake and recalls one episode where her foot became itchy and developed a serpiginous rash, advancing up the foot over several hours before resolving. She did not seek medical help.

      What is the first-line treatment recommended for this condition?

      Your Answer: Ivermectin

      Explanation:

      The drug of choice for treating strongyloidiasis is ivermectin. The patient’s symptoms, including peripheral eosinophilia and larva currens, suggest a parasitic infection caused by Strongyloides stercoralis. While artemisinin combination therapy is the preferred treatment for uncomplicated malaria, it is not appropriate in this case. Melarsoprol is used to treat East African sleeping sickness, and nifurtimox/eflornithine combination therapy is used for West African sleeping sickness, neither of which are likely diagnoses based on the patient’s symptoms. Therefore, ivermectin is the most appropriate treatment option for this patient.

      Strongyloides stercoralis: A Parasitic Nematode Worm

      Strongyloides stercoralis is a type of parasitic nematode worm that can infect humans. The larvae of this worm are found in soil and can enter the body by penetrating the skin. Once inside, the infection can cause a condition known as strongyloidiasis, which is characterized by symptoms such as diarrhea, abdominal pain and bloating. In addition, papulovesicular lesions may appear on the skin where the larvae have entered, particularly on the soles of the feet and buttocks. A pruritic, linear, urticarial rash known as larva currens may also develop. In some cases, the larvae may migrate to the lungs, causing a pneumonitis similar to Loeffler’s syndrome.

      To treat strongyloidiasis, medications such as ivermectin and albendazole are commonly used. These drugs can help to kill the worms and alleviate symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 28 - A 25-year-old man returns home with diarrhoea, having worked on a volunteer project...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man returns home with diarrhoea, having worked on a volunteer project in South America. He also complains of abdominal bloating, that his stools are difficult to flush away and of excessive flatulence. He has lost his appetite over the past few weeks and has lost 4 kg in weight.

      On examination, he has mild pyrexia (37.5 °C) and looks bloated. Investigations reveal the following:

      Haemoglobin (Hb) - 130 g/l (normal value: 130-170 g/l)
      White cell count (WCC) - 8.5 × 109/l (normal value: 4.0–11.0 × 109/l)
      Platelets (PLT) - 280 × 109/l (normal value: 150–400 × 109/l)
      Sodium (Na+) - 142 mmol/l (normal value: 135–145 mmol/l)
      Potassium (K+) - 4.6 mmol/l (normal value: 3.5–5.0 mmol/l)
      Creatinine (Cr) - 95 μmol/l (normal value: 50–120 µmol/l)
      Albumin - 42 g/l (normal value: 35–55 g/l)
      Stool sample - No cysts or ovae seen

      What is the most appropriate treatment for him?

      Your Answer: Metronidazole

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Giardiasis

      Giardiasis is an infection caused by the protozoan parasite Giardia. The typical history and exposure for this infection can be treated with metronidazole or tinidazole as first-line options. If the infection is refractory to metronidazole, albendazole can be used as a second-line treatment. Ciprofloxacin and doxycycline are not appropriate treatments for giardiasis, as they are antibiotics used for bacterial infections and malaria, respectively. Artemisinin, a drug used for malaria, would also not be the treatment of choice for giardiasis. It is important to properly diagnose and treat giardiasis to prevent complications and spread of the infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 29 - A 32-year-old man from the United Kingdom is pursuing a PhD in nutrition....

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man from the United Kingdom is pursuing a PhD in nutrition. He previously conducted research on rice varieties while based in China. Two months ago, he experienced an itch while in a rice paddy, which later developed into a rash that lasted for five days. Currently, he is presenting with confusion, and his girlfriend reports that he has been experiencing severe headaches, particularly in the morning, along with nausea and vomiting. His condition has progressed, and he is now experiencing difficulty using his left hand, slurred speech, impaired memory, and judgment.

      During the examination, the patient appears confused and disoriented, with a Glasgow coma scale of 13/15. He exhibits sudden head and eye movements, lip smacking, and jerky muscle movements. Laboratory results show eosinophilia, with a count of 600/uL, and both haemagglutination and ELISA tests indicate the presence of Schistosoma antibodies, which remain positive upon repeat testing. A CT scan reveals oedema and multifocal small contrast-enhanced lesions in the cerebellum, occipital, and frontal lobes.

      What is the appropriate management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Praziquantel 40 mg/kg per day for 6 days and prednisolone 1 mg/kg per day

      Correct Answer: Praziquantel 60 mg/kg per day for 6 days and prednisolone 1 mg/kg per day

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Schistosomiasis

      Schistosomiasis is a common parasitic infection that requires proper treatment. The recommended treatment for all Schistosoma species is Praziquantel, which is not licensed for human use in the United Kingdom but can be obtained on a named patient basis. For S. japonicum, a dosage of Praziquantel 60 mg/kg per day for six days is recommended, with a maximum dose of 5 grams per day, along with prednisolone 1 mg/kg. For S. mansoni and S. haematobium, a dosage of Praziquantel 40 mg/kg per day for three days is recommended.

      In cases of neuroschistosomiasis, where some of the pathology is caused by hypersensitivity reactions, the use of a steroid such as prednisolone 1 mg/kg per day is necessary. However, there is no consensus on when to start or stop the use of steroids. It is important to follow the recommended dosages and seek medical advice before starting any treatment for Schistosomiasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 30 - A 65-year-old woman complains of lower abdominal pain, dysuria, and frequent urination. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman complains of lower abdominal pain, dysuria, and frequent urination. Upon urine dip, nitrites and leukocytes were detected. She has a medical history of recurrent C.difficile infection and has undergone two tapering courses of vancomycin treatment.

      The microbiology report reveals the presence of Vancomycin Resistant Enterococcus (VRE) in her urine culture. What would be your approach to managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Erythromycin

      Correct Answer: Linezolid

      Explanation:

      Enterococci, which include E. faecalis and E. faecium, are gram positive gamma-haemolytic Streptococci that are naturally resistant to antibiotics and are part of the normal flora of the human intestine, female genital tract, and urinary tract. However, Vancomycin Resistant Enterococcus (VRE) is a significant nosocomial pathogen with limited treatment options. Factors that increase the risk of VRE include previous treatment with antibiotics such as vancomycin, cephalosporins, and broad-spectrum antibiotics.

      Most VRE strains have high-level resistance to β-lactams and aminoglycosides. Management of VRE may involve removing catheters and draining abscesses. If antimicrobial treatment is necessary, the drug should be selected based on susceptibility testing of the organism involved. Ampicillin is effective against nearly all strains of E. faecalis, including VRE strains. VREs also often remain sensitive to chloramphenicol, rifampicin, and tetracyclines. Newer agents such as linezolid, daptomycin, and tigecycline are also effective against VRE. Gentamicin can be used in combination with another antibiotic, but it should not be used alone.

      Vancomycin is an antibiotic that is effective in treating infections caused by Gram-positive bacteria, especially those that are resistant to methicillin, such as Staphylococcus aureus. Its mechanism of action involves inhibiting the formation of the bacterial cell wall by binding to D-Ala-D-Ala moieties, which prevents the polymerization of peptidoglycans. However, bacteria can develop resistance to vancomycin by altering the terminal amino acid residues of the NAM/NAG-peptide subunits, which are the sites where the antibiotic binds.

      Despite its effectiveness, vancomycin can cause adverse effects such as nephrotoxicity, ototoxicity, and thrombophlebitis. Rapid infusion of vancomycin can also lead to a condition called red man syndrome, which is characterized by flushing and itching of the skin. Therefore, it is important to use vancomycin only when necessary and under the guidance of a healthcare professional.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Infectious Diseases (13/30) 43%
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