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  • Question 1 - A 70-year-old man presents with sudden onset right-sided weakness and difficulty understanding speech...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man presents with sudden onset right-sided weakness and difficulty understanding speech at 9:30 am. It is now 12:15 pm. He has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and hyperlipidemia, and takes lisinopril, metformin, and atorvastatin.

      Initial investigations reveal a capillary blood glucose of 5.2 mmol/L (4.0-6.0 mmol/L) and oxygen saturations of 97%. What is the most appropriate next step in his management?

      Your Answer: Immediate CT head (contrast)

      Correct Answer: Immediate CT head (non-contrast)

      Explanation:

      The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The management of acute stroke includes maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage. Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends thrombectomy for people who have acute ischaemic stroke and confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation demonstrated by computed tomographic angiography or magnetic resonance angiography. Secondary prevention includes the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      55.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 28-year-old African female arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of escalating pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old African female arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of escalating pain in her shoulders and thighs over the past week. She also reports aggravated knee pain. She was recently diagnosed with tuberculosis and has been taking the required medications. Her musculoskeletal symptoms disappear after discontinuing isoniazid. What type of antibodies are linked to her condition?

      Your Answer: Anti Jo-1 antibody

      Correct Answer: Antihistone antibody

      Explanation:

      The presence of antihistone antibodies is linked to drug-induced lupus, which is the likely cause of the patient’s symptoms. One of the drugs she was taking, isoniazid, is known to cause this condition. Rheumatoid factor is typically found in patients with rheumatoid arthritis, while anti Jo-1 antibody is associated with polymyositis and anti-Scl70 antibody is linked to diffuse systemic sclerosis.

      Understanding Drug-Induced Lupus

      Drug-induced lupus is a condition that shares some similarities with systemic lupus erythematosus, but not all of its typical features are present. Unlike SLE, renal and nervous system involvement is rare in drug-induced lupus. The good news is that this condition usually resolves once the drug causing it is discontinued.

      The most common symptoms of drug-induced lupus include joint pain, muscle pain, skin rashes (such as the malar rash), and pulmonary issues like pleurisy. In terms of laboratory findings, patients with drug-induced lupus typically test positive for ANA (antinuclear antibodies) but negative for dsDNA (double-stranded DNA) antibodies. Anti-histone antibodies are found in 80-90% of cases, while anti-Ro and anti-Smith antibodies are only present in around 5% of cases.

      The most common drugs that can cause drug-induced lupus are procainamide and hydralazine. Other less common culprits include isoniazid, minocycline, and phenytoin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      112.1
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 30-year-old woman visits her GP to inquire about preconception care as she...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman visits her GP to inquire about preconception care as she is eager to conceive. She has a BMI of 36 kg/m2 and a family history of T2DM and epilepsy, but no other significant medical history. What is the primary complication her baby may be at risk of?

      Your Answer: Neural tube defects

      Explanation:

      Maternal obesity with a BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more increases the risk of neural tube defects in babies. There is no strong evidence linking obesity to hyper- or hypothyroidism in neonates, an increased risk of Down syndrome, or cystic fibrosis.

      Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention

      Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. It is found in green, leafy vegetables and plays a crucial role in the transfer of 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in the synthesis of DNA and RNA. However, certain factors such as phenytoin, methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause a deficiency in folic acid. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.

      To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, it is recommended that all women take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if they or their partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with certain medical conditions such as coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, or those taking antiepileptic drugs, or who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also considered higher risk.

      In summary, folic acid is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in DNA and RNA synthesis. Deficiency in folic acid can lead to serious health consequences, including neural tube defects. However, taking folic acid supplements during pregnancy can prevent these defects and ensure a healthy pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      94.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - An anxious, 30-year-old saleswoman presents with mild shortness of breath on exertion, which...

    Correct

    • An anxious, 30-year-old saleswoman presents with mild shortness of breath on exertion, which had come on gradually over several months. The symptom was intermittent and seemed to get worse in the evening. She has also been on treatment for depression over the last two months. On examination, she has minimal weakness of shoulder abductors and slight weakness of eye closure bilaterally. Deep tendon reflexes are present and symmetrical throughout and plantar responses are flexor. You now have the results of the investigations: FBC, U&E, LFT, TFT - normal; chest radiograph and lung function tests - normal; ECG - normal.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
      Select the SINGLE most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer: Myasthenia gravis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Myasthenia Gravis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Myasthenia gravis (MG) is a neuromuscular disorder that occurs when the body produces autoantibodies against the nicotinic acetylcholine receptor at the neuromuscular junction. This results in muscular weakness that is characterized by fatigability, meaning that the muscles become increasingly weaker during their use. MG primarily affects the muscles of the face, the extrinsic ocular muscles (causing diplopia), and the muscles involved in deglutition. Respiratory and proximal lower limb muscles may also be involved early in the disease, which can cause breathlessness and even sudden death.

      Diagnosing MG can be challenging, as weakness may not be apparent on a single examination. However, electrodiagnostic tests and detecting the autoantibodies can confirm the diagnosis. The Tensilon test, which involves injecting edrophonium chloride to reverse the symptoms of MG, is now used only when other tests are negative and clinical suspicion of MG is still high.

      Treatment of MG involves anticholinesterase medications, but many patients also benefit from thymectomy. It is important to note that a thymoma may be present in up to 15% of patients with MG.

      Other conditions, such as transient ischaemic attacks, angina, multiple sclerosis, and somatisation disorder, may cause weakness, but they do not typically present with the same symptoms as MG. Therefore, it is crucial to consider MG as a potential diagnosis when a patient presents with fatigable muscular weakness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      129.5
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 68-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with worries about the condition of...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with worries about the condition of his left eye. He is a smoker. Upon examination of his left eye, the doctor observes a constricted pupil and partial ptosis.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Horner syndrome

      Explanation:

      Disorders Affecting the Eye: Symptoms and Causes

      Horner Syndrome, Holmes-Adie Syndrome, Multiple Sclerosis (MS), Myasthenia Gravis (MG), and Riley-Day Syndrome are all disorders that can affect the eye. Horner Syndrome is caused by an interruption of the sympathetic nerve supply to the eye, resulting in a constricted pupil, partial ptosis, and a loss of hemifacial sweating. Holmes-Adie Syndrome is caused by damage to the postganglionic parasympathetic fibers or the ciliary ganglion, resulting in a tonically dilated pupil that reacts slowly to light. MS is characterized by optic neuritis, which causes decreased pupillary light reaction, visual reduction, abnormal contrast sensitivity, and changes to color vision. MG is an autoimmune disorder that causes muscle weakness, but does not affect the pupils. Riley-Day Syndrome, also known as familial dysautonomia, affects the development and survival of sensory, sympathetic, and some parasympathetic neurons in the autonomic and sensory nervous systems, but is not consistent with the presentation described.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      51.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 36-year-old woman attends surgery concerned that her 42-year-old brother has recently been...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman attends surgery concerned that her 42-year-old brother has recently been diagnosed with adult polycystic kidney disease (PKD). She read online that it can run in families and is asking to be tested to ensure she does not have the condition.
      Which of the following tests is best to perform?

      Your Answer: PKD1 and 2 gene test

      Correct Answer: Ultrasonography of the renal tract

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Autosomal Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease (ADPKD)

      Autosomal Dominant Polycystic Kidney Disease (ADPKD) is a genetic disorder that affects the kidneys. There are several diagnostic tests available to detect ADPKD, including ultrasonography, full blood count (FBC) and urea and electrolytes (U&Es), PKD1 and 2 gene test, and urinalysis.

      Ultrasonography is the preferred test for ADPKD as it can detect cysts from 1 to 1.5 cm without the use of radiation or contrast material. The sensitivity of ultrasonography for ADPKD1 is 99% for at-risk patients older than 20 years. The diagnostic criteria for ADPKD1 were established by Ravine et al. in 1994 and depend on the number of cysts present in each kidney and the age of the patient.

      FBC and U&Es are performed to check for any abnormalities in blood count and electrolyte levels. An increased haematocrit in the FBC may result from increased erythropoietin secretion from cysts.

      PKD1 and 2 gene test is recommended for young adults with negative ultrasonographic findings who are being considered as potential kidney donors. Genetic testing by means of DNA linkage analysis has an accuracy of >95% for ADPKD1 and ADPKD2.

      Urinalysis and urine culture are also performed to check for any abnormalities in the urine. Microalbuminuria occurs in 35% of patients with ADPKD, but nephrotic-range proteinuria is uncommon.

      Referral to a geneticist is not necessary at this stage, as initial tests such as ultrasonography can be requested by the general practitioner (GP) in the community. However, patients with ADPKD may benefit from genetic counselling to provide them with more information about their genetic condition and assistance in understanding any options that may be available. This may be with a genetic counsellor, a clinical geneticist or a specialist genetic nurse.

      In conclusion, a combination of these diagnostic tests can help in the early detection and management of ADPKD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      61.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 38-year-old woman with systemic lupus erythematosus presents to her General Practitioner with...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman with systemic lupus erythematosus presents to her General Practitioner with concerns about her current medication. She is currently taking azathioprine 130 mg/day, in divided doses. Yesterday she took a home pregnancy test which was positive.
      What is the best course of management for her medication?

      Your Answer: Stop azathioprine and start infliximab

      Correct Answer: Continue azathioprine

      Explanation:

      Managing Treatment for Pregnant Patients with Autoimmune Diseases

      When treating pregnant patients with autoimmune diseases, it is important to consider the potential risks and benefits of different medications. In the case of a patient already on an established dose of azathioprine, it is generally recommended to continue this medication during pregnancy, as stopping or reducing the dose could put the patient at risk of disease progression. Methotrexate should never be used during pregnancy due to its teratogenic effects. High-dose corticosteroids may also pose risks to the developing fetus if used for prolonged periods. Stopping all treatment could trigger disease worsening, so it is important to carefully weigh the risks and benefits of any changes to medication. In some cases, infliximab may be necessary during pregnancy, but this should be carefully considered and discussed with a specialist. Overall, managing treatment for pregnant patients with autoimmune diseases requires careful consideration of the potential risks and benefits of different medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      54.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A new mother in her early thirties, who has asthma, has just given...

    Correct

    • A new mother in her early thirties, who has asthma, has just given birth to her first child. She experienced a sudden worsening of her asthma symptoms and was prescribed 30mg of oral prednisolone. She is now concerned about the safety of taking prednisolone while breastfeeding and wonders if she should switch to a different medication.

      Your Answer: It is safe to continue 30mg prednisolone and breastfeed

      Explanation:

      When a mother who is breastfeeding takes prednisolone, the amount of the drug that is transferred to the breast milk is minimal. Therefore, it is unlikely to have any negative impact on the baby.

      Management of Acute Asthma

      Acute asthma is classified by the British Thoracic Society (BTS) into three categories: moderate, severe, and life-threatening. Patients with any of the life-threatening features should be treated as having a life-threatening attack. A fourth category, Near-fatal asthma, is also recognized. Further assessment may include arterial blood gases for patients with oxygen saturation levels below 92%. A chest x-ray is not routinely recommended unless the patient has life-threatening asthma, suspected pneumothorax, or failure to respond to treatment.

      Admission criteria include a previous near-fatal asthma attack, pregnancy, an attack occurring despite already using oral corticosteroid, and presentation at night. All patients with life-threatening asthma should be admitted to the hospital, and patients with features of severe acute asthma should also be admitted if they fail to respond to initial treatment. Oxygen therapy should be started for hypoxaemic patients. Bronchodilation with short-acting betaâ‚‚-agonists (SABA) is recommended, and all patients should be given 40-50mg of prednisolone orally daily. Ipratropium bromide and IV magnesium sulphate may also be considered for severe or life-threatening asthma. Patients who fail to respond require senior critical care support and should be treated in an appropriate ITU/HDU setting. Criteria for discharge include stability on discharge medication, checked and recorded inhaler technique, and PEF levels above 75% of best or predicted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      73.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 27-year-old female patient presents to you for her cervical cancer screening and...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old female patient presents to you for her cervical cancer screening and expresses interest in learning more about HPV (human papillomavirus). What is a true statement regarding HPV?

      Your Answer: HPV 16 and 18 are most commonly associated with cervical cancer

      Explanation:

      The most significant risk factor for cervical cancer is infection with the human papillomavirus (HPV), particularly types 16, 18, and 33. Among the approximately 15 types of HPV that are considered high-risk for cervical cancer, HPV 16 and 18 are responsible for about 70% of cases. HPV 6 and 11, on the other hand, are associated with the formation of genital warts.

      Understanding Cervical Cancer: Risk Factors and Mechanism of HPV

      Cervical cancer is a type of cancer that affects the cervix, which is the lower part of the uterus. It is most commonly diagnosed in women under the age of 45, with the highest incidence rates occurring in those aged 25-29. The cancer can be divided into two types: squamous cell cancer and adenocarcinoma. Symptoms may include abnormal vaginal bleeding, postcoital bleeding, intermenstrual bleeding, or postmenopausal bleeding, as well as vaginal discharge.

      The most important factor in the development of cervical cancer is the human papillomavirus (HPV), particularly serotypes 16, 18, and 33. Other risk factors include smoking, human immunodeficiency virus, early first intercourse, many sexual partners, high parity, and lower socioeconomic status. While the association between combined oral contraceptive pill use and cervical cancer is sometimes debated, a large study published in the Lancet confirmed the link.

      The mechanism by which HPV causes cervical cancer involves the production of oncogenes E6 and E7 by HPV 16 and 18, respectively. E6 inhibits the p53 tumour suppressor gene, while E7 inhibits the RB suppressor gene. Understanding the risk factors and mechanism of HPV in the development of cervical cancer is crucial for prevention and early detection. Regular cervical cancer screening is recommended for all women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      199.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 28-year-old woman is referred to the Neurology Clinic with suspected Guillain–Barré syndrome...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman is referred to the Neurology Clinic with suspected Guillain–Barré syndrome (GBS). A lumbar puncture (LP) is performed on the patient to rule out any other causes. The results of the LP show normal white blood cells (WBCs) and elevated proteins.
      What immediate management should be started for this patient?
      Select the SINGLE most appropriate management from the list below.

      Your Answer: Intravenous immunoglobulins

      Explanation:

      Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS) can be treated with either plasma exchange or intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIG), both of which are equally effective. The decision on which treatment to use depends on the institution. Plasma exchange is recommended for ambulatory patients within two weeks of symptom onset and for non-ambulatory patients within four weeks. It is most effective when started within seven days of symptom onset, but improvement can still be seen up to 30 days after onset. Patients receiving plasma exchange should be closely monitored for electrolyte abnormalities and coagulopathies, as well as complications such as infection, blood pressure instability, cardiac arrhythmias, and pulmonary embolus. Compared to IVIG, plasma exchange has a higher risk of pneumonia, atelectasis, thrombosis, and hemodynamic difficulties. Urgent referral to oncology is appropriate if the patient has signs of metastatic spinal cord compression. High-dose dexamethasone is not indicated in this case as there is no history of cancer. Intravenous ceftriaxone is used to treat meningitis, which was ruled out by the LP findings. Intravenous itraconazole would be appropriate if fungal meningitis were suspected based on the patient’s history and LP results.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      113.7
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 7-year-old boy comes to the clinic with his father, complaining of a...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old boy comes to the clinic with his father, complaining of a rash. The father reports that his son has been feeling unwell for approximately 6 days. Three days ago, he noticed some red rash behind his son's ears and it has now spread to his face and body. He also observed some white spots in his son's mouth before the rash appeared. During examination, there is a widespread maculopapular rash with regions of confluence.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Measles

      Explanation:

      The symptoms of measles include prodromal symptoms, Koplik spots, and a maculopapular rash that starts behind the ears. Kawasaki’s disease is identified by a fever lasting more than five days, along with conjunctivitis, cervical lymphadenopathy, a strawberry tongue, rash, and desquamation of digits. Chickenpox is characterized by the presence of vesicles, while scarlet fever is identified by a sandpaper rash and a strawberry tongue.

      Measles: A Highly Infectious Viral Disease

      Measles is a viral disease caused by an RNA paramyxovirus. It is one of the most infectious known viruses and is spread through aerosol transmission. The disease has an incubation period of 10-14 days and is infective from the prodromal phase until four days after the rash starts. Measles is now rare in developed countries due to immunization programs, but outbreaks can occur when vaccination rates drop, such as during the MMR controversy of the early 2000s.

      The disease is characterized by a prodromal phase, which includes irritability, conjunctivitis, fever, and Koplik spots. The latter typically develop before the rash and are white spots on the buccal mucosa. The rash starts behind the ears and then spreads to the whole body, becoming a discrete maculopapular rash that may become blotchy and confluent. Desquamation may occur after a week, typically sparing the palms and soles. Diarrhea occurs in around 10% of patients.

      Measles is mainly managed through supportive care, and admission may be considered in immunosuppressed or pregnant patients. The disease is notifiable, and public health should be informed. Complications of measles include otitis media, pneumonia (the most common cause of death), encephalitis (typically occurring 1-2 weeks following the onset of the illness), subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (very rare, may present 5-10 years following the illness), febrile convulsions, keratoconjunctivitis, corneal ulceration, diarrhea, increased incidence of appendicitis, and myocarditis.

      If an unimmunized child comes into contact with measles, MMR should be offered within 72 hours. Vaccine-induced measles antibody develops more rapidly than that following natural infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      50.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 42-year-old woman presents with bilateral hearing loss and tinnitus for several months....

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman presents with bilateral hearing loss and tinnitus for several months. Her mother and brother had similar issues. Ear examination reveals no abnormalities. An audiometry test indicates bilateral conductive hearing loss.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Otosclerosis

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Hearing Loss and Their Characteristics

      Hearing loss can be caused by various factors, including genetic factors, abnormal bone formation, and tumors. Here are some common causes of hearing loss and their characteristics:

      1. Otosclerosis: This condition affects young adults and causes conductive deafness. It is caused by abnormal bone formation around the base of the stapes, which eventually fuses with the bone of the cochlea, reducing normal sound transmission.

      2. Glue ear: This is a type of conductive hearing loss that is more common in children. There is no evidence of ear examination, but it can cause hearing difficulties.

      3. Meniere’s disease: This is a sensorineural type of hearing loss that is usually accompanied by vertigo and a sensation of fullness or pressure in the ear.

      4. Presbycusis: This is a sensorineural hearing loss that is associated with aging. Audiometry should show a bilateral high-frequency hearing loss.

      5. Vestibular schwannomas: This is a benign primary intracranial tumor that affects the vestibulocochlear nerve. It commonly presents with unilateral hearing loss and can affect the facial nerve causing facial palsy as well.

      Understanding the characteristics of these common causes of hearing loss can help in early detection and management of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      31.9
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - Which of the following tests would be most beneficial in diagnosing heart failure?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following tests would be most beneficial in diagnosing heart failure?

      Your Answer: B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cardiac Biomarkers: Importance of BNP in Heart Failure Diagnosis

      When it comes to diagnosing heart failure, healthcare professionals rely on various cardiac biomarkers to aid in their assessment. Among these biomarkers, B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) is considered the primary investigation according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines.

      Unlike other biomarkers such as C-reactive protein (CRP) and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), BNP is specific to heart failure and is not affected by inflammation. On the other hand, troponin T is useful in diagnosing acute coronary syndromes, while creatine phosphokinase is primarily used to detect muscle breakdown and rhabdomyolysis.

      It is important to note that certain factors such as obesity and medications like angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, and angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) can falsely lower BNP levels. Therefore, if BNP levels are elevated, patients should be referred for an echocardiogram to confirm the diagnosis of heart failure.

      In summary, understanding the role of cardiac biomarkers such as BNP in heart failure diagnosis is crucial in providing accurate and timely treatment for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - Left bundle branch block is associated with which one of the following conditions?
    ...

    Correct

    • Left bundle branch block is associated with which one of the following conditions?

      Your Answer: Ischaemic heart disease

      Explanation:

      ECG Findings in Various Cardiovascular Conditions

      New-onset left bundle branch block may indicate ischaemic heart disease and could be a sign of STEMI if the patient’s symptoms match the diagnosis. Pericarditis typically causes widespread ST elevation on an ECG. Mitral stenosis can lead to left atrial enlargement and potentially atrial fibrillation. Pulmonary embolism often results in a right bundle branch block or a right ventricular strain pattern of S1Q3T3. Tricuspid stenosis can also cause right ventricular strain. It’s worth noting that mitral stenosis, tricuspid stenosis, and secondary pulmonary hypertension due to PE are associated with right ventricular strain and hypertrophy with partial or complete right bundle branch block, while pericarditis is not typically associated with bundle branch block.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      6
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 6-month-old is brought in by a concerned mother. She reports her baby...

    Correct

    • A 6-month-old is brought in by a concerned mother. She reports her baby crying after feeds and drawing his legs to his chest for several weeks. His growth is good and examination unremarkable.
      Which of the following is the best treatment option?

      Your Answer: Supportive advice and reassurance

      Explanation:

      Managing Infantile Colic: Supportive Advice and Reassurance

      Infantile colic can be a challenging condition for both parents and babies. While there is little evidence for treating colic, there are some strategies that can help manage the symptoms. Nursing the baby upright after feeds, bathing the infant in warm water, using white noise, gentle movement of baby, eg rocking the crib, holding baby during an episode, winding well and offering reassurance when needed can all be helpful.

      However, it’s important to note that medications such as Infacol, Colief, Gaviscon, and Ranitidine are not recommended as first-line treatments due to lack of evidence. Maternal diet modification, probiotic supplements, herbal supplements, and manipulative strategies are also not recommended.

      If your baby is experiencing colic, know that you are not alone and that supportive advice and reassurance can go a long way in managing the symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      38.9
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 26-year-old woman gives birth vaginally at 38 weeks gestation and chooses to...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman gives birth vaginally at 38 weeks gestation and chooses to have a physiological third stage of labor. She experiences a blood loss of 800 ml shortly after delivery. The medical team follows an ABCDE approach and starts a warmed crystalloid infusion. There is no history of medical issues or delivery-related trauma.

      What should be the next course of action in managing her condition?

      Your Answer: Give IV oxytocin

      Correct Answer: Compress the uterus and catheterise her

      Explanation:

      To manage a postpartum haemorrhage, an ABCDE approach should be taken, with initial steps including compressing the uterus and catheterising the patient. This is known as ‘mechanical management’ and is appropriate for a primary postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) where uterine atony is the most common cause. IV warmed crystalloid should also be given. Medical management options such as IV oxytocin or IM/IV carboprost should only be considered if mechanical methods fail. It is important to note that IV carboprost should not be administered as it can lead to serious side effects.

      Understanding Postpartum Haemorrhage

      Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) is a condition where a woman experiences blood loss of more than 500 ml after giving birth vaginally. It can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary PPH occurs within 24 hours after delivery and is caused by the 4 Ts: tone, trauma, tissue, and thrombin. The most common cause is uterine atony. Risk factors for primary PPH include previous PPH, prolonged labour, pre-eclampsia, increased maternal age, emergency Caesarean section, and placenta praevia.

      In managing PPH, it is important to involve senior staff immediately and follow the ABC approach. This includes two peripheral cannulae, lying the woman flat, blood tests, and commencing a warmed crystalloid infusion. Mechanical interventions such as rubbing up the fundus and catheterisation are also done. Medical interventions include IV oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol. Surgical options such as intrauterine balloon tamponade, B-Lynch suture, ligation of uterine arteries, and hysterectomy may be considered if medical options fail to control the bleeding.

      Secondary PPH occurs between 24 hours to 6 weeks after delivery and is typically due to retained placental tissue or endometritis. It is important to understand the causes and risk factors of PPH to prevent and manage this life-threatening emergency effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      50.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 67-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of severe mucosal ulceration...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of severe mucosal ulceration and blistering lesions on her torso and arms. Upon examination, the blisters are flaccid and rupture easily upon contact. What is the most appropriate course of action for this likely diagnosis? Choose the BEST management option from the list below.

      Your Answer: Refer urgently to dermatology

      Explanation:

      Urgent Referral to Dermatology for Pemphigus Vulgaris Treatment

      Pemphigus vulgaris requires urgent referral to the Dermatology Team for investigation and treatment. Supportive measures include wound care and antiseptic regimens to reduce the risk of secondary infection. Patients should also avoid activities that may traumatize the skin and mucous membranes during active phases. Topical steroids are used in milder cases, while systemic corticosteroids with topical treatments are preferred in advanced cases. Emollients and oral antihistamines are not first-line treatments. Topical clobetasone butyrate can be used in mild cases, but referral to Dermatology is still necessary. Topical clotrimazole is not a first-line treatment, and topical dapsone should not be started immediately without further investigation and treatment from Dermatology.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      53.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 47-year-old woman attends to discuss hormone replacement therapy (HRT) because she believes...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old woman attends to discuss hormone replacement therapy (HRT) because she believes she is experiencing symptoms of menopause.

      What is the PRIMARY MOTIVATION for starting HRT in a woman who is experiencing perimenopause?

      Your Answer: Reduce vasomotor symptoms

      Explanation:

      Benefits and Risks of Hormone Replacement Therapy (HRT)

      Hormone Replacement Therapy (HRT) is a treatment used to alleviate the symptoms of menopause, such as hot flushes, sweating, and palpitations. It has been proven effective in placebo-controlled randomized studies. HRT can also improve vaginal dryness, superficial dyspareunia, and urinary frequency and urgency. Long-term therapy is required to achieve these benefits, and symptoms may recur after stopping HRT.

      HRT is commonly prescribed to prevent osteoporosis, particularly if started within the first five years after menopause onset. Women with decreased bone mineral density and those with a history of osteoporotic fractures also benefit from HRT. However, protection may be lost after stopping the hormones. HRT can reduce the incidence of hip fractures by about one case per 1000 women aged <70 years and by about 8 cases per 1000 women aged 70–79 years. The Women’s Health Initiative (WHI) study revealed an increased annual risk of heart attacks in women who took combined HRT compared to those who took estrogen only. HRT may also prevent and treat dementia and related disorders by enhancing cholinergic neurotransmission and preventing oxidative cell damage, neuronal atrophy, and glucocorticoid-induced neuronal damage. However, studies have failed to provide a consensus on this aspect due to issues of selection bias and extreme heterogeneity in study participants, treatments, cognitive function tests applied, and doses of HRT. In conclusion, HRT can provide relief for menopausal symptoms, improve vaginal health, prevent osteoporosis, and reduce the risk of heart attacks. However, it may increase the risk of dementia, particularly in women aged 65 years who take combination HRT and have relatively low cognitive function at the start of treatment. Therefore, the benefits and risks of HRT should be carefully considered before starting treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 19 - A 63-year-old woman with metastatic breast cancer complains of worsening dyspnea. She is...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old woman with metastatic breast cancer complains of worsening dyspnea. She is undergoing chemotherapy treatment. During the physical examination, a third heart sound is heard and the apex beat is displaced to the anterior axillary line in the 6th intercostal space. Which chemotherapy drug is most likely causing these symptoms?

      Your Answer: Doxorubicin

      Explanation:

      Cardiomyopathy can be caused by anthracyclines such as doxorubicin.

      Cytotoxic agents are drugs that are used to kill cancer cells. There are several types of cytotoxic agents, each with their own mechanism of action and adverse effects. Alkylating agents, such as cyclophosphamide, work by causing cross-linking in DNA. However, they can also cause haemorrhagic cystitis, myelosuppression, and transitional cell carcinoma. Cytotoxic antibiotics, like bleomycin, degrade preformed DNA and can lead to lung fibrosis. Anthracyclines, such as doxorubicin, stabilize the DNA-topoisomerase II complex and inhibit DNA and RNA synthesis, but can also cause cardiomyopathy. Antimetabolites, like methotrexate, inhibit dihydrofolate reductase and thymidylate synthesis, leading to myelosuppression, mucositis, liver fibrosis, and lung fibrosis. Fluorouracil (5-FU) is a pyrimidine analogue that induces cell cycle arrest and apoptosis by blocking thymidylate synthase, but can also cause myelosuppression, mucositis, and dermatitis. Cytarabine is a pyrimidine antagonist that interferes with DNA synthesis specifically at the S-phase of the cell cycle and inhibits DNA polymerase, but can also cause myelosuppression and ataxia. Drugs that act on microtubules, like vincristine and vinblastine, inhibit the formation of microtubules and can cause peripheral neuropathy, paralytic ileus, and myelosuppression. Docetaxel prevents microtubule depolymerisation and disassembly, decreasing free tubulin, but can also cause neutropaenia. Topoisomerase inhibitors, like irinotecan, inhibit topoisomerase I which prevents relaxation of supercoiled DNA, but can also cause myelosuppression. Other cytotoxic drugs, such as cisplatin, cause cross-linking in DNA and can lead to ototoxicity, peripheral neuropathy, and hypomagnesaemia. Hydroxyurea (hydroxycarbamide) inhibits ribonucleotide reductase, decreasing DNA synthesis, but can also cause myelosuppression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 20 - As a junior doctor in General Practice, you come across a 27-year-old woman...

    Incorrect

    • As a junior doctor in General Practice, you come across a 27-year-old woman who is worried about her declining work performance. Her boss has labeled her as 'neurotic' due to her frequent missing of deadlines. She identifies herself as a 'perfectionist' and is unable to comprehend why this is happening. She has always found solace in keeping her workspace clean and organized and struggles to handle situations where she is not in control, especially at work. She recalls being an anxious child but has never sought help from a psychiatrist. What is the most probable cause of her difficulties?

      Your Answer: Obsessive compulsive disorder

      Correct Answer: Obsessive compulsive personality disorder

      Explanation:

      The individual in question is exhibiting symptoms of anankastic personality disorder, also known as obsessive-compulsive personality disorder (OCPD). This disorder is characterized by a preoccupation with orderliness, perfectionism, and an excessive focus on details, as well as a need for control over one’s environment and interpersonal relationships. However, this often comes at the expense of flexibility, openness to new experiences, and efficiency. Unlike obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), where thoughts and behaviors are seen as unwanted and unhealthy, those with OCPD view their behaviors as rational and desirable. This can lead to difficulty completing tasks, as the individual becomes overly focused on perfectionism and attention to detail. Generalized anxiety disorder is less likely to be the diagnosis in this case, as the individual’s worries are specific to work-related issues. Schizoid personality disorder, on the other hand, is characterized by a lack of interest in forming close relationships with others and a preference for solitude. These individuals may appear cold and uninterested in intimacy or pleasure from life.

      Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.

      Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspirational beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.

      Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      49
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  • Question 21 - A 16-year-old girl comes to the clinic complaining of upper abdominal pain. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl comes to the clinic complaining of upper abdominal pain. She is typically healthy and takes a combined oral contraceptive pill. Her mother has a history of hereditary spherocytosis and is with her during the visit. The pain is intermittent but has intensified today. There have been no alterations to her bowel movements, and she has not experienced any nausea or vomiting. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Inferior vena cava thrombosis

      Correct Answer: Biliary colic

      Explanation:

      Chronic haemolysis and gallstone formation are present in this patient with hereditary spherocytosis. It is crucial to consider splenic rupture as a potential differential diagnosis in a patient with hereditary spherocytosis who is unwell.

      Understanding Hereditary Spherocytosis

      Hereditary spherocytosis is the most common hereditary haemolytic anaemia in people of northern European descent. It is an autosomal dominant defect of the red blood cell cytoskeleton, which replaces the normal biconcave disc shape with a sphere-shaped red blood cell. This condition reduces the red blood cell survival as they are destroyed by the spleen. Patients with hereditary spherocytosis may present with failure to thrive, jaundice, gallstones, splenomegaly, and aplastic crisis precipitated by parvovirus infection. The degree of haemolysis is variable, and the mean corpuscular haemoglobin concentration (MCHC) is elevated.

      The diagnosis of hereditary spherocytosis is based on a family history of the condition, typical clinical features, and laboratory investigations such as spherocytes, raised MCHC, and an increase in reticulocytes. The osmotic fragility test was previously the recommended investigation of choice, but it is now deemed unreliable and is no longer recommended. If the diagnosis is equivocal, the EMA binding test and the cryohaemolysis test are recommended. For atypical presentations, electrophoresis analysis of erythrocyte membranes is the method of choice.

      The management of hereditary spherocytosis involves supportive treatment during acute haemolytic crisis, including transfusion if necessary. Longer-term treatment includes folate replacement and splenectomy. It is important to note that hereditary spherocytosis differs from G6PD deficiency, which is an X-linked recessive condition that affects males of African and Mediterranean descent. The diagnostic test for G6PD deficiency involves measuring enzyme activity, while the EMA binding test is used for hereditary spherocytosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      75.2
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  • Question 22 - A 25-year-old man experiences abrupt facial swelling, hives, and respiratory distress following consumption...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man experiences abrupt facial swelling, hives, and respiratory distress following consumption of shellfish at a Chinese eatery. What is the most suitable course of action for treatment?

      Your Answer: Intramuscular adrenaline - 0.5ml of 1 in 1,000

      Explanation:

      The recommended adult dose of adrenaline for anaphylaxis is 500 mcg, which is equivalent to 0.5 ml of a 1 in 1,000 solution.

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It can be caused by various triggers, including food, drugs, and insect venom. The symptoms of anaphylaxis typically occur suddenly and progress rapidly, affecting the airway, breathing, and circulation. Common signs include swelling of the throat and tongue, hoarse voice, respiratory wheeze, dyspnea, hypotension, and tachycardia. In addition, around 80-90% of patients experience skin and mucosal changes, such as generalized pruritus, erythematous rash, or urticaria.

      The management of anaphylaxis requires prompt and decisive action, as it is a medical emergency. The Resuscitation Council guidelines recommend intramuscular adrenaline as the most important drug for treating anaphylaxis. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary depending on the patient’s age, ranging from 100-150 micrograms for infants under 6 months to 500 micrograms for adults and children over 12 years. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary, and the best site for injection is the anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh. In cases of refractory anaphylaxis, IV fluids and expert help should be sought.

      Following stabilisation, patients may be given non-sedating oral antihistamines to manage persisting skin symptoms. It is important to refer all patients with a new diagnosis of anaphylaxis to a specialist allergy clinic and provide them with an adrenaline injector as an interim measure before the specialist assessment. Patients should also be prescribed two adrenaline auto-injectors and trained on how to use them. A risk-stratified approach to discharge should be taken, as biphasic reactions can occur in up to 20% of patients. The Resus Council UK recommends a fast-track discharge for patients who have had a good response to a single dose of adrenaline and complete resolution of symptoms, while those who require two doses of IM adrenaline or have a history of biphasic reaction should be observed for at least 12 hours following symptom resolution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
      32.3
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  • Question 23 - As a junior doctor in an inpatient psychiatric unit, you have assessed a...

    Incorrect

    • As a junior doctor in an inpatient psychiatric unit, you have assessed a 25-year-old patient who has recently been diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia. Your consultant has initiated treatment with olanzapine and baseline blood tests have been conducted. According to NICE guidelines, what further investigation is recommended for this patient?

      Your Answer: Pregnancy test

      Correct Answer: ECG

      Explanation:

      Patients starting antipsychotic medications should have a baseline ECG, along with weight, waist circumference, pulse and BP measurements, blood tests (including fasting glucose, HbA1c, lipids and prolactin), assessment of movement disorders and nutritional status. An ECG may also be necessary if the medication’s summary of product characteristics recommends it, if the patient has a high risk of cardiovascular disease, has a personal history of cardiovascular disease, or is being admitted as an inpatient. As olanzapine is a second-generation antipsychotic that can cause QT prolongation, an ECG is particularly important for this patient because she is currently hospitalized.

      Monitoring patients who are taking antipsychotic medication is a crucial aspect of their treatment. In addition to regular clinical follow-ups, extensive monitoring is required to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the medication. The British National Formulary (BNF) recommends a range of tests and assessments to be carried out at various intervals. At the start of therapy, a full blood count (FBC), urea and electrolytes (U&E), and liver function tests (LFT) should be conducted. Clozapine, in particular, requires more frequent monitoring of FBC, initially on a weekly basis. Lipids and weight should be measured at the start of therapy, after three months, and annually thereafter. Fasting blood glucose and prolactin levels should be checked at the start of therapy, after six months, and annually thereafter. Blood pressure should be measured at baseline and frequently during dose titration. An electrocardiogram should be conducted at baseline, and cardiovascular risk assessment should be carried out annually. For more detailed information, please refer to the BNF, which also provides specific recommendations for individual drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 24 - A 45-year-old woman has been diagnosed with Addison's disease. What medications are typically...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman has been diagnosed with Addison's disease. What medications are typically prescribed in combination for this condition?

      Your Answer: Prednisolone + spironolactone

      Correct Answer: Hydrocortisone + fludrocortisone

      Explanation:

      Addison’s disease is a condition that requires patients to undergo both glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid replacement therapy. This treatment usually involves taking a combination of hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone. Hydrocortisone is typically given in 2 or 3 divided doses, with patients requiring 20-30 mg per day, mostly in the first half of the day. Patient education is crucial, and it is essential to emphasize the importance of not missing glucocorticoid doses. Additionally, patients should consider wearing MedicAlert bracelets and steroid cards, and they should be provided with hydrocortisone for injection with needles and syringes to treat an adrenal crisis.

      During an intercurrent illness, it is crucial to manage the glucocorticoid dose properly. In simple terms, the glucocorticoid dose should be doubled, while the fludrocortisone dose should remain the same. The Addison’s Clinical Advisory Panel has produced guidelines that detail specific scenarios, and patients should refer to these guidelines for more information. It is essential to discuss how to adjust the glucocorticoid dose during an intercurrent illness with a healthcare professional. Proper management of Addison’s disease is crucial to ensure that patients can lead healthy and fulfilling lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      84.4
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  • Question 25 - A 12-month-old African-Caribbean boy is brought to see his General Practitioner by his...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-month-old African-Caribbean boy is brought to see his General Practitioner by his mother with a 6-day history of fever, reduced feeding and increased irritability. His mother has also noticed this morning that his fingers and toes are swollen and tense and some of the skin is peeling. He is reluctant to play with toys or walk. On examination, he is pale, his lips are cracked and there are no rashes present. Ear, nose and throat (ENT) examinations reveal the presence of a red, swollen tongue he also has swollen, tender digits of his hands and feet.
      He is admitted to hospital and his full blood count (FBC) result is shown below:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 88 g/l 100–135 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 6.2 × 109/l 3.8–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 150 × 109/l 150–400 × 1109/l
      Mean corpuscular volume 93 fl 85–105 fl
      Reticulocytes 6% 0.2–2%
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Sickle cell disease

      Correct Answer: Kawasaki disease

      Explanation:

      Kawasaki disease is a condition that causes inflammation in small and medium blood vessels, particularly in the coronary vessels. Children with this disease typically experience a high fever lasting more than five days, along with symptoms such as a strawberry tongue, dry cracked lips, rashes, peeling skin on the hands and feet, conjunctivitis, and swollen and painful hands and feet.

      Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL) is a type of cancer that can cause bone pain and swelling in children, as well as unexplained fever, lethargy, recurrent infections, headaches, petechiae or purpura, and splenomegaly. However, a high white blood cell count would be present in ALL, which would be absent in this patient. Anaemia and thrombocytopenia are also common in ALL.

      Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by low levels of albumin and protein in the urine due to damage to the basement membrane of the renal glomerulus. Children with this condition typically experience swelling in the face, feet, abdomen, and genitals, but not in the fingers and toes as seen in this patient.

      Rheumatic fever is a reaction to a bacterial infection, usually caused by group A streptococcus. Symptoms may include fever, abdominal pain, carditis, Sydenham’s chorea, and a rash, but joint pain typically affects the ankles, knees, elbows, and wrists rather than the hands and feet.

      Sickle cell disease is an inherited condition that causes abnormal sickle-shaped red blood cells, leading to blockages in small blood vessels and chronic anemia. It is most common in Black African and Black Caribbean populations. Symptoms may include jaundice, anemia, and acute dactylitis, and screening is recommended for high-risk ethnic groups. A diagnosis of hemolysis is supported by a high reticulocyte count and normocytic anemia on FBC.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      129.7
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  • Question 26 - A 78-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of a gradual loss of vision...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of a gradual loss of vision over the past 2 years. She reports difficulty seeing objects up close, particularly at dusk and in the early morning when walking her dog. Amsler grid testing reveals distorted line perception. The patient has a history of osteoarthritis in her knees, which she treats with paracetamol as needed. What is the probable observation on fundoscopy?

      Your Answer: Drusen

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms and clinical findings suggest a diagnosis of dry macular degeneration, which is characterized by the presence of drusen – small yellowish deposits of lipids under the retina. The patient is experiencing a gradual loss of central vision, difficulty seeing in the dark, and distorted line perception on Amsler grid testing.

      Hypertensive retinopathy can cause AV nicking, which is visible on fundoscopy, but it is unlikely to be the cause of this patient’s symptoms. Cotton wool spots, which are associated with hypertensive and diabetic retinopathy, are also an unlikely cause as the patient has no history of hypertension or diabetes, and these spots do not typically cause changes in vision. Cupping of the optic disc, seen in glaucoma, is also an unlikely diagnosis as the patient’s symptoms do not match those typically seen in glaucoma.

      Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.

      To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with anti-oxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.

      In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and anti-oxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 27 - A 65-year-old woman with atrial fibrillation and hypertension is prescribed amiodarone.
    Which of the...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman with atrial fibrillation and hypertension is prescribed amiodarone.
      Which of the following blood tests is crucial for monitoring amiodarone use?

      Your Answer: Amiodarone plasma levels (12-monthly)

      Correct Answer: LFTs, TFTs (6-monthly)

      Explanation:

      Drug Monitoring in Primary Care

      Drug monitoring is an essential aspect of patient care, particularly for medications with potential side effects. In primary care, drug monitoring is becoming increasingly common, especially for patients managed through shared-care with specialty care.

      Amiodarone is a medication that requires ongoing monitoring for potential side effects, including pulmonary toxicity, thyroid dysfunction, abnormal liver function, and corneal microdeposits. Monitoring includes checking LFTs and TFTs every six months, a chest radiograph and ECG every 12 months, and an annual ophthalmological examination.

      Azathioprine requires monitoring of FBC and LFTs every three months, while lithium requires monitoring of U&Es, TFTs, and lithium plasma levels every six months. Methotrexate requires monitoring of FBC, U&Es, and LFTs every two to three months.

      In conclusion, drug monitoring is crucial in primary care to ensure patient safety and prevent potential adverse effects. Regular monitoring of blood tests can help detect any changes in a patient’s health and allow for timely intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      22.5
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  • Question 28 - A 35 year old woman who is 30 weeks pregnant presents with malaise,...

    Correct

    • A 35 year old woman who is 30 weeks pregnant presents with malaise, headaches and vomiting. She is admitted to the obstetrics ward after a routine blood pressure measurement was 190/95 mmHg. Examination reveals right upper quadrant abdominal pain and brisk tendon reflexes. The following blood tests are shown:

      Hb 85 g/l
      WBC 6 * 109/l
      Platelets 89 * 109/l
      Bilirubin 2.8 µmol/l
      ALP 215 u/l
      ALT 260 u/l
      γGT 72 u/l
      LDH 846 u/I

      A peripheral blood film is also taken which shows polychromasia and schistocytes. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: HELLP syndrome

      Explanation:

      The symptoms of HELLP syndrome, a severe form of pre-eclampsia, include haemolysis (H), elevated liver enzymes (EL), and low platelets (LP). A patient with this condition may experience malaise, nausea, vomiting, and headache, as well as hypertension with proteinuria and epigastric and/or upper abdominal pain. The patient in this case meets the requirements for a diagnosis of HELLP syndrome.

      Liver Complications During Pregnancy

      During pregnancy, there are several liver complications that may arise. One of the most common is intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy, which occurs in about 1% of pregnancies and is typically seen in the third trimester. Symptoms include intense itching, especially in the palms and soles, as well as elevated bilirubin levels. Treatment involves the use of ursodeoxycholic acid for relief and weekly liver function tests. Women with this condition are usually induced at 37 weeks to prevent stillbirth, although maternal morbidity is not typically increased.

      Another rare complication is acute fatty liver of pregnancy, which may occur in the third trimester or immediately after delivery. Symptoms include abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting, headache, jaundice, and hypoglycemia. Severe cases may result in pre-eclampsia. ALT levels are typically elevated, and support care is the primary management until delivery can be performed once the patient is stabilized.

      Finally, conditions such as Gilbert’s and Dubin-Johnson syndrome may be exacerbated during pregnancy. Additionally, HELLP syndrome, which stands for haemolysis, elevated liver enzymes, and low platelets, is a serious complication that can occur in the third trimester and requires immediate medical attention. Overall, it is important for pregnant women to be aware of these potential liver complications and to seek medical attention if any symptoms arise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 29 - Which medication is most effective in preventing Meniere's disease attacks? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which medication is most effective in preventing Meniere's disease attacks?

      Your Answer: Prochlorperazine

      Correct Answer: Betahistine

      Explanation:

      Understanding Meniere’s Disease

      Meniere’s disease is a condition that affects the inner ear and its cause is still unknown. It is more commonly seen in middle-aged adults but can occur at any age and affects both men and women equally. The condition is characterized by excessive pressure and progressive dilation of the endolymphatic system. The most prominent symptoms of Meniere’s disease are recurrent episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and sensorineural hearing loss. Other symptoms include a sensation of aural fullness or pressure, nystagmus, and a positive Romberg test. These episodes can last from minutes to hours and are typically unilateral, but bilateral symptoms may develop over time.

      The natural history of Meniere’s disease shows that symptoms usually resolve in the majority of patients after 5-10 years. However, most patients are left with some degree of hearing loss, and psychological distress is common. To manage the condition, an ENT assessment is required to confirm the diagnosis. Patients should inform the DVLA, and the current advice is to cease driving until satisfactory control of symptoms is achieved. During acute attacks, buccal or intramuscular prochlorperazine may be administered, and admission to the hospital may be required. To prevent future attacks, betahistine and vestibular rehabilitation exercises may be of benefit.

      In summary, Meniere’s disease is a condition that affects the inner ear and can cause recurrent episodes of vertigo, tinnitus, and hearing loss. While the cause is unknown, there are management strategies available to help control symptoms and prevent future attacks. It is important for patients to seek medical attention and inform the DVLA to ensure their safety and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
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  • Question 30 - A mother brings her 8-year-old son into surgery. He has been experiencing recurrent...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 8-year-old son into surgery. He has been experiencing recurrent headaches. What is the most common feature of migraine in children?

      Your Answer: Strictly unilateral symptoms

      Correct Answer: Gastrointestinal disturbance

      Explanation:

      Children with migraine often experience nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain.

      Diagnostic Criteria for Migraine

      Migraine is a neurological disorder that affects millions of people worldwide. The International Headache Society has established diagnostic criteria for migraine without aura, which includes at least five attacks lasting between 4-72 hours and having at least two of the following characteristics: unilateral location, pulsating quality, moderate or severe pain intensity, and aggravation by routine physical activity. During the headache, there must be at least one of the following: nausea and/or vomiting, photophobia, and phonophobia. The headache cannot be attributed to another disorder.

      Migraine with aura, which is seen in around 25% of migraine patients, tends to be easier to diagnose with a typical aura being progressive in nature and may occur hours prior to the headache. Typical aura include a transient hemianopic disturbance or a spreading scintillating scotoma (‘jagged crescent’). Sensory symptoms may also occur. NICE criteria suggest that migraines may be unilateral or bilateral and give more detail about typical auras, which may occur with or without headache and are fully reversible, develop over at least 5 minutes, and last 5-60 minutes. Atypical aura symptoms such as motor weakness, double vision, visual symptoms affecting only one eye, poor balance, and decreased level of consciousness may prompt further investigation or referral.

      In summary, the diagnostic criteria for migraine without aura include specific characteristics of the headache and associated symptoms, while migraine with aura is characterized by typical aura symptoms that may occur prior to the headache. It is important to accurately diagnose migraine to provide appropriate treatment and management for those who suffer from this debilitating condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 31 - A 25-year-old woman presents for her yearly asthma check-up. She reports experiencing her...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman presents for her yearly asthma check-up. She reports experiencing her typical symptoms of chest tightness, wheezing, and shortness of breath about three times per week, usually at night. She also wakes up feeling wheezy once a week. At present, she only uses a salbutamol inhaler as needed, which provides her with good relief. The patient has no medical history, takes no other medications, and has no allergies. What is the appropriate management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Add a budesonide inhaler

      Explanation:

      According to NICE (2017) guidelines, patients with asthma should be prescribed a SABA as the first step of treatment. However, if a patient experiences symptoms three or more times per week or night waking, they should also be prescribed a low-dose ICS inhaler as the second step of treatment. This is also necessary for patients who have had an acute exacerbation requiring oral corticosteroids in the past two years. In this case, the patient’s symptoms are not well-controlled with a SABA alone, and she experiences frequent symptoms and night waking. Therefore, she requires a low-dose ICS inhaler, and the only option available is budesonide.

      Adding a salmeterol inhaler is not appropriate at this stage, as LABAs are only used as the fourth step of treatment if a patient is not controlled with a SABA, low-dose ICS, and a trial of LTRAs. Similarly, adding montelukast and a beclomethasone inhaler is not appropriate, as LTRAs are only added if a patient is still not controlled on a low-dose ICS and a SABA. However, it may be appropriate to trial beclomethasone without montelukast.

      Continuing with the current salbutamol-only treatment is not appropriate, as the patient’s asthma is poorly controlled, which increases the risk of morbidity and mortality. Regular salbutamol has no role in the management of asthma, as it does not improve outcomes and may even worsen them by downregulating beta receptors that are important for bronchodilation.

      The management of asthma in adults has been updated by NICE in 2017, following the 2016 BTS guidelines. One of the significant changes is in ‘step 3’, where patients on a SABA + ICS whose asthma is not well controlled should be offered a leukotriene receptor antagonist instead of a LABA. NICE does not follow the stepwise approach of the previous BTS guidelines, but to make the guidelines easier to follow, we have added our own steps. The steps range from newly-diagnosed asthma to SABA +/- LTRA + one of the following options, including increasing ICS to high-dose, a trial of an additional drug, or seeking advice from a healthcare professional with expertise in asthma. Maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) is a form of combined ICS and LABA treatment that is only available for ICS and LABA combinations in which the LABA has a fast-acting component. It should be noted that NICE does not recommend changing treatment in patients who have well-controlled asthma simply to adhere to the latest guidance. The definitions of what constitutes a low, moderate, or high-dose ICS have also changed, with <= 400 micrograms budesonide or equivalent being a low dose, 400 micrograms - 800 micrograms budesonide or equivalent being a moderate dose, and > 800 micrograms budesonide or equivalent being a high dose for adults.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      84.2
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 50-year-old woman visits your clinic to inquire about the safety of taking...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman visits your clinic to inquire about the safety of taking multivitamin supplements. She confesses that she has been consuming high doses of vitamin B6 supplements, believing that it would alleviate her anemia and boost her energy levels. She seeks your advice on whether she should continue taking the supplements.
      What is a potential adverse effect of excessive intake of vitamin B6 (pyridoxine)?

      Your Answer: Polycythaemia

      Correct Answer: Peripheral neuropathy

      Explanation:

      Pyridoxine, also known as vitamin B6, is essential for the formation of haemoglobin and can be obtained from various food sources such as chicken, fish, vegetables, eggs, peanuts, milk, and potatoes. The recommended daily intake of vitamin B6 is 1.4mg for men and 1.2mg for women, which can be easily met through a balanced diet. However, prolonged consumption of over 200mg of vitamin B6 per day can result in peripheral neuropathy.

      Understanding Peripheral Neuropathy: Causes and Symptoms

      Peripheral neuropathy is a condition that affects the nerves outside of the brain and spinal cord. It can be categorized into two types based on the predominant symptoms: motor loss and sensory loss. Motor loss conditions include Guillain-Barre syndrome, porphyria, lead poisoning, hereditary sensorimotor neuropathies (such as Charcot-Marie-Tooth), chronic inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy (CIDP), and diphtheria. On the other hand, sensory loss conditions include diabetes, uremia, leprosy, alcoholism, vitamin B12 deficiency, and amyloidosis.

      Alcoholic neuropathy is a type of peripheral neuropathy that is caused by both direct toxic effects and reduced absorption of B vitamins. It typically presents with sensory symptoms before motor symptoms. Vitamin B12 deficiency can also lead to peripheral neuropathy, specifically subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord. In this case, the dorsal column is usually affected first, causing joint position and vibration issues before distal paraesthesia.

      Understanding the causes and symptoms of peripheral neuropathy is crucial in diagnosing and treating the condition. Proper management can help alleviate symptoms and improve quality of life for those affected.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      46.4
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A 54-year-old man presented to the Emergency Department with a 1-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man presented to the Emergency Department with a 1-day history of blurring of vision and headache. He does not complain of any pain when touching the scalp or any pain when eating and chewing food.
      Past medical history includes hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus, which is well controlled with metformin.
      On further history taking, he tells you that he has a family history of brain cancer and he is afraid that this could be relevant to his symptoms.
      On examination, his visual acuity is 6/18 in both eyes. On dilated fundoscopy, you could see some arterioles narrower than others. You also see venules being compressed by arterioles. There are also some dot-and-blot and flame-shaped haemorrhages, as well as some cotton-wool spots. There is no optic disc swelling.
      His vital observations are as follows:
      Heart rate 80 bpm
      Blood pressure 221/119 mmHg
      Oxygen saturation 98% on room air
      Respiratory rate 14 per minute
      Temperature 37 °C
      According to the Keith-Wagener-Barker classification of hypertensive retinopathy, what grade of hypertensive retinopathy is this?

      Your Answer: Grade 5

      Correct Answer: Grade 3

      Explanation:

      Stages of Diabetic Retinopathy

      Diabetic retinopathy is a condition that affects the eyes of people with diabetes. It is important to detect and treat it early to prevent vision loss. There are different stages of diabetic retinopathy, each with its own set of features.

      Grade 1 is characterized by arteriolar narrowing. Grade 2 includes features of grade 1 and arteriovenous nipping. Grade 3 includes features of grade 2 and microaneurysms, dot-and-blot haemorrhages, flame-shaped haemorrhages, cotton-wool spots, and hard exudates. Grade 4 includes features of grade 3 and optic disc swelling.

      It is important to have regular eye exams if you have diabetes to detect any signs of diabetic retinopathy early. With proper management and treatment, vision loss can be prevented or delayed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      121.4
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  • Question 34 - A 65-year-old female is referred for management of a chronic ulcer above the...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old female is referred for management of a chronic ulcer above the left medial malleolus. The ankle-brachial pressure index readings are as follows:
      Right 0.95
      Left 0.95
      The ulcer has been treated with standard dressings by the District Nurse. What is the best course of action to increase the chances of healing the ulcer?

      Your Answer: Hydrocolloid dressings

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Compression bandaging is recommended for the management of venous ulceration, as the ankle-brachial pressure index readings suggest that the ulcers are caused by venous insufficiency rather than arterial issues.

      Venous Ulceration and its Management

      Venous ulceration is a type of ulcer that is commonly seen above the medial malleolus. To assess for poor arterial flow that could impair healing, an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) is important in non-healing ulcers. A normal ABPI is usually between 0.9 – 1.2, while values below 0.9 indicate arterial disease. Interestingly, values above 1.3 may also indicate arterial disease, particularly in diabetics, due to false-negative results caused by arterial calcification.

      The only treatment that has been shown to be of real benefit for venous ulceration is compression bandaging, usually four-layer. Oral pentoxifylline, a peripheral vasodilator, can also improve the healing rate. There is some small evidence supporting the use of flavonoids, but little evidence to suggest benefit from hydrocolloid dressings, topical growth factors, ultrasound therapy, and intermittent pneumatic compression. Proper management of venous ulceration is crucial to promote healing and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      45.9
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  • Question 35 - A 35-year-old woman presents for follow-up. She has a long-standing history of heavy...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents for follow-up. She has a long-standing history of heavy menstrual bleeding, which has worsened over the past six months. She denies experiencing dysmenorrhea, intermenstrual bleeding, or postcoital bleeding. She has completed her family and does not desire any more children. Her gynecological exam is unremarkable, and her cervical screening is current. What is the preferred treatment option?

      Your Answer: Intrauterine system (Mirena)

      Explanation:

      The recommended initial treatment for menorrhagia is the intrauterine system (Mirena).

      Managing Heavy Menstrual Bleeding

      Heavy menstrual bleeding, also known as menorrhagia, is a condition where a woman experiences excessive blood loss during her menstrual cycle. While it was previously defined as total blood loss of over 80 ml per cycle, the management of menorrhagia now depends on the woman’s perception of what is excessive. In the past, hysterectomy was a common treatment for heavy periods, but the approach has changed significantly since the 1990s.

      To manage menorrhagia, a full blood count should be performed in all women. If symptoms suggest a structural or histological abnormality, a routine transvaginal ultrasound scan should be arranged. For women who do not require contraception, mefenamic acid or tranexamic acid can be used. If there is no improvement, other drugs can be tried while awaiting referral.

      For women who require contraception, options include the intrauterine system (Mirena), combined oral contraceptive pill, and long-acting progestogens. Norethisterone can also be used as a short-term option to rapidly stop heavy menstrual bleeding. The flowchart below shows the management of menorrhagia.

      [Insert flowchart here]

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      101.7
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  • Question 36 - An ambulance brings a 70-year-old man to the emergency department with suspected stroke....

    Incorrect

    • An ambulance brings a 70-year-old man to the emergency department with suspected stroke. Upon examination, the man's speech is non-fluent, but his comprehension is intact. He experiences difficulty repeating a phrase. What is the most probable location of the lesion?

      Your Answer: Parietal lobe

      Correct Answer: Frontal lobe

      Explanation:

      The patient in the scenario has non-fluent speech, normal comprehension, and impaired repetition, which is indicative of Broca’s dysphasia. This type of speech abnormality is associated with a lesion in the frontal lobe affecting Broca’s area. When responding to a conversation, the signal travels from the ear to Wernicke’s area for comprehension, then along the arcuate fasciculus to Broca’s area for speech coordination. A lesion in the cerebellum, occipital lobe, parietal lobe, or temporal lobe would not be associated with Broca’s dysphasia.

      Understanding the Different Types of Aphasia

      Aphasia is a language disorder that affects a person’s ability to communicate effectively. There are different types of aphasia, each with its own set of symptoms and causes. Wernicke’s aphasia is caused by a lesion in the superior temporal gyrus, which is responsible for forming speech before sending it to Broca’s area. This type of aphasia results in sentences that make no sense, word substitution, and neologisms, but speech remains fluent. On the other hand, Broca’s aphasia is caused by a lesion in the inferior frontal gyrus, resulting in non-fluent, laboured, and halting speech. Repetition is impaired, but comprehension is normal.

      Conduction aphasia is caused by a stroke affecting the arcuate fasiculus, the connection between Wernicke’s and Broca’s area. Speech is fluent, but repetition is poor, and the person is aware of the errors they are making. Comprehension is normal. Global aphasia is the most severe type, affecting all three areas and resulting in severe expressive and receptive aphasia. However, the person may still be able to communicate using gestures.

      Understanding the different types of aphasia is crucial in providing appropriate treatment and support for individuals with this language disorder. It is important to note that dysarthria is different from aphasia and refers to a motor speech disorder.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      47.9
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  • Question 37 - A 68-year-old patient with known stable angina is currently managed on atenolol and...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old patient with known stable angina is currently managed on atenolol and isosorbide mononitrate (on an as required or PRN basis). He is experiencing more frequent episodes of angina on exertion.
      What is the most appropriate treatment that can be added to his current regimen to alleviate his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Aspirin

      Correct Answer: Nifedipine

      Explanation:

      Medications for Angina: Nifedipine, Aspirin, Dabigatran, ISMN, and Spironolactone

      When it comes to treating angina, the first-line anti-anginal treatment should be either a β blocker or a calcium channel blocker like nifedipine, according to NICE guidelines. If this proves ineffective, an alternative or combination of the two should be used. Nifedipine is the calcium channel blocker with the most vasodilating properties.

      Aspirin can also be used to reduce the risk of a myocardial infarction (MI) in angina patients, but it does not provide any symptomatic relief. NICE recommends considering aspirin for all patients with angina.

      Dabigatran, an anticoagulant, is useful for reducing the risk of strokes in patients with atrial fibrillation, but it does not provide any symptomatic benefit for angina.

      If symptoms are not controlled on a combination of β blocker and calcium channel blocker, or if one of these cannot be tolerated, NICE advises considering long-acting nitrates like ISMN.

      Spironolactone, an aldosterone antagonist, can be used in heart failure secondary to left ventricular systolic dysfunction (LVSD), especially after a myocardial infarction (MI). NICE recommends starting with either a β blocker or a calcium channel blocker, and switching or combining if ineffective. If one of these medications cannot be tolerated or the combination is ineffective, long-acting nitrate, nicorandil, or ivabradine should be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      97.4
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  • Question 38 - A 50-year-old man presents to you with recent blood test results showing a...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man presents to you with recent blood test results showing a total cholesterol of 6.2 mmol/L. You schedule an appointment to discuss this further and calculate his Qrisk score to be 23%. He has a 20-year history of smoking 10 cigarettes a day and his father died of a heart attack at age 50. He also has a past medical history of asthma. Which medication would you recommend he start taking?

      Your Answer: Simvastatin 20mg

      Correct Answer: Atorvastatin 20mg

      Explanation:

      To prevent cardiovascular disease, it is recommended to start taking Atorvastatin 20mg, which is a high-intensity statin. Atorvastatin 80 mg is used for secondary prevention. Simvastatin 10mg and 20mg are considered low-intensity statins. It is important to combine statin treatment with lifestyle changes such as increasing physical activity, reducing alcohol consumption, and adopting a heart-healthy diet.

      The 2014 NICE guidelines recommend using the QRISK2 tool to identify patients over 40 years old who are at high risk of CVD, with a 10-year risk of 10% or greater. A full lipid profile should be checked before starting a statin, and atorvastatin 20mg should be offered first-line. Lifestyle modifications include a cardioprotective diet, physical activity, weight management, limiting alcohol intake, and smoking cessation. Follow-up should occur at 3 months, with consideration of increasing the dose of atorvastatin up to 80 mg if necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      113.7
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 65-year-old man visits his GP with a complaint of pain in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man visits his GP with a complaint of pain in his left eye. Upon examination, the sclera appears red and the cornea is hazy with a dilated pupil. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Conjunctivitis

      Correct Answer: Acute angle closure glaucoma

      Explanation:

      Should red eye be attributed to glaucoma or uveitis?
      Glaucoma is characterized by intense pain, haloes, and a partially dilated pupil, while uveitis is indicated by a small, fixed oval pupil and ciliary flush.

      Understanding the Causes of Red Eye

      Red eye is a common condition that can be caused by various factors. It is important to identify the underlying cause of red eye to determine the appropriate treatment. In some cases, urgent referral to an ophthalmologist may be necessary. Here are some of the key distinguishing features of the different causes of red eye:

      Acute angle closure glaucoma is characterized by severe pain, decreased visual acuity, and haloes. The pupil may also be semi-dilated and the cornea hazy.

      Anterior uveitis presents with acute onset, pain, blurred vision, and photophobia. The pupil is small and fixed, and there may be ciliary flush.

      Scleritis is characterized by severe pain and tenderness, which may worsen with movement. It may also be associated with underlying autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis.

      Conjunctivitis may be bacterial or viral, with purulent or clear discharge, respectively.

      Subconjunctival haemorrhage may be caused by trauma or coughing bouts.

      Endophthalmitis typically occurs after intraocular surgery and presents with red eye, pain, and visual loss.

      By understanding the different causes of red eye and their distinguishing features, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate management and referral when necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      55.2
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  • Question 40 - A 32-year-old accountant presents with a sudden onset of a crooked smile. He...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old accountant presents with a sudden onset of a crooked smile. He reports experiencing some discomfort behind his ear but otherwise feels fine. Upon examination, a left-sided facial nerve palsy is observed, affecting the face from forehead to chin. Both tympanic membranes appear normal.
      What is the probable cause of this condition?

      Your Answer: Bell’s palsy

      Explanation:

      Understanding Bell’s Palsy: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management

      Bell’s palsy is a temporary paralysis of the facial nerve that typically presents with facial weakness, pain behind the ear, earache, aural fullness, or facial palsy. It is caused by a unilateral, lower motor neuron lesion, affecting the muscles controlling facial expression on one side only. The forehead is involved in Bell’s palsy, unlike in upper motor neuron lesions such as a cerebrovascular accident.

      Other conditions that may present with similar symptoms include Ramsey Hunt syndrome, which is associated with severe pain and caused by herpes zoster virus, and transient ischaemic attack/stroke, which is the sudden onset of focal neurological signs that completely resolve within 24 hours.

      Syphilis and vasculitis are not typically associated with Bell’s palsy. Syphilis has various stages, with primary syphilis presenting with a chancre and secondary syphilis characterized by multi-system involvement. Vasculitis has many different types, including Churg–Strauss syndrome, temporal arteritis, granulomatosis with polyangiitis, Henloch–Schönlein purpura, and polymyalgia rheumatica.

      Management of Bell’s palsy includes reassurance and meticulous eye care to prevent complications such as corneal abrasions. Oral corticosteroids, such as prednisolone, are effective if given within 72 hours of onset. Understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and management of Bell’s palsy is crucial for prompt and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      27.6
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A 56-year-old woman visits the emergency GP service with a red and painful...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old woman visits the emergency GP service with a red and painful eye that has been bothering her for a few hours. Upon examination, the doctor notices a dilated pupil and a significant decrease in vision.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute angle-closure glaucoma

      Explanation:

      Common Eye Conditions: Symptoms and Characteristics

      Acute angle-closure glaucoma, Conjunctivitis, Foreign body, Optic neuritis, and Uveitis are some of the most common eye conditions that individuals may experience. Each condition has its own set of symptoms and characteristics that can help in identifying the underlying cause.

      Acute angle-closure glaucoma is characterized by sudden onset symptoms such as blurred vision, seeing haloes around lights, red eye, pain, headache, and nausea and vomiting. It is an ophthalmic emergency that requires urgent specialist assessment to prevent blindness.

      Conjunctivitis is one of the most common non-traumatic eye complaints resulting in presentation to A&E. It is characterized by redness, profuse discharge, irritation, and rarely photophobia. Most causes are benign, with a self-limited process.

      Foreign body in the cornea is characterized by pain, foreign body sensation, photophobia, tearing, and red eye. A visible foreign body may be present on physical examination.

      Optic neuritis is characterized by rapidly developing impairment of vision in one eye, dyschromatopsia, retro-orbital or ocular pain, Uhthoff’s phenomenon, and Pulfrich’s phenomenon. It often occurs in association with multiple sclerosis (MS) and neuromyelitis optica (NMO).

      Uveitis is characterized by inflammation of the uveal tract or adjacent ocular structures. It is often autoimmune in nature, and the aetiology remains elusive in most cases. Symptoms vary depending on the location of the inflammation, with acute anterior uveitis being the most common form of intraocular inflammation, causing a painful red eye.

      Understanding the symptoms and characteristics of these common eye conditions can help in identifying the underlying cause and seeking appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      28.1
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  • Question 42 - A 32-year-old man complains of left ear pain and hearing loss for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man complains of left ear pain and hearing loss for the past week. He is an avid swimmer. During examination, you observe pre-auricular lymph nodes on the left side. The ear is inflamed, red, and tender to touch. A small amount of yellow discharge is visible in the ear canal.
      What is the initial treatment of choice after obtaining swabs?

      Your Answer: No treatment needed as likely to self resolve

      Correct Answer: Topical antibiotic drops

      Explanation:

      Patients suffering from otitis media typically experience relief from symptoms within 4 days without the need for antibiotics. While antibiotics can help shorten the duration of symptoms, they come with the risk of side effects and drug resistance. Therefore, treatment is usually postponed unless symptoms persist, the patient is generally unwell, or symptoms affect both ears. In rare cases, ear syringing may be used as a secondary treatment to remove debris from the ear canal.

      Understanding Otitis Externa: Causes, Features, and Management

      Otitis externa is a common condition that often prompts patients to seek medical attention. It is characterized by ear pain, itch, and discharge, and is caused by various factors such as infection, seborrhoeic dermatitis, and contact dermatitis. Swimming is also a common trigger of otitis externa. Upon examination, the ear canal appears red, swollen, or eczematous.

      The recommended initial management of otitis externa involves the use of topical antibiotics or a combination of topical antibiotics with a steroid. However, if the tympanic membrane is perforated, aminoglycosides are traditionally not used. In cases where there is canal debris, removal may be necessary, while an ear wick may be inserted if the canal is extensively swollen. Second-line options include oral antibiotics, taking a swab inside the ear canal, and empirical use of an antifungal agent.

      It is important to note that if a patient fails to respond to topical antibiotics, referral to an ENT specialist may be necessary. Malignant otitis externa is a more serious condition that is more common in elderly diabetics. It involves the extension of infection into the bony ear canal and the soft tissues deep to the bony canal, and may require intravenous antibiotics.

      Overall, understanding the causes, features, and management of otitis externa is crucial in providing appropriate care and preventing complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      39.1
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - A 25-year-old woman presents to her GP with recurrent, foul-smelling discharge from her...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to her GP with recurrent, foul-smelling discharge from her right ear and decreased hearing on that side. She has been experiencing these episodes every few months, but now notices the discharge on most days. During childhood, she frequently swam and had grommet insertion for glue ear, which fell out when she was around 10 years old. She has no significant medical history and takes only the combined oral contraceptive pill.

      After conducting hearing tests, the following results were obtained:
      - Rinne's test (right side): bone conduction > air conduction
      - Rinne's test (left side): air conduction > bone conduction
      - Weber's test: lateralisation to the right

      What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Cholesteatoma

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing a conductive hearing loss on the right side, as evidenced by Rinne’s test showing bone conduction > air conduction in the affected ear and Weber’s test lateralizing to the right ear. The most likely diagnosis is cholesteatoma, which is associated with recurrent ear discharge and glue ear. Cholesteatoma occurs when squamous epithelium forms pockets on the tympanic membrane, leading to cyst-like growths that produce keratin and slough over time. This causes erosion in the middle ear, creating an environment for anaerobic bacterial growth.

      Acoustic neuroma, on the other hand, causes sensorineural hearing loss, which is characterized by air conduction > bone conduction in both ears and Weber test lateralizing to the unaffected ear. It is associated with dizziness and typically causes unilateral hearing loss. As the tumor grows, patients may develop neurological symptoms that can be predicted by the affected cranial nerves.

      Otitis externa is an acute infection of the outer ear that can cause conductive hearing loss, but as the patient has a chronic history and lacks ear pain, this diagnosis is less likely. Otosclerosis, which presents with progressive conductive hearing loss and tinnitus, is an autosomal dominant trait that typically affects individuals aged 20-40 years with a family history of early-onset hearing loss. As it does not typically present with smelly ear discharge, other diagnoses should be considered first.

      Rinne’s and Weber’s Test for Differentiating Conductive and Sensorineural Deafness

      Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are two diagnostic tools used to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural deafness. Rinne’s test involves placing a tuning fork over the mastoid process until the sound is no longer heard, then repositioning it just over the external acoustic meatus. A positive test indicates that air conduction (AC) is better than bone conduction (BC), while a negative test suggests conductive deafness if BC is greater than AC.

      On the other hand, Weber’s test involves placing a tuning fork in the middle of the forehead equidistant from the patient’s ears and asking which side is loudest. In unilateral sensorineural deafness, sound is localized to the unaffected side, while in unilateral conductive deafness, sound is localized to the affected side.

      To interpret the results of Rinne’s and Weber’s tests, a normal result indicates that AC is greater than BC bilaterally, and the sound is midline in Weber’s test. Conductive hearing loss is indicated by BC being greater than AC in the affected ear, while AC is greater than BC in the unaffected ear, and the sound lateralizes to the affected ear in Weber’s test. Sensorineural hearing loss is indicated by AC being greater than BC bilaterally, and the sound lateralizes to the unaffected ear in Weber’s test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      74.7
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  • Question 44 - A 35-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner. He has noticed a few...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner. He has noticed a few patches of pale skin on his arms over the past few weeks. He is not particularly worried about these but wants to know what it could be and what he needs to do about it.
      On examination, a few depigmented patches on the arms are noted. His medical history includes asthma, for which he takes inhalers.
      Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following treatments should he be started on?

      Your Answer: Daily sunscreen to the affected areas

      Explanation:

      Managing Vitiligo: Recommended Treatments and Precautions

      Vitiligo is a skin condition that requires careful management to prevent further damage and reduce the risk of skin cancer. Daily application of sunscreen to affected areas is crucial due to increased susceptibility to UV-light-induced damage. Camouflaging makeup can also help alleviate psychological distress. Topical steroids are recommended for up to two months, and if there is no response, a referral to a dermatologist is necessary. Emollients and oral antihistamines are not useful in vitiligo management. Oral steroids are rarely used, and topical clotrimazole and dapsone are not first-line treatments. Topical tacrolimus and phototherapy may have a role, but caution is needed for light-skinned patients. Overall, early intervention and precautionary measures are key to managing vitiligo effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      51.3
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with sudden right iliac fossa...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with sudden right iliac fossa pain. She reports the pain as sharp and radiating to her right shoulder. She has a medical history of endometriosis and type 2 diabetes mellitus and smokes 10 cigarettes per day. Her last menstrual period was 35 days ago, and she is concerned about being pregnant. She has a 4-year-old daughter, and her previous pregnancy was complicated by pre-eclampsia. Based on her history, what is a potential risk factor for her current presentation?

      Your Answer: Endometriosis

      Explanation:

      Having endometriosis increases the risk of experiencing an ectopic pregnancy. This patient’s symptoms and positive pregnancy test suggest a likely diagnosis of an ectopic pregnancy. Other risk factors for ectopic pregnancy include previous ectopic pregnancy, fallopian tube damage, and IVF. However, multiparity, previous pre-eclampsia, twin pregnancy, and type 2 diabetes mellitus are not associated with an increased risk of ectopic pregnancy.

      Understanding Ectopic Pregnancy: Incidence and Risk Factors

      Ectopic pregnancy occurs when a fertilized egg implants outside the uterus, usually in the fallopian tubes. This condition is a serious medical emergency that requires immediate attention. According to epidemiological studies, ectopic pregnancy occurs in approximately 0.5% of all pregnancies.

      Several risk factors can increase the likelihood of ectopic pregnancy. These include damage to the fallopian tubes due to pelvic inflammatory disease or surgery, a history of previous ectopic pregnancy, endometriosis, the use of intrauterine contraceptive devices (IUCDs), and the progesterone-only pill. In vitro fertilization (IVF) also increases the risk of ectopic pregnancy, with approximately 3% of IVF pregnancies resulting in ectopic implantation.

      It is important to note that any factor that slows down the passage of the fertilized egg to the uterus can increase the risk of ectopic pregnancy. Early detection and prompt treatment are crucial in managing this condition and preventing serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      140.5
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 47-year-old man with kidney disease develops pulmonary tuberculosis. His recent blood tests...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old man with kidney disease develops pulmonary tuberculosis. His recent blood tests show an eGFR of 50 ml/min and a creatinine clearance of 30 ml/min. Which ONE drug should be administered in a reduced dose?

      Your Answer: Rifampicin

      Correct Answer: Ethambutol

      Explanation:

      The treatment of tuberculosis is a complex process that requires the expertise of a specialist in the field, such as a respiratory physician or an infectivologist. The first-line drugs used for active tuberculosis without CNS involvement are isoniazid, rifampicin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol. These drugs are given together for the first 2 months of therapy, followed by continued treatment with just isoniazid and rifampicin for an additional 4 months. Pyridoxine is added to the treatment regimen to reduce the risk of isoniazid-induced peripheral neuropathy. If there is CNS involvement, the four drugs (and pyridoxine) are given together for 2 months, followed by continued treatment with isoniazid (with pyridoxine) and rifampicin for an additional 10 months. It is important to monitor liver function tests before and during treatment, and to educate patients on the potential side effects of the drugs and when to seek medical attention. Treatment-resistant tuberculosis cases are becoming more common and require special management and public health considerations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      28.8
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  • Question 47 - A 2-year-old girl is brought to the GP by her mother due to...

    Correct

    • A 2-year-old girl is brought to the GP by her mother due to a new rash. The mother is worried as the rash appeared suddenly just 1 day ago. The child had a cold with a high fever 3 weeks ago, but has since recovered. Apart from that, the child is healthy and active.

      During the examination, an erythematous rash is observed on the child's trunk and limbs. The rash does not seem to be causing any itching and disappears when pressure is applied.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Roseola infantum

      Explanation:

      What is the classical history of roseola infantum and how does it differ from other childhood rashes?

      Roseola infantum is a common viral illness that typically affects children between 6 months and 2 years of age. It is characterized by a high fever that is followed 1-2 weeks later by an erythematous rash across the trunk and limbs. Febrile seizures are also common with this illness.

      Measles, on the other hand, presents with an erythematous rash that starts behind the ears and spreads to the rest of the body. It is associated with fever, conjunctivitis, coryzal symptoms, and white koplik spots on the inside of the mouth.

      Parvovirus B19, also known as slapped cheek disease, is characterized by a rash that first appears on the cheeks before spreading to the trunk and arms. It is usually preceded by 2-5 days of mild fever and non-specific viral symptoms.

      Rubella presents with an erythematous rash that starts on the face and spreads to the rest of the body. It is associated with mild fever, sore throat, and lymphadenopathy.

      Understanding Roseola Infantum

      Roseola infantum, also known as exanthem subitum or sixth disease, is a common illness that affects infants and is caused by the human herpes virus 6 (HHV6). This disease has an incubation period of 5-15 days and is typically seen in children aged 6 months to 2 years. The most common symptoms of roseola infantum include a high fever that lasts for a few days, followed by a maculopapular rash. Other symptoms may include Nagayama spots, which are papular enanthems on the uvula and soft palate, as well as cough and diarrhea.

      In some cases, febrile convulsions may occur in around 10-15% of children with roseola infantum. While this can be concerning for parents, it is important to note that this is a common occurrence and typically resolves on its own. Additionally, HHV6 infection can lead to other possible consequences such as aseptic meningitis and hepatitis.

      It is important to note that school exclusion is not necessary for children with roseola infantum. While this illness can be uncomfortable for infants, it is typically not serious and resolves on its own within a few days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      88.9
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  • Question 48 - A 78-year-old man is undergoing evaluation for a possible cognitive impairment and movement...

    Correct

    • A 78-year-old man is undergoing evaluation for a possible cognitive impairment and movement disorder. Various scans have been ordered to aid in the assessment. The scan results are as follows: MRI head shows normal age-related changes, while the SPECT scan reveals decreased dopaminergic activity in the substantia nigra. Based on this information, what is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Parkinson's disease

      Explanation:

      Neurodegenerative diseases are characterized by the progressive loss of neurons in the brain, leading to a range of symptoms. Parkinson’s disease is a common example, which affects the basal ganglia and causes movement disorders such as bradykinesia, muscle rigidity, tremor, and postural instability. Alzheimer’s dementia, on the other hand, is associated with atrophy of the medial temporal lobe and temporoparietal cortex, but does not typically involve movement disorders. Huntington’s disease primarily affects the striatum, leading to a loss of striatal volume and the characteristic symptom of chorea – jerky, uncontrollable limb movements. Multi-system atrophy is a rare condition that affects both the basal ganglia and cerebellum, leading to autonomic dysfunction, ataxia, and Parkinsonism, but cognitive impairment is not typically seen.

      Parkinson’s disease is a progressive neurodegenerative condition that occurs when dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra degenerate. This leads to a classic triad of symptoms, including bradykinesia, tremor, and rigidity, which are typically asymmetrical. The disease is more common in men and is usually diagnosed around the age of 65. Bradykinesia is characterized by a poverty of movement, shuffling steps, and difficulty initiating movement. Tremors are most noticeable at rest and typically occur in the thumb and index finger. Rigidity can be either lead pipe or cogwheel, and other characteristic features include mask-like facies, flexed posture, and micrographia. Psychiatric features such as depression, dementia, and sleep disturbances may also occur. Diagnosis is usually clinical, but if there is difficulty differentiating between essential tremor and Parkinson’s disease, 123I‑FP‑CIT single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) may be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 49 - A 6-year-old girl from a travelling community is brought to the Emergency Department...

    Correct

    • A 6-year-old girl from a travelling community is brought to the Emergency Department with respiratory distress. Upon examination, she has a fever of 38.5ºC, stridor, and appears toxic. The medical team suspects acute epiglottitis. Which of the following pathogens is the most probable cause?

      Your Answer: Haemophilus influenzae

      Explanation:

      Incomplete immunisation may be a concern for patients belonging to travelling communities with regards to acute epiglottitis caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B.

      Acute epiglottitis is a rare but serious infection caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B. It is important to recognize and treat it promptly as it can lead to airway obstruction. Although it was once considered a disease of childhood, it is now more common in adults in the UK due to the immunization program. The incidence of epiglottitis has decreased since the introduction of the Hib vaccine. Symptoms include a rapid onset, high temperature, stridor, drooling of saliva, and a tripod position where the patient leans forward and extends their neck to breathe easier. Diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but x-rays may be done to rule out a foreign body.

      Immediate senior involvement is necessary, including those who can provide emergency airway support such as anaesthetics or ENT. Endotracheal intubation may be necessary to protect the airway. It is important not to examine the throat if epiglottitis is suspected due to the risk of acute airway obstruction. The diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but only senior staff who are able to intubate if necessary should perform this. Treatment includes oxygen and intravenous antibiotics.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      16.1
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  • Question 50 - As a foundation doctor in general practice, you assess a thirty-three-year-old woman who...

    Incorrect

    • As a foundation doctor in general practice, you assess a thirty-three-year-old woman who presents with muscle weakness and erythematous, keratotic macules on her interphalangeal joints. She reports a family history of osteoarthritis. Can you describe the changes observed on her hands?

      Your Answer: Bouchard's nodes

      Correct Answer: Gottron's papules

      Explanation:

      The presence of roughened red papules over the knuckles, known as Gottron’s papules, is indicative of dermatomyositis. This patient’s description of muscle weakness and associated skin changes suggests that she may have this condition. Bouchard’s and Heberden’s nodes, on the other hand, are associated with osteoarthritis and present as painless swellings of the proximal and distal interphalangeal joints, respectively. Macular lesions on the palms, such as Osler nodes and janeway lesions, are linked to endocarditis. Osler nodes are painful and caused by immune complex deposition, while janeway lesions are painless and caused by septic emboli.

      Dermatomyositis is a condition that causes inflammation and muscle weakness, as well as distinct skin lesions. It can occur on its own or be associated with other connective tissue disorders or underlying cancers, particularly ovarian, breast, and lung cancer. Screening for cancer is often done after a diagnosis of dermatomyositis. Polymyositis is a variant of the disease that does not have prominent skin manifestations.

      The skin features of dermatomyositis include a photosensitive macular rash on the back and shoulders, a heliotrope rash around the eyes, roughened red papules on the fingers’ extensor surfaces (known as Gottron’s papules), extremely dry and scaly hands with linear cracks on the fingers’ palmar and lateral aspects (known as mechanic’s hands), and nail fold capillary dilatation. Other symptoms may include proximal muscle weakness with tenderness, Raynaud’s phenomenon, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease (such as fibrosing alveolitis or organizing pneumonia), dysphagia, and dysphonia.

      Investigations for dermatomyositis typically involve testing for ANA antibodies, which are positive in around 80% of patients. Approximately 30% of patients have antibodies to aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases, including antibodies against histidine-tRNA ligase (also called Jo-1), antibodies to signal recognition particle (SRP), and anti-Mi-2 antibodies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      38.2
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  • Question 51 - A middle-aged business executive presents with a red hot, swollen and very painful...

    Correct

    • A middle-aged business executive presents with a red hot, swollen and very painful right big toe. Joint aspiration reveals no organisms, but there are numerous neutrophils containing long needle-shaped crystals.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gouty arthritis

      Explanation:

      Gout is a crystal arthropathy caused by hyperuricaemia, most commonly affecting middle-aged men. Diagnosis is confirmed by aspiration and examination of joint fluid. Treatment is with high-dose NSAIDs or coxibs initially, followed by allopurinol in the long term. RA presents as an acute monoarticular arthritis in only 10% of cases, and is more common in women between the ages of 35 and 55. Septic arthritis and gonococcal arthritis are bacterial infections that present with a hot, red, swollen joint and constitutional symptoms. Reactive arthritis is a sterile arthritis occurring following an infection, usually presenting as an acute, asymmetrical lower limb arthritis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      13.7
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  • Question 52 - An aged patient in the oncology unit experiences a cardiac arrest. You initiate...

    Correct

    • An aged patient in the oncology unit experiences a cardiac arrest. You initiate compressions and notify the resuscitation team. Upon rhythm assessment, VT is detected. Following three rounds of CPR and multiple shocks, which two medications are recommended in the ALS protocol?

      Your Answer: Amiodarone 300mg and adrenaline 1mg

      Explanation:

      During advanced ALS, the recommended dose of adrenaline to administer is 1mg. If the patient is identified in the hospital, they should receive a minimum shock of 150 joules (unless the defibrillator model specifies otherwise). Compressions at a rate of 30:2 should be resumed for 2 minutes, followed by reassessment of the rhythm. If VF or pVT persists, a second shock should be given. Repeat the previous steps until the third shock, at which point 1mg IV of adrenaline and 300 mg IV of amiodarone should be administered while continuing CPR. Afterward, 1mg of adrenaline should be given after every other shock. Consider administering a second dose of amiodarone after a total of 5 defibrillation attempts if it is available. If amiodarone is not available, lidocaine can be used.

      The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken when dealing with patients with shockable and non-shockable rhythms. For both types of patients, chest compressions are a crucial part of the process, with a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 ventilations. Defibrillation is recommended for shockable rhythms, with a single shock for VF/pulseless VT followed by 2 minutes of CPR. Adrenaline and amiodarone are the drugs of choice for non-shockable rhythms, with adrenaline given as soon as possible and amiodarone administered after 3 shocks for VF/pulseless VT. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolus is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98% following successful resuscitation. The Hs and Ts should be considered as potential reversible causes of cardiac arrest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      34.6
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  • Question 53 - An 85-year-old woman with hypercholesterolaemia, ischaemic heart disease and hypertension complains to her...

    Correct

    • An 85-year-old woman with hypercholesterolaemia, ischaemic heart disease and hypertension complains to her General Practitioner of tingling and numbness in both feet that has been worsening over a period of six months.
      Examination reveals that she has an altered pinprick sensation over both feet and absent ankle reflexes. Her urea and electrolyte levels are normal. Her blood glucose is normal and there is no history of alcohol ingestion. She is, however, taking a number of medications for the secondary presentation of her vascular problems.
      Which of the following medications is most likely to have caused her symptoms?
      Select the SINGLE most appropriate medication from the list below.

      Your Answer: Simvastatin

      Explanation:

      Medication Analysis for Peripheral Neuropathy: Simvastatin, Bendroflumethiazide, Clopidogrel, Ramipril, and Spironolactone

      Peripheral neuropathy is a condition characterized by numbness and tingling in the extremities, often accompanied by a loss of ankle reflexes. Statins, such as simvastatin, are a known risk factor for peripheral neuropathy, with onset ranging from the first dose to years of use. Bendroflumethiazide, on the other hand, is not associated with neuropathy but can cause electrolyte imbalances leading to central neurological disturbances. Clopidogrel, an anti-platelet medication, is unlikely to contribute to peripheral neuropathy. Ramipril, a blood-pressure-lowering medication, can cause cough and dizziness but would not lead to peripheral neuropathy. Spironolactone, a diuretic, can cause hyperkalemia but would not lead to peripheral neuropathy. It is important to consider medication use when evaluating patients with peripheral neuropathy symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      216.9
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  • Question 54 - What is a true statement about trigeminal neuralgia? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about trigeminal neuralgia?

      Your Answer: Duloxetine is the first-line treatment

      Correct Answer: The pain is commonly triggered by touching the skin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Trigeminal Neuralgia

      Trigeminal neuralgia is a type of pain syndrome that is characterized by severe pain on one side of the face. While most cases are idiopathic, some may be caused by compression of the trigeminal roots due to tumors or vascular problems. According to the International Headache Society, trigeminal neuralgia is defined as a disorder that causes brief electric shock-like pains that are limited to one or more divisions of the trigeminal nerve. The pain is often triggered by light touch, such as washing, shaving, or brushing teeth, and can occur spontaneously. Certain areas of the face, such as the nasolabial fold or chin, may be more susceptible to pain. The pain may also remit for varying periods.

      Red flag symptoms and signs that suggest a serious underlying cause include sensory changes, ear problems, a history of skin or oral lesions that could spread perineurally, pain only in the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve, optic neuritis, a family history of multiple sclerosis, and onset before the age of 40.

      The first-line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia is carbamazepine. If there is a failure to respond to treatment or atypical features are present, such as onset before the age of 50, referral to neurology is recommended. Understanding the symptoms and management of trigeminal neuralgia is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      19.9
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - A 28-year-old man with a history of moderate ulcerative colitis and taking mesalazine...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man with a history of moderate ulcerative colitis and taking mesalazine presents with a fever and sore throat for the past week. What is the primary investigation that needs to be done initially?

      Your Answer: Full blood count

      Explanation:

      If a patient is taking aminosalicylates, they may experience various haematological adverse effects, such as agranulocytosis. Therefore, it is crucial to conduct a full blood count promptly if the patient presents with symptoms like fever, fatigue, bleeding gums, or a sore throat to rule out agranulocytosis. While C-reactive protein may be a part of the overall management plan, it is not the most critical initial investigation and is unlikely to alter the management plan. Similarly, while a throat swab may be necessary, it is not the most crucial initial investigation. The monospot test for glandular fever may be useful if glandular fever is suspected, but it is not the most important initial investigation.

      Aminosalicylate drugs, such as 5-aminosalicyclic acid (5-ASA), are released in the colon and act locally as anti-inflammatories. The exact mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed that 5-ASA may inhibit prostaglandin synthesis. Sulphasalazine is a combination of sulphapyridine and 5-ASA, but many of its side-effects are due to the sulphapyridine component, including rashes, oligospermia, headache, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, and lung fibrosis. Other side-effects are common to 5-ASA drugs, such as mesalazine, which is a delayed release form of 5-ASA that avoids the sulphapyridine side-effects seen in patients taking sulphasalazine. However, mesalazine is still associated with side-effects such as gastrointestinal upset, headache, agranulocytosis, pancreatitis, and interstitial nephritis. Olsalazine is another aminosalicylate drug that consists of two molecules of 5-ASA linked by a diazo bond, which is broken by colonic bacteria.

      It is important to note that aminosalicylates are associated with various haematological adverse effects, including agranulocytosis, and a full blood count (FBC) is a key investigation in an unwell patient taking them. Additionally, pancreatitis is seven times more common in patients taking mesalazine than in those taking sulfasalazine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      31.3
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  • Question 56 - A 70-year-old retired car mechanic who is a smoker is diagnosed with lung...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old retired car mechanic who is a smoker is diagnosed with lung cancer. Some fifteen years ago he was treated with surgery and adjuvant chemotherapy for bladder cancer. His brother had oesophageal cancer aged 66 and another brother had prostate cancer in his 70s. His 55-year-old daughter was recently diagnosed with breast cancer.
      Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the cancers in your patient?

      Your Answer: Exposure to tobacco smoke

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Possible Causes of Multiple Cancers in an Individual

      It is not uncommon for an individual to develop two different types of cancer over their lifetime. In a case where a man has been diagnosed with both bladder and lung cancer, the possible causes need to be explored.

      Exposure to tobacco smoke is the most likely cause of both cancers in this case. Smoking is responsible for 85% of lung cancers and is also the biggest risk factor for developing bladder cancer.

      Exposure to asbestos or aniline dyes are not likely causes of both cancers. While asbestos exposure is associated with mesothelioma, it is not linked to bladder cancer. Similarly, aniline dyes increase the risk of bladder cancer but not lung cancer.

      A hereditary cancer predisposition syndrome is also an unlikely cause in this case. While it is possible for an individual to have a genetic predisposition to developing multiple cancers, there are no specific patterns in the family history that suggest this.

      Finally, the second tumor is not a late complication of chemotherapy. While previous cancer treatment could potentially increase the risk of developing lung cancer, smoking is still the most likely cause in this case.

      In conclusion, exposure to tobacco smoke is the most likely cause of both bladder and lung cancer in this individual. It is important to identify the possible causes of multiple cancers in an individual to ensure appropriate treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      112.8
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - A 28-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of decreased vision in...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of decreased vision in his left eye. He reports that he first noticed it approximately 4 hours ago and is experiencing pain, particularly when he moves his eye. Additionally, he notes that everything appears to be a strange color.

      During the examination, the swinging light test reveals normal constriction of both pupils when the light is directed into the right eye. However, when the light is directed into the left eye, there is a reduced constriction of both pupils.

      What is the most common disease that could be causing this man's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Multiple sclerosis

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest optic neuritis, which is commonly caused by multiple sclerosis. This condition involves inflammation of the optic nerve, resulting in pain on movement, reduced visual acuity, and an RAPD due to reduced response to light in the affected eye. Multiple sclerosis is a demyelinating disease that can cause various symptoms, including optic neuritis, by damaging the myelin sheaths of nerves.

      Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune condition that primarily affects the joints but can also cause extra-articular manifestations throughout the body. In the eye, it tends to cause scleritis, episcleritis, and keratoconjunctivitis sicca, but not optic neuritis.

      Behçet’s disease is another inflammatory disorder that affects multiple parts of the body, but its ocular manifestation is anterior uveitis, not optic neuritis.

      Ulcerative colitis is an inflammatory bowel disease that involves inflammation of the lower GI tract. It can also cause extraintestinal manifestations, including scleritis and anterior uveitis in the eye.

      Optic neuritis is a condition that can be caused by multiple sclerosis, diabetes, or syphilis. It is characterized by a decrease in visual acuity in one eye over a period of hours or days, as well as poor color discrimination and pain that worsens with eye movement. Other symptoms include a relative afferent pupillary defect and a central scotoma. The condition can be diagnosed through an MRI of the brain and orbits with gadolinium contrast. Treatment typically involves high-dose steroids, and recovery usually takes 4-6 weeks. If an MRI shows more than three white-matter lesions, the risk of developing multiple sclerosis within five years is approximately 50%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      37.4
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  • Question 58 - A 28-year-old female patient presents to her GP complaining of a foul-smelling vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female patient presents to her GP complaining of a foul-smelling vaginal discharge that has persisted for 5 days after having unprotected sex. She reports feeling generally well and denies any fever or urinary symptoms. The patient also confirms that she is not pregnant. During the examination, the doctor observes multiple punctate lesions on her cervix and a green discharge with a strong odor. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chlamydia

      Correct Answer: Trichomoniasis

      Explanation:

      The patient is likely suffering from trichomoniasis caused by Trichomonas vaginalis, a sexually transmitted disease that results in a yellow/green discharge with a foul odor, vulval itching, and dysuria. During a speculum examination, the cervix may appear as a strawberry cervix due to multiple punctate haemorrhages. Bacterial vaginosis, which is not a sexually transmitted disease and can be caused by various factors, is less likely to be the diagnosis due to the recent unprotected sexual intercourse and the presence of an offensive discharge. Chlamydia and gonorrhoea, both sexually transmitted diseases, can also cause dysuria and vaginal discharge, but the punctate cervical haemorrhages and malodorous green discharge make them less likely diagnoses. Syphilis, which presents in three stages, is unlikely due to the acute onset of symptoms and the absence of genital lesions.

      Understanding Trichomonas vaginalis and its Comparison to Bacterial Vaginosis

      Trichomonas vaginalis is a type of protozoan parasite that is highly motile and flagellated. It is known to cause trichomoniasis, which is a sexually transmitted infection. The infection is characterized by symptoms such as offensive, yellow/green, frothy vaginal discharge, vulvovaginitis, and strawberry cervix. The pH level is usually above 4.5, and in men, it may cause urethritis.

      To diagnose trichomoniasis, a wet mount microscopy is conducted to observe the motile trophozoites. The treatment for trichomoniasis involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, although a one-off dose of 2g metronidazole may also be used.

      When compared to bacterial vaginosis, trichomoniasis has distinct differences. Bacterial vaginosis is caused by an overgrowth of bacteria in the vagina, while trichomoniasis is caused by a protozoan parasite. The symptoms of bacterial vaginosis include a thin, grayish-white vaginal discharge with a fishy odor, and a pH level above 4.5. Unlike trichomoniasis, bacterial vaginosis is not considered a sexually transmitted infection.

      In conclusion, understanding the differences between trichomoniasis and bacterial vaginosis is crucial in diagnosing and treating these conditions effectively. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help prevent complications and improve overall health and well-being.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      33.4
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  • Question 59 - A 28-year-old male with a history of Marfan's syndrome arrives at the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old male with a history of Marfan's syndrome arrives at the emergency department reporting a sudden, painless loss of vision in his left eye. He did not experience any symptoms beforehand and did not sustain any injuries.

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Retinal detachment

      Correct Answer: Lens dislocation

      Explanation:

      In Marfan’s syndrome, painless loss of vision in one eye may be caused by lens dislocation, which is a common ocular symptom of the condition. The dislocation usually occurs in the upper outer part of the eye and can affect one or both eyes. While retinal detachment can also cause sudden vision loss without pain, it is less common than lens dislocation and is often preceded by visual disturbances such as flashes, floaters, or blind spots.

      Causes of Lens Dislocation

      Lens dislocation can occur due to various reasons. One of the most common causes is Marfan’s syndrome, which causes the lens to dislocate upwards. Homocystinuria is another condition that can lead to lens dislocation, but in this case, the lens dislocates downwards. Ehlers-Danlos syndrome is also a known cause of lens dislocation. Trauma, such as a blow to the eye, can also cause the lens to dislocate. Uveal tumors and autosomal recessive ectopia lentis are other potential causes of lens dislocation. It is important to identify the underlying cause of lens dislocation to determine the appropriate treatment plan. Proper diagnosis and management can help prevent complications and improve outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      33.3
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  • Question 60 - A 52-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed with raised intraocular pressure (IOP) and...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed with raised intraocular pressure (IOP) and loss of peripheral vision. She also has diabetes.
      Which of the following treatments would ophthalmology have initiated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Latanoprost

      Explanation:

      Understanding Chronic Open-Angle Glaucoma and Treatment Options

      Chronic open-angle glaucoma (COAG) is a progressive and irreversible optic neuropathy that can lead to significant visual loss if left untreated. It is the second leading cause of irreversible blindness in developed countries. Patients with COAG may not present with any symptoms until late in the disease course, making early detection and treatment crucial.

      The first-line treatment for COAG is a prostaglandin analogue, such as latanoprost. Other options include pilocarpine, a cholinergic parasympathomimetic agent, and brinzolamide, a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor. More than one agent may be needed concurrently to achieve the target intraocular pressure (IOP).

      Beta-blockers, such as timolol, may also be used as an alternative or adjuvant therapy, but should be avoided in patients with a history of asthma. Sodium cromoglicate eye drops are not effective in the management of COAG or ocular hypertension (OHT).

      OHT is a major risk factor for developing COAG, but COAG can also occur without raised IOP. Age thresholds for treatment recommendations only apply when vision is currently normal and treatment is purely preventative. Patients experiencing peripheral vision loss should be evaluated for COAG regardless of age.

      Early detection and appropriate treatment can help prevent significant visual loss in patients with COAG.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Neurology (5/9) 56%
Musculoskeletal (1/4) 25%
Reproductive Medicine (6/7) 86%
Respiratory Medicine (3/4) 75%
Renal Medicine/Urology (0/1) 0%
Paediatrics (4/4) 100%
ENT (2/4) 50%
Cardiovascular (3/6) 50%
Dermatology (2/3) 67%
Haematology/Oncology (2/3) 67%
Psychiatry (0/2) 0%
Gastroenterology/Nutrition (1/3) 33%
Immunology/Allergy (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease (0/1) 0%
Ophthalmology (3/6) 50%
Pharmacology/Therapeutics (0/1) 0%
Passmed