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  • Question 1 - A 50-year-old female patient visits the clinic complaining of an itchy rash. During...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old female patient visits the clinic complaining of an itchy rash. During the examination, the doctor observes several purple papular rashes on the flexural surface of her wrists. Additionally, a similar rash is present at the edges of a laceration wound she suffered a week ago. What is the recommended initial treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: Hydrocortisone cream

      Explanation:

      Lichen planus is present in this woman, but it appears to be limited in scope. The initial treatment for lichen planus is potent topical steroids. Oral azathioprine or prednisolone is only prescribed if the condition is widespread. Coal tar cream and calcitriol ointment are not effective treatments for lichen planus.

      Understanding Lichen Planus

      Lichen planus is a skin condition that is believed to be caused by an immune response, although the exact cause is unknown. It is characterized by an itchy, papular rash that typically appears on the palms, soles, genitalia, and flexor surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive white-lines pattern on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon.

      Oral involvement is common in around 50% of patients, with a white-lace pattern often appearing on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes may also occur, including thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging. Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, such as gold, quinine, and thiazides.

      The main treatment for lichen planus is potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more extensive cases, oral steroids or immunosuppression may be necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      16.2
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 28-year-old man visits his General Practitioner, requesting a health check. While he...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old man visits his General Practitioner, requesting a health check. While he feels very well, he is concerned, as his father had a myocardial infarction (MI) at the age of 43.
      On examination, his blood pressure and pulse are normal. His body mass index (BMI) is also within the normal range. There is a white/grey opacity surrounding the periphery of his cornea in both eyes.
      What is the most appropriate investigation for this patient?

      Your Answer: Lipid profile

      Explanation:

      Appropriate Laboratory Tests for Cardiovascular Health Check

      To assess a patient’s cardiovascular health, various laboratory tests may be conducted. However, the choice of tests should be based on the patient’s symptoms, medical history, and physical examination. In the case of a patient with signs of hyperlipidaemia, a lipid profile would be the most appropriate test to diagnose familial hyperlipidaemia. On the other hand, an ECG would be indicated if there was a family history of sudden death to rule out underlying rhythm issues. A fasting glucose test would not be necessary in this case, but it may be conducted as part of a cardiovascular health check. A full blood count would not aid in the diagnosis of hyperlipidaemia, but it may be conducted if the patient was experiencing chest pain to exclude anaemia as a cause of his symptoms. Lastly, a renal profile would not aid in the diagnosis of familial hyperlipidaemia, but it may be conducted to rule out secondary causes if the patient were hypertensive.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - At what point in the childhood immunisation schedule is the Meningitis B vaccine...

    Incorrect

    • At what point in the childhood immunisation schedule is the Meningitis B vaccine administered?

      Your Answer: 12 months and preschool

      Correct Answer: 2, 4, and 12 months

      Explanation:

      The most prevalent cause of meningococcal disease in children in the UK is currently Meningitis B. In 2015, the Meningitis B vaccination was added to the NHS routine childhood immunisation schedule. It is administered at 2, 4, and 12 months of age, in conjunction with other immunisations in the schedule. If given at a different time, doses must be spaced at least 2 months apart. For children over one year old, only two doses are necessary.

      Meningitis B Vaccine Now Part of Routine NHS Immunisation

      Children in the UK have been vaccinated against meningococcus serotypes A and C for many years, leaving meningococcal B as the most common cause of bacterial meningitis in the country. However, a new vaccine called Bexsero has been developed to combat this strain. Initially, the Joint Committee on Vaccination and Immunisation (JCVI) rejected the use of Bexsero due to a cost-benefit analysis. However, the decision was eventually reversed, and the vaccine has been added to the routine NHS immunisation schedule.

      The vaccine is administered in three doses at 2 months, 4 months, and 12-13 months. Additionally, Bexsero will be available on the NHS for individuals at high risk of meningococcal disease, such as those with asplenia, splenic dysfunction, or complement disorder. This new vaccine is a significant step in protecting children and vulnerable individuals from meningitis B.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      54.7
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  • Question 4 - A 6-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with a 5-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl presents to the emergency department with a 5-day history of fever and lethargy. She has no significant medical history and is up to date with her childhood vaccinations.

      During the examination, the girl appears drowsy and has a temperature of 39.2ºC. Her heart rate is 155 beats/min and respiratory rate is 46 breaths/min. She has a maculopapular rash on her torso and upper limbs, and her lips are cracked and erythematous. Additionally, her conjunctivae are inflamed. Kernig's sign is negative.

      What is the most appropriate management for this patient, given the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Intravenous ceftriaxone

      Correct Answer: Aspirin

      Explanation:

      High-dose aspirin therapy is the recommended treatment for Kawasaki disease, despite it typically being contraindicated in children.

      Aspirin is the appropriate treatment for this patient’s diagnosis of Kawasaki disease, as evidenced by their persistent fever, conjunctivitis, maculopapular rash, and cracked and erythematous lips. This disease is vasculitic in nature, and current guidelines advise the use of high-dose aspirin therapy as the initial treatment.

      Intravenous aciclovir is not indicated for Kawasaki disease, as it is used to treat viral conditions such as viral meningitis or encephalitis.

      Intravenous ceftriaxone is not appropriate for the treatment of Kawasaki disease, as it is reserved for significant bacterial infections like Neisseria meningitidis. Additionally, the negative Kernig’s sign makes meningitis less likely.

      Oral phenoxymethylpenicillin is not the recommended treatment for Kawasaki disease, as the mucosal changes and conjunctivitis are more indicative of this disease rather than scarlet fever, which is treated with oral phenoxymethylpenicillin.

      Understanding Kawasaki Disease

      Kawasaki disease is a rare type of vasculitis that primarily affects children. It is important to identify this disease early on as it can lead to serious complications, such as coronary artery aneurysms. The disease is characterized by a high-grade fever that lasts for more than five days and is resistant to antipyretics. Other symptoms include conjunctival injection, bright red, cracked lips, strawberry tongue, cervical lymphadenopathy, and red palms and soles that later peel.

      Diagnosis of Kawasaki disease is based on clinical presentation as there is no specific diagnostic test available. Management of the disease involves high-dose aspirin, which is one of the few indications for aspirin use in children. Intravenous immunoglobulin is also used as a treatment option. Echocardiogram is the initial screening test for coronary artery aneurysms, rather than angiography.

      Complications of Kawasaki disease can be serious, with coronary artery aneurysm being the most common. It is important to recognize the symptoms of Kawasaki disease early on and seek medical attention promptly to prevent potential complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      25.3
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  • Question 5 - A 67-year-old woman presents to the breast clinic with an abnormal mammogram and...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman presents to the breast clinic with an abnormal mammogram and a small fixed lump in her right breast. What type of breast cancer is most frequently encountered?

      Your Answer: Invasive lobular carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Invasive ductal carcinoma (no special type)

      Explanation:

      The most prevalent form of breast cancer is invasive ductal carcinoma, without any distinctive features.

      Breast Cancer: Understanding Types and Classification

      Breast cancer can be classified based on the type of tissue it originates from, namely duct or lobular tissue. Ductal carcinoma and lobular carcinoma are the two main types of breast cancer, which can further be classified as either carcinoma-in-situ or invasive. Invasive ductal carcinoma, also known as No Special Type, is the most common type of breast cancer. Lobular carcinoma and other rare types of breast cancer are classified as Special Type.

      Apart from the common types, there are several rarer types of breast cancer, including medullary breast cancer, mucinous breast cancer, tubular breast cancer, adenoid cystic carcinoma of the breast, metaplastic breast cancer, lymphoma of the breast, basal type breast cancer, phyllodes or cystosarcoma phyllodes, and papillary breast cancer. Paget’s disease of the nipple is another type of breast cancer that is associated with an underlying mass lesion. Inflammatory breast cancer is a rare type of breast cancer that results in an inflamed appearance of the breast due to cancerous cells blocking the lymph drainage.

      Understanding the different types and classifications of breast cancer is crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment. It is important to note that some types of breast cancer may be associated with underlying lesions seen in the common types, rather than being completely separate subtypes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      23.7
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  • Question 6 - A 65-year-old man visits his GP with a complaint of pain in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man visits his GP with a complaint of pain in his left eye. Upon examination, the sclera appears red and the cornea is hazy with a dilated pupil. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Scleritis

      Correct Answer: Acute angle closure glaucoma

      Explanation:

      Should red eye be attributed to glaucoma or uveitis?
      Glaucoma is characterized by intense pain, haloes, and a partially dilated pupil, while uveitis is indicated by a small, fixed oval pupil and ciliary flush.

      Understanding the Causes of Red Eye

      Red eye is a common condition that can be caused by various factors. It is important to identify the underlying cause of red eye to determine the appropriate treatment. In some cases, urgent referral to an ophthalmologist may be necessary. Here are some of the key distinguishing features of the different causes of red eye:

      Acute angle closure glaucoma is characterized by severe pain, decreased visual acuity, and haloes. The pupil may also be semi-dilated and the cornea hazy.

      Anterior uveitis presents with acute onset, pain, blurred vision, and photophobia. The pupil is small and fixed, and there may be ciliary flush.

      Scleritis is characterized by severe pain and tenderness, which may worsen with movement. It may also be associated with underlying autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis.

      Conjunctivitis may be bacterial or viral, with purulent or clear discharge, respectively.

      Subconjunctival haemorrhage may be caused by trauma or coughing bouts.

      Endophthalmitis typically occurs after intraocular surgery and presents with red eye, pain, and visual loss.

      By understanding the different causes of red eye and their distinguishing features, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate management and referral when necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      59.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 63-year-old woman with no significant medical history presents with chest pain and...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old woman with no significant medical history presents with chest pain and an ECG showing anterolateral T wave inversion. Her troponin I level at 12 hours is 300 ng/L (reference range < 50 ng/L). She is managed conservatively and discharged on aspirin, atorvastatin, bisoprolol, and ramipril. What is the appropriate use of ticagrelor in this case?

      Your Answer: Should be prescribed for the next 12 months for all patients

      Explanation:

      Myocardial infarction (MI) is a serious condition that requires proper management to prevent further complications. In 2013, NICE released guidelines on the secondary prevention of MI. One of the key recommendations is the use of four drugs: dual antiplatelet therapy (aspirin plus a second antiplatelet agent), ACE inhibitor, beta-blocker, and statin. Patients are also advised to adopt a Mediterranean-style diet and engage in regular exercise. Sexual activity may resume four weeks after an uncomplicated MI, and PDE5 inhibitors may be used six months after the event.

      Most patients with acute coronary syndrome are now given dual antiplatelet therapy, with ticagrelor and prasugrel being the preferred options. The treatment period for these drugs is 12 months, after which they should be stopped. However, this period may be adjusted for patients at high risk of bleeding or further ischaemic events. Additionally, patients with heart failure and left ventricular systolic dysfunction should be treated with an aldosterone antagonist within 3-14 days of the MI, preferably after ACE inhibitor therapy.

      Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to the secondary prevention of MI. By following these recommendations, patients can reduce their risk of further complications and improve their overall health outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 50-year-old man came to the clinic complaining of pain, redness, and blurring...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man came to the clinic complaining of pain, redness, and blurring of vision in his left eye. Upon fundoscopy, a combination of white and red retinal lesions was observed, indicating chorioretinitis. What is the essential test that must be performed to determine the underlying cause of chorioretinitis in this patient?

      Your Answer: HIV test

      Explanation:

      Performing an HIV test is crucial in patients with AIDS, as it is the primary diagnostic tool for identifying the underlying cause. While options 1, 2, and 3 may be necessary as baseline investigations in most patients, they are not sufficient for diagnosing the specific condition in this case.

      Causes of Chorioretinitis

      Chorioretinitis is a medical condition that affects the retina and choroid, which are the layers of tissue at the back of the eye. There are several causes of chorioretinitis, including syphilis, cytomegalovirus, toxoplasmosis, sarcoidosis, and tuberculosis.

      Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. It can cause chorioretinitis as part of its secondary stage. Cytomegalovirus is a common virus that can cause chorioretinitis in people with weakened immune systems, such as those with HIV/AIDS. Toxoplasmosis is a parasitic infection that can be contracted from contaminated food or water, and it can cause chorioretinitis in some cases.

      Sarcoidosis is a condition that causes inflammation in various parts of the body, including the eyes. It can lead to chorioretinitis in some cases. Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection that can affect the lungs, but it can also spread to other parts of the body, including the eyes. It can cause chorioretinitis as a rare complication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      41.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Which of the following complications is most commonly associated with PUVA therapy in...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following complications is most commonly associated with PUVA therapy in elderly patients?

      Your Answer: Basal cell cancer

      Correct Answer: Squamous cell cancer

      Explanation:

      Squamous cell skin cancer is the most notable adverse effect of PUVA therapy in treating psoriasis.

      NICE recommends a step-wise approach for chronic plaque psoriasis, starting with regular emollients and then using a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, followed by a vitamin D analogue twice daily, and then a potent corticosteroid or coal tar preparation if there is no improvement. Phototherapy, systemic therapy, and topical treatments are also options for management. Topical steroids should be used cautiously and vitamin D analogues may be used long-term. Dithranol and coal tar have adverse effects but can be effective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 10-year-old girl is brought to the emergency room due to worsening asthma...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old girl is brought to the emergency room due to worsening asthma symptoms over the past 48 hours. Her parents are worried that her breathing is not improving with the usual inhaled salbutamol treatment. What signs indicate a potentially life-threatening asthma attack?

      Your Answer: Peak flow 40% of predicted

      Correct Answer: Quiet breath sounds on auscultation

      Explanation:

      The absence of bilateral wheezing and presence of quiet breath sounds in a child with asthma is a concerning sign, as it may indicate a severe asthma attack that could be life-threatening.

      Assessing Acute Asthma Attacks in Children

      When assessing the severity of asthma attacks in children, the 2016 BTS/SIGN guidelines recommend using specific criteria. These criteria can help determine whether the attack is severe or life-threatening. For a severe attack, the child may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level between 33-50% of their best or predicted, and may be too breathless to talk or feed. Additionally, their heart rate may be over 125 (for children over 5 years old) or over 140 (for children between 1-5 years old), and their respiratory rate may be over 30 breaths per minute (for children over 5 years old) or over 40 (for children between 1-5 years old). They may also be using accessory neck muscles to breathe.

      For a life-threatening attack, the child may have a SpO2 level below 92%, a PEF level below 33% of their best or predicted, and may have a silent chest, poor respiratory effort, agitation, altered consciousness, or cyanosis. It is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of these criteria and to take appropriate action to manage the child’s asthma attack. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help ensure that children with asthma receive the appropriate care and treatment they need during an acute attack.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      60.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 19-year-old college student presents with results from triple swabs for a yellow...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old college student presents with results from triple swabs for a yellow vaginal discharge. Microscopy reveals the presence of 'intracellular Gram-negative diplococci'. The patient is in good health with a negative pregnancy test. What course of treatment would you recommend?

      Your Answer: Oral doxycycline

      Correct Answer: IM ceftriaxone

      Explanation:

      Gonorrhoea is best treated with intramuscular ceftriaxone.

      Understanding Gonorrhoea: Causes, Symptoms, Microbiology, and Management

      Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the Gram-negative diplococcus Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It can occur on any mucous membrane surface, including the genitourinary tract, rectum, and pharynx. The incubation period of gonorrhoea is typically 2-5 days. Symptoms in males include urethral discharge and dysuria, while females may experience cervicitis leading to vaginal discharge. Rectal and pharyngeal infections are usually asymptomatic.

      Immunisation against gonorrhoea is not possible, and reinfection is common due to antigen variation of type IV pili and Opa proteins. Local complications may develop, including urethral strictures, epididymitis, and salpingitis, which can lead to infertility. Disseminated infection may also occur, with gonococcal infection being the most common cause of septic arthritis in young adults.

      Management of gonorrhoea involves the use of antibiotics. Ciprofloxacin used to be the treatment of choice, but there is now increased resistance to it. Cephalosporins are now more widely used, with a single dose of IM ceftriaxone 1g being the new first-line treatment. If ceftriaxone is refused, oral cefixime 400mg + oral azithromycin 2g should be used. Disseminated gonococcal infection (DGI) and gonococcal arthritis may also occur, with symptoms including tenosynovitis, migratory polyarthritis, and dermatitis. Later complications include septic arthritis, endocarditis, and perihepatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      35.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 23-year-old woman with sickle cell disease is admitted to the haematology unit...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old woman with sickle cell disease is admitted to the haematology unit after experiencing increasing fatigue and general malaise for the past week following a recent febrile illness. Upon examination, she appears pale and has multiple petechiae and bruises over her trunk and upper and lower limbs. Blood tests reveal a Hb of 82 g/L (135-180), platelets of 29 * 109/L (150 - 400), and WBC of 1.3 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0). What is the most likely cause of this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer: Hodgkin's lymphoma

      Correct Answer: Parvovirus B19 infection

      Explanation:

      Pancytopenia may occur in patients with underlying haematological conditions who are infected with Parvovirus B19, which can also cause fever and rash.

      Parvovirus B19: A Virus with Various Clinical Presentations

      Parvovirus B19 is a DNA virus that can cause different clinical presentations. One of the most common is erythema infectiosum, also known as fifth disease or slapped-cheek syndrome. This illness may manifest as a mild feverish condition or a noticeable rash that appears after a few days. The rash is characterized by rose-red cheeks, which is why it is called slapped-cheek syndrome. It may spread to the rest of the body but rarely involves the palms and soles. The rash usually peaks after a week and then fades, but for some months afterwards, a warm bath, sunlight, heat, or fever may trigger a recurrence of the bright red cheeks and rash. Most children recover without specific treatment, and school exclusion is unnecessary as the child is not infectious once the rash emerges. However, in adults, the virus may cause acute arthritis.

      Aside from erythema infectiosum, parvovirus B19 can also present as asymptomatic, pancytopenia in immunosuppressed patients, aplastic crises in sickle-cell disease, and hydrops fetalis. The virus suppresses erythropoiesis for about a week, so aplastic anemia is rare unless there is a chronic hemolytic anemia. In pregnant women, the virus can cross the placenta and cause severe anemia due to viral suppression of fetal erythropoiesis, which can lead to heart failure secondary to severe anemia and the accumulation of fluid in fetal serous cavities (e.g. ascites, pleural and pericardial effusions). This condition is treated with intrauterine blood transfusions.

      It is important to note that the virus can affect an unborn baby in the first 20 weeks of pregnancy. If a woman is exposed early in pregnancy (before 20 weeks), she should seek prompt advice from her antenatal care provider as maternal IgM and IgG will need to be checked. The virus is spread by the respiratory route, and a person is infectious 3 to 5 days before the appearance of the rash. Children are no longer infectious once the rash appears, and there is no specific treatment. Therefore, the child need not be excluded from school as they are no longer infectious by the time the rash occurs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      11.8
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  • Question 13 - A 57-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a one-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a one-day history of blurring of vision and headache. He tells you there is no pain on touching the scalp, or when eating and chewing food.
      He has a past medical history of hypertension and type II diabetes mellitus, which is well controlled with metformin.
      He tells you that his uncle died of brain cancer and he is afraid that he may have the same condition.
      On examination, his visual acuity is 6/18 in both eyes. On dilated fundoscopy, you see some arterioles narrower than others. There are also venules being compressed by arterioles. There is optic disc swelling in both eyes with some exudates lining up like a star at the macula. There is also some dot-and-blot and flame-shaped haemorrhages.
      His pulse is 80 beats per minute, while his blood pressure (BP) is 221/119 mmHg. His temperature is 37 °C, while his respiratory rate is 14 breaths per minute. His oxygen saturations are 98% on room air.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Intracranial space-occupying lesion

      Correct Answer: Hypertensive retinopathy

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Hypertensive Retinopathy from Other Eye Conditions: A Case Study

      The patient in question presented with a highly raised blood pressure and complained of headache and blurring of vision. Fundoscopy revealed bilateral optic disc swelling, which is a typical feature of hypertensive retinopathy. However, other conditions such as giant-cell arteritis, age-related macular degeneration, intracranial space-occupying lesion, and proliferative diabetic retinopathy were also considered.

      Giant-cell arteritis was ruled out due to the absence of scalp tenderness and jaw claudication. Age-related macular degeneration was also unlikely as there were no drusen or choroidal neovascularisation present. While an intracranial space-occupying lesion was a possibility, the lack of accompanying symptoms such as early-morning vomiting and weight loss made it less likely. Proliferative diabetic retinopathy was also ruled out as there were no new vessels at the disc or elsewhere.

      In conclusion, the patient’s symptoms and fundoscopy findings strongly suggest a diagnosis of hypertensive retinopathy. It is important to differentiate this condition from other eye conditions to ensure appropriate treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      31
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A child is born with a genetic condition that is inherited in an...

    Incorrect

    • A child is born with a genetic condition that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. The parents are informed of this. What is the most likely condition that the child has?

      Your Answer: Sickle-cell anaemia

      Correct Answer: Myotonic dystrophy

      Explanation:

      Myotonic dystrophy is an autosomal dominant disorder causing muscle weakness and wasting. Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disease affecting chloride transport and causing thick mucus secretions. Homocystinuria is an autosomal recessive disorder of methionine metabolism leading to accumulation of homocysteine and its metabolites. Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive disease causing mental retardation due to the inability to convert phenylalanine to tyrosine. Sickle-cell anaemia is an autosomal recessive disorder causing deformed red blood cells and oxygen deficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      22.4
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - As a junior doctor on the neonatal ward, you are called to a...

    Incorrect

    • As a junior doctor on the neonatal ward, you are called to a forceps delivery. During the delivery, the midwives notice shoulder dystocia in a newborn. What is the initial management approach for shoulder dystocia in a neonate?

      Your Answer: Episiotomy

      Correct Answer: McRoberts manoeuvre (hyperflexion of the legs)

      Explanation:

      The McRoberts maneuver involves hyperflexing the legs.

      Shoulder dystocia is a complication that can occur during vaginal delivery when the body of the fetus cannot be delivered after the head has already been delivered. This is usually due to the anterior shoulder of the fetus becoming stuck on the mother’s pubic bone. Shoulder dystocia can cause harm to both the mother and the fetus. Risk factors for shoulder dystocia include fetal macrosomia, high maternal body mass index, diabetes mellitus, and prolonged labor.

      If shoulder dystocia is identified, it is important to call for senior help immediately. The McRoberts’ maneuver is often performed, which involves flexing and abducting the mother’s hips to increase the angle of the pelvis and facilitate delivery. An episiotomy may be performed to provide better access for internal maneuvers, but it will not relieve the bony obstruction. Symphysiotomy and the Zavanelli maneuver are not recommended as they can cause significant maternal morbidity. Oxytocin administration is not indicated for shoulder dystocia.

      Complications of shoulder dystocia can include postpartum hemorrhage and perineal tears for the mother, and brachial plexus injury and neonatal death for the fetus. It is important to manage shoulder dystocia promptly and appropriately to minimize the risk of these complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      9.7
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A mother brings her 3-year-old child to you, complaining of frequent respiratory infections,...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 3-year-old child to you, complaining of frequent respiratory infections, a persistent cough, and poor weight gain. The child is currently at the 3rd percentile for their age. The parents are of Romanian descent and have recently moved to the UK. What test should be performed to confirm the suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Chest x-ray

      Correct Answer: Sweat test

      Explanation:

      Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that affects the lungs and is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner. In the United Kingdom, newborns are screened for cystic fibrosis on the sixth day of life using a dried blood spot collected on a Guthrie card.

      Understanding Cystic Fibrosis and the Organisms that Affect Patients

      Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that causes thickened secretions in the lungs and pancreas. This condition is caused by a defect in the cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator gene (CFTR), which regulates chloride channels. In the UK, 80% of CF cases are due to delta F508 on chromosome 7, and the carrier rate is approximately 1 in 25.

      CF patients are susceptible to colonization by certain organisms, including Staphylococcus aureus, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Burkholderia cepacia, and Aspergillus. These organisms can cause infections and exacerbate symptoms in CF patients. It is important for healthcare providers to monitor and manage these infections to improve patient outcomes. By understanding the genetic basis of CF and the organisms that affect patients, healthcare providers can provide better care for those with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      113.1
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 57-year-old man with a history of gout complains of a painful and...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man with a history of gout complains of a painful and swollen first metatarsophalangeal joint. He is currently on allopurinol 400 mg once daily for gout prophylaxis. What is the recommended course of action for his allopurinol therapy?

      Your Answer: Reduce allopurinol to 100mg od until acute attack has settled

      Correct Answer: Continue allopurinol in current dose

      Explanation:

      Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with an initial dose of 100 mg od and titrated to aim for a serum uric acid of < 300 µmol/l. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Consideration should be given to stopping precipitating drugs and losartan may be suitable for patients with coexistent hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 28-year-old female presents to the hospital with palpitations. On ECG, a shortened...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female presents to the hospital with palpitations. On ECG, a shortened PR interval and wide QRS complexes are observed, along with a slurred upstroke in lead II. What is the definitive treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer: Lifelong aspirin

      Correct Answer: Accessory pathway ablation

      Explanation:

      The definitive treatment for this patient’s Wolff-Parkinson White syndrome is ablation of the accessory pathway.

      Understanding Wolff-Parkinson White Syndrome

      Wolff-Parkinson White (WPW) syndrome is a condition that occurs due to a congenital accessory conduction pathway between the atria and ventricles, leading to atrioventricular re-entry tachycardia (AVRT). This condition can cause AF to degenerate rapidly into VF as the accessory pathway does not slow conduction. The ECG features of WPW include a short PR interval and wide QRS complexes with a slurred upstroke, also known as a delta wave. The left or right axis deviation depends on the location of the accessory pathway.

      WPW syndrome is associated with several conditions, including HOCM, mitral valve prolapse, Ebstein’s anomaly, thyrotoxicosis, and secundum ASD. The definitive treatment for WPW syndrome is radiofrequency ablation of the accessory pathway. Medical therapy options include sotalol, amiodarone, and flecainide. However, sotalol should be avoided if there is coexistent atrial fibrillation as it may increase the ventricular rate and potentially deteriorate into ventricular fibrillation.

      In summary, WPW syndrome is a condition caused by a congenital accessory conduction pathway that can lead to rapid degeneration of AF into VF. The ECG features include a short PR interval and a delta wave. WPW syndrome is associated with several conditions, and the definitive treatment is radiofrequency ablation of the accessory pathway. Medical therapy options are available, but sotalol should be avoided in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      21.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - An expectant mother visits the obstetrician's office with a complaint of a painful...

    Correct

    • An expectant mother visits the obstetrician's office with a complaint of a painful nipple and a white discharge from the nipple. It is suspected that she has a candidal infection. What advice and treatment should be provided?

      Your Answer: Continue breast feeding treat both the mother and baby simultaneously

      Explanation:

      It is essential to treat the candidal infection by administering miconazole cream to both the mother and child. The cream should be applied to the nipple after feeding and the infant’s oral mucosa. Breastfeeding should continue during the treatment period. Additionally, the mother should be educated on maintaining good hand hygiene after changing the baby’s nappy and sterilizing any objects that the baby puts in their mouth, such as dummies and teats. This information is provided by NICE CKS.

      Breastfeeding Problems and Their Management

      Breastfeeding is a natural process, but it can come with its own set of challenges. Some of the minor problems that breastfeeding mothers may encounter include frequent feeding, nipple pain, blocked ducts, and nipple candidiasis. These issues can be managed by seeking advice on proper positioning, trying breast massage, and using appropriate medication.

      Mastitis is a more serious problem that affects around 1 in 10 breastfeeding women. It is characterized by symptoms such as fever, nipple fissure, and persistent pain. Treatment involves the use of antibiotics, such as flucloxacillin, for 10-14 days. Breastfeeding or expressing milk should continue during treatment to prevent complications such as breast abscess.

      Breast engorgement is another common problem that causes breast pain in breastfeeding women. It occurs in the first few days after birth and affects both breasts. Hand expression of milk can help relieve the discomfort of engorgement. Raynaud’s disease of the nipple is a less common problem that causes nipple pain and blanching. Treatment involves minimizing exposure to cold, using heat packs, and avoiding caffeine and smoking.

      If a breastfed baby loses more than 10% of their birth weight in the first week of life, it may be a sign of poor weight gain. This should prompt consideration of the above breastfeeding problems and an expert review of feeding. Monitoring of weight should continue until weight gain is satisfactory.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      22.4
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 45-year-old man presents with a 2-year history of increasing deafness and tinnitus...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents with a 2-year history of increasing deafness and tinnitus in his left ear. His left corneal reflex is absent; there is hearing loss in his left ear, with air conduction greater than bone conduction, and the Weber test lateralises to the right.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Basilar artery aneurysm

      Correct Answer: Acoustic neuroma

      Explanation:

      Unilateral hearing loss and loss of corneal reflex are concerning symptoms that require a thorough differential diagnosis. Acoustic neuroma, a benign tumor arising from cranial nerve VIII in the cerebellopontine angle, is the most likely cause of these symptoms. Other potential causes include Multiple Sclerosis (MS), Basilar artery aneurysm, Meningioma, and Ménière’s disease.

      MS is a demyelinating disease of the central nervous system that typically presents with episodes of optic neuritis, limb paraesthesiae or weakness, walking difficulty, and fatigue. Basilar artery aneurysm is rare and usually presents with subarachnoid hemorrhage. Meningioma is a tumor arising from the meninges, which can occur at the cerebellopontine angle but is much rarer than acoustic neuromas at this site. Ménière’s disease is an inner ear disorder caused by endolymph accumulation, causing increased pressure, and typically presents with episodic attacks of vertigo, hearing loss, and tinnitus.

      In summary, while there are several potential causes of unilateral hearing loss and loss of corneal reflex, acoustic neuroma is the most likely culprit. It is important to consider other potential causes and perform a thorough differential diagnosis to ensure appropriate treatment and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      133
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 57-year-old woman with a long history of sun exposure presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman with a long history of sun exposure presents to the accident and emergency department after a fracture of her right femur associated with a minor fall. On reviewing the films with the on-call radiographer you are concerned about a lytic lesion possibly being related to the fracture.
      Which of the following primary tumours most commonly metastasises to bone?

      Your Answer: Gastric carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Bronchial carcinoma

      Explanation:

      Metastasis Patterns of Common Carcinomas

      Carcinomas are malignant tumors that can spread to other parts of the body through a process called metastasis. The patterns of metastasis vary depending on the type of carcinoma. Here are some common carcinomas and their typical metastasis patterns:

      Bronchial Carcinoma: This type of carcinoma often spreads to the bone or brain. Symptoms may include difficulty breathing, coughing, chest pain, weight loss, and fatigue.

      Brain Carcinoma: Primary malignant brain tumors rarely spread to other parts of the body, but they can spread to surrounding areas of the brain and spinal cord.

      Renal Carcinoma: Renal cancers commonly metastasize to the lungs, producing lesions that appear like cannonballs on a chest X-ray. They can also spread to the bone, causing osteolytic lesions.

      Gastric Carcinoma: Gastric cancers tend to spread to the liver, lung, and peritoneum. Tumors that have a preference for bone metastasis include those of the lung, prostate, breast, kidney, and thyroid.

      Colorectal Carcinoma: Colorectal cancers commonly metastasize to the liver, lung, and peritoneum. Tumors that have a preference for bone metastasis include those of the lung, prostate, breast, kidney, and thyroid.

      Understanding the patterns of metastasis for different types of carcinomas can help with early detection and treatment. If you experience any symptoms or have concerns, it’s important to speak with your healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      21.8
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 6-month-old baby girl starts to experience frequent vomiting after feedings. Prior to...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old baby girl starts to experience frequent vomiting after feedings. Prior to this, she had been growing at a steady rate. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hirschsprung’s disease

      Correct Answer: Pyloric stenosis

      Explanation:

      Common Neonatal Gastrointestinal Disorders

      There are several common gastrointestinal disorders that can affect newborns. These include pyloric stenosis, necrotising enterocolitis (NEC), congenital duodenal atresia, Hirschsprung’s disease, and tracheoesophageal fistula (TOF).

      Pyloric stenosis is characterised by hypertrophy of the circular pyloric muscle, and typically presents with non-bilious, projectile vomiting in the third or fourth week of life. Constipation and dehydration may also occur, and biochemistry may show hypokalaemic metabolic alkalosis. Boys are more likely to be affected, especially if born into a family with affected girls.

      NEC is a condition primarily seen in premature infants, where portions of the bowel undergo necrosis. Symptoms include bilious vomiting, distended abdomen, and bloody stools, with late signs including bowel perforation and multi-organ failure.

      Congenital duodenal atresia is a congenital absence or complete closure of a portion of the lumen of the duodenum, and presents with bile-stained vomiting, abdominal distension, and inability to pass meconium.

      Hirschsprung’s disease is characterised by the failure of ganglion cells to migrate into the hindgut, leading to functional intestinal obstruction. Symptoms include abdominal distension, bile-stained vomiting, and failure to pass meconium.

      TOF refers to a communication between the trachea and oesophagus, usually associated with oesophageal atresia. Symptoms include choking, coughing, and cyanosis during feeding, excess mucus, and recurrent lower respiratory tract infections. Other congenital anomalies may also be present.

      Overall, early recognition and management of these neonatal gastrointestinal disorders is crucial for optimal outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      10.1
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 55-year-old man with type 2 diabetes of 8 years’ duration presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with type 2 diabetes of 8 years’ duration presents with poorly controlled blood glucose levels. He was initially started on metformin therapy and his diabetes was well controlled until the last 6 months. Despite strict adherence to diet, exercise and maximum daily doses of metformin and pioglitazone, satisfactory blood glucose control has proved difficult to achieve and the last HbA1c was at 85 mmol/mol. You consider adding the agent empagliflozin.
      Managed either by lifestyle + diet
      HbA1c target levels in adults with type 2 diabetes
      Or
      Lifestyle + diet + single drug not associated with hypoglycaemia
      Managed with a drug associated with hypoglycaemia
      48 mmol/mol
      53 mmol/mol
      Which of the following class of drugs does sitagliptin belong to?

      Your Answer: An α-glucosidase inhibitor

      Correct Answer: A dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Common Diabetes Medications and How They Work

      Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors, such as sitagliptin, work by inhibiting the enzyme DPP-4, which breaks down hormones that stimulate insulin secretion and suppress glucagon secretion. This leads to increased insulin secretion and decreased glucagon release, helping to regulate blood glucose levels.

      α-Glucosidase inhibitors, like acarbose, inhibit enzymes needed to digest carbohydrates, leading to decreased glucose absorption.

      Sulfonylureas, such as tolbutamide and gliclazide, stimulate insulin release by inhibiting potassium channels in pancreatic cells.

      Non-sulfonylurea insulin secretagogues, like repaglinide and nateglinide, also stimulate insulin release but act on a different binding site of the potassium channels.

      Insulin sensitizers, including biguanides like metformin and thiazolidinediones (glitazones), increase glucose uptake by the cells and enhance insulin-dependent enzyme production, respectively.

      Understanding the Mechanisms of Common Diabetes Medications

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 47-year-old heavy smoker presents with a persistent cough and occasional wheezing. The...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old heavy smoker presents with a persistent cough and occasional wheezing. The chest radiograph reveals hyperinflation but clear lung fields.
      What is the next step to assist in making a diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Spirometry

      Explanation:

      Spirometry: The Best Diagnostic Tool for COPD

      Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a common respiratory condition that can significantly impact a patient’s quality of life. To diagnose COPD, spirometry is the best diagnostic tool. According to NICE guidelines, a diagnosis of COPD should be made based on symptoms and signs, but supported by spirometry results. Post-bronchodilator spirometry should be performed to confirm the diagnosis. Airflow obstruction is confirmed by a forced expiratory volume in 1 s (FEV1):forced vital capacity (FVC) ratio of <0.7 and FEV1 <80% predicted. Other diagnostic tools, such as CT of the chest, serial peak flow readings, and trials of beclomethasone or salbutamol, may have a role in the management of COPD, but they are not used in the diagnosis of the condition. CT of the chest may be used to investigate symptoms that seem disproportionate to the spirometric impairment, to investigate abnormalities seen on a chest radiograph, or to assess suitability for surgery. Serial peak flow readings may be appropriate if there is some doubt about the diagnosis, in order to exclude asthma. Inhaled corticosteroids and short-acting beta agonists may be used in the management of COPD for breathlessness/exercise limitation, but they are not used in the diagnosis of COPD. In summary, spirometry is the best diagnostic tool for COPD, and other diagnostic tools may have a role in the management of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      183.7
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 68-year-old woman complains of experiencing multiple instances of sharp, shooting 'electric shock'...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman complains of experiencing multiple instances of sharp, shooting 'electric shock' like pain on the right side of her face over the last 8 months. These episodes usually occur while she is brushing her hair. What is the recommended treatment for this likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Carbamazepine

      Explanation:

      Typical symptoms of trigeminal neuralgia are present in this woman. The initial treatment recommended for this condition is carbamazepine, which should be initiated at a dosage of 100 mg twice daily and gradually increased until pain relief is achieved.

      Understanding Trigeminal Neuralgia

      Trigeminal neuralgia is a type of pain syndrome that is characterized by severe pain on one side of the face. While most cases are idiopathic, some may be caused by compression of the trigeminal roots due to tumors or vascular problems. According to the International Headache Society, trigeminal neuralgia is defined as a disorder that causes brief electric shock-like pains that are limited to one or more divisions of the trigeminal nerve. The pain is often triggered by light touch, such as washing, shaving, or brushing teeth, and can occur spontaneously. Certain areas of the face, such as the nasolabial fold or chin, may be more susceptible to pain. The pain may also remit for varying periods.

      Red flag symptoms and signs that suggest a serious underlying cause include sensory changes, ear problems, a history of skin or oral lesions that could spread perineurally, pain only in the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve, optic neuritis, a family history of multiple sclerosis, and onset before the age of 40.

      The first-line treatment for trigeminal neuralgia is carbamazepine. If there is a failure to respond to treatment or atypical features are present, such as onset before the age of 50, referral to neurology is recommended. Understanding the symptoms and management of trigeminal neuralgia is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      3.3
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 35-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of an itchy rash...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of an itchy rash on the flexural surface of both his arms that has been present for 1 week. On examination, the rash appears polygonal and shiny with a white lines pattern on the surface. What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Skin patch testing before starting treatment

      Correct Answer: No further testing required, start treatment

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Testing for Lichen Planus: Understanding Skin Patch Testing, Skin Prick Testing, and RAST

      Lichen planus is a clinical diagnosis that can be made based on the characteristic appearance of the rash. However, in some cases, a biopsy may be helpful if the presentation is atypical. The diagnosis is typically made without the need for further testing, and treatment can be started promptly.

      Skin patch testing and skin prick testing are not useful for diagnosing lichen planus, as they are mainly used for different types of hypersensitivity reactions. Skin patch testing is used for contact dermatitis and other type IV hypersensitivity reactions, while skin prick testing is used for type I hypersensitivity reactions, such as food allergies and pollen allergies.

      Radioallergosorbent testing (RAST) is also unsuitable for diagnosing lichen planus, as it is used to determine the amount of immunoglobulin E (IgE) that reacts specifically with suspected or known allergens. RAST is useful for food allergies, inhaled allergens (such as pollen), and wasp/bee venom.

      In summary, diagnostic testing is not typically required for lichen planus, as it can be diagnosed clinically. Skin patch testing, skin prick testing, and RAST are not useful for diagnosing lichen planus and are mainly used for different types of hypersensitivity reactions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      188.9
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 49-year-old woman presents to the acute medical unit with a sudden onset...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old woman presents to the acute medical unit with a sudden onset of dizziness, describing the sensation of the room spinning around her. The dizziness persists and does not improve with rest, accompanied by severe nausea and vomiting. She reports hearing loss in her left ear and has recently experienced a cough and coryza episode. The patient has no prior medical history.

      Upon examination, Rinne's test reveals air conduction greater than bone conduction in both ears, and Weber's test lateralizes to her right ear. The patient displays normal eye movements with mild horizontal nystagmus on lateral gaze and intact coordination.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Labyrinthitis

      Explanation:

      A typical scenario for viral labyrinthitis involves a person who has recently had a respiratory infection and suddenly experiences vertigo, vomiting, and hearing loss. The symptoms are usually severe and persistent, and rest may not provide relief. This is likely caused by a viral infection in the inner ear, which is known as labyrinthitis. Given the patient’s history, this is the most probable diagnosis.

      Understanding Vertigo and Its Causes

      Vertigo is a condition characterized by a false sensation of movement in the body or environment. It can be caused by various factors, including viral infections, vestibular neuronitis, benign paroxysmal positional vertigo, Meniere’s disease, vertebrobasilar ischaemia, and acoustic neuroma.

      Viral labyrinthitis and vestibular neuronitis are often associated with recent viral infections and can cause sudden onset vertigo, nausea, and vomiting. While hearing may be affected in viral labyrinthitis, vestibular neuronitis does not cause hearing loss. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo, on the other hand, has a gradual onset and is triggered by changes in head position. Each episode typically lasts for 10-20 seconds.

      Meniere’s disease is characterized by vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus, and a sensation of fullness or pressure in one or both ears. Vertebrobasilar ischaemia, which is more common in elderly patients, can cause dizziness when the neck is extended. Acoustic neuroma, which is associated with neurofibromatosis type 2, can cause hearing loss, vertigo, and tinnitus. An absent corneal reflex is an important sign of this condition.

      Other causes of vertigo include posterior circulation stroke, trauma, multiple sclerosis, and ototoxicity from medications like gentamicin. Understanding the different causes of vertigo can help in the diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 10-year-old boy has been diagnosed with constipation.
    What is the recommended first line...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old boy has been diagnosed with constipation.
      What is the recommended first line treatment for constipation in children?

      Your Answer: Macrogol (Movicol)

      Explanation:

      First-Line Treatment for Constipation in Children: Macrogol (Movicol)

      When a child is diagnosed with constipation and secondary causes have been ruled out, treatment can be initiated. The first-line treatment recommended by NICE is macrogol, which is available as Movicol Paediatric Plain or Movicol depending on the child’s age. The dose is escalated until regular and good consistency stools are achieved. However, it is important to check for faecal impaction before starting maintenance treatment. Suppositories and enemas should not be routinely used in primary care. If macrogol is not tolerated or if there is a particularly hard stool, a stool softener such as lactulose can be used. A stimulant laxative such as senna can also be used as an alternative to macrogol.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      36.7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 3-year-old girl with Down syndrome is brought to see her General Practitioner...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old girl with Down syndrome is brought to see her General Practitioner by her father who has concerns about her motor development which are echoed by her daycare provider. There are no concerns about her speech and she is usually well apart from a few episodes of constipation in the past for which she has received laxatives. Neurological examination is normal. Abdominal examination reveals mild distension and tenderness in the left upper quadrant.

      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
      .

      Your Answer: Impacted ear wax

      Correct Answer: Glue ear

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Hearing Loss in Children

      Hearing loss in children can be caused by various factors. Two common causes are glue ear and otosclerosis. Glue ear, also known as otitis media with effusion, is the accumulation of fluid in the middle ear without acute inflammation. It can lead to conductive hearing loss, recurrent ear infections, speech delay, and behavioral problems. Children with Down syndrome and cleft palate are at higher risk of developing glue ear. On the other hand, otosclerosis is the abnormal growth of bone in the middle ear, resulting in gradual hearing loss in early adulthood.

      It is important to note that speech delay alone may not indicate autistic spectrum disorder. Children with this disorder typically exhibit issues with social interactions, non-verbal communication, and restrictive behaviors. In contrast, selective mutism is an anxiety disorder that causes a child to be unable to speak in certain situations. Impacted ear wax can also cause hearing loss or speech delay, but it can be diagnosed through ear examination.

      In summary, a child with recurrent earache and retracted tympanic membranes is more likely to have glue ear, especially if they have Down syndrome or cleft palate. It is important to monitor their development closely, especially if they also have a learning disability.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      29.8
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 28-year-old woman visits her family doctor with a lump under her chin...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman visits her family doctor with a lump under her chin that causes her discomfort and swelling, especially after eating a big meal. The facial nerve appears to be unaffected. Upon examination, there is a tender swelling in the submandibular triangle. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Pleomorphic adenoma

      Correct Answer: Sialolithiasis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Painful Submandibular Swelling

      One possible diagnosis for a painful submandibular swelling is sialolithiasis, which is the formation of stones within the salivary glands. This condition is more common in men over 40 and typically causes pain and swelling after eating. Adenoid cystic carcinoma, on the other hand, presents as a slowly enlarging mass over the parotid area and can invade local structures such as the facial nerve. Pleomorphic adenomas usually present as a painless lump that slowly enlarges, while Sjögren syndrome causes dry mouth, dry eyes, and swelling of the salivary glands bilaterally. Warthin’s tumour, which is commonly found in the tail of the parotid gland, does not typically present as a painful lump.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      50.9
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - Nosocomial wound infections are often caused by various factors. However, which of the...

    Incorrect

    • Nosocomial wound infections are often caused by various factors. However, which of the following is the most frequent cause of such infections?

      Your Answer: Inadequate room disinfection

      Correct Answer: Inadequate hand disinfection

      Explanation:

      Preventing Hospital-Acquired Wound Infections: Common Causes and Solutions

      Hospital-acquired wound infections are a serious concern for patients and healthcare providers alike. While all wounds are contaminated by microbes, proper hygiene and disinfection can greatly reduce the risk of infection. However, there are several common causes of hospital-acquired wound infections that must be addressed to prevent their occurrence.

      The most frequent cause of nosocomial wound infection is inadequate hand disinfection. Hands are a major source of transmission for hospital infections, and compliance with handwashing protocols can be suboptimal for a variety of reasons. These include lack of accessible equipment, insufficient knowledge of staff about risks and procedures, and too long a duration recommended for washing.

      Inadequate instrument disinfection is another common cause of hospital-acquired wound infections. Different levels of disinfection are recommended for patient equipment depending on the type of care, with surgical instruments presenting a critical level of risk. Sterilisation or high-level disinfection is necessary to minimise the risk of infection.

      While strict schedules for cleaning and disinfection of rooms are in place in hospitals, inadequate room disinfection is still a concern. However, this is not the main cause of surgical wound infection.

      The use of wrong disinfectants during skin disinfection can also contribute to hospital-acquired wound infections. Specific hand disinfectants are used for skin disinfection, including alcoholic rubs and emollient gels.

      Finally, too frequent skin disinfection can lead to the destruction of the normal skin flora, which can increase the risk of infection. Disinfecting agents must be chosen with care to avoid sensitisation or irritation of the skin.

      In conclusion, preventing hospital-acquired wound infections requires a multifaceted approach that addresses the common causes of infection. Proper hand hygiene, instrument disinfection, and skin disinfection are all essential components of a comprehensive infection prevention program.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 36-year-old man presents to the emergency department following a motor vehicle accident....

    Correct

    • A 36-year-old man presents to the emergency department following a motor vehicle accident. He has a medical history of COPD and is a heavy smoker, consuming 30 cigarettes per day. Upon arrival, his vital signs are as follows: temperature of 37ºC, heart rate of 128/min, respiratory rate of 27/min, blood pressure of 80/43 mmHg, and GCS of 15. Physical examination reveals tenderness and bruising on the right side of his chest, but chest movements are equal. His neck veins are distended but do not change with breathing, and his trachea is central with distant and quiet heart sounds. Additionally, he has cuts and grazes on his hands and legs.

      What is the appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Pericardial needle aspiration

      Explanation:

      If a patient with chest wall trauma presents with elevated JVP, persistent hypotension, and tachycardia despite fluid resuscitation, cardiac tamponade should be considered. In such cases, pericardial needle aspiration is the correct course of action. Beck’s triad, which includes hypotension, muffled (distant) heart sounds, and elevated JVP, is a characteristic feature of cardiac tamponade. Urgent aspiration of the pericardium is necessary to prevent further haemodynamic compromise and save the patient’s life. Although the patient may have associated rib fractures, managing the cardiac tamponade should take priority as it poses the greatest threat in this scenario. CT scan of the chest, chest drain insertion into the triangle of safety, and needle decompression 2nd intercostal space, midclavicular line are not appropriate management options in this case.

      Cardiac tamponade is a condition where there is an accumulation of fluid in the pericardial sac, which puts pressure on the heart. This can lead to a range of symptoms, including hypotension, raised JVP, muffled heart sounds, dyspnoea, tachycardia, and pulsus paradoxus. One of the key features of cardiac tamponade is the absence of a Y descent on the JVP, which is due to limited right ventricular filling. Other diagnostic criteria include Kussmaul’s sign and electrical alternans on an ECG. Constrictive pericarditis is a similar condition, but it can be distinguished from cardiac tamponade by the presence of an X and Y descent on the JVP, the absence of pulsus paradoxus, and the presence of pericardial calcification on a chest X-ray. The management of cardiac tamponade involves urgent pericardiocentesis to relieve the pressure on the heart.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      58.2
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A 55-year-old woman presents with urgency and frequency. Three weeks ago she consulted...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents with urgency and frequency. Three weeks ago she consulted with a colleague as she felt 'dry' during intercourse. She has been treated for urinary tract infections on multiple occasions in the past but urine culture is always negative. Her only medication is continuous hormone replacement therapy. A vaginal examination is performed which shows no evidence of vaginal atrophy and no masses are felt. An ultrasound is requested:

      Both kidneys, spleen and liver are normal size. Outline of the bladder normal. 6 cm complex ovarian cyst noted on left ovary. Right ovary and uterus normal

      What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Trial topical oestrogen

      Correct Answer: Urgent referral to gynaecology

      Explanation:

      Investigation is necessary for any ovarian mass found in a woman who has undergone menopause.

      Ovarian enlargement is typically diagnosed through ultrasound imaging, which can determine whether the cyst is simple or complex. Simple cysts are unilocular and more likely to be benign, while complex cysts are multilocular and more likely to be malignant. Management of ovarian enlargement depends on the patient’s age and symptoms. Younger women may be treated conservatively if the cyst is small and simple, with a repeat ultrasound scheduled in 8-12 weeks. Postmenopausal women, however, should always be referred to a gynecologist for assessment, as physiological cysts are unlikely in this population. It’s important to note that ovarian cancer can present with vague symptoms, leading to delayed diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      982.1
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A 42-year-old man presents with a six-month history of anorexia and weight loss,...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old man presents with a six-month history of anorexia and weight loss, excess pigmentation and dizziness on standing. He has a previous history of autoimmune hypothyroidism that is managed with thyroxine.
      Examination reveals postural hypotension and skin discolouration. Initial investigations reveal hyponatraemia: Na+ 118 mmol/l (135-145 mmol/l) and hyperkalaemia: K+ 5.6 mmol/l (normal range: 3.6-5.2 mmol/l).
      Which of the following tests will be most useful to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Short Synacthen® test

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis and Management of Adrenal Failure: The Short Synacthen® Test

      Adrenal failure is a condition characterized by multiple signs and symptoms and abnormal biochemistry. The diagnosis of adrenal failure is established by a failure of the plasma cortisol concentration to increase in response to adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH). The short corticotropin test is the gold standard diagnostic tool for this condition. If this test is not possible, an initial screening procedure comprising the measurement of morning plasma ACTH and cortisol levels is recommended. Diagnosis of the underlying cause should include a validated assay of autoantibodies against 21-hydroxylase. Treatment involves once-daily fludrocortisone and hydrocortisone or prednisolone. Follow-up should aim at monitoring appropriate dosing of corticosteroids and associated autoimmune diseases, particularly autoimmune thyroid disease. Serum urea and ESR may not be diagnostic, while serum calcium and thyroid function tests can be abnormal in untreated Addison’s disease. This article discusses the diagnosis and management of adrenal failure, with a focus on the short Synacthen® test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      24.9
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 35-year-old woman experiences weekly migraines despite making lifestyle changes and avoiding triggers....

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman experiences weekly migraines despite making lifestyle changes and avoiding triggers. Her doctor has agreed to prescribe medication for migraine prevention. She is in good health and does not take any regular medications. Her blood pressure measures 130/83 mmHg.
      Which medication would be the most appropriate for this patient?

      Your Answer: Gabapentin

      Correct Answer: Propranolol

      Explanation:

      For migraine treatment, the recommended acute options are a combination of triptan with NSAID or paracetamol. For prophylaxis, the recommended options are topiramate or propranolol. In a woman of childbearing age with no asthma history and requiring migraine prophylaxis, propranolol is the most appropriate option. Although it should be avoided during pregnancy, it does not carry the high risk of birth defects associated with topiramate. Carbamazepine is not recommended for migraine treatment but is licensed for trigeminal neuralgia. Gabapentin is not effective for migraine prophylaxis and is not recommended by NICE guidelines. Topiramate is an option for migraine prophylaxis, but it is not the most appropriate first-line option for a woman of childbearing age due to its teratogenic effects. Highly effective contraception is required if topiramate is used. The recommended safe options for contraception are the copper intrauterine device, levonorgestrel intrauterine system (Mirena), or Depo-Provera injections plus condoms, as per guidelines from the Faculty of Reproductive and Sexual Health (FSRH).

      Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options

      Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, acute treatment for migraines involves a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective, non-oral preparations of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be considered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.

      Prophylaxis should be given if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity for some people. For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be recommended as a type of mini-prophylaxis.

      Specialists may consider other treatment options, such as candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, like erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects like weight gain and drowsiness. It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering various treatment options, migraines can be effectively managed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      102.5
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  • Question 36 - As a foundation doctor in the endocrine department, if you were to assess...

    Correct

    • As a foundation doctor in the endocrine department, if you were to assess a patient with hypoparathyroidism resulting in hypocalcaemia, what findings may you discover during your investigation?

      Your Answer: Chvostek's sign: percussion over the facial nerve

      Explanation:

      Hypocalcaemia: Symptoms and Signs

      Hypocalcaemia is a condition characterized by low levels of calcium in the blood. Since calcium is essential for proper muscle and nerve function, many of the symptoms and signs of hypocalcaemia are related to neuromuscular excitability. The most common features of hypocalcaemia include muscle twitching, cramping, and spasms, as well as perioral paraesthesia. In chronic cases, patients may experience depression and cataracts.

      An electrocardiogram (ECG) may show a prolonged QT interval, while Trousseau’s sign may be present when the brachial artery is occluded by inflating the blood pressure cuff and maintaining pressure above systolic. This causes wrist flexion and fingers to be drawn together, and is seen in around 95% of patients with hypocalcaemia and around 1% of normocalcaemic people. Chvostek’s sign, which is seen in around 70% of patients with hypocalcaemia and around 10% of normocalcaemic people, involves tapping over the parotid gland to cause facial muscles to twitch.

      In summary, hypocalcaemia can cause a range of symptoms and signs related to neuromuscular excitability, including muscle twitching, cramping, and spasms, as well as perioral paraesthesia, depression, and cataracts. Trousseau’s sign and Chvostek’s sign are also commonly observed in patients with hypocalcaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      192.6
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A 28-year-old female presents to the ENT specialists with a 1-month-history of severe...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old female presents to the ENT specialists with a 1-month-history of severe otalgia, temporal headaches, and purulent otorrhoea. She has a medical history of type one diabetes mellitus and no allergies. On examination, the left external auditory canal and periauricular soft tissue are erythematous and tender. What is the most suitable antibiotic treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      For patients with diabetes who present with otitis externa, it is important to consider the possibility of malignant otitis externa, which is a severe bacterial infection that can spread to the bony ear canal and cause osteomyelitis. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the most common cause of this condition, so treatment should involve coverage for this bacteria. Intravenous ciprofloxacin is the preferred antibiotic for this purpose. It is also important to note that diabetic patients with non-malignant otitis externa should also be treated with ciprofloxacin due to their increased risk of developing malignant otitis externa. Clarithromycin and flucloxacillin are not appropriate choices for this condition, and leaving the infection untreated can lead to serious complications.

      Malignant Otitis Externa: A Rare but Serious Infection

      Malignant otitis externa is a type of ear infection that is uncommon but can be serious. It is typically found in individuals who are immunocompromised, with 90% of cases occurring in diabetics. The infection starts in the soft tissues of the external auditory meatus and can progress to involve the soft tissues and bony ear canal, eventually leading to temporal bone osteomyelitis.

      When diagnosing malignant otitis externa, doctors will typically perform a CT scan. Key features in a patient’s medical history include diabetes or immunosuppression, severe and unrelenting ear pain, temporal headaches, and purulent otorrhea. In some cases, patients may also experience dysphagia, hoarseness, and/or facial nerve dysfunction.

      If a patient presents with non-resolving otitis externa and worsening pain, they should be referred urgently to an ear, nose, and throat specialist. Treatment typically involves intravenous antibiotics that cover pseudomonal infections.

      Overall, while malignant otitis externa is rare, it is important to be aware of its symptoms and risk factors, particularly in immunocompromised individuals. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent the infection from progressing and causing more serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      9
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 67-year-old woman presents with a 2-week history of frequent loose stools, left...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman presents with a 2-week history of frequent loose stools, left iliac fossa discomfort and fever without rectal bleeding.

      Three months ago she was treated for confirmed Clostridium difficile infection with oral vancomycin, with a resolution of symptoms.

      On examination, her heart rate is 90 bpm, respiratory rate of 18 breaths/min, temperature 37.6ºC and blood pressure of 130/86 mmHg. Her abdomen is generally mildly tender, without guarding.

      A repeat stool culture confirms Clostridium difficile infection.

      What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Oral vancomycin for 10 days

      Correct Answer: Oral fidaxomicin

      Explanation:

      If a patient experiences a recurrent episode of C. difficile within 12 weeks of symptom resolution, it is recommended to treat them with oral fidaxomicin. However, the use of bezlotoxumab to prevent recurrences is not currently supported by NICE due to cost-effectiveness concerns. Faecal microbiota transplant may be considered for patients who have had two or more previous episodes, but not on the first recurrence. In cases of life-threatening Clostridium difficile infection, both oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole should be used for treatment.

      Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It is a Gram positive rod that produces an exotoxin which can cause damage to the intestines, leading to a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is suppressed by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause of C. difficile. Other risk factors include proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale, which ranges from mild to life-threatening.

      To diagnose C. difficile, a stool sample is tested for the presence of C. difficile toxin (CDT). Treatment for a first episode of C. difficile infection typically involves oral vancomycin for 10 days, with fidaxomicin or a combination of oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole being used as second and third-line therapies. Recurrent infections occur in around 20% of patients, increasing to 50% after their second episode. In such cases, oral fidaxomicin is recommended within 12 weeks of symptom resolution, while oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin can be used after 12 weeks. For life-threatening C. difficile infections, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole are used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - Which of the following statements about saxagliptin is true? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements about saxagliptin is true?

      Your Answer: It should be used first line

      Correct Answer: It is a DPP-4 inhibitor

      Explanation:

      Saxagliptin: A DPP-4 Inhibitor for Type 2 Diabetes Treatment

      Saxagliptin is an oral hypoglycaemic drug that belongs to the dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitor class. Its mechanism of action involves slowing down the breakdown of incretin hormones, which stimulates insulin production and reduces gluconeogenesis in the liver. Compared to sitagliptin, saxagliptin has a shorter half-life. It is safe to use in patients with mild to moderate renal impairment, but should be avoided in severe cases. Saxagliptin is recommended as first-line therapy for type 2 diabetes in combination with other drugs or as initial monotherapy if metformin is contraindicated or not tolerated. However, its use during pregnancy and breastfeeding should be avoided due to potential toxicity. Regular monitoring of renal function is necessary before and during saxagliptin treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      32.3
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 32-year-old man from West Africa presents to his GP in January with...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man from West Africa presents to his GP in January with symptoms of depression. He has no significant medical history but is a regular cannabis smoker. He has experienced similar episodes during the past two winters. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Schizophrenia

      Correct Answer: Seasonal affective disorder

      Explanation:

      Understanding Seasonal Affective Disorder

      Seasonal affective disorder (SAD) is a type of depression that typically occurs during the winter months. It is important to treat SAD in the same way as depression, following the guidelines set out by the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE). This involves starting with psychological therapies and monitoring the patient’s progress after two weeks to ensure that their symptoms have not worsened. If necessary, an SSRI can be prescribed.

      It is important to note that sleeping tablets should not be given to patients with SAD, as this can exacerbate their symptoms. While light therapy is often suggested as a treatment option, the evidence supporting its effectiveness is limited. As a result, it is not routinely recommended.

      In summary, SAD is a form of depression that requires careful management and treatment. By following the appropriate guidelines and avoiding certain medications, patients can receive the support they need to manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A 55-year-old male patient visits the GP clinic complaining of weakness in his...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old male patient visits the GP clinic complaining of weakness in his right leg for the past three days. During the examination, it was observed that there was a weakness in the right knee flexion, but the knee extension was intact. Additionally, there was a weakness in the dorsal and plantar flexion of the right ankle, as well as the right flexor hallucis longus. The right ankle jerk was lost, but the knee-jerk was intact, and the plantar response was downgoing. Based on the most probable nerve that is damaged in this patient, what are the nerve roots that supply this nerve?

      Your Answer: L4-5, S1-3

      Explanation:

      The sciatic nerve is innervated by spinal nerves L4-5, S1-3. The patient exhibits weakness in all muscle groups below the knee, with an intact knee jerk but weak ankle jerk, indicating damage to the sciatic nerve. The iliohypogastric nerve is supplied by T12-L1, while the genitofemoral nerve is supplied by L1-2.

      Understanding Sciatic Nerve Lesion

      The sciatic nerve is a major nerve in the body that is supplied by the L4-5, S1-3 vertebrae. It divides into two branches, the tibial and common peroneal nerves, which supply the hamstring and adductor muscles. A sciatic nerve lesion can cause paralysis of knee flexion and all movements below the knee, as well as sensory loss below the knee. However, knee jerk reflexes remain intact while ankle and plantar reflexes are lost.

      There are several causes of sciatic nerve lesions, including fractures of the neck of the femur, posterior hip dislocation, and trauma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      35.4
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 74-year-old woman is being evaluated after taking oral flucloxacillin for cellulitis in...

    Incorrect

    • A 74-year-old woman is being evaluated after taking oral flucloxacillin for cellulitis in her right lower limb. The local protocol recommends using oral clindamycin as the next line of treatment. What is the most crucial side effect of clindamycin that she should be cautioned about?

      Your Answer: Jaundice

      Correct Answer: Diarrhoea

      Explanation:

      The use of clindamycin as a treatment is strongly linked to an increased likelihood of contracting C. difficile.

      Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It is a Gram positive rod that produces an exotoxin which can cause damage to the intestines, leading to a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is suppressed by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause of C. difficile. Other risk factors include proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale, which ranges from mild to life-threatening.

      To diagnose C. difficile, a stool sample is tested for the presence of C. difficile toxin (CDT). Treatment for a first episode of C. difficile infection typically involves oral vancomycin for 10 days, with fidaxomicin or a combination of oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole being used as second and third-line therapies. Recurrent infections occur in around 20% of patients, increasing to 50% after their second episode. In such cases, oral fidaxomicin is recommended within 12 weeks of symptom resolution, while oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin can be used after 12 weeks. For life-threatening C. difficile infections, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole are used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      19.6
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - A 42-year-old woman complains of urine leakage when laughing or jumping. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman complains of urine leakage when laughing or jumping. She has no other urinary symptoms, and her urine dipstick test is negative.
      What is the most appropriate initial treatment option?

      Your Answer: Solifenacin

      Correct Answer: Pelvic floor exercises

      Explanation:

      Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Types and Treatment Options

      Urinary incontinence is a common problem that affects people of all ages, but is more prevalent in elderly individuals and females. It is important to classify the type of urinary incontinence to determine the underlying cause and appropriate treatment.

      Functional incontinence occurs due to reasons other than lower urinary tract dysfunction, such as delirium, psychiatric disorders, urinary infection, or impaired mobility. Treatment is directed at the underlying cause.

      Mixed incontinence is a combination of stress incontinence and urge incontinence, characterized by mild-to-moderate urine loss with physical activities and acute urine loss without warning, respectively. Urinary frequency, urgency, and nocturia are also present.

      Overflow incontinence occurs when the bladder is overdistended and urine overflows despite the absence of detrusor contraction. Symptoms may mimic those of mixed incontinence and may suggest a cause of bladder outlet obstruction or neurological dysfunction.

      Stress incontinence is triggered by increased intra-abdominal pressure and is characterized by involuntary urine loss during coughing, laughing, and sneezing. Irritative voiding symptoms are typically absent.

      Urge incontinence is associated with an overactive bladder and is characterized by uncontrolled urine loss associated with a strong desire to void, which occurs suddenly and without warning. Patients are unable to hold back urine and experience urinary frequency, urgency, and nocturia.

      Treatment options include pelvic floor muscle training, anticholinergic medications such as oxybutynin and solifenacin, bladder retraining, and topical estrogen for postmenopausal women with vaginal atrophy. Treatment is directed at the underlying cause of urinary incontinence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      9.9
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - Sarah, 35, has come to her doctor complaining of weakness on the left...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah, 35, has come to her doctor complaining of weakness on the left side of her face, which is confirmed upon examination. Sarah also reports experiencing ear pain and an otoscopy reveals vesicles on her tympanic membrane. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acoustic neuroma

      Correct Answer: Ramsay Hunt syndrome

      Explanation:

      The correct diagnosis for this case is Ramsay Hunt syndrome. This syndrome occurs when the Varicella Zoster virus reactivates in the geniculate ganglion, leading to the appearance of vesicles on the tympanic membrane, as well as other symptoms such as facial paralysis, taste loss, dry eyes, tinnitus, vertigo, and hearing loss. While Bell’s palsy could explain the facial weakness, the presence of tympanic vesicles and ear pain make this diagnosis less likely. Trigeminal neuralgia is unlikely to cause facial weakness, although it could explain the pain. An acoustic neuroma could explain both the facial weakness and ear pain, but the absence of tympanic vesicles makes this diagnosis less probable.

      Understanding Ramsay Hunt Syndrome

      Ramsay Hunt syndrome, also known as herpes zoster oticus, is a condition that occurs when the varicella zoster virus reactivates in the geniculate ganglion of the seventh cranial nerve. The first symptom of this condition is often auricular pain, followed by facial nerve palsy and a vesicular rash around the ear. Other symptoms may include vertigo and tinnitus.

      To manage Ramsay Hunt syndrome, doctors typically prescribe oral aciclovir and corticosteroids. These medications can help reduce the severity of symptoms and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - An 80-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of a severe headache...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of a severe headache on the right side of her head. Upon further inquiry, the doctors discover that she experiences pain while chewing. During the examination, there are no neurological impairments, and her visual fields appear normal. However, she does exhibit tenderness on her right scalp. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Tension headache

      Correct Answer: Temporal arteritis

      Explanation:

      Temporal arteritis is likely the cause of a constant throbbing headache, pain while chewing, and tenderness in the scalp. These symptoms are not typical of a migraine, which usually involves pain on one side of the head, sensitivity to light, nausea/vomiting, and sometimes an aura. A subarachnoid hemorrhage typically presents with a sudden, severe headache in the occipital region. Tension headaches are often described as a dull, band-like pain across the forehead. Cluster headaches are characterized by intense pain around the eye, accompanied by tearing, redness, and a stuffy nose.

      Understanding Temporal Arteritis

      Temporal arteritis is a type of large vessel vasculitis that often overlaps with polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR). It is characterized by changes in the affected artery that skip certain sections while damaging others. This condition typically affects individuals who are over 60 years old and has a rapid onset, usually occurring in less than a month. The most common symptoms include headache and jaw claudication, while vision testing is a crucial investigation for all patients.

      Temporal arteritis can lead to various ocular complications, with anterior ischemic optic neuropathy being the most common. This results from the occlusion of the posterior ciliary artery, leading to ischemia of the optic nerve head. Patients may experience temporary visual loss or even permanent visual loss, which is the most feared complication of this condition. Other symptoms may include diplopia, tender and palpable temporal artery, and features of PMR such as aching, morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.

      To diagnose temporal arteritis, doctors may look for raised inflammatory markers such as an ESR of over 50 mm/hr or elevated CRP levels. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed to check for skip lesions. Urgent high-dose glucocorticoids should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected, and an ophthalmologist should review patients with visual symptoms on the same day. Treatment may also involve bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin, although the evidence supporting the latter is weak.

      In summary, temporal arteritis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent irreversible visual damage. Patients who experience symptoms such as headache, jaw claudication, and visual disturbances should seek medical attention immediately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      45.6
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 27-year-old woman experiences intense vomiting within four hours of consuming lunch at...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman experiences intense vomiting within four hours of consuming lunch at a nearby restaurant. What organism is the most probable cause of this reaction?

      Your Answer: Shigella

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis can be inferred as a result of the short incubation period and intense vomiting.

      Gastroenteritis can occur either at home or while traveling, known as travelers’ diarrhea. This condition is characterized by at least three loose to watery stools in 24 hours, accompanied by abdominal cramps, fever, nausea, vomiting, or blood in the stool. The most common cause of travelers’ diarrhea is Escherichia coli. Acute food poisoning is another pattern of illness that results in sudden onset of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea after ingesting a toxin. Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus, or Clostridium perfringens are typically responsible for acute food poisoning.

      There are several types of infections that can cause gastroenteritis, each with its own typical presentation. Escherichia coli is common among travelers and causes watery stools, abdominal cramps, and nausea. Giardiasis results in prolonged, non-bloody diarrhea, while cholera causes profuse, watery diarrhea and severe dehydration leading to weight loss. Shigella causes bloody diarrhea, vomiting, and abdominal pain, while Staphylococcus aureus results in severe vomiting with a short incubation period. Campylobacter typically starts with a flu-like prodrome and progresses to crampy abdominal pains, fever, and diarrhea, which may be bloody and mimic appendicitis. Bacillus cereus can cause two types of illness, vomiting within six hours, typically due to rice, or diarrheal illness occurring after six hours. Amoebiasis has a gradual onset of bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and tenderness that may last for several weeks.

      The incubation period for gastroenteritis varies depending on the type of infection. Staphylococcus aureus and Bacillus cereus have an incubation period of 1-6 hours, while Salmonella and Escherichia coli have an incubation period of 12-48 hours. Shigella and Campylobacter have an incubation period of 48-72 hours, while Giardiasis and Amoebiasis have an incubation period of more than seven days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      7.9
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  • Question 47 - A 52-year-old man visits the clinic with concerns about a gradual decline in...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old man visits the clinic with concerns about a gradual decline in his hearing ability over the past few months. His wife urged him to seek medical attention as she noticed he was having difficulty hearing conversations and needed to turn up the volume on the TV and radio. Upon examination, otoscopy reveals no abnormalities in either ear. The Rinne's test is positive bilaterally, and the Weber test is normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Presbycusis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Causes of Hearing Loss: A Brief Overview

      Hearing loss can be caused by a variety of factors, including age-related changes, tumors, infections, and genetic conditions. Here are some key features to help differentiate between some of the most common causes of hearing loss:

      Presbycusis: This is age-related hearing loss that affects high-frequency sounds and is irreversible. Management includes reassurance and discussion of hearing aid options.

      Acoustic Neuroma: This is a benign tumor of the vestibulocochlear nerve that can cause unilateral tinnitus and hearing loss, as well as facial numbness and balance problems. Bilateral hearing loss without other symptoms makes this diagnosis unlikely.

      Cholesteatoma: This condition is characterized by recurrent or persistent ear discharge, conductive hearing loss, and ear discomfort. Otoscopy may reveal a deep retraction pocket or pearly white mass behind the intact tympanic membrane. This patient has sensorineural rather than conductive hearing loss.

      Ménière’s Disease: This condition typically presents with fluctuating hearing loss, vertigo, and tinnitus. Aural fullness may also be present. This patient does not have all the symptoms to meet the criteria for this diagnosis.

      Otosclerosis: This is a form of conductive hearing loss that typically occurs in early adulthood and may be accompanied by tinnitus and transient vertigo. Sensorineural hearing loss in an older patient makes this diagnosis unlikely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
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  • Question 48 - A 25-year-old man collapses while playing basketball with his friends on a weekend....

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old man collapses while playing basketball with his friends on a weekend. He is brought to the emergency department but is pronounced dead after experiencing cardiac arrest, despite receiving adequate life support. His family is in shock and cannot comprehend how this could have happened, as he was always healthy and an avid athlete. However, they do mention that two other family members have also died young under similar circumstances.

      What is the correct method of inheritance for this condition?

      Your Answer: Autosomal dominant

      Explanation:

      Based on the individual’s cause of death and family medical history, it is likely that hypertrophic cardiomyopathy was a contributing factor. This condition involves thickening of the heart muscle, which can lead to impaired cardiac function and sudden death, particularly in young athletes. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy often has a genetic component, with familial cases being inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern and linked to mutations in genes that encode for sarcomere proteins. The presence of asymmetric septal hypertrophy and systolic anterior movement on echocardiogram or cMR further supports a diagnosis of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.

      Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) is a genetic disorder that affects muscle tissue and is caused by mutations in genes encoding contractile proteins. It is characterized by left ventricle hypertrophy, diastolic dysfunction, and myofibrillar hypertrophy with disarray and fibrosis on biopsy. HOCM can be asymptomatic or present with exertional dyspnea, angina, syncope, sudden death, arrhythmias, heart failure, jerky pulse, and systolic murmurs. It is associated with Friedreich’s ataxia and Wolff-Parkinson White. ECG findings include left ventricular hypertrophy, non-specific ST segment and T-wave abnormalities, and deep Q waves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      9.9
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  • Question 49 - A 20-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after experiencing a possible...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old man is brought to the emergency department after experiencing a possible allergic reaction to seafood he ate at a restaurant. He administered his adrenaline autoinjector and received an additional dose of intramuscular adrenaline from the paramedics.
      Upon examination, his temperature is 37.8ºC, heart rate is 130 beats/min, and blood pressure is 88/50 mmHg. He has a respiratory rate of 30 breaths/min and oxygen saturation of 93% on room air.
      What is the next course of action in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Intravenous chlorphenamine

      Correct Answer: Intravenous adrenaline infusion

      Explanation:

      For patients with refractory anaphylaxis, which is characterized by persistent respiratory and/or cardiovascular problems despite receiving 2 doses of intramuscular adrenaline, the recommended next step is to start an intravenous adrenaline infusion. Administering further intramuscular adrenaline is not recommended. Intravenous chlorphenamine and hydrocortisone are also no longer recommended in the updated guidelines for anaphylaxis management.

      Anaphylaxis is a severe and potentially life-threatening allergic reaction that affects the entire body. It can be caused by various triggers, including food, drugs, and insect venom. The symptoms of anaphylaxis typically occur suddenly and progress rapidly, affecting the airway, breathing, and circulation. Common signs include swelling of the throat and tongue, hoarse voice, respiratory wheeze, dyspnea, hypotension, and tachycardia. In addition, around 80-90% of patients experience skin and mucosal changes, such as generalized pruritus, erythematous rash, or urticaria.

      The management of anaphylaxis requires prompt and decisive action, as it is a medical emergency. The Resuscitation Council guidelines recommend intramuscular adrenaline as the most important drug for treating anaphylaxis. The recommended doses of adrenaline vary depending on the patient’s age, ranging from 100-150 micrograms for infants under 6 months to 500 micrograms for adults and children over 12 years. Adrenaline can be repeated every 5 minutes if necessary, and the best site for injection is the anterolateral aspect of the middle third of the thigh. In cases of refractory anaphylaxis, IV fluids and expert help should be sought.

      Following stabilisation, patients may be given non-sedating oral antihistamines to manage persisting skin symptoms. It is important to refer all patients with a new diagnosis of anaphylaxis to a specialist allergy clinic and provide them with an adrenaline injector as an interim measure before the specialist assessment. Patients should also be prescribed two adrenaline auto-injectors and trained on how to use them. A risk-stratified approach to discharge should be taken, as biphasic reactions can occur in up to 20% of patients. The Resus Council UK recommends a fast-track discharge for patients who have had a good response to a single dose of adrenaline and complete resolution of symptoms, while those who require two doses of IM adrenaline or have a history of biphasic reaction should be observed for at least 12 hours following symptom resolution.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
      39.9
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  • Question 50 - A 65-year-old man was diagnosed with angina after experiencing chest pain during physical...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man was diagnosed with angina after experiencing chest pain during physical activity. He underwent an exercise test at the cardiology clinic and was prescribed aspirin, bisoprolol, atorvastatin, and a glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) spray.
      After six months, he returned with an increase in the frequency of anginal episodes, which were relieved by GTN spray and did not occur at rest.
      What medication would be the most suitable addition to his current treatment?

      Your Answer: Verapamil

      Correct Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      If a beta-blocker is not effective in controlling angina, it is recommended to add a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker such as amlodipine. Diltiazem and verapamil should not be used in combination with a beta-blocker due to the risk of life-threatening bradycardia and heart failure. Ivabradine and nicorandil can be used as alternatives if a dihydropyridine CCB is not suitable, but should only be initiated under specialist advice.

      Angina pectoris is a condition that can be managed through various methods, including lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. The first-line medication should be either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If the initial treatment is not effective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, other drugs such as long-acting nitrates, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. Nitrate tolerance is a common issue, and patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate should use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. This effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      11.8
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  • Question 51 - A mother brings in her 3-day-old female baby to the pediatrician's office. She...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings in her 3-day-old female baby to the pediatrician's office. She noticed a small cyst on the roof of the baby's mouth. Upon examination, a small white cystic vesicle measuring approximately 2 mm in diameter is found on the hard palate near the midline. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Congenital ranula

      Correct Answer: Epstein's pearl

      Explanation:

      Epstein’s pearl, a type of congenital cyst found in the mouth, typically does not require any treatment. These cysts are commonly found on the hard palate, but can also be mistaken for a tooth eruption when located on the gums. They usually resolve on their own within a few weeks. Neonatal teeth, on the other hand, are rare and not typically found on the hard palate. Bohn’s nodules are mucous gland cysts that are usually located on the buccal or lingual aspects of the alveolar ridges, and rarely on the palate. A congenital ranula is a papule or nodule that is firm and translucent, and is typically found on the anterior floor of the mouth, lateral to the lingual frenulum.

      Understanding Epstein’s Pearl

      Epstein’s pearl is a type of cyst that is present in the mouth from birth. It is commonly found on the hard palate, but can also be seen on the gums, which may be mistaken for a tooth eruption. The good news is that no treatment is usually required as these cysts tend to disappear on their own within a few weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 52 - A 25-year-old male comes to the emergency department complaining of cough, fever and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male comes to the emergency department complaining of cough, fever and difficulty breathing. During the examination, he is found to be hypoxic and chest x-ray reveals pulmonary infiltrates. He has been experiencing anaemia, jaundice and weakness since he was 6 months old, and also suffers from severe pain when exposed to cold temperatures. What is the probable underlying condition?

      Your Answer: Cystic fibrosis

      Correct Answer: Sickle cell disease

      Explanation:

      When a patient with sickle cell disease experiences dyspnoea, chest pain, cough, hypoxia, and new pulmonary infiltrates on chest x-ray, it is likely that they are suffering from acute chest syndrome. This is a complication specific to sickle cell anaemia, and is characterized by the presence of these symptoms along with the aforementioned pulmonary infiltrates.

      Sickle cell anaemia is a condition that involves periods of good health with intermittent crises. There are several types of crises that can occur, including thrombotic or painful crises, sequestration, acute chest syndrome, aplastic, and haemolytic. Thrombotic crises, also known as painful crises or vaso-occlusive crises, are triggered by factors such as infection, dehydration, and deoxygenation. These crises are diagnosed clinically and can result in infarcts in various organs, including the bones, lungs, spleen, and brain.

      Sequestration crises occur when sickling occurs within organs such as the spleen or lungs, leading to pooling of blood and worsening of anaemia. This type of crisis is associated with an increased reticulocyte count. Acute chest syndrome is caused by vaso-occlusion within the pulmonary microvasculature, resulting in infarction in the lung parenchyma. Symptoms include dyspnoea, chest pain, pulmonary infiltrates on chest x-ray, and low pO2. Management involves pain relief, respiratory support, antibiotics, and transfusion.

      Aplastic crises are caused by infection with parvovirus and result in a sudden fall in haemoglobin. Bone marrow suppression leads to a reduced reticulocyte count. Haemolytic crises are rare and involve a fall in haemoglobin due to an increased rate of haemolysis. It is important to recognise and manage these crises promptly, as they can lead to serious complications and even death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      139.8
      Seconds
  • Question 53 - What is the most crucial measure to take in order to prevent the...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most crucial measure to take in order to prevent the advancement of non-alcoholic steatohepatitis in a 52-year-old woman who has been diagnosed through a liver biopsy?

      Your Answer: Eat more omega-3 fatty acids

      Correct Answer: Weight loss

      Explanation:

      Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease: Causes, Features, and Management

      Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is a prevalent liver disease in developed countries, primarily caused by obesity. It encompasses a range of conditions, from simple steatosis (fat accumulation in the liver) to steatohepatitis (fat with inflammation) and may progress to fibrosis and liver cirrhosis. Insulin resistance is believed to be the primary mechanism leading to steatosis, making NAFLD a hepatic manifestation of metabolic syndrome. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is a type of liver damage similar to alcoholic hepatitis but occurs in the absence of alcohol abuse. It affects around 3-4% of the general population and may be responsible for some cases of cryptogenic cirrhosis.

      NAFLD is usually asymptomatic, but hepatomegaly, increased echogenicity on ultrasound, and elevated ALT levels are common features. The enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) blood test is recommended by NICE to check for advanced fibrosis in patients with incidental NAFLD. If the ELF blood test is not available, non-invasive tests such as the FIB4 score or NAFLD fibrosis score, in combination with a FibroScan, may be used to assess the severity of fibrosis. Patients with advanced fibrosis should be referred to a liver specialist for further evaluation, which may include a liver biopsy to stage the disease more accurately.

      The mainstay of NAFLD treatment is lifestyle changes, particularly weight loss, and monitoring. Research is ongoing into the role of gastric banding and insulin-sensitizing drugs such as metformin and pioglitazone. While there is no evidence to support screening for NAFLD in adults, NICE guidelines recommend the management of incidental NAFLD findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 54 - A previously healthy 26-year-old female complains of profuse diarrhoea and is worried after...

    Incorrect

    • A previously healthy 26-year-old female complains of profuse diarrhoea and is worried after observing bright red blood in her stool. She has been feeling unwell for the past four days and denies consuming any unusual food, although she did attend a barbecue five days ago. What is the most probable organism responsible for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Salmonella enteritidis

      Correct Answer: Campylobacter jejuni

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms of prodrome and bloody diarrhoea are indicative of a Campylobacter infection, which is the most common bacterial cause of infectious intestinal disease in the UK. The incubation period for this infection is typically 1-6 days, which aligns with the patient’s presentation. Bacillus cereus, which is associated with food poisoning from reheated rice, typically has a shorter incubation period and would not usually cause bloody diarrhoea. Clostridium difficile infection is more commonly found in hospital settings and is linked to antibiotic use, but there are no risk factors mentioned for this patient. Salmonella enteritidis, which has a shorter incubation period and is associated with severe vomiting and high fever, is less likely to be the cause of the patient’s symptoms.

      Campylobacter: The Most Common Bacterial Cause of Intestinal Disease in the UK

      Campylobacter is a Gram-negative bacillus that is responsible for causing infectious intestinal disease in the UK. The bacteria is primarily spread through the faecal-oral route and has an incubation period of 1-6 days. Symptoms of Campylobacter infection include a prodrome of headache and malaise, diarrhoea (often bloody), and abdominal pain that may mimic appendicitis.

      In most cases, Campylobacter infection is self-limiting and does not require treatment. However, the British National Formulary (BNF) recommends treatment with antibiotics if the patient is immunocompromised or if symptoms are severe (high fever, bloody diarrhoea, or more than eight stools per day) and have lasted for more than one week. The first-line antibiotic for Campylobacter infection is clarithromycin, although ciprofloxacin is an alternative. It is important to note that strains with decreased sensitivity to ciprofloxacin are frequently isolated.

      Complications of Campylobacter infection may include Guillain-Barre syndrome, reactive arthritis, septicaemia, endocarditis, and arthritis. It is important to seek medical attention if symptoms are severe or persist for an extended period of time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      16
      Seconds
  • Question 55 - A 68-year-old woman visits the general practice clinic with complaints of itchy eyes...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman visits the general practice clinic with complaints of itchy eyes and crusting on the eyelids. During examination, the upper lids near the eyelash follicles have small flakes of skin, and the eyelids are slightly swollen.
      What is the most suitable initial treatment for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Topical ketoconazole

      Correct Answer: Warm compresses and eyelid hygiene

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Blepharitis

      Blepharitis is a common eye condition that causes inflammation of the eyelids. The most appropriate first-line treatment for blepharitis is self-care measures such as eyelid hygiene and warm compresses. This involves cleaning the eyelids with warm water and a diluted cleanser such as baby shampoo twice a day, and applying a warm compress to the closed eyelids for 5-10 minutes once or twice a day.

      Topical steroids are not recommended for the treatment of blepharitis, but may be used by secondary care clinicians to reduce inflammation. Topical chloramphenicol may be prescribed for anterior blepharitis if eyelid hygiene and warm compresses are ineffective, while oral tetracycline may be prescribed for posterior blepharitis with meibomian gland dysfunction and rosacea if self-care measures are ineffective.

      It is important to note that topical ketoconazole is not recommended for the treatment of blepharitis, as it is used for other conditions such as fungal skin infections and candidiasis. If self-care measures and prescribed treatments do not improve symptoms, further treatment or referral may be recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      14
      Seconds
  • Question 56 - A 15-year-old boy presents with a history of seasonal 'watering eyes' for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy presents with a history of seasonal 'watering eyes' for the past 2 years. His symptoms have worsened this year. He complains of bilateral itchy eyes and difficulty in doing school work due to excessive tearing. There is no history of nasal symptoms, asthma or eczema. On examination, there is conjunctival redness, bulging tarsal conjunctivae and mild eyelid swelling. What is the initial management approach for this patient?

      Your Answer: Topical vasoconstrictor

      Correct Answer: Topical antihistamines

      Explanation:

      The symptoms exhibited by this patient are indicative of allergic conjunctivitis. The initial treatment approach for this condition involves the use of topical antihistamines. In case of additional symptoms like rhinosinusitis, oral antihistamines may also be prescribed.

      Understanding Allergic Conjunctivitis

      Allergic conjunctivitis is a condition that can occur on its own, but is often associated with hay fever. It is characterized by bilateral symptoms such as conjunctival erythema and swelling, as well as itchiness and swelling of the eyelids. Those with a history of atopy may be more prone to developing allergic conjunctivitis, which can be seasonal (due to pollen) or perennial (due to exposure to dust mites, washing powder, or other allergens).

      When it comes to managing allergic conjunctivitis, first-line treatment typically involves the use of topical or systemic antihistamines. If these prove ineffective, second-line treatment options such as topical mast-cell stabilizers like Sodium cromoglicate and nedocromil may be recommended. By understanding the symptoms and treatment options for allergic conjunctivitis, individuals can take steps to manage their condition and reduce discomfort.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      30.7
      Seconds
  • Question 57 - A 65-year-old woman with a history of early-onset Alzheimer's disease, difficult-to-manage hypertension, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman with a history of early-onset Alzheimer's disease, difficult-to-manage hypertension, and incontinence presents to you with a complaint of increased urinary incontinence when coughing or sneezing after starting a new medication. Which of the following medications is the most likely culprit?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Correct Answer: Doxazosin

      Explanation:

      Relaxation of the bladder outlet and urethra caused by doxazosin can exacerbate stress incontinence symptoms. This medication, classified as an alpha blocker, is commonly prescribed for hypertension and benign prostatic hyperplasia-related urinary retention. Therefore, doxazosin is the appropriate response.

      Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management

      Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.

      Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.

      In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      127.9
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  • Question 58 - A 58-year-old woman visits her GP urgently, reporting a 10-minute episode where she...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman visits her GP urgently, reporting a 10-minute episode where she experienced vision loss in her right eye. The GP suspects a transient ischaemic attack (TIA) and prescribes 300mg aspirin while referring her to the TIA clinic. The diagnosis is amaurosis fugax. Which area of the brain anatomy is impacted by this type of stroke?

      Your Answer: Middle cerebral artery

      Correct Answer: Retinal/ophthalmic artery

      Explanation:

      It is unlikely that the patient experienced a stroke as her symptoms resolved completely after 10 minutes and there were no ongoing symptoms. Different types of strokes affect different arteries in the brain. For example, a lesion in the anterior cerebral artery would result in contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, with the lower extremities being more affected than the upper. On the other hand, a lesion in the posterior cerebral artery would cause contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing. If the posterior inferior cerebellar artery is affected, the patient may experience ipsilateral facial pain and temperature loss, as well as contralateral limb and torso pain and temperature loss, along with ataxia and nystagmus. A middle cerebral artery stroke would cause contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, with the upper extremity being more affected than the lower, as well as contralateral homonymous hemianopia and aphasia.

      When a stroke occurs, the location of the lesion in the brain can determine the specific effects on the body. Depending on which artery is affected, different symptoms may arise. For example, a stroke in the anterior cerebral artery can lead to contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, with the lower extremity being more affected than the upper. On the other hand, a stroke in the middle cerebral artery can cause contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, with the upper extremity being more affected than the lower, as well as contralateral homonymous hemianopia and aphasia.

      If the stroke occurs in the posterior cerebral artery, the individual may experience contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing and visual agnosia. In the case of Weber’s syndrome, which involves branches of the posterior cerebral artery that supply the midbrain, the person may have an ipsilateral CN III palsy and contralateral weakness of the upper and lower extremities.

      Other types of strokes include those affecting the posterior inferior cerebellar artery, which can lead to ipsilateral facial pain and temperature loss and contralateral limb/torso pain and temperature loss, as well as ataxia and nystagmus. A stroke in the anterior inferior cerebellar artery can cause similar symptoms to Wallenberg’s syndrome, but with the addition of ipsilateral facial paralysis and deafness.

      Finally, lacunar strokes are small, localized strokes that often occur in individuals with hypertension. They typically present with isolated hemiparesis, hemisensory loss, or hemiparesis with limb ataxia, and commonly affect the basal ganglia, thalamus, and internal capsule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 59 - A 21-year-old young woman attends surgery concerned about painful periods. She reports normal...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old young woman attends surgery concerned about painful periods. She reports normal blood loss and a regular cycle; she is not sexually active. Pelvic examination is normal.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment choice?

      Your Answer: Microgynon®

      Correct Answer: Mefenamic acid

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) like ibuprofen, naproxen, or mefenamic acid should be the first-line treatment for primary dysmenorrhoea, unless contraindicated. Combined oral contraceptives (COCs) containing ethinylestradiol and norethisterone, norgestimate, or levonorgestrel are also recommended for women who do not wish to conceive. However, for a non-sexually active woman, a non-hormonal drug would be more appropriate. Paracetamol can be prescribed if NSAIDs are not tolerated or contraindicated. Tranexamic acid is useful for menorrhagia, not dysmenorrhoea. The diagnosis of primary dysmenorrhoea is likely if menstrual pain starts 6-12 months after menarche, before menstruation, and lasts up to 72 hours, with non-gynaecological symptoms present, and a normal pelvic examination.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      9.2
      Seconds
  • Question 60 - A 26-year-old female patient visits the sexual health clinic seeking emergency contraception after...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female patient visits the sexual health clinic seeking emergency contraception after having unprotected sex 2 days ago. She is currently on the combined oral contraceptive pill but has missed the last 3 pills. The patient is on the 8th day of her menstrual cycle and has asthma, for which she uses fluticasone and salbutamol inhalers. The healthcare provider prescribes levonorgestrel. What advice should be given to the patient?

      Your Answer: She should wait until the start of the next cycle to restart her pill

      Correct Answer: She can restart her pill immediately

      Explanation:

      Levonorgestrel (Levonelle) can be followed immediately by hormonal contraception for emergency contraception.

      Patients can resume their regular pill regimen right after taking levonorgestrel for emergency contraception. Levonorgestrel is an approved method of emergency contraception that can be used within 72 hours of unprotected sexual intercourse. It is the preferred oral emergency contraceptive for patients with asthma, as ulipristal is not recommended for those with severe asthma. Unlike ulipristal, which requires a waiting period of 5 days, patients can start hormonal contraception immediately after taking levonorgestrel. However, patients should use condoms for 7 days after restarting their combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP). It is important to note that the other options provided are incorrect. The progesterone-only pill requires condom use for 48 hours, unless initiated within the first 5 days of the menstrual cycle. Ulipristal acetate requires a waiting period of 5 days before restarting hormonal contraception. The COCP requires condom use for 7 days after restarting.

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      12.1
      Seconds
  • Question 61 - A 28-year-old woman is screened for hepatitis B following a needlestick injury at...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman is screened for hepatitis B following a needlestick injury at work. Her test findings are as follows:
      HBsAg negative
      Anti-HBs positive
      IgG anti-HBc negative
      IgM anti-HBc negative
      What is the doctor's interpretation of these results?

      Your Answer: No previous infection or immunisation

      Correct Answer: Previous immunisation

      Explanation:

      These test results indicate that the patient has been previously immunized against hepatitis B. The vaccine used for immunization only contains the surface antigen, so the absence of antibodies to the core antigen is expected.

      If the patient had an acute infection, they would test positive for the hepatitis B antigen and likely have positive IgG and IgM antibodies for the core antigen, but not for the surface antigen.

      In the case of a chronic infection, the patient would test positive for the antigen and likely have a positive IgG antibody to the core protein, but a negative IgM antibody and no antibody response to the surface protein.

      A negative result for all four tests would indicate no previous infection or immunization.

      If the patient had a previous, resolved infection, they would test positive for both anti-HBs and anti-HBc, but the absence of HBsAg would indicate that they are not currently infected.

      Interpreting hepatitis B serology is an important skill that is still tested in medical exams. It is crucial to keep in mind a few key points. The surface antigen (HBsAg) is the first marker to appear and triggers the production of anti-HBs. If HBsAg is present for more than six months, it indicates chronic disease, while its presence for one to six months implies acute disease. Anti-HBs indicates immunity, either through exposure or immunization, and is negative in chronic disease. Anti-HBc indicates previous or current infection, with IgM anti-HBc appearing during acute or recent hepatitis B infection and persisting IgG anti-HBc. HbeAg is a marker of infectivity and HBV replication.

      To illustrate, if someone has been previously immunized, their anti-HBs will be positive, while all other markers will be negative. If they had hepatitis B more than six months ago but are not a carrier, their anti-HBc will be positive, and HBsAg will be negative. However, if they are now a carrier, both anti-HBc and HBsAg will be positive. If HBsAg is present, it indicates an ongoing infection, either acute or chronic if present for more than six months. On the other hand, anti-HBc indicates that the person has caught the virus, and it will be negative if they have been immunized.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      168.9
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  • Question 62 - Which of the following neonatal complications is least frequently observed in pregnancies of...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following neonatal complications is least frequently observed in pregnancies of women with diabetes?

      Your Answer: Respiratory distress syndrome

      Correct Answer: Microsomia

      Explanation:

      Macrosomia is more likely to occur in individuals with diabetes than microsomia.

      Complications of Diabetes during Pregnancy

      Diabetes during pregnancy can lead to various complications for both the mother and the baby. Maternal complications may include polyhydramnios, which occurs in 25% of cases and may be due to fetal polyuria. Preterm labor is also a common complication, occurring in 15% of cases and often associated with polyhydramnios.

      Neonatal complications may include macrosomia, although diabetes can also cause small for gestational age babies. Hypoglycemia is another potential complication, which can occur due to beta cell hyperplasia. Respiratory distress syndrome may also occur, as surfactant production is delayed. Polycythemia, which leads to more neonatal jaundice, is also a possibility.

      Malformation rates may increase 3-4 fold, with sacral agenesis, CNS and CVS malformations (hypertrophic cardiomyopathy) being some of the potential risks. Stillbirth is also a possibility. Hypomagnesemia and hypocalcemia may occur, and shoulder dystocia may cause Erb’s palsy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      17.5
      Seconds
  • Question 63 - A 25-year-old student presents to the Emergency Department with confusion and recurring fevers....

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old student presents to the Emergency Department with confusion and recurring fevers. He describes a flu-like illness in recent days, with myalgia and rigours every two days. He has previously been well, other than an episode of suspected malaria on a gap year in Brazil three years ago, which was felt to be successfully treated. He has not been abroad since.
      On examination, he has splenomegaly, scleral icterus and a temperature of 39.1°C.
      Investigations reveal the following:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 95 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White Cell Count (WCC) 14 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
      Platelets (PLT) 100 × 109 150–450× 109/l
      Blood film Awaited
      Which of the following is the most likely causative organism?

      Your Answer: Plasmodium falciparum

      Correct Answer: Plasmodium vivax

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Fluctuating Pyrexia: Malaria vs. Other Causes

      The patient in question is experiencing fluctuating rigours of malaria, despite not having been in a malaria-affected zone for two years. This suggests a recurrence of pre-existing malaria, with the most likely subtype being P. vivax due to its ability to lie dormant in the liver for extended periods. While dengue fever is a possibility, the history of fluctuating pyrexia is more indicative of malaria, which also causes anaemia and thrombocytopenia. P. falciparum is a reasonable differential, but less likely given the patient’s travel history. P. malariae is rare and typically presents with fevers recurring every three days, making it less likely. Yellow fever is also unlikely due to the patient’s travel timeline and lack of jaundice. Overall, malaria is the most likely cause of the patient’s symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      12.3
      Seconds
  • Question 64 - A 25-year-old female patient visits the GP office complaining of occasional finger pain....

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female patient visits the GP office complaining of occasional finger pain. She reports that her fingers turn pale, become painful and numb, and then return to normal after a few minutes. This is causing her significant distress, and she wishes to start treatment. She has a 10-pack-year smoking history, no other medical problems, and no other notable symptoms. What is the best course of action to take next?

      Your Answer: Oral nifedipine

      Explanation:

      Raynaud’s disease can be managed with non-pharmacological measures such as keeping warm, avoiding cold temperatures, wearing gloves, and quitting smoking. However, if symptoms persist, a first-line pharmacological option such as nifedipine, a dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker, can be considered. Intravenous epoprostenol is an option but not the first line due to potential adverse effects. Diltiazem, a non-dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker, should be avoided in this case. Beta-blockers such as metoprolol and propranolol should also be avoided as they can worsen Raynaud’s phenomenon.

      Understanding Raynaud’s Phenomenon

      Raynaud’s phenomenon is a condition where the digital arteries and cutaneous arteriole overreact to cold or emotional stress, causing an exaggerated vasoconstrictive response. It can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary Raynaud’s disease is more common in young women and presents with bilateral symptoms. On the other hand, secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon is associated with underlying connective tissue disorders such as scleroderma, rheumatoid arthritis, and systemic lupus erythematosus, among others.

      Factors that suggest an underlying connective tissue disease include onset after 40 years, unilateral symptoms, rashes, presence of autoantibodies, and digital ulcers. Management of Raynaud’s phenomenon involves referral to secondary care for patients with suspected secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon. First-line treatment includes calcium channel blockers such as nifedipine. In severe cases, IV prostacyclin (epoprostenol) infusions may be used, and their effects may last for several weeks or months.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      325.1
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  • Question 65 - A 62-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department with acute abdominal pain. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman comes to the Emergency Department with acute abdominal pain. She is experiencing severe pain in the epigastric region that radiates to her back and is vomiting excessively. When questioned, she confesses to having had too many drinks at a bachelorette party the night before. Her serum amylase level is 1190 u/l. What is the most suitable initial management step?

      Your Answer: Intravenous (IV) antibiotics

      Correct Answer: Fluid resuscitation

      Explanation:

      Treatment and Diagnosis of Acute Pancreatitis

      Acute pancreatitis can lead to systemic inflammatory response syndrome and multiple organ dysfunction syndromes. The mainstay of treatment is supportive measures such as fluid resuscitation and oxygen supplementation. Abdominal ultrasound can be useful to identify gallstones as the cause of pancreatitis, but fluid resuscitation takes priority. IV antibiotics are not indicated unless complications occur. Enteral feeding is preferred over nil by mouth, and parenteral feeding should be considered if enteral feeding is not tolerated. Urgent CT of the abdomen is not necessary in the acute stage unless complications are suspected. However, for severe pancreatitis, contrast-enhanced CT may be indicated four days after initial symptoms to assess for complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      77.6
      Seconds
  • Question 66 - A 67-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after being found near-unconscious...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department after being found near-unconscious by her husband. Her husband indicates that she has a long-term joint disorder for which she has been taking oral steroids for many years. She has recently been suffering from depression and has had poor compliance with medications.
      On examination, she is responsive to pain. Her pulse is 130 beats per minute, and her blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg. She is afebrile.
      Basic blood investigations reveal the following:
      Investigation Patient Normal value
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 121 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 6.1 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
      Platelets (PLT) 233 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 129 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 6.0 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine (Cr) 93 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Glucose 2.7 mmol/l < 11.1 mmol/l (random)
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Addisonian crisis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis: Addisonian Crisis and Other Conditions

      Addisonian Crisis: A Brief Overview

      Addison’s disease, or adrenal insufficiency, is a condition that results from the destruction of the adrenal cortex, leading to a deficiency in glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid hormones. The majority of cases in the UK are due to autoimmune disease, while tuberculosis is the most common cause worldwide. Patients with Addison’s disease may present with vague symptoms such as anorexia, weight loss, and gastrointestinal upset, as well as hyperpigmentation of the skin. Basic investigations may reveal hyponatremia, hyperkalemia, and hypoglycemia. A short ACTH stimulation test is used to confirm the diagnosis. Emergency treatment involves IV or IM hydrocortisone and fluids, while long-term treatment is based on oral cortisol and mineralocorticoid replacement.

      Differential Diagnosis

      Insulin Overdose: While hypoglycemia is a common feature of insulin overdose, the clinical information provided suggests that the low glucose level is due to the loss of the anti-insulin effect of cortisol, which is a hallmark of Addison’s disease.

      Meningococcal Septicaemia: Although hypotension and tachycardia may be present in meningococcal septicaemia, the other features described do not support this diagnosis.

      Paracetamol Overdose: Paracetamol overdose can cause liver toxicity, but the clinical features described are not typical of this condition and are more suggestive of an Addisonian crisis.

      Salicylate Overdose: Salicylate overdose can cause a range of symptoms, including nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain, but the clinical features described do not support this diagnosis.

      Conclusion

      Based on the information provided, an Addisonian crisis is the most likely diagnosis. However, further investigations may be necessary to rule out other conditions. Prompt recognition and treatment of an Addisonian crisis are essential to prevent life-threatening complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 67 - A 3-day-old baby boy is experiencing cyanosis during feeding and crying, leading to...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-day-old baby boy is experiencing cyanosis during feeding and crying, leading to suspicion of congenital heart disease. What could be the probable reason?

      Your Answer: Ventricular septal defect

      Correct Answer: Transposition of the great arteries

      Explanation:

      When it comes to congenital heart disease, TGA and Fallot’s are the most common causes of cyanotic heart disease. However, TGA is more commonly seen in newborns, while Fallot’s typically presents a few months after a murmur is detected. VSD is the most common cause of acyanotic congenital heart disease.

      Congenital heart disease can be categorized into two types: acyanotic and cyanotic. Acyanotic heart diseases are more common and include ventricular septal defects (VSD), atrial septal defect (ASD), patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), coarctation of the aorta, and aortic valve stenosis. VSD is the most common acyanotic heart disease, accounting for 30% of cases. ASDs are less common than VSDs, but they are more frequently diagnosed in adult patients as they tend to present later. On the other hand, cyanotic heart diseases are less common and include tetralogy of Fallot, transposition of the great arteries (TGA), and tricuspid atresia. Fallot’s is more common than TGA, but TGA is the more common lesion at birth as patients with Fallot’s generally present at around 1-2 months. The presence of cyanosis in pulmonary valve stenosis depends on the severity and any other coexistent defects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 68 - A 58-year-old woman from India visits her doctor complaining of numbness and tingling...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman from India visits her doctor complaining of numbness and tingling in her feet that has been present for a week. She reports starting new medications recently and has a medical history of tuberculosis and hypertension. Which of the following medications is the most likely culprit for her symptoms?

      Your Answer: Amlodipine

      Correct Answer: Isoniazid

      Explanation:

      Peripheral neuropathy is a well-known side effect of isoniazid, while paraesthesia is not a common side effect of amlodipine according to the BNF. Therefore, it is more likely that isoniazid is the cause in this case. Rifampicin is associated with orange bodily fluids, rash, hepatotoxicity, and drug interactions, while isoniazid is known to cause peripheral neuropathy, psychosis, and hepatotoxicity.

      Side-Effects and Mechanism of Action of Tuberculosis Drugs

      Rifampicin is a drug that inhibits bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase, which prevents the transcription of DNA into mRNA. However, it is a potent liver enzyme inducer and can cause hepatitis, orange secretions, and flu-like symptoms.

      Isoniazid, on the other hand, inhibits mycolic acid synthesis. It can cause peripheral neuropathy, which can be prevented with pyridoxine (Vitamin B6). It can also cause hepatitis and agranulocytosis. Additionally, it is a liver enzyme inhibitor.

      Pyrazinamide is converted by pyrazinamidase into pyrazinoic acid, which in turn inhibits fatty acid synthase (FAS) I. However, it can cause hyperuricaemia, leading to gout, as well as arthralgia, myalgia, and hepatitis.

      Lastly, Ethambutol inhibits the enzyme arabinosyl transferase, which polymerizes arabinose into arabinan. It can cause optic neuritis, so it is important to check visual acuity before and during treatment. Additionally, the dose needs adjusting in patients with renal impairment.

      In summary, these tuberculosis drugs have different mechanisms of action and can cause various side-effects. It is important to monitor patients closely and adjust treatment accordingly to ensure the best possible outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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  • Question 69 - A 32-year-old woman is diagnosed with breast cancer. After undergoing a wide local...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman is diagnosed with breast cancer. After undergoing a wide local excision, it is discovered that the tumour is oestrogen-receptor positive. To lower the risk of recurrence, she is prescribed tamoxifen as adjuvant treatment. What is the most probable adverse effect she may encounter?

      Your Answer: Endometrial cancer

      Correct Answer: Hot flushes

      Explanation:

      Hot flushes are a common side effect of tamoxifen, a medication used to treat oestrogen-receptor positive breast cancer by selectively blocking oestrogen receptors. Other side effects are similar to those experienced during menopause due to the systemic blockade of oestrogen receptors. Tamoxifen does not cause deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in itself, but patients taking it are at a higher risk of developing DVT during periods of immobility. Patients with a personal or family history of unprovoked thromboembolism should not start tamoxifen treatment. Tamoxifen increases the risk of developing endometrial cancer over time, but the risk is still lower than that of experiencing hot flushes. Hair thinning, rather than hair loss, is a possible side effect of tamoxifen. Tamoxifen may also cause headaches, including migraines, but this occurs less frequently than hot flushes.

      Tamoxifen: A SERM for Breast Cancer Management

      Tamoxifen is a medication that belongs to the class of Selective oEstrogen Receptor Modulators (SERMs). It works by acting as an antagonist to the oestrogen receptor while also partially agonizing it. This medication is commonly used in the management of breast cancer that is positive for oestrogen receptors. However, tamoxifen can cause some adverse effects such as menstrual disturbances like vaginal bleeding and amenorrhoea, hot flushes, venous thromboembolism, and endometrial cancer. Climacteric side-effects are also common, with 3% of patients stopping tamoxifen due to this reason. Typically, tamoxifen is used for five years after the removal of the tumour. For those who are at risk of endometrial cancer, raloxifene is a better option as it is a pure oestrogen receptor antagonist and carries a lower risk of endometrial cancer.

      Overall, tamoxifen is a useful medication for the management of breast cancer that is positive for oestrogen receptors. However, it is important to be aware of the potential adverse effects that it can cause. Patients who experience any of these side-effects should consult their healthcare provider. Additionally, for those who are at risk of endometrial cancer, raloxifene may be a better option to consider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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  • Question 70 - A 27-year-old woman with a BMI of 34 kg/m² presents to your GP...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman with a BMI of 34 kg/m² presents to your GP clinic with a small lump in her right breast. She is worried about the possibility of breast cancer, although she has noticed that the lump has decreased in size over the past two weeks. She denies any direct injury but mentions playing rugby recently. There is no family history of breast or gynaecological cancer. On examination, a small, firm, poorly mobile lump is found in the lower quadrant of the right breast.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Carcinoma of the breast

      Correct Answer: Traumatic breast fat necrosis

      Explanation:

      Traumatic breast fat necrosis may develop following a minor or unnoticed injury in women with a high body mass index, although it is crucial to investigate any lump to exclude breast cancer. Nipple discharge is a common symptom of mammary duct ectasia, while a tender lymph node in the axilla is likely to be palpable. Paget’s disease is characterized by an eczema-like appearance of the nipple, not a lump. Fibroadenoma, also known as a breast mouse, is not attached.

      Understanding Fat Necrosis of the Breast

      Fat necrosis of the breast is a condition that affects up to 40% of cases and is often caused by trauma. This condition can be mistaken for breast cancer due to its physical features, such as a mass that may initially increase in size. It is important to understand that fat necrosis is not cancerous and can be treated with proper care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 71 - A 46-year-old woman who is passionate about health and fitness visits your GP...

    Incorrect

    • A 46-year-old woman who is passionate about health and fitness visits your GP clinic. She reports experiencing weight loss, increased thirst, and frequent urination. A urine dip test shows glucosuria, and her blood work indicates an HBA1c level of 63 mmol/mol. She mentions that her aunt passed away due to a pancreas problem. Despite receiving treatment for newly diagnosed diabetes, she still complains of weight loss. What factors should you take into account?

      Your Answer: Repeat the bloods in 120 days

      Correct Answer: CT scan

      Explanation:

      If a person develops new onset diabetes at the age of 56 and has a strong interest in health and fitness, it is unlikely that they have type 2 diabetes. Therefore, it may be necessary to investigate secondary causes of pancreatic insufficiency, such as pancreatic cancer. In such cases, a CT scan is the most appropriate diagnostic tool, while abdominal X-ray and ultrasound are unlikely to be helpful. Repeating the urine dip test is not likely to provide any additional information, and delaying treatment by repeating blood tests in 120 days would be inappropriate. This person should be treated promptly, as they are symptomatic with an HBA1c level of over 48mmol.

      Understanding Pancreatic Cancer: Risk Factors, Symptoms, and Management

      Pancreatic cancer is a type of cancer that is often diagnosed late due to its non-specific symptoms. Adenocarcinomas, which occur at the head of the pancreas, make up over 80% of pancreatic tumors. Risk factors for pancreatic cancer include increasing age, smoking, diabetes, chronic pancreatitis, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma, and genetic mutations such as BRCA2 and KRAS.

      Symptoms of pancreatic cancer can include painless jaundice, pale stools, dark urine, pruritus, anorexia, weight loss, epigastric pain, loss of exocrine and endocrine function, and atypical back pain. Migratory thrombophlebitis, also known as Trousseau sign, is more common in pancreatic cancer than in other cancers.

      Diagnosis of pancreatic cancer can be made through ultrasound or high-resolution CT scanning, which may show the double duct sign – simultaneous dilatation of the common bile and pancreatic ducts. However, less than 20% of patients are suitable for surgery at diagnosis. A Whipple’s resection, or pancreaticoduodenectomy, may be performed for resectable lesions in the head of the pancreas. Adjuvant chemotherapy is usually given following surgery, and ERCP with stenting may be used for palliation.

      In summary, pancreatic cancer is a serious disease with non-specific symptoms that can be difficult to diagnose. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms can help with early detection and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      3.4
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  • Question 72 - A 48-year-old man presents to the emergency department with his spouse. He is...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man presents to the emergency department with his spouse. He is experiencing significant swelling of his tongue and lips, rendering him unable to speak. His wife reports that his symptoms have worsened during their wait, and she is unsure of the cause as he has no known allergies. However, she does mention that he was recently prescribed a new medication by his primary care physician.
      Which of the following medications is the most probable culprit?

      Your Answer: Amlodipine

      Correct Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      Although it is possible for the man to have been prescribed any of the medications listed, it is evident that he is experiencing angioedema, as indicated by the swelling of his tongue and lips. Ramipril, an ACE inhibitor, is the medication most commonly associated with this side effect. Even if the patient has no history of allergies or negative reactions to ACE inhibitors, angioedema can still occur. While the likelihood of this happening is low, it is important to keep in mind due to the large number of patients taking this type of medication and the potential complications associated with angioedema.

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. These inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and for secondary prevention of ischaemic heart disease. The mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors is to inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. They are metabolized in the liver through phase 1 metabolism.

      ACE inhibitors may cause side effects such as cough, which occurs in around 15% of patients and may occur up to a year after starting treatment. This is thought to be due to increased bradykinin levels. Angioedema may also occur up to a year after starting treatment. Hyperkalaemia and first-dose hypotension are other potential side effects, especially in patients taking diuretics. ACE inhibitors should be avoided during pregnancy and breastfeeding, and caution should be exercised in patients with renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema.

      Patients receiving high-dose diuretic therapy (more than 80 mg of furosemide a day) are at an increased risk of hypotension when taking ACE inhibitors. Before initiating treatment, urea and electrolytes should be checked, and after increasing the dose, a rise in creatinine and potassium may be expected. Acceptable changes include an increase in serum creatinine up to 30% from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment. The current NICE guidelines provide a flow chart for the management of hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
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  • Question 73 - A 47-year-old man is found to have a blood pressure of 180/110 mmHg...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old man is found to have a blood pressure of 180/110 mmHg on multiple readings. He undergoes investigation for secondary hypertension. Computed tomography (CT) imaging shows a 4.3 cm right-sided adrenal lesion. Below are his blood results. He is listed for elective adrenalectomy.
      Investigation Result Normal reference range
      Plasma free metanephrines 3000 pmol/l 80-510 pmol/l
      Which of the following treatments should be started to commence preparation of this patient for surgery for removal of adrenal phaeochromocytoma?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alpha-adrenergic receptor blockers

      Explanation:

      Management of Phaeochromocytoma: Medications and Interventions

      Phaeochromocytoma is a neuroendocrine tumor that secretes adrenaline and noradrenaline, leading to sympathetic stimulation and clinical symptoms such as tachycardia, hypertension, anxiety, diaphoresis, and weight loss. Diagnosis is made through the measurement of catecholamines and metanephrines in plasma or urine. Surgery is required, but patients are at high risk due to potential life-threatening tachycardia and hypertension. The following medications and interventions are used in the management of phaeochromocytoma:

      Alpha-adrenergic receptor blockers: Phenoxybenzamine or doxazosin are used to dampen sympathetic stimulation by blocking alpha-adrenoceptors.

      Beta-adrenergic receptor blockers: Beta-blockers are used after alpha-blockers to avoid unopposed alpha-receptor stimulation, which can cause a hypertensive crisis.

      Calcium channel blockers: These are not commonly used in phaeochromocytoma management but may be used as an antihypertensive in certain populations or as an anti-anginal drug.

      Intravenous fluids: IV fluids should be readily available for all surgeries to address potential blood loss and hypotension following surgery.

      Low-salt diet and low fluid intake: These interventions are not typically used in phaeochromocytoma management but may be used for chronic hypertension or fluid overload.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 74 - A 27-year-old woman gives birth vaginally at 38 weeks gestation and experiences a...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman gives birth vaginally at 38 weeks gestation and experiences a physiological third stage of labor. She subsequently loses 700ml of blood and medical assistance is requested. An ABCDE assessment is conducted, and the patient is given warmed IV crystalloid fluids after obtaining IV access. The uterus is compressed to stimulate contractions, and a catheter is inserted, but the bleeding persists. The patient has a history of asthma but no known coagulopathy. What is the most appropriate course of action for her management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV oxytocin

      Explanation:

      The appropriate medical treatments for postpartum haemorrhage caused by uterine atony are oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol. In this scenario, the patient has experienced a blood loss of over 500 ml after delivery, indicating PPH as the likely cause, with uterine atony being the most probable reason. The first steps in managing PPH involve an ABCDE approach, including IV access, warm crystalloid administration, uterine fundus palpation, and catheterisation to prevent bladder distention. If these measures fail, medical therapy is initiated, starting with IV oxytocin. IM carboprost is not the correct choice as it requires senior approval and can worsen bronchoconstriction in patients with asthma. IV carboprost is also not recommended as it can cause bronchospasm, hypertension, and fever, and requires senior approval. IV tocolytics are not appropriate as they suppress uterine contractions, which would exacerbate the problem in this case. Therefore, agents that stimulate uterine contraction are given to manage PPH caused by uterine atony.

      Understanding Postpartum Haemorrhage

      Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) is a condition where a woman experiences blood loss of more than 500 ml after giving birth vaginally. It can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary PPH occurs within 24 hours after delivery and is caused by the 4 Ts: tone, trauma, tissue, and thrombin. The most common cause is uterine atony. Risk factors for primary PPH include previous PPH, prolonged labour, pre-eclampsia, increased maternal age, emergency Caesarean section, and placenta praevia.

      In managing PPH, it is important to involve senior staff immediately and follow the ABC approach. This includes two peripheral cannulae, lying the woman flat, blood tests, and commencing a warmed crystalloid infusion. Mechanical interventions such as rubbing up the fundus and catheterisation are also done. Medical interventions include IV oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol. Surgical options such as intrauterine balloon tamponade, B-Lynch suture, ligation of uterine arteries, and hysterectomy may be considered if medical options fail to control the bleeding.

      Secondary PPH occurs between 24 hours to 6 weeks after delivery and is typically due to retained placental tissue or endometritis. It is important to understand the causes and risk factors of PPH to prevent and manage this life-threatening emergency effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 75 - As a general practice doctor, you are attending to a 55-year-old man who...

    Incorrect

    • As a general practice doctor, you are attending to a 55-year-old man who has come in as a same-day emergency with new pain in his right leg and foot. The pain has been present for the past 48 hours and is worse at night. He reports that the pain is in the outer side of his calf and the top of his foot and toes. The patient has a medical history of osteoarthritis, gout, and hypertension, and is currently taking paracetamol, amlodipine, naproxen, allopurinol, and omeprazole.

      Upon examination, there is no tenderness or joint deformity in the ankle or foot. The patient has limited movement of the ankle and experiences pain when dorsiflexing his foot. There is slightly altered sensation over the dorsum of his foot, but sensation in the rest of his leg is normal. Bilateral palpable dorsalis pedis pulses are present.

      What is the most likely cause of this man's leg pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: L5 radiculopathy

      Explanation:

      Nerve root pain can be identified by its distribution along the lateral calf and dorsum of the foot, as well as the presence of a neurological deficit such as sensory changes and weakness. This suggests that the L5 nerve is affected.

      In contrast, joint diseases like gout and osteoarthritis typically cause pain localized to the affected joint, without any specific distribution on the foot. There is also no associated sensory loss, and movement of the joint is limited in all directions, not just dorsiflexion.

      Peripheral vascular disease or deep vein thrombosis can cause symptoms throughout the entire limb, without any discernible distribution. While arterial disease may cause calf pain, it does not lateralize to the medial or lateral side of the calf. Additionally, if the foot is affected, the pain and sensory changes will be present on both the dorsum and sole.

      Understanding Prolapsed Disc and its Features

      A prolapsed lumbar disc is a common cause of lower back pain that can lead to neurological deficits. It is characterized by clear dermatomal leg pain, which is usually worse than the back pain. The pain is often aggravated when sitting. The features of the prolapsed disc depend on the site of compression. For instance, L3 nerve root compression can cause sensory loss over the anterior thigh, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test. On the other hand, L4 nerve root compression can lead to sensory loss in the anterior aspect of the knee, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test.

      The management of prolapsed disc is similar to that of other musculoskeletal lower back pain. It involves analgesia, physiotherapy, and exercises. According to NICE, the first-line treatment for back pain without sciatica symptoms is NSAIDs +/- proton pump inhibitors, rather than neuropathic analgesia. If the symptoms persist after 4-6 weeks, referral for consideration of MRI is appropriate. Understanding the features of prolapsed disc can help in the diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 76 - A 32-year-old man comes to the clinic with a maculopapular rash and mouth...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man comes to the clinic with a maculopapular rash and mouth ulcers. He had a painless penile ulcer two months ago. What is the most probable causative organism for his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Treponema pallidum

      Explanation:

      The symptoms exhibited by this individual suggest the presence of secondary syphilis.

      Understanding Syphilis: Symptoms and Stages

      Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. The infection progresses through three stages: primary, secondary, and tertiary. The incubation period can range from 9 to 90 days.

      During the primary stage, a painless ulcer called a chancre appears at the site of sexual contact. Local lymph nodes may also become swollen, but this symptom may not be visible in women if the lesion is on the cervix.

      The secondary stage occurs 6 to 10 weeks after the primary infection and is characterized by systemic symptoms such as fevers and lymphadenopathy. A rash may appear on the trunk, palms, and soles, along with buccal ulcers and painless warty lesions on the genitalia.

      In the tertiary stage, granulomatous lesions called gummas may develop on the skin and bones, and there may be an ascending aortic aneurysm. Other symptoms include general paralysis of the insane, tabes dorsalis, and Argyll-Robertson pupil.

      Congenital syphilis can also occur if a pregnant woman is infected. Symptoms include blunted upper incisor teeth, linear scars at the angle of the mouth, keratitis, saber shins, saddle nose, and deafness.

      Understanding the symptoms and stages of syphilis is important for early detection and treatment. It is a treatable infection, but if left untreated, it can lead to serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 77 - A 45-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a complaint of dyspnoea on...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a complaint of dyspnoea on exertion and a non-productive cough that has been bothering her for the past 4 months. During the examination, the doctor notices clubbing and crepitations at the lung bases. Lung function tests reveal a decreased vital capacity and an elevated FEV1:FVC ratio. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fibrosing alveolitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cryptogenic Fibrosing Alveolitis

      Cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis, also known as idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, is a disorder that typically affects individuals between the ages of 50 and 70 years, with a slightly higher incidence in men than women. The condition is characterized by progressive breathlessness on exertion, dry cough, and a restrictive pattern on pulmonary function tests. While excessive sputum production is uncommon in the early stages, constitutional symptoms such as weight loss and lethargy may occur. Finger clubbing is a common finding in patients with cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis.

      While haemoptysis is rare, it may suggest the development of lung malignancy, which occurs with an increased risk in patients with this condition. It is important to note that the risk of lung cancer does not exclude the possibility of cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis. Chest pain is uncommon in this condition.

      There is no definitive treatment for cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis, and the average survival from the time of diagnosis is 3 years. However, the course of the disease can be highly variable, and up to 20% of patients survive for more than 5 years from diagnosis.

      In summary, cryptogenic fibrosing alveolitis is a progressive lung disorder that presents with breathlessness on exertion, dry cough, and a restrictive pattern on pulmonary function tests. While there is no definitive treatment, early diagnosis and management can improve outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 78 - A 21-year-old male patient visits his GP complaining of visible blood in his...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old male patient visits his GP complaining of visible blood in his urine for the past day. He reports no pain while urinating or abdominal pain. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications. He had a mild cold four days ago. Upon analysis, his urine shows positive for blood and trace amounts of protein, but negative for leucocytes, nitrites, and glucose. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IgA nephropathy

      Explanation:

      The classic presentation of IgA nephropathy is visible haematuria that occurs after a recent upper respiratory tract infection. This patient’s new-onset haematuria following a recent URTI is consistent with a diagnosis of IgA nephropathy, which is the most common cause of haematuria worldwide. IgA nephropathy typically presents acutely in young males, in contrast to post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, which presents after 2 weeks from an upper or lower respiratory tract infection. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis and minimal change disease are unlikely diagnoses as they present with proteinuria rather than haematuria. While post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis is a possible differential diagnosis, it differs from this patient’s presentation as it typically presents with haematuria after 2 weeks following an acute infection.

      Understanding IgA Nephropathy

      IgA nephropathy, also known as Berger’s disease, is the most common cause of glomerulonephritis worldwide. It is characterized by the deposition of IgA immune complexes in the mesangium, leading to mesangial hypercellularity and positive immunofluorescence for IgA and C3. The classic presentation is recurrent episodes of macroscopic hematuria in young males following an upper respiratory tract infection. Unlike post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis, IgA nephropathy is not associated with low complement levels and typically does not present with nephrotic range proteinuria or renal failure.

      Management of IgA nephropathy depends on the severity of proteinuria and renal function. Isolated hematuria with no or minimal proteinuria and normal GFR requires only follow-up to monitor renal function. Persistent proteinuria with normal or slightly reduced GFR can be treated with ACE inhibitors. If there is active disease or failure to respond to ACE inhibitors, immunosuppression with corticosteroids may be necessary. The prognosis of IgA nephropathy varies, with 25% of patients developing ESRF. Factors associated with a poor prognosis include male gender, proteinuria, hypertension, smoking, hyperlipidemia, and ACE genotype DD, while frank hematuria is a marker of good prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 79 - A 52-year-old man has recently been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man has recently been diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. He was prescribed medication but a few days later he complained of stomach cramps and loose stools.
      Which of the following medications is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metformin

      Explanation:

      Side Effects of Common Oral Diabetic Medications

      Managing diabetes often involves the use of oral medications to help control blood sugar levels. However, these medications can come with side effects that need to be considered when choosing a treatment plan. Here are some common side effects of four oral diabetic medications:

      Metformin: The most common side effects of metformin are abdominal pain, anorexia, diarrhea, nausea, taste disturbance, and vomiting. There is also a risk of developing lactic acidosis, particularly in patients with a history of heart failure and concomitant use of drugs that can acutely impair renal function.

      Furosemide: Furosemide is a less likely option due to its potential to exacerbate diabetes and cause hypokalemia, which can be dangerous in certain patients. It can also cause urinary retention in patients with enlarged prostates.

      Gliclazide: Gliclazide can encourage weight gain and may cause hypoglycemia if the dosage is excessive.

      Pioglitazone: Pioglitazone should be used with caution in patients with cardiovascular disease or in combination with insulin due to an increased risk of heart failure, particularly in elderly people.

      It is important to be familiar with these side effects to ensure patient compliance with medication and to choose the most appropriate treatment plan for each individual.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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  • Question 80 - Typically, which form of lung disease develops in people with a1-antitrypsin deficiency? ...

    Incorrect

    • Typically, which form of lung disease develops in people with a1-antitrypsin deficiency?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Emphysema

      Explanation:

      Emphysema: Imbalance between Proteases and Anti-Proteases in the Lungs

      Emphysema is a lung disease that results from an imbalance between proteases and anti-proteases within the lung. This imbalance is often caused by a1-antitrypsin deficiency, which is associated with the development of emphysema in young people with no history of smoking and a positive family history. The interplay between environmental and genetic factors determines the onset of emphysema. Patients typically present with worsening dyspnoea, and weight loss, cor pulmonale, and polycythaemia occur later in the course of the disease. Chest radiographs show bilateral basal emphysema with paucity and pruning of the basal pulmonary vessels. Early onset of liver cirrhosis, often in combination with emphysema, is also associated with a1-antitrypsin deficiency.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 81 - A 7-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department with a fever, cough,...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old boy is brought to the Emergency Department with a fever, cough, coryza and conjunctivitis. He has a rash that looks like tight clusters of small red spots. He also has some grey-white spots inside his mouth. Prior to the last five days, he is normally a fit and well child who does not take any regular medications. He has not had any vaccinations. His temperature is 38 °C and his other observations are within normal limits.
      What would be the next most appropriate step in this patient’s management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Discharge home with advice regarding supportive care

      Explanation:

      Supportive Care for Children with Measles: Discharge Advice

      Measles is a highly contagious viral illness that can be prevented through vaccination. If a child is diagnosed with measles, they will present with symptoms such as fever, cough, and a rash. The period of contagiousness is estimated to be from five days before the appearance of the rash to four days afterwards. There is no specific treatment for uncomplicated measles, but supportive care can be provided to manage symptoms.

      Discharge advice for parents of a child with measles should include information on potential complications and when to seek medical attention. It is important to monitor the child’s symptoms and provide antipyretics and fluids as needed. If a secondary bacterial infection arises, antibiotics may be required. Immunoglobulins are not given as a treatment for acute measles, but vaccination is recommended as a preventative measure. Aspirin should not be given to children with measles due to the risk of Reye syndrome. Paracetamol and ibuprofen can be given for symptomatic relief. With proper supportive care, most children with measles will recover without complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
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  • Question 82 - A 65-year-old man comes to your clinic complaining of progressive slurred speech over...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man comes to your clinic complaining of progressive slurred speech over the past few months. He is embarrassed because he frequently gives presentations for work and some people have joked that he sounds drunk. Upon examination, there is no droop or drooling in his head and face, but he struggles to articulate certain phrases and has difficulty swallowing. His tongue also appears to fasciculate when he sticks it out. In addition, there is mild weakness and hypotonia in his limbs, but his knees and ankles have slight hyperreflexia. What is the most likely cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Motor neurone disease

      Explanation:

      The presence of fasciculations, along with upper and lower motor neurone signs, strongly suggests motor neuron disease as the underlying condition. The patient’s difficulty with speech and swallowing may be due to bulbar palsy, which is commonly associated with this disease. A stroke, which typically presents with sudden onset of symptoms, is unlikely to be the cause of the patient’s progressive symptoms over weeks or months. While a cerebellar tumour may cause slurred speech, it would typically be accompanied by other symptoms such as ataxia, vertigo, and difficulty with basic movements. Multiple sclerosis is an uncommon diagnosis in late-middle-aged men and is an upper motor neurone disease, whereas this patient has a combination of upper and lower motor neurone signs. There is no evidence of tremor or bradykinesia in this case.

      Understanding Motor Neuron Disease: Signs and Diagnosis

      Motor neuron disease is a neurological condition that affects both upper and lower motor neurons. It is a rare condition that usually presents after the age of 40 and can manifest in different patterns such as amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, progressive muscular atrophy, and bulbar palsy. The diagnosis of motor neuron disease is based on clinical features, including the presence of fasciculations, the absence of sensory signs, and the combination of upper and lower motor neuron signs. Wasting of the small hand muscles and tibialis anterior is also common.

      Other features that can help diagnose motor neuron disease include the absence of external ocular muscle involvement, the absence of cerebellar signs, and preserved abdominal reflexes. Sphincter dysfunction, if present, is usually a late feature. While vague sensory symptoms may occur early in the disease, sensory signs are typically absent.

      Nerve conduction studies can help exclude a neuropathy, while electromyography shows a reduced number of action potentials with increased amplitude. MRI is usually performed to exclude other conditions such as cervical cord compression and myelopathy. Understanding the signs and diagnosis of motor neuron disease is crucial for early detection and management of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 83 - A 73-year-old man presents with dyspnoea, cough and wheeze that have been ongoing...

    Incorrect

    • A 73-year-old man presents with dyspnoea, cough and wheeze that have been ongoing for a few days. He experiences similar episodes frequently, particularly during the winter months. The patient has a medical history of COPD and osteoarthritis and takes regular inhalers. During examination, an audible wheeze is detected upon chest auscultation, and the patient appears mildly dyspnoeic. A sputum sample is collected for culture, and the patient is started on a course of doxycycline and prednisolone. What is the most probable organism to be identified?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemophilus influenzae

      Explanation:

      The most frequent bacterial organism responsible for infective exacerbations of COPD is Haemophilus influenzae. This patient’s symptoms of dyspnoea, productive cough, and wheeze on a background of known COPD indicate an infective exacerbation. Nebulisers may be added to the treatment plan if the patient is significantly wheezy. Legionella pneumophila is not a common cause of COPD exacerbation, as it typically causes atypical pneumonia with desaturation on exertion and hyponatraemia. Moraxella catarrhalis is another organism that can cause infective exacerbations of COPD, but it is less common than Haemophilus influenzae. Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause of pneumonia following influenza infection and can sometimes cause infective exacerbations of COPD, but it is not as common as Haemophilus influenzae.

      Acute exacerbations of COPD are a common reason for hospital visits in developed countries. The most common causes of these exacerbations are bacterial infections, with Haemophilus influenzae being the most common culprit, followed by Streptococcus pneumoniae and Moraxella catarrhalis. Respiratory viruses also account for around 30% of exacerbations, with human rhinovirus being the most important pathogen. Symptoms of an exacerbation include an increase in dyspnea, cough, and wheezing, as well as hypoxia and acute confusion in some cases.

      NICE guidelines recommend increasing the frequency of bronchodilator use and giving prednisolone for five days. Antibiotics should only be given if sputum is purulent or there are clinical signs of pneumonia. Admission to the hospital is recommended for patients with severe breathlessness, acute confusion or impaired consciousness, cyanosis, oxygen saturation less than 90%, social reasons, or significant comorbidity.

      For severe exacerbations requiring secondary care, oxygen therapy should be used with an initial saturation target of 88-92%. Nebulized bronchodilators such as salbutamol and ipratropium should also be administered, along with steroid therapy. IV hydrocortisone may be considered instead of oral prednisolone, and IV theophylline may be used for patients not responding to nebulized bronchodilators. Non-invasive ventilation may be used for patients with type 2 respiratory failure, with bilevel positive airway pressure being the typical method used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 84 - A 68-year-old female with a history of osteoporosis is prescribed alendronate. What is...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old female with a history of osteoporosis is prescribed alendronate. What is the most crucial side-effect to caution her about?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Heartburn

      Explanation:

      Patients starting bisphosphonates should be warned about potential oesophageal problems, particularly with alendronate. Any new symptoms following the introduction of this drug should be reviewed by a medical professional.

      Bisphosphonates: Uses and Adverse Effects

      Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, which are cells that break down bone tissue. This reduces the risk of bone fractures and can be used to treat conditions such as osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.

      However, bisphosphonates can have adverse effects, including oesophageal reactions such as oesophagitis and ulcers, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which can cause fever, myalgia, and arthralgia. Hypocalcemia, or low calcium levels, can also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually not clinically significant.

      To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or other oral medications and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment, and calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate. The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the patient’s level of risk, and some authorities recommend stopping treatment after five years for low-risk patients with a femoral neck T-score of > -2.5.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 85 - A 28-year-old woman who is 20 weeks pregnant visits the GP clinic to...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman who is 20 weeks pregnant visits the GP clinic to inquire about the whooping cough vaccine. She mentions that her friend, who also sees the same GP, received the vaccine at 32 weeks of pregnancy. She wants to know if she can get the vaccine at this stage of her pregnancy.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: She can have the vaccine now

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women at 16-32 weeks are given the option to receive the pertussis vaccine.

      Whooping Cough: Causes, Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management

      Whooping cough, also known as pertussis, is a contagious disease caused by the bacterium Bordetella pertussis. It is commonly found in children, with around 1,000 cases reported annually in the UK. The disease is characterized by a persistent cough that can last up to 100 days, hence the name cough of 100 days.

      Infants are particularly vulnerable to whooping cough, which is why routine immunization is recommended at 2, 3, 4 months, and 3-5 years. However, neither infection nor immunization provides lifelong protection, and adolescents and adults may still develop the disease.

      Whooping cough has three phases: the catarrhal phase, the paroxysmal phase, and the convalescent phase. The catarrhal phase lasts around 1-2 weeks and presents symptoms similar to a viral upper respiratory tract infection. The paroxysmal phase is characterized by a severe cough that worsens at night and after feeding, and may be accompanied by vomiting and central cyanosis. The convalescent phase is when the cough subsides over weeks to months.

      To diagnose whooping cough, a person must have an acute cough that has lasted for 14 days or more without another apparent cause, and have one or more of the following features: paroxysmal cough, inspiratory whoop, post-tussive vomiting, or undiagnosed apnoeic attacks in young infants. A nasal swab culture for Bordetella pertussis is used to confirm the diagnosis, although PCR and serology are increasingly used.

      Infants under 6 months with suspected pertussis should be admitted, and in the UK, pertussis is a notifiable disease. An oral macrolide, such as clarithromycin, azithromycin, or erythromycin, is indicated if the onset of the cough is within the previous 21 days to eradicate the organism and reduce the spread. Household contacts should be offered antibiotic prophylaxis, although antibiotic therapy has not been shown to alter the course of the illness. School exclusion is recommended for 48 hours after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are given.

      Complications of whooping cough include subconjunctival haemorrhage, pneumonia, bronchiectasis, and

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 86 - A 28-year-old female patient complains of symptoms that suggest coeliac disease. What is...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female patient complains of symptoms that suggest coeliac disease. What is the primary test that should be employed for screening individuals with coeliac disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tissue transglutaminase antibodies

      Explanation:

      According to NICE, the initial serological test for coeliac disease should be tissue transglutaminase antibodies.

      Investigating Coeliac Disease

      Coeliac disease is a condition caused by sensitivity to gluten, which can lead to villous atrophy and malabsorption. It is often associated with other conditions such as dermatitis herpetiformis and autoimmune disorders. Diagnosis of coeliac disease is made through a combination of serology and endoscopic intestinal biopsy. The gold standard for diagnosis is the biopsy, which should be performed in all patients with suspected coeliac disease to confirm or exclude the diagnosis. The biopsy traditionally takes place in the duodenum, but jejunal biopsies are also sometimes performed. Findings supportive of coeliac disease include villous atrophy, crypt hyperplasia, an increase in intraepithelial lymphocytes, and lamina propria infiltration with lymphocytes. Serology tests for coeliac disease include tissue transglutaminase antibodies and endomyseal antibodies, while anti-gliadin antibodies are not recommended. Patients who are already on a gluten-free diet should reintroduce gluten for at least six weeks prior to testing. Rectal gluten challenge is not widely used. A gluten-free diet can reverse villous atrophy and immunology in patients with coeliac disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 87 - A human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-positive teenager who recently returned from the tropics presents...

    Incorrect

    • A human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)-positive teenager who recently returned from the tropics presents with severe diarrhoea (up to 30 times per day).
      Which of the following is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cryptosporidium species

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis of diarrhoea in an HIV-positive patient

      Human cryptosporidiosis, caused by Cryptosporidium species, is a common opportunistic infection in HIV/AIDS patients, leading to prolonged and severe diarrhoea. Escherichia coli can cause urinary and enteric infections, but an alternative aetiology is more likely in this case. Staphylococcus aureus is a commensal bacterium that can cause various infections, but it is not suggested by this clinical scenario. Entamoeba histolytica, which causes amoebiasis, is more prevalent in developing countries and may cause dysentery and invasive extra-intestinal manifestations, but an alternative aetiology is more likely in this case. Salmonella species can be transmitted orally via contaminated food or beverages and may cause non-typhoidal enterocolitis, focal disease, or typhoid fever, but an alternative aetiology is more likely in this case, given the severity of diarrhoea and the patient’s HIV-positive status. Therefore, a thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to identify the underlying cause of diarrhoea in this patient and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 88 - A 3-year-old boy is taken to his pediatrician by his father due to...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old boy is taken to his pediatrician by his father due to constant scratching of his bottom at night. The father reports observing some unusual white particles when cleaning his son's bottom after a bowel movement. What would be the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe a single dose of mebendazole for the whole household and issue hygiene advice.

      Explanation:

      Threadworm Infestation in Children

      Threadworm infestation, caused by Enterobius vermicularis or pinworms, is a common occurrence among children in the UK. The infestation happens when eggs present in the environment are ingested. In most cases, threadworm infestation is asymptomatic, but some possible symptoms include perianal itching, especially at night, and vulval symptoms in girls. Diagnosis can be made by applying Sellotape to the perianal area and sending it to the laboratory for microscopy to see the eggs. However, most patients are treated empirically, and this approach is supported in the CKS guidelines.

      The CKS recommends a combination of anthelmintic with hygiene measures for all members of the household. Mebendazole is the first-line treatment for children over six months old, and a single dose is given unless the infestation persists. It is essential to treat all members of the household to prevent re-infection. Proper hygiene measures, such as washing hands regularly, keeping fingernails short, and washing clothes and bedding at high temperatures, can also help prevent the spread of threadworm infestation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 89 - A 39-year-old woman experiences lower back pain that travels down her left leg...

    Incorrect

    • A 39-year-old woman experiences lower back pain that travels down her left leg while doing DIY work. She reports a severe, sharp, stabbing pain that worsens with movement. During clinical examination, a positive straight leg raise test is observed on the left side. The patient is given appropriate pain relief. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Arrange physiotherapy

      Explanation:

      A prolapsed disc is suspected based on the patient’s symptoms. However, even if an MRI scan confirms this diagnosis, the initial management would remain the same as most patients respond well to conservative treatment like physiotherapy.

      Understanding Prolapsed Disc and its Features

      A prolapsed lumbar disc is a common cause of lower back pain that can lead to neurological deficits. It is characterized by clear dermatomal leg pain, which is usually worse than the back pain. The pain is often aggravated when sitting. The features of the prolapsed disc depend on the site of compression. For instance, L3 nerve root compression can cause sensory loss over the anterior thigh, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test. On the other hand, L4 nerve root compression can lead to sensory loss in the anterior aspect of the knee, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test.

      The management of prolapsed disc is similar to that of other musculoskeletal lower back pain. It involves analgesia, physiotherapy, and exercises. According to NICE, the first-line treatment for back pain without sciatica symptoms is NSAIDs +/- proton pump inhibitors, rather than neuropathic analgesia. If the symptoms persist after 4-6 weeks, referral for consideration of MRI is appropriate. Understanding the features of prolapsed disc can help in the diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 90 - A woman in her early stages of pregnancy seeks guidance on whether it...

    Incorrect

    • A woman in her early stages of pregnancy seeks guidance on whether it is safe to consume alcohol. What advice aligns with the current NICE guidelines?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Avoid alcohol throughout pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Antenatal care guidelines were issued by NICE in March 2008, which included specific points for the care of healthy pregnant women. Nausea and vomiting can be treated with natural remedies such as ginger and acupuncture on the ‘p6’ point, as recommended by NICE. Antihistamines, with promethazine as the first-line option according to the BNF, can also be used. Adequate vitamin D intake is crucial for the health of both the mother and baby, and women should be informed about this at their booking appointment. The Chief Medical Officer advises all pregnant and breastfeeding women to take a daily supplement containing 10 micrograms of vitamin D, with particular care taken for those at risk. In 2016, new guidelines were proposed by the Chief Medical Officer regarding alcohol consumption during pregnancy. The government now advises pregnant women not to drink any alcohol to minimize the risk of harm to the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 91 - A 26-year-old male patient complains of painful ulcers on his penis shaft and...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old male patient complains of painful ulcers on his penis shaft and dysuria for the past three days. He has never experienced such symptoms before. The clinical diagnosis suggests primary genital herpes. What is the best course of action for managing this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral aciclovir

      Explanation:

      Even if the presentation is delayed for up to 5 days, primary genital herpes infections require oral antiviral therapy.

      Understanding Herpes Simplex Virus

      Herpes simplex virus (HSV) is a common viral infection that affects humans. There are two strains of the virus, HSV-1 and HSV-2, which were previously thought to cause oral and genital herpes, respectively. However, there is now considerable overlap between the two strains. The primary infection may present with severe gingivostomatitis, while cold sores and painful genital ulceration are common features.

      Management of HSV includes oral aciclovir for gingivostomatitis and genital herpes, and topical aciclovir for cold sores, although the evidence base for the latter is modest. Patients with frequent exacerbations may benefit from longer-term aciclovir. In pregnant women, a primary attack of herpes during pregnancy at greater than 28 weeks gestation may require elective caesarean section at term. Women with recurrent herpes who are pregnant should be treated with suppressive therapy and advised that the risk of transmission to their baby is low.

      The cytopathic effect of HSV can be seen in Pap smears, which show multinucleated giant cells representing infection by the virus. The 3 M’s – multinucleation, margination of the chromatin, and molding of the nuclei – are characteristic features of HSV infection. Understanding the features and management of HSV is important for effective treatment and prevention of transmission.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 92 - A 62-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of a 3-day history...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of a 3-day history of acute left-sided abdominal pain, diarrhoea and fever. She has a history of chronic constipation. On examination she is tachycardic and there is localised peritonism in the left iliac fossa.
      What would be the next most appropriate step in this patient’s management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Admit to hospital under the surgical team for investigation and management

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Appropriate Management Strategies for Diverticulitis: A Guide for Healthcare Professionals

      Diverticulitis is a common condition that can lead to serious complications if not managed appropriately. As a healthcare professional, it is important to understand the different management strategies available and when they are appropriate. Here are some scenarios and the recommended management strategies:

      1. Admit to hospital under the surgical team for investigation and management: This is the recommended management strategy for a patient with peritonitis secondary to diverticulitis. The surgical team may choose to use imaging investigations first or proceed straight to surgery for operative management.

      2. Admit to hospital for urgent magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) enterography: MRI enterography is not usually used in diverticular disease. A CT scan would be quicker and would provide the required information needed to evaluate whether or not the patient needs emergency surgery.

      3. Analgesia and fluids and review in 24 hours: This management strategy is not appropriate for a patient with severe diverticulitis and peritonism. Urgent intravenous antibiotics and fluid management in the hospital are needed.

      4. Arrange a stool sample and commence antibiotics in the community: A stool sample is unlikely to provide any additional information in this scenario. Urgent admission to the hospital for further management is needed.

      5. Admit to hospital for urgent colonoscopy: Performing a colonoscopy on an inflamed bowel would be inappropriate since the risk of perforation would be high. A colonoscopy is sometimes used to evaluate the patient after the diverticulitis is present, to exclude other intramural pathology.

      In conclusion, appropriate management strategies for diverticulitis depend on the severity of the condition and the presence of complications. Healthcare professionals should be aware of the different options available and choose the most appropriate one for each patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 93 - A 32-year-old woman comes to the clinic reporting several strange experiences. She explains...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman comes to the clinic reporting several strange experiences. She explains feeling as though her environment is not real, almost like a dream. Additionally, she has been informed that she begins to smack her lips, although she has no memory of doing so. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Focal impaired awareness seizure

      Explanation:

      Focal aware seizures do not affect consciousness or awareness, and may involve automatic, repetitive actions such as lip smacking.

      Epilepsy is classified based on three key features: where seizures begin in the brain, level of awareness during a seizure, and other features of seizures. Focal seizures, previously known as partial seizures, start in a specific area on one side of the brain. The level of awareness can vary in focal seizures, and they can be further classified as focal aware, focal impaired awareness, or awareness unknown. Focal seizures can also be motor, non-motor, or have other features such as aura. Generalized seizures involve networks on both sides of the brain at the onset, and consciousness is lost immediately. They can be further subdivided into motor and non-motor types. Unknown onset is used when the origin of the seizure is unknown. Focal to bilateral seizures start on one side of the brain in a specific area before spreading to both lobes and were previously known as secondary generalized seizures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 94 - A 35-year-old woman and her partner visit their GP with concerns about their...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman and her partner visit their GP with concerns about their inability to conceive. Despite having regular unprotected intercourse for 12 months, they have not been successful in getting pregnant. The husband's semen analysis came back normal. The GP decides to order a serum progesterone test to assess ovulation.
      At what point should the blood test be conducted?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 7 days before her next expected period

      Explanation:

      To confirm ovulation in patients struggling to conceive, a serum progesterone level should be taken 7 days prior to the expected next period. This timing coincides with ovulation and is the most accurate way to confirm it. Taking the test 14 days before the next expected period or on the first day of the next period would not be timed correctly. It is also important to note that the timing of intercourse does not affect the confirmation of ovulation through serum progesterone testing.

      Infertility is a common issue that affects approximately 1 in 7 couples. It is important to note that around 84% of couples who have regular sexual intercourse will conceive within the first year, and 92% within the first two years. The causes of infertility can vary, with male factor accounting for 30%, unexplained causes accounting for 20%, ovulation failure accounting for 20%, tubal damage accounting for 15%, and other causes accounting for the remaining 15%.

      When investigating infertility, there are some basic tests that can be done. These include a semen analysis and a serum progesterone test. The serum progesterone test is done 7 days prior to the expected next period, typically on day 21 for a 28-day cycle. The interpretation of the serum progesterone level is as follows: if it is less than 16 nmol/l, it should be repeated and if it remains consistently low, referral to a specialist is necessary. If the level is between 16-30 nmol/l, it should be repeated, and if it is greater than 30 nmol/l, it indicates ovulation.

      It is important to counsel patients on lifestyle factors that can impact fertility. This includes taking folic acid, maintaining a healthy BMI between 20-25, and advising regular sexual intercourse every 2 to 3 days. Additionally, patients should be advised to quit smoking and limit alcohol consumption to increase their chances of conceiving.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 95 - A 50-year-old woman with a history of alcoholic liver disease presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman with a history of alcoholic liver disease presents to the clinic with advanced cirrhosis and ascites. A recent ascitic tap revealed a protein concentration of 12 g/L and no evidence of organisms. What is the best course of action to manage the risk of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral ciprofloxacin

      Explanation:

      To prevent spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, it is recommended to administer oral ciprofloxacin or norfloxacin as prophylaxis to patients with ascites and protein concentration of 15 g/L or less.

      Understanding Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis

      Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) is a type of peritonitis that typically affects individuals with ascites caused by liver cirrhosis. The condition is characterized by symptoms such as abdominal pain, fever, and ascites. Diagnosis is usually made through paracentesis, which involves analyzing the ascitic fluid for a neutrophil count of over 250 cells/ul. The most common organism found on ascitic fluid culture is E. coli.

      Management of SBP typically involves the administration of intravenous cefotaxime. Antibiotic prophylaxis is also recommended for patients with ascites who have previously experienced an episode of SBP or have a fluid protein level of less than 15 g/l and a Child-Pugh score of at least 9 or hepatorenal syndrome. NICE recommends prophylactic oral ciprofloxacin or norfloxacin until the ascites has resolved.

      Alcoholic liver disease is a significant predictor of poor prognosis in SBP. Understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and management of SBP is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 96 - As a foundation year two doctor in the emergency department, you are tasked...

    Incorrect

    • As a foundation year two doctor in the emergency department, you are tasked to assess a twenty-six-year-old man who fell on his right ankle while intoxicated last night. According to the patient, he was able to bear weight after the incident and continued his night out. However, he woke up the next day with ankle swelling and pain. Upon examination, you observed minimal swelling and bruising, but there is general tenderness and good mobility. What imaging modality would you recommend for this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No imaging

      Explanation:

      The Ottowa ankle rules specify that imaging is necessary after trauma if there is point tenderness over the distal 6 cm of the lateral or medial malleolus, or an inability to bear weight by at least four steps immediately after the injury and in the emergency department. X-ray is the recommended first-line imaging. As this patient does not exhibit any of these indications, an x-ray is not needed.

      Ottawa Rules for Ankle Injuries

      The Ottawa Rules provide a guideline for determining whether an ankle x-ray is necessary after an injury. These rules have a sensitivity approaching 100%, meaning they are highly accurate. An ankle x-ray is only required if there is pain in the malleolar zone and one of the following findings: bony tenderness at the lateral malleolar zone or medial malleolar zone, or inability to walk four weight-bearing steps immediately after the injury and in the emergency department.

      The lateral malleolar zone is from the tip of the lateral malleolus to include the lower 6 cm of the posterior border of the fibular, while the medial malleolar zone is from the tip of the medial malleolus to the lower 6 cm of the posterior border of the tibia. These rules help healthcare professionals determine whether an ankle x-ray is necessary, which can save time and resources. It is important to note that there are also Ottawa rules available for foot and knee injuries. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can provide efficient and effective care for ankle injuries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 97 - A 32-year-old woman reports to her community midwife with complaints of failure to...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman reports to her community midwife with complaints of failure to lactate, lethargy, dizziness upon standing, and weight loss after a difficult childbirth complicated by placental abruption. What blood test results are expected?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Decreased cortisol; normal aldosterone

      Explanation:

      Interpreting Cortisol and Aldosterone Levels in Sheehan’s Syndrome

      Sheehan’s syndrome is a condition that results in hypopituitarism, causing reduced production of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) and secondary adrenal insufficiency. This can lead to decreased cortisol levels, which can cause postural hypotension. However, aldosterone levels remain normal as they are not dependent on pituitary function.

      In rare cases of adrenal adenoma, increased levels of both cortisol and aldosterone may occur, but this does not fit the clinical picture of Sheehan’s syndrome. Similarly, decreased levels of both cortisol and aldosterone would be indicative of primary adrenal insufficiency, which is not the case here.

      An unusual result would be increased cortisol levels with decreased aldosterone levels, which does not fit the clinical picture of hypocortisolism in Sheehan’s syndrome. Conversely, decreased cortisol levels with increased aldosterone levels would also be an unusual result, as aldosterone levels are not typically affected in Sheehan’s syndrome.

      Therefore, when interpreting cortisol and aldosterone levels in a patient with suspected Sheehan’s syndrome, it is important to consider the expected pattern of decreased cortisol levels with normal aldosterone levels.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 98 - A 25-year-old homeless man presents to the emergency department with altered consciousness and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old homeless man presents to the emergency department with altered consciousness and abdominal pain after being intoxicated a few hours prior. He has a history of alcohol and overdose admissions.

      On examination:
      A - Airway is clear.
      B - Respiratory rate is 34 breaths per minute with deep labored inspiration. Oxygen saturation is 100%.
      C - Heart rate is 124 beats per minute, blood pressure is 95/62 mmHg, and capillary refill is 4 seconds. Mucous membranes are dry.
      D - Glasgow Coma Scale score is 10.

      Lab results show a pH of 7.18 (normal range: 7.35-7.45), pCO2 of 4.3kPa (normal range: 4.5-6.0kPa), bicarbonate of 14 mmol/L (normal range: 22-28 mmol/L), glucose of 22.3mmol/L, and ketones of 4.5mmol/L.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diabetic ketoacidosis

      Explanation:

      Abdominal pain can be an initial symptom of DKA, which stands for diabetic ketoacidosis. In this particular case, a young man is showing signs of DKA, such as dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and a significantly elevated capillary glucose level. DKA patients lose around 5-8 liters of fluids, which require immediate correction. The diagnostic criteria for DKA include a pH level of less than 7.3 and/or bicarbonate level of less than 15mmol/L, blood glucose level of over 11mmol/L or known diabetes mellitus, and ketonaemia level of over 3mmol/L or significant ketonuria ++ on urine dipstick. Alcoholic ketoacidosis is not the correct diagnosis as it usually presents with low or normal glucose levels and occurs due to starvation. Hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state is also incorrect as it typically presents with marked hyperglycemia without ketoacidosis. Opioid overdose is not the correct diagnosis either as it usually presents with respiratory depression, pinpoint pupils, and a lowered GCS, while this patient has a raised respiratory rate and abnormal respirations consistent with Kussmaul respirations.

      Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of type 1 diabetes mellitus, accounting for around 6% of cases. It can also occur in rare cases of extreme stress in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. However, mortality rates have decreased from 8% to under 1% in the past 20 years. DKA is caused by uncontrolled lipolysis, resulting in an excess of free fatty acids that are ultimately converted to ketone bodies. The most common precipitating factors of DKA are infection, missed insulin doses, and myocardial infarction. Symptoms include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and acetone-smelling breath. Diagnostic criteria include glucose levels above 13.8 mmol/l, pH below 7.30, serum bicarbonate below 18 mmol/l, anion gap above 10, and ketonaemia.

      Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, insulin, and correction of electrolyte disturbance. Most patients with DKA are depleted around 5-8 litres, and isotonic saline is used initially, even if the patient is severely acidotic. Insulin is administered through an intravenous infusion, and correction of electrolyte disturbance is necessary. Long-acting insulin should be continued, while short-acting insulin should be stopped. DKA resolution is defined as pH above 7.3, blood ketones below 0.6 mmol/L, and bicarbonate above 15.0mmol/L. Complications may occur from DKA itself or the treatment, such as gastric stasis, thromboembolism, arrhythmias, acute respiratory distress syndrome, acute kidney injury, and cerebral oedema. Children and young adults are particularly vulnerable to cerebral oedema following fluid resuscitation in DKA and often need 1:1 nursing to monitor neuro-observations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 99 - A floppy four-week-old neonate presents with vomiting, weight loss and circulatory collapse. Blood...

    Incorrect

    • A floppy four-week-old neonate presents with vomiting, weight loss and circulatory collapse. Blood tests demonstrate hyponatraemia and hyperkalaemia. Further tests confirm metabolic acidosis and hypoglycaemia. The paediatrician notices that the penis was enlarged and the scrotum pigmented. The child was treated with both a glucocorticoid and a mineralocorticoid.
      What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

      Explanation:

      Endocrine Disorders: Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia, Conn Syndrome, Addisonian Crisis, Cushing Syndrome, and Thyrotoxic Crisis

      Endocrine disorders are conditions that affect the production and regulation of hormones in the body. Here are five different endocrine disorders and their characteristics:

      Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia (CAH) is a group of autosomal recessive conditions caused by mutations in the enzymes involved in the production of steroids and hormones from the adrenal glands. It can affect both men and women equally, and symptoms include ambiguous genitalia at birth for women and hyperpigmentation and penile enlargement for men. Treatment involves hormone replacement therapy.

      Conn Syndrome is a condition associated with primary hyperaldosteronism, which presents with hypernatraemia and hypokalaemia. It is more commonly seen in adult patients, but there are cases reported in childhood.

      Addisonian Crisis occurs due to glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid deficiency, usually occurring in adulthood. It is a potentially fatal episode that presents with hyponatraemia, hyperkalaemia, hypoglycaemia, and hypercalcaemia. Urgent intravenous administration of glucocorticoids is necessary for management.

      Cushing Syndrome is due to cortisol excess, either exogenous or endogenous, and is usually diagnosed in adulthood. Symptoms include weight gain, hypertension, oedema, hyperglycaemia, hypokalaemia, and pigmentation of the skin in the axillae and neck.

      Thyrotoxic Crisis, also known as a thyroid storm, is a life-threatening condition associated with excessive production of thyroid hormones. It can be the first presentation of undiagnosed hyperthyroidism in neonates and children. Symptoms include tachycardia, hypertension, fever, poor feeding, weight loss, diarrhoea, nausea, vomiting, seizures, and coma. Prompt treatment is necessary to prevent acute congestive heart failure, shock, and death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 100 - A 29-year-old female of Afro-Caribbean descent visits the oncology clinic after being referred...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old female of Afro-Caribbean descent visits the oncology clinic after being referred by her primary care physician. She has observed some painless, asymmetrical lymphadenopathy lumps on her neck. She reports experiencing more night sweats lately and has noticed some discomfort when consuming alcohol.
      What characteristic is linked to a negative prognosis for the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Night sweats

      Explanation:

      Experiencing fever above 38ºC and night sweats in the past 6 months is linked to a poor prognosis if at least one of these ‘B’ symptoms is present. While acute lymphoblastic leukemia has a worse prognosis in individuals of Afro-Caribbean descent, Hodgkin’s lymphoma does not typically present with bone marrow failure and is more common in children. Alcohol-induced pain may be present in some cases of Hodgkin’s lymphoma, but it does not indicate a poor prognosis. While female sex is not linked to a poor prognosis, some studies suggest that males may have a worse outcome. Asymmetrical lymphadenopathy is a characteristic of Hodgkin’s lymphoma but has not been associated with a worse prognosis.

      Understanding Hodgkin’s Lymphoma: Histological Classification and Prognosis

      Hodgkin’s lymphoma is a type of cancer that affects the lymphocytes and is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells. It is most commonly seen in individuals in their third and seventh decades of life. The histological classification of Hodgkin’s lymphoma is based on the type of cells present and their frequency. The most common type is nodular sclerosing, which is more common in women and has a good prognosis. Mixed cellularity is the second most common type and is associated with a large number of Reed-Sternberg cells. Lymphocyte predominant is a rare type with the best prognosis, while lymphocyte depleted is the rarest and has the worst prognosis.

      In addition to the histological classification, there are other factors that can affect the prognosis of Hodgkin’s lymphoma. The presence of B symptoms, such as weight loss, fever, and night sweats, is associated with a poor prognosis. Other factors identified in a 1998 NEJM paper include age over 45 years, stage IV disease, low hemoglobin levels, low lymphocyte count, male gender, low albumin levels, and high white blood cell count. Understanding the histological classification and prognosis of Hodgkin’s lymphoma can help guide treatment decisions and improve outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 101 - A 67-year-old woman presents to the Surgical Assessment Unit with mild abdominal pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman presents to the Surgical Assessment Unit with mild abdominal pain that has been occurring on and off for several weeks. However, the pain has now intensified, causing her to feel nauseated and lose her appetite. She has not had a bowel movement in three days and has not noticed any blood in her stool. Upon examination, her temperature is 38.2 °C, her heart rate is 110 beats per minute, and her blood pressure is 124/82 mmHg. Her abdomen is soft, but she experiences tenderness in the left lower quadrant. Bowel sounds are present but reduced, and rectal examination reveals tenderness only. She has no history of gastrointestinal problems and only sees her General Practitioner for osteoarthritis. She has not had a sexual partner since her husband passed away two years ago. Based on this information, what is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diverticulitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Diverticulitis and Other Bowel Conditions in Older Adults

      As people age, they may develop various conditions affecting their bowel health. One such condition is diverticulosis, which is characterized by the presence of diverticula in the colon. While most people with diverticulosis do not experience symptoms, some may develop diverticular disease, which can cause left lower quadrant abdominal pain that worsens after eating and improves after bowel movements. Diverticulitis, on the other hand, refers to inflammation of the diverticula, which can lead to fever and tachycardia. Risk factors for diverticular disease include low dietary fiber, obesity, and smoking. Complications of diverticulitis may include perforation, obstruction, or abscess formation.

      Another bowel condition that may affect older adults is inflammatory bowel disease, which is typically diagnosed in young adulthood but may also occur in people aged 50-70. Unlike diverticulosis, inflammatory bowel disease can cause symptoms such as diarrhea, rectal bleeding, and weight loss.

      When evaluating a patient with symptoms suggestive of bowel disease, it is important to consider other potential diagnoses, such as colorectal cancer and pelvic inflammatory disease. While the former may present with similar symptoms as diverticulitis, the latter is more common in women and may mimic gastrointestinal conditions.

      In summary, understanding the various bowel conditions that may affect older adults can help healthcare providers make accurate diagnoses and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 102 - A 28-year-old pregnant woman presents at 34 weeks gestation with a blood pressure...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old pregnant woman presents at 34 weeks gestation with a blood pressure reading of 175/105 mmHg and 3+ proteinuria. She is started on magnesium sulphate and labetalol. The patient reports decreased foetal movements. Upon examination, a cardiotocogram reveals late decelerations and a foetal heart rate of 90 beats/minute. What is the next course of action in managing this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Emergency caesarian section

      Explanation:

      Pre-eclampsia can be diagnosed based on the presence of high levels of protein in the urine and hypertension. To prevent the development of eclampsia, magnesium sulphate is administered, while labetalol is used to manage high blood pressure. If a cardiotocography (CTG) shows late decelerations and foetal bradycardia, this is a concerning sign and may necessitate an emergency caesarean section. Induction would not be recommended if the CTG is abnormal.

      Cardiotocography (CTG) is a medical procedure that measures pressure changes in the uterus using either internal or external pressure transducers. It is used to monitor the fetal heart rate, which normally ranges between 100-160 beats per minute. There are several features that can be observed during a CTG, including baseline bradycardia (heart rate below 100 beats per minute), which can be caused by increased fetal vagal tone or maternal beta-blocker use. Baseline tachycardia (heart rate above 160 beats per minute) can be caused by maternal pyrexia, chorioamnionitis, hypoxia, or prematurity. Loss of baseline variability (less than 5 beats per minute) can be caused by prematurity or hypoxia. Early deceleration, which is a decrease in heart rate that starts with the onset of a contraction and returns to normal after the contraction, is usually harmless and indicates head compression. Late deceleration, on the other hand, is a decrease in heart rate that lags behind the onset of a contraction and does not return to normal until after 30 seconds following the end of the contraction. This can indicate fetal distress, such as asphyxia or placental insufficiency. Variable decelerations, which are independent of contractions, may indicate cord compression.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 103 - A 45-year old woman became pregnant unexpectedly. She had given birth to five...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year old woman became pregnant unexpectedly. She had given birth to five healthy children in her 20s and 30s with her now 47-year-old husband. Chorionic villus biopsy and karyotype analysis revealed that she was carrying a fetus with trisomy 21 (Down syndrome).
      What is the most likely cause of the condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The mother’s age

      Explanation:

      Down syndrome is a genetic condition that is caused by three mechanisms. The most common cause is Trisomy 21, which occurs when there is a non-separation of the homologous chromosomes during meiosis. This risk increases with advancing maternal age, with a likelihood of 1 in 1500 at age 20 and 1 in 50 at age 45 or older. Translocation, where part of chromosome 21 attaches to another chromosome, accounts for about 4% of cases. Mosaicism, where only some cells carry the extra copy of chromosome 21, is the rarest type. Paternal age is not a significant factor, but if either parent is a translocation carrier, there is a 1 in 2 chance of passing it on to their offspring. A spontaneous mutation in the fetus is not a cause of Down syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 104 - A 75-year-old man with type II diabetes mellitus is admitted to hospital with...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man with type II diabetes mellitus is admitted to hospital with pain and swelling in the left ear and face. On examination, he is febrile, the external auditory canal is red, tender and swollen with green purulent discharge. The left side of the face is swollen, with tenderness over the left temporal bone. He has left-sided facial nerve palsy involving the forehead.
      What is the primary micro-organism most likely responsible for this infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pseudomonas aeruginosa

      Explanation:

      Bacterial Causes of Malignant Otitis Externa

      Malignant otitis externa is a serious infection that primarily affects patients with uncontrolled diabetes. The infection can spread to the temporal bone, causing osteomyelitis, cranial nerve palsies, and potentially central nervous system infection. The most common causative agent for this condition is Pseudomonas aeruginosa.

      Haemophilus influenzae is a Gram-negative coccobacillus that can cause various infections, including cellulitis, but it is not consistent with the symptoms of malignant otitis externa.

      Staphylococcus aureus, a commensal bacterium, can cause skin and soft-tissue infections, including malignant otitis externa. The characteristic signs and symptoms presented by the patient are more typical of this condition than cellulitis.

      Streptococcus pneumoniae is a common cause of pneumonia and meningitis, but it is not consistent with the symptoms of malignant otitis externa.

      Listeria monocytogenes is a rare cause of infection that primarily affects newborns, the elderly, and immunocompromised patients. It is not consistent with the clinical scenario provided.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 105 - A 55-year-old man presents to the General Practice with a 4-week history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents to the General Practice with a 4-week history of pain in his left hand and forearm. The pain is concentrated around the thumb and index finger and is worse at night. There is no history of trauma. Shaking his hand seems to provide some relief. The likely diagnosis conclusion is carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS).
      Which of the following would suggest an alternative diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wasting of the hypothenar eminence

      Explanation:

      Understanding Carpal Tunnel Syndrome: Symptoms and Examination Findings

      Carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS) is a condition caused by compression of the median nerve in the carpal tunnel. One of the symptoms of CTS is the wasting of the thenar eminence, which is innervated by the median nerve. It is important to note that the hypothenar eminence, which is innervated by the ulnar nerve, is not affected by CTS.

      During examination, weakness of thumb abduction (abductor pollicis brevis) is a common finding in CTS. Tapping along the problematic nerve causes paraesthesia, which is known as Tinel’s sign. Flexion of the wrist also causes symptoms, which is known as Phalen’s sign.

      Treatment for CTS may include a corticosteroid injection, wrist splints at night, and surgical decompression through flexor retinaculum division.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms and examination findings of CTS can help with early diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 106 - A 28-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents with a 3-month history of a non-productive cough,...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents with a 3-month history of a non-productive cough, dyspnoea and pleuritic chest pain, especially when climbing stairs. She reports intermittent fevers of up to 39°C and a 3.5-kg weight loss. She complains of wrist and ankle pain that has interfered with her work. She smokes two packets of cigarettes per day. Her full blood count is normal and serum ANA is negative. On examination there are red nodules over her lower legs.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sarcoidosis

      Explanation:

      Sarcoidosis is a condition where non-caseating granulomata develop in at least two organs, causing systemic inflammation. It is most common in African-Caribbean women and often affects the lungs, causing symptoms such as dry cough, dyspnea, and weight loss. Erythema nodosum is also frequently seen in patients with sarcoidosis. Histoplasmosis, Goodpasture’s syndrome, adenocarcinoma of the lung, and systemic lupus erythematosus are all possible differential diagnoses, but the absence of specific features makes sarcoidosis more likely in this case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 107 - You want to screen a 60-year-old patient for hepatitis B. What is the...

    Incorrect

    • You want to screen a 60-year-old patient for hepatitis B. What is the most appropriate test to conduct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: HBsAg

      Explanation:

      If the result of the anti-HBs test is positive, it means that the person is immune to hepatitis B either through vaccination or previous infection. On the other hand, a positive HBsAg test indicates that the person is currently infected with hepatitis B, either in its acute or chronic form.

      Interpreting hepatitis B serology is an important skill that is still tested in medical exams. It is crucial to keep in mind a few key points. The surface antigen (HBsAg) is the first marker to appear and triggers the production of anti-HBs. If HBsAg is present for more than six months, it indicates chronic disease, while its presence for one to six months implies acute disease. Anti-HBs indicates immunity, either through exposure or immunization, and is negative in chronic disease. Anti-HBc indicates previous or current infection, with IgM anti-HBc appearing during acute or recent hepatitis B infection and persisting IgG anti-HBc. HbeAg is a marker of infectivity and HBV replication.

      To illustrate, if someone has been previously immunized, their anti-HBs will be positive, while all other markers will be negative. If they had hepatitis B more than six months ago but are not a carrier, their anti-HBc will be positive, and HBsAg will be negative. However, if they are now a carrier, both anti-HBc and HBsAg will be positive. If HBsAg is present, it indicates an ongoing infection, either acute or chronic if present for more than six months. On the other hand, anti-HBc indicates that the person has caught the virus, and it will be negative if they have been immunized.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 108 - A 28-year-old woman visits her doctor concerned about her family's history of inherited...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman visits her doctor concerned about her family's history of inherited illnesses. Her grandmother experienced vision loss at the age of 70, while her mother began to have similar symptoms at the age of 50. What is the genetic mechanism responsible for the earlier age of onset in each generation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anticipation

      Explanation:

      Genetic Phenomena: Anticipation, Incomplete Penetrance, Genetic Imprinting, Mosaicism, and Translocation of a Chromosome

      Genetics is a complex field that involves the study of inherited traits and conditions. There are several genetic phenomena that can occur, each with its own unique characteristics and implications.

      Anticipation is a term used to describe inherited conditions that become more severe and have an earlier onset in subsequent generations. This is often associated with trinucleotide repeats of DNA bases, which can lead to an expansion of the repeat and an increase in severity.

      Incomplete penetrance refers to the likelihood of a condition being present in individuals with a certain trait. In some cases, only some people who inherit a certain trait will develop the associated condition, while others will not.

      Genetic imprinting involves the silencing of one copy of an allele, which can lead to conditions such as Angelman and Prader-Willi syndromes.

      Mosaicism is the presence of two cell lines with different genetic compositions within the same individual. This can occur in conditions such as mosaic trisomy 21.

      Translocation of a chromosome involves the exchange of genetic material between non-homologous chromosomes. This can lead to conditions such as chronic myeloid leukemia, which is associated with the Philadelphia chromosome resulting from a translocation between chromosomes 9 and 22.

      Understanding these genetic phenomena is important for diagnosing and treating inherited conditions, as well as for predicting the likelihood of certain conditions in future generations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 109 - A 55-year-old man is seen in the clinic for a follow-up appointment. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man is seen in the clinic for a follow-up appointment. He was prescribed ramipril two months ago for stage 2 hypertension, which was diagnosed after ambulatory blood pressure monitoring. His clinic readings have improved from 164/96 mmHg to 142/84 mmHg. However, he has been experiencing a persistent, dry cough for the past four weeks. What would be the best course of action to take in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop ramipril and start losartan

      Explanation:

      When ACE inhibitors are not well-tolerated, angiotensin-receptor blockers are recommended.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 110 - A 26-year-old male with no significant medical history is brought to the operating...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old male with no significant medical history is brought to the operating room for an emergency appendectomy. He is induced with sevoflurane and maintained on sevoflurane and propofol. Suddenly, an alert on the anesthesia machine pops up, indicating elevated end-tidal CO2. The patient's condition appears to have worsened, with skin mottling and excessive sweating.

      What could be the probable cause of this sudden change in the patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Malignant hyperthermia

      Explanation:

      Volatile liquid anaesthetics (isoflurane, desflurane, sevoflurane) can cause malignant hyperthermia, a rare genetic disorder that causes skeletal muscle to contract rapidly and can lead to acidosis, increased CO2, and elevated body temperature. This is the likely cause of the patient’s acute deterioration after receiving sevoflurane. Other potential causes, such as cardiac arrest, endobronchial intubation, normal anion gap metabolic acidosis, and spontaneous appendix perforation, do not explain the specific symptoms observed.

      Overview of General Anaesthetics

      General anaesthetics are drugs used to induce a state of unconsciousness in patients undergoing surgical procedures. There are two main types of general anaesthetics: inhaled and intravenous. Inhaled anaesthetics, such as isoflurane, desflurane, sevoflurane, and nitrous oxide, are administered through inhalation. These drugs work by acting on various receptors in the brain, including GABAA, glycine, NDMA, nACh, and 5-HT3 receptors. Inhaled anaesthetics can cause adverse effects such as myocardial depression, malignant hyperthermia, and hepatotoxicity.

      Intravenous anaesthetics, such as propofol, thiopental, etomidate, and ketamine, are administered through injection. These drugs work by potentiating GABAA receptors or blocking NDMA receptors. Intravenous anaesthetics can cause adverse effects such as pain on injection, hypotension, laryngospasm, myoclonus, and disorientation. However, they are often preferred over inhaled anaesthetics in cases of haemodynamic instability.

      It is important to note that the exact mechanism of action of general anaesthetics is not fully understood. Additionally, the choice of anaesthetic depends on various factors such as the patient’s medical history, the type of surgery, and the anaesthetist’s preference. Overall, general anaesthetics play a crucial role in modern medicine by allowing for safe and painless surgical procedures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 111 - A 25-year-old is diagnosed with an ectopic pregnancy at 8 weeks gestation and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old is diagnosed with an ectopic pregnancy at 8 weeks gestation and undergoes a salpingectomy. She is also rhesus negative. What is the advice regarding anti-D?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anti-D should be given

      Explanation:

      When managing an ectopic pregnancy through surgery, it is necessary to administer Anti-D immunoglobulin. However, if the ectopic pregnancy is being treated medically or if the location of the pregnancy is unknown, Anti-D is not needed. The Coombs test has two types: Direct Coombs, which is used to detect autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, and Indirect Coombs, which is used during pregnancy to identify antibodies in the mother’s blood that can cause haemolytic disease in the newborn.

      Rhesus negative pregnancies can lead to the formation of anti-D IgG antibodies in the mother if she delivers a Rh +ve child, which can cause haemolysis in future pregnancies. Prevention involves testing for D antibodies and giving anti-D prophylaxis to non-sensitised Rh -ve mothers at 28 and 34 weeks. Anti-D immunoglobulin should be given within 72 hours in various situations. Tests should be done on all babies born to Rh -ve mothers, and affected fetuses may experience various complications and require treatment such as transfusions and UV phototherapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 112 - Which one of the following statements regarding the HPV vaccine is incorrect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding the HPV vaccine is incorrect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Children who received another live vaccine 2 weeks ago can safely have MMR

      Explanation:

      The MMR Vaccine: Information on Contraindications and Adverse Effects

      The Measles, Mumps and Rubella (MMR) vaccine is given to children in the UK twice before they enter primary school. The first dose is administered at 12-15 months, while the second dose is given at 3-4 years old. This vaccine is part of the routine immunisation schedule.

      However, there are certain contraindications to the MMR vaccine. Children with severe immunosuppression, allergies to neomycin, or those who have received another live vaccine by injection within four weeks should not receive the MMR vaccine. Pregnant women should also avoid getting vaccinated for at least one month following the MMR vaccine. Additionally, if a child has undergone immunoglobulin therapy within the past three months, there may be no immune response to the measles vaccine if antibodies are present.

      While the MMR vaccine is generally safe, there are some adverse effects that may occur. After the first dose of the vaccine, some children may experience malaise, fever, and rash. These symptoms typically occur after 5-10 days and last for around 2-3 days. It is important to be aware of these potential side effects and to consult with a healthcare professional if any concerns arise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 113 - Liam is a 30-year-old software engineer who has been admitted to the hospital...

    Incorrect

    • Liam is a 30-year-old software engineer who has been admitted to the hospital due to a relapse of his schizophrenia. He has been detained under section 3 of the Mental Health Act for 2 weeks after refusing to take his medication.

      The consultant psychiatrist suggests starting Liam on risperidone, but during the team meeting, Liam was informed of the potential risks and benefits of the medication and decided he does not want to take it. The team believes that Liam has the capacity to make this decision, but they also feel that he needs treatment with an antipsychotic to reduce the risk to himself and others.

      What is the most appropriate course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rosie can be treated against her will under section 3, even if she has capacity

      Explanation:

      If a patient is under section 2 or 3, treatment can be administered even if they refuse it. Patients who are detained under section 3 can be treated against their will, regardless of their capacity. However, after three months, if the patient still refuses treatment, an impartial psychiatrist must review the proposed medication and agree with the treating team’s plan. The Mental Health Act takes precedence over the Mental Capacity Act, so a best interests meeting is not necessary. The treating team must consider the patient’s best interests, and in this case, they believe that medication is necessary for Rosie’s mental health. While benzodiazepines can alleviate agitation and distress, they are unlikely to improve her psychotic symptoms, so they are not a suitable option. If Rosie continues to refuse treatment after three months under section 3, a second opinion will be required.

      Sectioning under the Mental Health Act is a legal process used for individuals who refuse voluntary admission. This process excludes patients who are under the influence of drugs or alcohol. There are several sections under the Mental Health Act that allow for different types of admission and treatment.

      Section 2 allows for admission for assessment for up to 28 days, which is not renewable. An Approved Mental Health Professional (AMHP) or the nearest relative (NR) can make the application on the recommendation of two doctors, one of whom should be an approved consultant psychiatrist. Treatment can be given against the patient’s wishes.

      Section 3 allows for admission for treatment for up to 6 months, which can be renewed. An AMHP and two doctors, both of whom must have seen the patient within the past 24 hours, can make the application. Treatment can also be given against the patient’s wishes.

      Section 4 is used as an emergency 72-hour assessment order when a section 2 would involve an unacceptable delay. A GP and an AMHP or NR can make the application, which is often changed to a section 2 upon arrival at the hospital.

      Section 5(2) allows a doctor to legally detain a voluntary patient in hospital for 72 hours, while section 5(4) allows a nurse to detain a voluntary patient for 6 hours.

      Section 17a allows for Supervised Community Treatment (Community Treatment Order) and can be used to recall a patient to the hospital for treatment if they do not comply with the conditions of the order in the community, such as taking medication.

      Section 135 allows for a court order to be obtained to allow the police to break into a property to remove a person to a Place of Safety. Section 136 allows for someone found in a public place who appears to have a mental disorder to be taken by the police to a Place of Safety. This section can only be used for up to 24 hours while a Mental Health Act assessment is arranged.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 114 - You assess a 10-month-old infant with parents of Jamaican descent. The parents have...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 10-month-old infant with parents of Jamaican descent. The parents have observed a minor bulge near the belly button. The child is healthy and falls on the 50th percentile. During the examination, you observe a small umbilical hernia that is less than 1 cm in size and can be reduced. What is the best course of action for this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Reassure the parents that the vast majority resolve by the age of 4-5 years

      Explanation:

      Abdominal wall hernias occur when an organ or the fascia of an organ protrudes through the wall of the cavity that normally contains it. Risk factors for developing these hernias include obesity, ascites, increasing age, and surgical wounds. Symptoms of abdominal wall hernias include a palpable lump, cough impulse, pain, obstruction (more common in femoral hernias), and strangulation (which can compromise the bowel blood supply and lead to infarction). There are several types of abdominal wall hernias, including inguinal hernias (which account for 75% of cases and are more common in men), femoral hernias (more common in women and have a high risk of obstruction and strangulation), umbilical hernias (symmetrical bulge under the umbilicus), paraumbilical hernias (asymmetrical bulge), epigastric hernias (lump in the midline between umbilicus and xiphisternum), incisional hernias (which may occur after abdominal surgery), Spigelian hernias (rare and seen in older patients), obturator hernias (more common in females and can cause bowel obstruction), and Richter hernias (a rare type of hernia that can present with strangulation without symptoms of obstruction). In children, congenital inguinal hernias and infantile umbilical hernias are the most common types, with surgical repair recommended for the former and most resolving on their own for the latter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 115 - A woman in her early 50s with a history of rheumatoid arthritis presents...

    Incorrect

    • A woman in her early 50s with a history of rheumatoid arthritis presents with right foot drop and numbness in her right hand, with thenar eminence wasting and sensory loss over the radial half of her hand.
      Which of the following is the most likely cause for her symptoms?
      Select the SINGLE most appropriate cause from the list below.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mononeuritis multiplex

      Explanation:

      Neuropathies: Causes and Symptoms

      Neuropathies are a group of disorders that affect the peripheral nervous system. Here are some common causes and symptoms of different types of neuropathies:

      Mononeuritis Multiplex:
      This neuropathy affects two or more non-anatomically related peripheral nerves. It is caused by vasculopathy of the vasa nervorum or infiltration of the nerves. Common causes include diabetes mellitus, leprosy, polyarteritis nodosa, and rheumatoid arthritis. Symptoms include multiple concurrent peripheral nerve lesions without pain or paraesthesiae.

      Peripheral Sensory Neuropathy:
      This neuropathy is most commonly caused by diabetes mellitus (types 1 and 2) in the United Kingdom. It affects the sensory nerves and does not involve motor functions. Symptoms include aching pain, paraesthesiae, sensory loss, and muscle wasting.

      Entrapment Neuropathy:
      This neuropathy is caused by compression of peripheral nerves due to hypertrophied synovium or joint subluxation. It usually affects only one part of the body. The most common nerve compressions are cubital tunnel and carpal tunnel syndromes. Symptoms include aching pain, paraesthesiae, sensory loss, and muscle wasting.

      Myasthenia Gravis (MG):
      This autoimmune disorder affects the neuromuscular junction and causes fatigability of the muscle. It commonly affects the extraocular, bulbar, face, and neck muscles. Symptoms do not include pain or sensory loss, and wasting is only seen very late in the disease.

      Multiple Sclerosis:
      This autoimmune disorder affects the central nervous system and causes spasticity, ataxia, and paraesthesiae in the affected limbs. It commonly affects the optic nerve, causing optic neuritis. Peripheral nerve involvement is not seen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 116 - A 70-year-old patient was discovered to have an abdominal aortic aneurysm during a...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old patient was discovered to have an abdominal aortic aneurysm during a routine medical check-up. The patient is currently receiving treatment for hypertension and high cholesterol but is otherwise healthy and medically capable. The aneurysm was infra-renal and had a diameter of 4.9 cm.
      What is the best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound scan every three months

      Explanation:

      Screening and Management of Abdominal Aortic Aneurysms

      Abdominal aortic aneurysms (AAAs) are screened for initially by an ultrasound scan of the abdomen. Men are invited for an initial ultrasound during the year of their 65th birthday, while women are not routinely screened as AAA is predominantly found in men.

      If the initial scan shows an AAA of less than 3 cm, patients are discharged. If it is between 3 and 4.4 cm, they are invited back for yearly screening. If it is between 4.5 and 5.4 cm, patients receive an ultrasound scan every three months. If the aneurysm is above 5.5 cm, patients are referred to a vascular surgeon for consideration for repair.

      Elective surgery is recommended for aneurysms larger than 5.5 cm in diameter or those that are growing rapidly, as clinical trials have shown that the risk of rupture is increased when the aneurysm is larger than 5.5 cm. Immediate surgery is only performed on those aneurysms that are leaking or ruptured.

      Surveillance is required to ensure the aneurysm remains below 5.5 cm. Patients with an aneurysm over 4.5 cm require an ultrasound scan every three months. Once the aneurysm reaches 5.5 cm, patients are referred for consideration of elective surgery.

      Managing Abdominal Aortic Aneurysms: Screening and Treatment Guidelines

      Abdominal aortic aneurysms (AAAs) are a serious health concern that require careful management. This article outlines the screening and treatment guidelines for AAAs.

      Screening for AAAs is done initially by an ultrasound scan of the abdomen. Men are invited for an initial ultrasound during the year of their 65th birthday, while women are not routinely screened. Patients with an AAA less than 3 cm are discharged, while those with an AAA between 3 and 4.4 cm are invited back for yearly screening. Patients with an AAA between 4.5 and 5.4 cm require an ultrasound scan every three months, while those with an AAA over 5.5 cm are referred to a vascular surgeon for consideration of elective surgery.

      Elective surgery is recommended for aneurysms larger than 5.5 cm in diameter or those that are growing rapidly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 117 - A 5-year-old girl presents to the Emergency Department with a two-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 5-year-old girl presents to the Emergency Department with a two-day history of diarrhoea and vomiting. She has drunk only small amounts and is becoming more lethargic. She has opened her bowels five times but has only passed urine once today. She is usually fit and well. Her 7-year-old sister was unwell with the same symptoms a few days before but has since recovered well.
      On examination, she appears restless with sunken eyes, dry mucous membranes and capillary refill time (CRT) of 2 seconds, and she is tachycardic with a pulse of 150 beats per minute.
      What would be your assessment of her clinical fluid status?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clinical dehydration

      Explanation:

      Understanding Dehydration in Children: Symptoms and Management

      Dehydration is a common concern in children, especially when they are suffering from illnesses like gastroenteritis. It is important to recognize the different levels of dehydration and manage them accordingly.

      Clinical dehydration is characterized by symptoms such as restlessness and decreased urine output. Signs of clinical dehydration include irritability, sunken eyes, dry mucous membranes, tachycardia, and normal capillary refill time (CRT).

      Children with no clinically detectable dehydration do not show any signs or symptoms of dehydration and can be managed with oral fluids until the illness subsides.

      Clinical shock is a severe form of dehydration that requires immediate medical attention. Symptoms of clinical shock include a decreased level of consciousness, pale or mottled skin, cold extremities, tachycardia, tachypnea, hypotension, weak peripheral pulses, and a prolonged CRT. Children with clinical shock require admission and rehydration with intravenous fluids and electrolyte supplementation.

      A euvolemic child, on the other hand, has a normal general appearance, normal eyes, a moist tongue, and present tears. They have a normal CRT and are not tachycardic.

      It is important to recognize the signs and symptoms of dehydration in children and manage it accordingly to prevent further complications. Fluid overload is also a concern, but in cases of gastroenteritis-induced dehydration, rehydration is necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 118 - A 56-year-old man is admitted to the Emergency Department. His wife reports that...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old man is admitted to the Emergency Department. His wife reports that he has been experiencing worsening confusion for approximately one week. Upon examination, there are evident indications of chronic liver disease, along with nystagmus and cerebellar ataxia. The patient appears highly confused. His liver function tests (LFTs) are normal except for elevated gamma-glutamyl transferase (GGT), a full blood count reveals macrocytosis, and blood glucose levels are normal. What is the most appropriate diagnosis for this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wernicke encephalopathy (WE)

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Confusion in a Patient with Alcohol Misuse

      Wernicke Encephalopathy (WE), caused by thiamine deficiency and commonly associated with chronic alcoholism, is a serious neurological disorder that presents with a classic triad of ocular findings, cerebellar dysfunction, and confusion. Rapid correction of brain thiamine deficiency is crucial, and treatment is initially administered parenterally. Neurological dysfunction, especially memory and learning impairment, can persist even after treatment, leading to Korsakoff syndrome.

      Subdural hematoma, more common in individuals who misuse alcohol, is an important differential diagnosis in cases of acute confusion. However, a history of head injury, even minor, and a headache with or without vomiting are typically present. Acute hematomas present soon after the injury, while chronic hematomas may not present until 2-3 weeks after the trauma.

      Acute alcohol poisoning is unlikely in a patient with worsening confusion over the past week. Sudden onset of confusion following an alcohol binge that improves with abstinence is expected.

      Hepatic encephalopathy, a spectrum that develops in patients with advanced liver disease, may present with a change in personality, short-term memory loss, or reduced level of consciousness. However, cerebellar signs such as nystagmus and ataxia are not associated with this condition.

      Delirium tremens, a rapid onset of confusion as a result of alcohol withdrawal, typically appears three days after abstinence from alcohol and may include visual hallucinations, acute confusion, and tremor. If untreated, seizures may occur. However, the presence of nystagmus and ataxia in this case makes WE the more likely diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 119 - An 80-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by ambulance due to...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman is brought to the emergency department by ambulance due to right-sided limb weakness, facial droop, and slurred speech. A CT head scan shows a left-sided infarct but no haemorrhage. Her admission ECG reveals new atrial fibrillation (AF). Aspirin 300mg is given for the acute stroke, and she is recovering well on the ward. After two weeks, what medication should be initiated to lower the risk of future strokes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Warfarin or a direct thrombin or factor Xa inhibitor

      Explanation:

      For patients with AF who have experienced a stroke or TIA, the recommended anticoagulant is warfarin or a direct thrombin or factor Xa inhibitor. Aspirin/dipyridamole should only be used if necessary for the treatment of other conditions, which is not the case in this scenario. Clopidogrel is typically prescribed for TIA patients without AF, but in this case, the patient had a stroke and would require long-term treatment with a different medication.

      Managing Atrial Fibrillation Post-Stroke

      Atrial fibrillation is a significant risk factor for ischaemic stroke, making it crucial to identify and treat the condition in patients who have suffered a stroke or transient ischaemic attack (TIA). However, before starting any anticoagulation or antiplatelet therapy, it is important to rule out haemorrhage. For long-term stroke prevention, NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend warfarin or a direct thrombin or factor Xa inhibitor. The timing of when to start treatment depends on whether it is a TIA or stroke. In the case of a TIA, anticoagulation for AF should begin immediately after imaging has excluded haemorrhage. For acute stroke patients, anticoagulation therapy should be initiated after two weeks in the absence of haemorrhage. Antiplatelet therapy should be given during the intervening period. However, if imaging shows a very large cerebral infarction, the initiation of anticoagulation should be delayed.

      Overall, managing atrial fibrillation post-stroke requires careful consideration of the patient’s individual circumstances and imaging results. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can help prevent future strokes and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 120 - A 72-year-old male presents with weight loss and heat intolerance. He is taking...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old male presents with weight loss and heat intolerance. He is taking multiple medications for atrial fibrillation, ischaemic heart disease and rheumatoid arthritis. Thyroid function tests are requested and the results are shown in the table below:
      Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 0.2 mU/L
      Free T4 35 pmol/L
      What is the most likely cause of these findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amiodarone

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone and Thyroid Dysfunction

      Amiodarone is a medication used to treat heart rhythm disorders. However, around 1 in 6 patients taking amiodarone develop thyroid dysfunction. This can manifest as either amiodarone-induced hypothyroidism (AIH) or amiodarone-induced thyrotoxicosis (AIT).

      The pathophysiology of AIH is thought to be due to the high iodine content of amiodarone causing a Wolff-Chaikoff effect. This is an autoregulatory phenomenon where thyroxine formation is inhibited due to high levels of circulating iodide. Despite this, amiodarone may be continued if desirable.

      On the other hand, AIT may be divided into two types: type 1 and type 2. Type 1 is caused by excess iodine-induced thyroid hormone synthesis, while type 2 is caused by amiodarone-related destructive thyroiditis. In patients with AIT, amiodarone should be stopped if possible.

      It is important for healthcare professionals to monitor patients taking amiodarone for any signs of thyroid dysfunction and adjust treatment accordingly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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  • Question 121 - A 47-year-old obese man complains of fatigue and excessive thirst. What is the...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old obese man complains of fatigue and excessive thirst. What is the lowest HbA1c level that can confirm the diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 6.5% (48 mmol/mol)

      Explanation:

      Type 2 diabetes mellitus can be diagnosed through a plasma glucose or HbA1c sample. The diagnostic criteria vary depending on whether the patient is experiencing symptoms or not. If the patient is symptomatic, a fasting glucose level of 7.0 mmol/l or higher or a random glucose level of 11.1 mmol/l or higher (or after a 75g oral glucose tolerance test) indicates diabetes. If the patient is asymptomatic, the same criteria apply but must be demonstrated on two separate occasions.

      In 2011, the World Health Organization released supplementary guidance on the use of HbA1c for diagnosing diabetes. A HbA1c level of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or higher is diagnostic of diabetes mellitus. However, a HbA1c value of less than 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) does not exclude diabetes and may not be as sensitive as fasting samples for detecting diabetes. For patients without symptoms, the test must be repeated to confirm the diagnosis. It is important to note that increased red cell turnover can cause misleading HbA1c results.

      There are certain conditions where HbA1c cannot be used for diagnosis, such as haemoglobinopathies, haemolytic anaemia, untreated iron deficiency anaemia, suspected gestational diabetes, children, HIV, chronic kidney disease, and people taking medication that may cause hyperglycaemia (such as corticosteroids).

      Impaired fasting glucose (IFG) is defined as a fasting glucose level of 6.1 mmol/l or higher but less than 7.0 mmol/l. Impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) is defined as a fasting plasma glucose level less than 7.0 mmol/l and an OGTT 2-hour value of 7.8 mmol/l or higher but less than 11.1 mmol/l. People with IFG should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test to rule out a diagnosis of diabetes. A result below 11.1 mmol/l but above 7.8 mmol/l indicates that the person does not have diabetes but does have IGT.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 122 - A 65-year-old male with a history of COPD and hypertension complains of pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male with a history of COPD and hypertension complains of pain while swallowing. The patient is currently taking a salbutamol and beclomethasone inhaler, bendroflumethiazide, and amlodipine. What could be the possible reason for this symptom?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oesophageal candidiasis

      Explanation:

      Oesophageal candidiasis, a known complication of inhaled steroid therapy, often presents with pain while swallowing (odynophagia).

      Understanding Dysphagia and its Causes

      Dysphagia, or difficulty in swallowing, can be caused by various conditions affecting the esophagus, such as oesophageal cancer, oesophagitis, oesophageal candidiasis, achalasia, pharyngeal pouch, systemic sclerosis, and myasthenia gravis. Each condition has its own characteristic features, which can help in identifying the underlying cause of dysphagia. For instance, dysphagia associated with weight loss, anorexia, or vomiting during eating may indicate oesophageal cancer, while dysphagia of both liquids and solids from the start may suggest achalasia.

      To determine the cause of dysphagia, patients usually undergo an upper GI endoscopy, which allows doctors to examine the esophagus and detect any abnormalities. Fluoroscopic swallowing studies may also be done to evaluate motility disorders. Additionally, a full blood count and ambulatory oesophageal pH and manometry studies may be required for certain conditions.

      It’s important to note that new-onset dysphagia is a red flag symptom that requires urgent endoscopy, regardless of age or other symptoms. Therefore, understanding the different causes of dysphagia and their characteristic features can aid in prompt diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 123 - An 18-year-old woman who is sexually active presents to her General Practitioner (GP)...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old woman who is sexually active presents to her General Practitioner (GP) complaining of dysuria and abdominal pain. A urine dipstick test is positive for leukocytes and a pregnancy test is negative. The GP prescribes a course of trimethoprim, but the patient returns one week later with persistent symptoms. Despite negative results from a high vaginal swab and urine culture taken during the first visit, what is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of a Female Patient with Dysuria and Abdominal Pain

      A female patient presents with dysuria and abdominal pain, but a negative urine culture and lack of response to trimethoprim suggest an alternative diagnosis to urinary tract infection. Here are some possible differential diagnoses:

      Chlamydia trachomatis: This sexually transmitted micro-organism can cause cervicitis, salpingitis, endometritis, and urethritis. Many carriers are asymptomatic, but nucleic acid amplification can diagnose the infection from a urine sample, endocervical or vulvovaginal swab.

      Trichomonas vaginalis: This protozoan causes trichomoniasis, a sexually transmitted infection that commonly presents with abnormal vaginal discharge, odour, itching, burning, soreness, and dyspareunia. Abdominal pain and dysuria are not typical symptoms.

      Escherichia coli: This bacterium is the most common cause of uncomplicated UTIs, but negative urine cultures and trimethoprim resistance suggest an alternative diagnosis.

      Candida albicans: This fungus can cause vulvovaginal thrush, which may present with dysuria and vulval pruritus, but not abdominal pain. A high vaginal swab can diagnose the infection.

      Bacterial vaginosis: This overgrowth of bacteria in the vagina affects vaginal pH and causes a fishy smelling discharge, but not abdominal pain or dysuria. A high vaginal swab can diagnose the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 124 - A 20-year-old young woman presents with a 4-day history of cough, headache, fever...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old young woman presents with a 4-day history of cough, headache, fever and joint pains. Blood tests show the presence of raised antibody titres and the presence of cold agglutinins. A diagnosis of Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection is made.
      Which of the following drugs would you prescribe as first-line treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      The British Thoracic Society recommends using macrolide antibiotics like clarithromycin or erythromycin as empirical treatment for community-acquired pneumonia in both children and adults if first-line β-lactam antibiotics are ineffective or in cases of severe disease. Atypical infections are often diagnosed late in the illness, making early targeted therapy difficult. M. pneumoniae pneumonia tends to occur in outbreaks in the UK, so being aware of these outbreaks can help guide treatment. Benzylpenicillin is used to treat various infections, including throat infections, otitis media, and cellulitis. Cefuroxime is a broad-spectrum antibiotic used to treat susceptible infections caused by both Gram-positive and Gram-negative bacteria, including respiratory tract infections, Lyme disease, and urinary tract infections. Rifampicin is used in combination with other drugs to treat brucellosis, Legionnaires’ disease, serious staphylococcal infections, endocarditis, and tuberculosis. Co-trimoxazole is used to treat Pneumocystis jirovecii pneumonia and can be administered orally for mild-to-moderate pneumonia or intravenously in dual therapy with steroids for severe pneumonia. It can also be used for PCP prophylaxis in HIV-positive patients, with primary prophylaxis recommended for those with a CD4 count of <£200 and secondary prophylaxis essential after the first infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 125 - A 23-year-old man presents to his general practitioner (GP) with a nodular rash...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old man presents to his general practitioner (GP) with a nodular rash over his shins, which was dusky blue in appearance at first but has now faded to a bruise-like appearance. His past history of note includes intermittent diarrhoea, occasionally with blood. There is no other past history of note. On examination, there is minor tenderness on the left side of his abdomen, and proctoscopy reveals moderate inflammation of the rectum. Blood testing reveals a raised C-reactive protein (CRP) level and normochromic/normocytic anaemia.
      Which diagnosis best fits this clinical picture?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ulcerative colitis (UC)

      Explanation:

      Erythema Nodosum and its Association with Various Diseases

      Erythema nodosum is a skin condition characterized by painful, red nodules on the legs. It can be associated with various underlying diseases. In patients with ulcerative colitis, erythema nodosum is a common extraintestinal manifestation, along with uveitis, primary sclerosing cholangitis, ankylosing spondylitis, and pyoderma gangrenosum. However, sarcoidosis, tuberculosis, and mycoplasma infection can also cause erythema nodosum. It is important to consider the patient’s clinical presentation and other symptoms to determine the underlying cause. In this case, the patient’s gastrointestinal symptoms suggest inflammatory bowel disease, specifically ulcerative colitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 126 - A 25-year-old woman presents to her GP with recurrent, foul-smelling discharge from her...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to her GP with recurrent, foul-smelling discharge from her right ear and decreased hearing on that side. She has been experiencing these episodes every few months, but now notices the discharge on most days. During childhood, she frequently swam and had grommet insertion for glue ear, which fell out when she was around 10 years old. She has no significant medical history and takes only the combined oral contraceptive pill.

      After conducting hearing tests, the following results were obtained:
      - Rinne's test (right side): bone conduction > air conduction
      - Rinne's test (left side): air conduction > bone conduction
      - Weber's test: lateralisation to the right

      What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cholesteatoma

      Explanation:

      The patient is experiencing a conductive hearing loss on the right side, as evidenced by Rinne’s test showing bone conduction > air conduction in the affected ear and Weber’s test lateralizing to the right ear. The most likely diagnosis is cholesteatoma, which is associated with recurrent ear discharge and glue ear. Cholesteatoma occurs when squamous epithelium forms pockets on the tympanic membrane, leading to cyst-like growths that produce keratin and slough over time. This causes erosion in the middle ear, creating an environment for anaerobic bacterial growth.

      Acoustic neuroma, on the other hand, causes sensorineural hearing loss, which is characterized by air conduction > bone conduction in both ears and Weber test lateralizing to the unaffected ear. It is associated with dizziness and typically causes unilateral hearing loss. As the tumor grows, patients may develop neurological symptoms that can be predicted by the affected cranial nerves.

      Otitis externa is an acute infection of the outer ear that can cause conductive hearing loss, but as the patient has a chronic history and lacks ear pain, this diagnosis is less likely. Otosclerosis, which presents with progressive conductive hearing loss and tinnitus, is an autosomal dominant trait that typically affects individuals aged 20-40 years with a family history of early-onset hearing loss. As it does not typically present with smelly ear discharge, other diagnoses should be considered first.

      Rinne’s and Weber’s Test for Differentiating Conductive and Sensorineural Deafness

      Rinne’s and Weber’s tests are two diagnostic tools used to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural deafness. Rinne’s test involves placing a tuning fork over the mastoid process until the sound is no longer heard, then repositioning it just over the external acoustic meatus. A positive test indicates that air conduction (AC) is better than bone conduction (BC), while a negative test suggests conductive deafness if BC is greater than AC.

      On the other hand, Weber’s test involves placing a tuning fork in the middle of the forehead equidistant from the patient’s ears and asking which side is loudest. In unilateral sensorineural deafness, sound is localized to the unaffected side, while in unilateral conductive deafness, sound is localized to the affected side.

      To interpret the results of Rinne’s and Weber’s tests, a normal result indicates that AC is greater than BC bilaterally, and the sound is midline in Weber’s test. Conductive hearing loss is indicated by BC being greater than AC in the affected ear, while AC is greater than BC in the unaffected ear, and the sound lateralizes to the affected ear in Weber’s test. Sensorineural hearing loss is indicated by AC being greater than BC bilaterally, and the sound lateralizes to the unaffected ear in Weber’s test.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
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  • Question 127 - A 54-year-old man with a history of untreated hypertension had a heart attack...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man with a history of untreated hypertension had a heart attack and received coronary stenting. He was prescribed multiple medications and his blood test results showed:
      Na+ 140 mmol/l
      K+ 6.2 mmol/l
      Which of the following antihypertensive drugs could be causing this result?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Enalapril

      Explanation:

      Hyperkalaemia is caused by ACE inhibitor.

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. These inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and for secondary prevention of ischaemic heart disease. The mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors is to inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. They are metabolized in the liver through phase 1 metabolism.

      ACE inhibitors may cause side effects such as cough, which occurs in around 15% of patients and may occur up to a year after starting treatment. This is thought to be due to increased bradykinin levels. Angioedema may also occur up to a year after starting treatment. Hyperkalaemia and first-dose hypotension are other potential side effects, especially in patients taking diuretics. ACE inhibitors should be avoided during pregnancy and breastfeeding, and caution should be exercised in patients with renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema.

      Patients receiving high-dose diuretic therapy (more than 80 mg of furosemide a day) are at an increased risk of hypotension when taking ACE inhibitors. Before initiating treatment, urea and electrolytes should be checked, and after increasing the dose, a rise in creatinine and potassium may be expected. Acceptable changes include an increase in serum creatinine up to 30% from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment. The current NICE guidelines provide a flow chart for the management of hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 128 - You see a 56-year-old man with a 5-year history of back pain following...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 56-year-old man with a 5-year history of back pain following a work-related injury. He has presented to the clinic due to poor control of his pain. He is experiencing shooting pains down his legs with an associated burning sensation.

      Despite intensive physiotherapy, his pain is still poorly controlled and requiring full dose codeine and paracetamol which is failing to control the pain.

      His MRI was normal and he has been discharged by the spinal team due to no operable cause identified for his pain.

      You're asked to review him due to ongoing pain. The nursing team has asked if he can have morphine sulfate prescribed as required to help with this. He was started by his general practitioner 3 months previously on amitriptyline which he hasn't found of any benefit.

      You decide rather than just prescribing morphine that you can try to adjust his chronic pain management as well.

      Which of the following options would be best for the management of his chronic pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop amitriptyline and start duloxetine

      Explanation:

      When it comes to managing chronic pain, drugs for neuropathic pain are typically used alone. If they are not effective, it is recommended to switch to a different drug rather than adding another one. This question may also bring attention to poorly controlled acute pain, but it is important to note that morphine sulfate is not ideal for chronic pain management due to its potential side effects, dependence, and worsening of chronic pain. Tramadol is a better option for managing breakthrough pain in neuropathic pain patients, but it does not change the overall management of chronic pain. The recommended drugs for neuropathic pain include duloxetine, gabapentinoids, and amitriptyline (a tricyclic antidepressant).

      Understanding Neuropathic Pain and its Management

      Neuropathic pain is a type of pain that occurs due to damage or disruption of the nervous system. It is a complex condition that is often difficult to treat and does not respond well to standard painkillers. Examples of neuropathic pain include diabetic neuropathy, post-herpetic neuralgia, trigeminal neuralgia, and prolapsed intervertebral disc.

      To manage neuropathic pain, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidance in 2013. The first-line treatment options include amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. If the first-line drug treatment does not work, patients may try one of the other three drugs. Unlike standard painkillers, drugs for neuropathic pain are typically used as monotherapy, meaning that if they do not work, patients should switch to a different drug rather than adding another one.

      Tramadol may be used as rescue therapy for exacerbations of neuropathic pain, while topical capsaicin may be used for localized neuropathic pain, such as post-herpetic neuralgia. Pain management clinics may also be useful for patients with resistant problems. However, it is important to note that for some specific conditions, such as trigeminal neuralgia, the guidance may vary, and carbamazepine may be used as a first-line treatment. Overall, understanding neuropathic pain and its management is crucial for improving the quality of life for patients suffering from this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 129 - Which of the following statements about the correlation between the menstrual cycle and...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements about the correlation between the menstrual cycle and body temperature is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Body temperature rises following ovulation

      Explanation:

      The increase in body temperature after ovulation is utilized in certain cases of natural family planning.

      Phases of the Menstrual Cycle

      The menstrual cycle is a complex process that can be divided into four phases: menstruation, follicular phase, ovulation, and luteal phase. During the follicular phase, a number of follicles develop in the ovaries, with one follicle becoming dominant around the mid-follicular phase. At the same time, the endometrium begins to proliferate. This phase is characterized by a rise in follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH), which results in the development of follicles that secrete oestradiol.

      During ovulation, the mature egg is released from the dominant follicle and triggers the acute release of luteinizing hormone (LH). This phase occurs on day 14 of the menstrual cycle. Following ovulation, the luteal phase begins, during which the corpus luteum secretes progesterone. This hormone causes the endometrium to change into a secretory lining. If fertilization does not occur, the corpus luteum will degenerate, and progesterone levels will fall.

      The cervical mucus also changes throughout the menstrual cycle. Following menstruation, the mucus is thick and forms a plug across the external os. Just prior to ovulation, the mucus becomes clear, acellular, and low viscosity. It also becomes ‘stretchy’ – a quality termed spinnbarkeit. Under the influence of progesterone, it becomes thick, scant, and tacky.

      Basal body temperature is another indicator of the menstrual cycle. It falls prior to ovulation due to the influence of oestradiol and rises following ovulation in response to higher progesterone levels. Understanding the different phases of the menstrual cycle can help individuals track their fertility and plan for pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 130 - A 28-year-old woman presents to the general practice clinic with a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to the general practice clinic with a history of itchy palms and soles for a few weeks. Examination reveals pitting to the nails and dry, scaly, fissured skin with areas of pustules on the palms and soles. She is a social drinker but has no other medical conditions.

      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Palmoplantar pustulosis

      Explanation:

      Skin Conditions: Palmoplantar Pustulosis, Bullous Pemphigoid, Contact Dermatitis, Eczema, and Secondary Syphilis

      Palmoplantar Pustulosis: A chronic inflammatory skin condition that affects the palms and soles, often associated with chronic plaque psoriasis and smoking. It presents with painful cracking, fissuring, and crops of sterile pustules that are severely itchy. Topical treatments and phototherapy can be used.

      Bullous Pemphigoid: An autoimmune skin disease that forms large fluid-filled blisters, typically affecting people over 80 years old with underlying neurological or malignant conditions. The age and presenting features in this man are not typical for bullous pemphigoid.

      Contact Dermatitis: A type of eczema triggered by contact with a particular substance, causing a red, dry, and scaly rash only in the areas that have been in contact with the irritant. Pustules are not a feature of this condition, and it would be unusual for an irritant to have been in contact with the palms and soles.

      Eczema: A chronic, itchy, inflammatory skin condition that commonly begins in childhood and affects flexural areas such as behind the knees or in the antecubital fossae. The palms of hands and soles of feet are usually spared.

      Secondary Syphilis: A rash that may appear as rough, red or reddish-brown papules or patches, typically occurring on the trunk but frequently affecting the palms and soles. The rash doesn’t itch and can appear more obvious with physical activity or heat. It resolves spontaneously within several weeks but can recur over the next two years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 131 - An aging patient in a care facility is prescribed quetiapine for persistent aggressive...

    Incorrect

    • An aging patient in a care facility is prescribed quetiapine for persistent aggressive behavior that has not improved with non-pharmacological interventions. What potential adverse effects do antipsychotics increase the likelihood of in older patients?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stroke

      Explanation:

      Elderly individuals taking antipsychotics are at a higher risk of experiencing stroke and VTE.

      Antipsychotics are a group of drugs used to treat schizophrenia, psychosis, mania, and agitation. They are divided into two categories: typical and atypical antipsychotics. The latter were developed to address the extrapyramidal side-effects associated with the first generation of typical antipsychotics. Typical antipsychotics work by blocking dopaminergic transmission in the mesolimbic pathways through dopamine D2 receptor antagonism. They are associated with extrapyramidal side-effects and hyperprolactinaemia, which are less common with atypical antipsychotics.

      Extrapyramidal side-effects (EPSEs) are common with typical antipsychotics and include Parkinsonism, acute dystonia, sustained muscle contraction, akathisia, and tardive dyskinesia. The latter is a late onset of choreoathetoid movements that may be irreversible and occur in 40% of patients. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients, including an increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism. Other side-effects include antimuscarinic effects, sedation, weight gain, raised prolactin, impaired glucose tolerance, neuroleptic malignant syndrome, reduced seizure threshold, and prolonged QT interval.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 132 - A 28-year-old woman visits the GP clinic as she hasn't had her menstrual...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman visits the GP clinic as she hasn't had her menstrual period for 3 months. Upon conducting a urinary pregnancy test, it comes out positive. A dating scan is scheduled, which shows a gestational sac with a nonviable foetus. What could be the possible diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Missed miscarriage

      Explanation:

      Miscarriage is a common complication that can occur in up to 25% of all pregnancies. There are different types of miscarriage, each with its own set of symptoms and characteristics. Threatened miscarriage is painless vaginal bleeding that occurs before 24 weeks, typically at 6-9 weeks. The bleeding is usually less than menstruation, and the cervical os is closed. Missed or delayed miscarriage is when a gestational sac containing a dead fetus is present before 20 weeks, without the symptoms of expulsion. The mother may experience light vaginal bleeding or discharge, and the symptoms of pregnancy may disappear. Pain is not usually a feature, and the cervical os is closed. Inevitable miscarriage is characterized by heavy bleeding with clots and pain, and the cervical os is open. Incomplete miscarriage occurs when not all products of conception have been expelled, and there is pain and vaginal bleeding. The cervical os is open in this type of miscarriage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 133 - A mother brings in her 4-week old male baby who was born at...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings in her 4-week old male baby who was born at 30 weeks. He was discharged from neonatal intensive care unit 2 weeks ago. She reports that for the last 4 days, he has been refusing feed. This morning she noticed that he passed some bloody stools. On examination, the baby has a distended abdomen.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Necrotising enterocolitis

      Explanation:

      Feeding intolerance, abdominal distension, and bloody stools are among the early signs of necrotising enterocolitis, which is a high risk for preterm babies. Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GORD) does not cause abdominal distension and bloody stools, while duodenal atresia typically presents with bilious vomiting within the first day of life and does not cause bloody stools. Although hospital-acquired infection is a possibility, given the clinical picture and preterm status, ruling out necrotising enterocolitis should be the priority.

      Understanding Necrotising Enterocolitis

      Necrotising enterocolitis is a serious condition that is responsible for a significant number of premature infant deaths. The condition is characterized by symptoms such as feeding intolerance, abdominal distension, and bloody stools. If left untreated, these symptoms can quickly progress to more severe symptoms such as abdominal discolouration, perforation, and peritonitis.

      To diagnose necrotising enterocolitis, doctors often use abdominal x-rays. These x-rays can reveal a number of important indicators of the condition, including dilated bowel loops, bowel wall oedema, and intramural gas. Other signs that may be visible on an x-ray include portal venous gas, pneumoperitoneum resulting from perforation, and air both inside and outside of the bowel wall. In some cases, an x-ray may also reveal air outlining the falciform ligament, which is known as the football sign.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms and diagnostic indicators of necrotising enterocolitis is crucial for early detection and treatment of this serious condition. By working closely with healthcare professionals and following recommended screening protocols, parents and caregivers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for premature infants at risk for this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 134 - A 28-year-old pregnant woman comes to the clinic complaining of severe vomiting. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old pregnant woman comes to the clinic complaining of severe vomiting. She is currently 10 weeks pregnant and this is her first pregnancy. According to RCOG guidelines, what are the diagnostic criteria for hyperemesis gravidarum?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss AND dehydration AND electrolyte imbalance

      Explanation:

      Weight loss before pregnancy
      Lack of proper hydration
      Disruption in electrolyte balance

      Hyperemesis gravidarum is an extreme form of nausea and vomiting of pregnancy that occurs in around 1% of pregnancies and is most common between 8 and 12 weeks. It is associated with raised beta hCG levels and can be caused by multiple pregnancies, trophoblastic disease, hyperthyroidism, nulliparity, and obesity. Referral criteria for nausea and vomiting in pregnancy include continued symptoms with ketonuria and/or weight loss, a confirmed or suspected comorbidity, and inability to keep down liquids or oral antiemetics. The diagnosis of hyperemesis gravidarum requires the presence of 5% pre-pregnancy weight loss, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance. Management includes first-line use of antihistamines and oral cyclizine or promethazine, with second-line options of ondansetron and metoclopramide. Admission may be needed for IV hydration. Complications can include Wernicke’s encephalopathy, Mallory-Weiss tear, central pontine myelinolysis, acute tubular necrosis, and fetal growth issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 135 - An 83-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital feeling generally unwell. She has...

    Incorrect

    • An 83-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital feeling generally unwell. She has also developed a fever and diffuse erythematous rash over the last few days. Urinalysis is positive for blood and protein, and blood tests show raised eosinophils and creatinine. Her General Practitioner started her on a new medication for a painful and swollen knee joint two weeks ago, but she cannot remember the name or what it was for.
      Which of the following drugs would be safe to continue at present, given the suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Common Medications and their Association with Acute Tubulointerstitial Nephritis

      Acute tubulointerstitial nephritis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the renal tubules and interstitium, often caused by medications. Here are some common medications and their association with acute tubulointerstitial nephritis:

      1. Prednisolone: This medication is safe to continue as it is already used as a management option for acute tubulointerstitial nephritis.

      2. Allopurinol: This medication should be discontinued as it is known to cause acute tubulointerstitial nephritis.

      3. Amoxicillin: This beta-lactam antibiotic is one of the most common drug-related causes of acute tubulointerstitial nephritis and may need to be withdrawn.

      4. Diclofenac: Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs, such as diclofenac, are another common cause of tubulointerstitial nephritis and should be stopped in any form of acute kidney injury.

      5. Omeprazole: Proton pump inhibitors, such as omeprazole, are known to be a triggering medication for acute tubulointerstitial nephritis and should be withdrawn promptly to allow for renal function recovery.

      It is important to be aware of these associations and to monitor patients for symptoms of acute tubulointerstitial nephritis when prescribing these medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 136 - A 45-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a 1-day history...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) with a 1-day history of intermittent chest pains. She states that these started in the afternoon and have gotten worse. The pain is central and seems to improve when she sits on her chair and leans forward. She has a past medical history of hypertension. The GP decides to perform an electrocardiogram (ECG).
      Given the likely diagnosis, which of the following best describes what might be seen on the ECG?
      Select the SINGLE most likely ECG finding from the list below.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Widespread concave ST-segment elevation and PR segment depression

      Explanation:

      Understanding ECG Findings in Acute Pericarditis

      Acute pericarditis is a condition that commonly presents with central pleuritic chest pain, relieved on leaning forward. One of the main ECG findings in acute pericarditis is widespread concave ST-segment elevations with PR-segment depression, which is 85% specific for the condition. Absent P waves are not typically caused by acute pericarditis, and ST-segment elevation in the anterior leads is more suggestive of anterior myocardial infarction. U waves are not characteristic ECG findings in acute pericarditis and are associated with other conditions. Other clinical features of acute pericarditis are largely dependent on the underlying cause. It is important to understand these ECG findings to aid in the diagnosis and management of acute pericarditis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 137 - A 12-year-old boy is asked to come to his General Practice clinic for...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy is asked to come to his General Practice clinic for a vaccine. He is in good health.
      Which vaccine is he likely to receive?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Human papilloma virus (HPV)

      Explanation:

      Vaccination Schedule for Children in the UK

      In the United Kingdom, children are offered a range of vaccinations to protect against various diseases. The following is a summary of the vaccines and when they are given:

      1. Human papillomavirus (HPV) – offered to all children aged 12-13 years to protect against cervical cancer.

      2. Hepatitis A – not part of the routine vaccination schedule for children.

      3. 6-in-1 DTaP/IPV/Hib/HepB – given at 2 months, 3 months, and 4 months.

      4. Measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) – administered at 12-13 months, with a booster at 3 years 4 months.

      5. Pneumococcal (PCV) – given at 12 weeks and one year.

      It is important to follow the recommended vaccination schedule to ensure children are protected against these diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
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  • Question 138 - A 25-year-old woman presents to the antenatal clinic for her booking visit. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to the antenatal clinic for her booking visit. She speaks very little English and is 20 weeks' pregnant in her first pregnancy. No medical history of note can be obtained.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal values
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 101 g/l 115–155 g/l
      Haematocrit 38% 40–54%
      Red blood cell count (RBC) 5.24 × 1012/l 4.0–5.0 × 1012/l
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 63 fl 80–100 fl
      Mean corpuscular Hb (McHb) 20 pg 27–32 pg
      Mean corpuscular Hb concentration 32 g/dl 32–36 g/dl
      White cell count (WCC) 6.9 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
      Platelets (PLT) 241 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Foetal Hb (HbF) 0.6% < 1%
      Haemoglobin A2 (HbA2) 4.5% 1.5–3.5%
      Which of the following is the most likely cause of her anaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: β-Thalassaemia trait

      Explanation:

      Understanding β-Thalassaemia Trait: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Implications for Pregnancy

      β-Thalassaemia trait is a genetic condition that can cause microcytic/hypochromic anaemia with a raised RBC and normal MCHC. This condition is often asymptomatic and can be diagnosed through a blood test that shows raised HbA2 levels. It is important to distinguish β-thalassaemia trait from other conditions that can cause similar symptoms, such as folic acid deficiency, sickle-cell anaemia, α-thalassaemia trait, and iron deficiency.

      If both parents have β-thalassaemia trait, there is a 25% chance of producing a child with β-thalassaemia major, a more severe form of the condition that can cause serious health problems. Therefore, it is important to screen both partners for β-thalassaemia trait before planning a pregnancy.

      In summary, understanding β-thalassaemia trait and its implications for pregnancy can help individuals make informed decisions about their reproductive health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 139 - A 56-year-old woman with a lengthy history of rheumatoid arthritis presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman with a lengthy history of rheumatoid arthritis presents to the clinic with a chief complaint of dyspnea. During the examination, her oxygen saturation is found to be 92% on room air, and spirometry reveals a restrictive pattern accompanied by a decreased transfer factor. Which medication is the most probable cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Methotrexate

      Explanation:

      The use of methotrexate as well as other anti-rheumatoid drugs like sulfasalazine and gold may lead to the development of lung fibrosis in patients. This patient is currently experiencing pulmonary fibrosis which could be attributed to the use of methotrexate.

      Drugs that can lead to lung fibrosis

      Lung fibrosis is a condition where the lung tissue becomes scarred and thickened, making it difficult for the lungs to function properly. There are several drugs that can cause lung fibrosis as a side effect. These drugs include amiodarone, which is used to treat heart rhythm problems, cytotoxic agents such as busulphan and bleomycin, which are used to treat cancer, and anti-rheumatoid drugs like methotrexate and sulfasalazine. Nitrofurantoin, an antibiotic used to treat urinary tract infections, and ergot-derived dopamine receptor agonists like bromocriptine, cabergoline, and pergolide, which are used to treat Parkinson’s disease, can also cause lung fibrosis. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of these drugs and to discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider. Proper monitoring and management can help prevent or minimize the risk of lung fibrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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  • Question 140 - A 45-year-old woman, who is a non-smoker, presents with back pain. A bone...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman, who is a non-smoker, presents with back pain. A bone scan shows multiple lesions highly suggestive of metastases. Clinical examination is normal apart from unilateral axillary lymphadenopathy. Excision biopsy of an affected lymph node shows adenocarcinoma. Which of the following investigations should be prioritised to find the site of the primary?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mammography

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with metastatic bone disease from an unknown primary, it is important to identify the primary source in order to guide treatment and determine prognosis. Tumours that commonly metastasize to bone include those of the lungs, prostate, breast, kidney, and thyroid.

      In cases where the patient has unilateral axillary lymphadenopathy, metastatic breast carcinoma is highly likely. Other potential causes of unilateral axillary lymphadenopathy include lymphoma, primary malignancy, melanoma, or metastases from non-breast primary malignancy.

      While there are various investigations that can be performed, mammography should be the first examination of choice. If the mammogram is negative, other investigations may be pursued to identify alternative occult sites.

      It is important to note that identifying the primary source is useful even in cases of metastatic disease, as it can guide treatment and provide insight into prognosis. Therefore, mammography plays a crucial role in the diagnosis of metastatic breast cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 141 - A 68-year-old woman comes to your clinic 10 months after a heart attack....

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman comes to your clinic 10 months after a heart attack. She complains of feeling down, having difficulty concentrating, and loss of appetite since the incident. She attempted online cognitive behavioural therapy but it did not help. She feels that life has lost its meaning and that she is a burden to her family. You decide to initiate treatment with an SSRI. Which medication would be the most suitable to begin with?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      After a myocardial infarction, Sertraline is the preferred SSRI due to its extensive research in this patient population compared to other SSRIs. It is important to note that the patient may also be taking antiplatelets and should be cautioned about the potential for dyspepsia and gastrointestinal bleeding. Co-prescribing a proton pump inhibitor should be considered.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.

      The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.

      When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.

      When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 142 - Which of the following side-effects is not acknowledged in individuals who are prescribed...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following side-effects is not acknowledged in individuals who are prescribed sodium valproate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Induction P450 system

      Explanation:

      The P450 system is inhibited by sodium valproate.

      Sodium Valproate: Uses and Adverse Effects

      Sodium valproate is a medication commonly used to manage epilepsy, particularly for generalised seizures. Its mechanism of action involves increasing the activity of GABA in the brain. However, the use of sodium valproate during pregnancy is strongly discouraged due to its teratogenic effects, which can lead to neural tube defects and neurodevelopmental delays in children. Women of childbearing age should only use this medication if it is absolutely necessary and under the guidance of a specialist neurological or psychiatric advisor.

      Aside from its teratogenic effects, sodium valproate can also inhibit P450 enzymes, leading to gastrointestinal issues such as nausea, increased appetite, and weight gain. Other adverse effects include alopecia, ataxia, tremors, hepatotoxicity, pancreatitis, thrombocytopenia, hyponatremia, and hyperammonemic encephalopathy. In cases where hyperammonemic encephalopathy develops, L-carnitine may be used as a treatment option.

      Overall, while sodium valproate can be an effective medication for managing epilepsy, its use should be carefully considered and monitored due to its potential adverse effects, particularly during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 143 - A 30-year-old male presents to his primary care physician complaining of flu-like symptoms...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male presents to his primary care physician complaining of flu-like symptoms and myalgia. He has no significant medical history and is typically in good health. Upon conducting blood tests, the results show that he is positive for both Anti-Toxoplasmosa IgG and Anti-Toxoplasmosa IgM. What is the appropriate course of action for managing this patient at present?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No treatment

      Explanation:

      Patients who are immunocompetent and have toxoplasmosis typically do not need to undergo treatment. Toxoplasmosis is a parasitic disease that is primarily found in cats and is caused by Toxoplasmosis gondii protozoa. Symptoms of the disease in humans can include malaise, myalgia, and lymphadenopathy, or it may be asymptomatic. While most healthy individuals can clear the infection, it can lead to complications such as chorioretinitis, seizures, or anemia. These complications are more likely to occur in neonates born to mothers with acute infections or in patients with compromised immune systems. The patient’s blood test results indicate that they currently have an infection, but since they are immunocompetent, treatment is not necessary at this time.

      Toxoplasmosis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Toxoplasmosis is a disease caused by the protozoan Toxoplasma gondii, which enters the body through the gastrointestinal tract, lungs, or broken skin. Cats are the primary carriers of the disease, but other animals like rats can also transmit it. In most cases, infected individuals do not show any symptoms. However, those who do may experience fever, malaise, and lymphadenopathy, which are similar to infectious mononucleosis. Less common symptoms include meningoencephalitis and myocarditis. Serology is the preferred diagnostic method, and treatment is usually unnecessary unless the infection is severe or the patient is immunosuppressed.

      In immunocompromised patients, toxoplasmosis can cause cerebral toxoplasmosis, which accounts for about half of all cerebral lesions in HIV patients. Symptoms include constitutional symptoms, headache, confusion, and drowsiness. CT scans typically show single or multiple ring-enhancing lesions, and there may be a mass effect. Treatment involves pyrimethamine and sulphadiazine for at least six weeks. Immunocompromised patients may also develop chorioretinitis due to toxoplasmosis.

      Congenital toxoplasmosis occurs when the disease is transmitted from the mother to the unborn child. It can cause a range of effects, including neurological damage, cerebral calcification, hydrocephalus, chorioretinitis, ophthalmic damage, retinopathy, and cataracts.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 144 - A 32-year-old male with a history of eczema and asthma complains of rhinorrhoea...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male with a history of eczema and asthma complains of rhinorrhoea and nasal congestion for the past six months. His asthma is currently well managed and he rarely uses his blue inhaler. He occasionally feels pressure in his sinuses. What is the first-line treatment option available?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nasal irrigation with saline solution

      Explanation:

      Chronic rhinosinusitis can be treated with nasal irrigation using saline solution as a first-line option. However, it is unlikely that symptoms will resolve without additional interventions such as smoking cessation, avoidance of allergens, and a 3-month course of a steroid nasal spray like fluticasone or mometasone. It is important to note that optimizing asthma control is also crucial in managing chronic rhinosinusitis, but there is no indication of poorly controlled asthma in this case. It is not recommended to initiate long-term antibiotics without consulting a specialist as there is limited evidence of their effectiveness in treating this condition.

      Understanding Chronic Rhinosinusitis

      Chronic rhinosinusitis is a common condition that affects approximately 1 in 10 people. It is characterized by inflammation of the paranasal sinuses and nasal passages that lasts for 12 weeks or longer. There are several factors that can predispose individuals to this condition, including atopy (such as hay fever or asthma), nasal obstruction (such as a deviated septum or nasal polyps), recent local infections (such as rhinitis or dental extractions), swimming or diving, and smoking.

      Symptoms of chronic rhinosinusitis include facial pain, nasal discharge, nasal obstruction, and post-nasal drip. Facial pain is typically felt as pressure in the frontal area and worsens when bending forward. Nasal discharge is usually clear if the condition is caused by allergies or vasomotor issues, but thicker and purulent discharge may indicate a secondary infection. Nasal obstruction can lead to mouth breathing, while post-nasal drip can cause a chronic cough.

      Management of chronic rhinosinusitis involves avoiding allergens, using intranasal corticosteroids, and nasal irrigation with saline solution. However, it is important to be aware of red flag symptoms, such as unilateral symptoms, persistent symptoms despite 3 months of treatment compliance, and epistaxis (nosebleeds). If any of these symptoms occur, it is important to seek medical attention promptly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
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  • Question 145 - A 67-year-old man with a history of multiple myeloma complains of confusion, abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man with a history of multiple myeloma complains of confusion, abdominal pain, and excessive thirst. The following blood results are available:
      - Sodium: 145 mmol/L
      - Potassium: 4.1 mmol/L
      - Albumin: 35 g/L
      - Calcium: 3.55 mmol/L
      - Alkaline phosphatase: 120 IU/L
      - Urea: 7.2 mmol/L
      - Creatinine: 130 µmol/L
      What is the primary initial approach to managing his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV 0.9% saline

      Explanation:

      In patients with hypercalcaemia, the initial treatment is IV fluid therapy. The man’s hypercalcaemia is caused by multiple myeloma, and he is experiencing polydipsia. Additionally, his sodium levels are nearing the upper limit of normal, indicating that he may be dehydrated.

      Managing Hypercalcaemia

      Hypercalcaemia is a condition where there is an excess of calcium in the blood. The initial management of hypercalcaemia involves rehydration with normal saline, typically 3-4 litres per day. This helps to flush out the excess calcium from the body. Once rehydration is achieved, bisphosphonates may be used to further lower the calcium levels. These drugs take 2-3 days to work, with maximal effect being seen at 7 days.

      Calcitonin is another option for managing hypercalcaemia. It works quicker than bisphosphonates but is less commonly used due to its short duration of action. Steroids may be used in sarcoidosis, a condition that can cause hypercalcaemia.

      Loop diuretics such as furosemide may also be used in hypercalcaemia, particularly in patients who cannot tolerate aggressive fluid rehydration. However, they should be used with caution as they may worsen electrolyte derangement and volume depletion.

      In summary, the management of hypercalcaemia involves rehydration with normal saline followed by the use of bisphosphonates or other medications depending on the underlying cause of the condition. It is important to monitor electrolyte levels and adjust treatment accordingly to prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 146 - A 50-year-old man arrives at the emergency department following a serious car accident...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man arrives at the emergency department following a serious car accident resulting in chest injuries. The paramedics had trouble establishing IV access. Upon arrival, he is unresponsive with a ventricular fibrillation ECG. ALS is initiated, but multiple attempts at cannulation fail. However, successful intubation is achieved.
      What is the best course of action for administering ALS medications in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intraosseous line insertion

      Explanation:

      If it is not possible to obtain IV access in ALS, medications should be administered through the intraosseous route (IO) instead of the tracheal route, which is no longer advised.

      The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken when dealing with patients with shockable and non-shockable rhythms. For both types of patients, chest compressions are a crucial part of the process, with a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 ventilations. Defibrillation is recommended for shockable rhythms, with a single shock for VF/pulseless VT followed by 2 minutes of CPR. Adrenaline and amiodarone are the drugs of choice for non-shockable rhythms, with adrenaline given as soon as possible and amiodarone administered after 3 shocks for VF/pulseless VT. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolus is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98% following successful resuscitation. The Hs and Ts should be considered as potential reversible causes of cardiac arrest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 147 - A 25-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department accompanied by a colleague from...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department accompanied by a colleague from work. She complains of experiencing a 'fluttering' sensation in her chest for the past 30 minutes. Although she admits to feeling 'a bit faint,' she denies any chest pain or difficulty breathing. Upon conducting an ECG, the results show a regular tachycardia of 166 bpm with a QRS duration of 110 ms. Her blood pressure is 102/68 mmHg, and her oxygen saturation levels are at 99% on room air. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Carotid sinus massage

      Explanation:

      Vagal manoeuvres, such as carotid sinus massage or the Valsalva manoeuvre, are the initial treatment for supraventricular tachycardia. Adenosine should only be administered if these manoeuvres are ineffective. According to the ALS guidelines, direct current cardioversion is not recommended for this condition.

      Understanding Supraventricular Tachycardia

      Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) is a type of tachycardia that originates above the ventricles. It is commonly associated with paroxysmal SVT, which is characterized by sudden onset of a narrow complex tachycardia, usually an atrioventricular nodal re-entry tachycardia (AVNRT). Other causes include atrioventricular re-entry tachycardias (AVRT) and junctional tachycardias.

      When it comes to acute management, vagal maneuvers such as the Valsalva maneuver or carotid sinus massage can be used. Intravenous adenosine is also an option, with a rapid IV bolus of 6mg given initially, followed by 12mg and then 18mg if necessary. However, adenosine is contraindicated in asthmatics, and verapamil may be a better option for them. Electrical cardioversion is another option.

      To prevent episodes of SVT, beta-blockers can be used. Radio-frequency ablation is also an option. It is important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for each individual case.

      Overall, understanding SVT and its management options can help individuals with this condition better manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 148 - A 28-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of severe pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of severe pain in his perineum and scrotum. He has type 2 diabetes that is currently well managed with dapagliflozin. Upon examination, a purple rash with bullae is observed covering the entire perineum and extending up the scrotum. The patient reports intense pain, but reduced sensation is noted upon palpation of the rash. Vital signs are as follows: BP 110/90 mmHg, heart rate 109bpm, respiration rate 21/minute, temperature 38.1ºC, and oxygen saturation 98% on room air. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Necrotizing fasciitis

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms are consistent with necrotizing fasciitis, which often affects the perineum. The patient is experiencing severe pain, which may be causing his fever and rapid heart and breathing rates. As a type 2 diabetic taking dapagliflozin, an SGLT-2 inhibitor, his risk of developing necrotizing fasciitis is increased. While cellulitis can have similar symptoms in the early stages, the presence of bullae, purple discoloration, and severe pain in a patient with risk factors for necrotizing fasciitis make it less likely. Septic arthritis is not a likely diagnosis as it affects joint spaces, which is not the case in this patient. Pyoderma gangrenosum, which is associated with inflammatory conditions, is not a likely diagnosis as the rash is not ulcerated and the patient has no history of inflammatory bowel disease or rheumatoid arthritis.

      Understanding Necrotising Fasciitis

      Necrotising fasciitis is a serious medical emergency that can be difficult to identify in its early stages. It can be classified into two types based on the causative organism. Type 1 is the most common and is caused by mixed anaerobes and aerobes, often occurring post-surgery in diabetics. Type 2 is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes. There are several risk factors associated with necrotising fasciitis, including recent trauma, burns, or soft tissue infections, diabetes mellitus, intravenous drug use, and immunosuppression. The most commonly affected site is the perineum, also known as Fournier’s gangrene.

      The features of necrotising fasciitis include an acute onset, pain, swelling, and erythema at the affected site. It often presents as rapidly worsening cellulitis with pain that is out of keeping with physical features. The infected tissue is extremely tender and may have hypoaesthesia to light touch. Late signs include skin necrosis and crepitus/gas gangrene. Fever and tachycardia may be absent or occur late in the presentation.

      Management of necrotising fasciitis requires urgent surgical referral for debridement and intravenous antibiotics. The prognosis for this condition is poor, with an average mortality rate of 20%. It is important to be aware of the risk factors and features of necrotising fasciitis to ensure prompt diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 149 - A 68-year-old man with a history of heart failure and type 2 diabetes...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man with a history of heart failure and type 2 diabetes mellitus is being seen in the diabetes clinic. He is currently taking furosemide 40 mg od, ramipril 10mg od, and bisoprolol 5mg od. On clinical examination, there is no evidence of peripheral edema, a clear chest, and his blood pressure is 130/76 mmHg. Recent renal and liver function tests are normal. Which of the following medications is contraindicated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pioglitazone

      Explanation:

      Heart failure is a complete contraindication for the use of pioglitazone and other thiazolidinediones.

      Thiazolidinediones: A Class of Diabetes Medications

      Thiazolidinediones are a type of medication used to treat type 2 diabetes. They work by activating the PPAR-gamma receptor, which reduces insulin resistance in the body. However, one medication in this class, rosiglitazone, was withdrawn in 2010 due to concerns about its cardiovascular side effects.

      The PPAR-gamma receptor is a nuclear receptor found inside cells. It is naturally activated by free fatty acids and is involved in regulating the differentiation and function of adipocytes (fat cells).

      While thiazolidinediones can be effective in treating diabetes, they can also have adverse effects. Patients may experience weight gain, liver impairment (which requires monitoring of liver function tests), and fluid retention. Thiazolidinediones are contraindicated in patients with heart failure due to the increased risk of fluid retention, especially if the patient is also taking insulin. Recent studies have also shown an increased risk of fractures and bladder cancer in patients taking pioglitazone, another medication in this class.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 150 - A 50-year-old woman with a history of severe disabling arthritis presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman with a history of severe disabling arthritis presents to the Emergency Department with a 3-week history of dyspnoea. She reports a dry cough of similar duration. She has never smoked and has never been employed. On cardiovascular examination, no abnormalities are detected. Respiratory examination reveals reduced air entry at the left base, which is stony dull to percussion. A chest X-ray shows blunting of the left costophrenic angle.
      What is the most likely diagnosis associated with her current respiratory problem?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis (RA)

      Explanation:

      Respiratory Manifestations of Rheumatoid Arthritis

      Rheumatoid arthritis (RA) is an inflammatory arthritis that can affect various parts of the body, including the respiratory tract. One common manifestation of RA in the respiratory system is pleural involvement, which can present as pleural effusion, pleural nodules, or pleurisy. Other respiratory complications associated with RA include pulmonary fibrosis and bronchiolitis obliterans.

      It is important to note that other types of arthritis, such as ankylosing spondylitis, Behçet’s disease, gout, and psoriatic arthritis, do not typically present with respiratory complications like pleural effusion. Ankylosing spondylitis is associated with apical fibrosis, while Behçet’s disease is known for neurological complications. Gout is caused by purine metabolism abnormality and affects the joints and renal tract, while psoriatic arthritis is strongly associated with psoriasis and can lead to ocular and cardiovascular complications.

      Overall, if a patient with RA presents with respiratory symptoms, it is important to consider the possibility of pleural involvement and other respiratory complications associated with the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 151 - A 35-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant arrives at the Emergency Department...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of severe and constant abdominal pain. She experienced some vaginal bleeding an hour ago, but it has mostly subsided, leaving only a small amount of bloody discharge. Upon obstetric examination, her uterus is firm, woody, and extremely tender. She appears pale and clammy, with a pulse of 102 bpm and a blood pressure of 98/65 mmHg. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Placental abruption

      Explanation:

      Antepartum hemorrhage can be caused by placental abruption, which may result in vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain, and a firm or woody uterus. In some cases, the bleeding may be concealed, and the fetus may be difficult to feel or hear. It is important to note that young and healthy women may not show signs of shock until they have lost a significant amount of blood. Contractions during labor typically come in waves and do not cause a woody or tender uterus or low blood pressure. Placenta previa is another common cause of antepartum hemorrhage, but it is usually painless.

      Placental Abruption: Causes, Symptoms, and Risk Factors

      Placental abruption is a condition that occurs when the placenta separates from the uterine wall, leading to maternal bleeding into the space between them. Although the exact cause of this condition is unknown, certain factors have been associated with it, including proteinuric hypertension, cocaine use, multiparity, maternal trauma, and increasing maternal age. Placental abruption is not a common occurrence, affecting approximately 1 in 200 pregnancies.

      The clinical features of placental abruption include shock that is disproportionate to the visible blood loss, constant pain, a tender and tense uterus, and a normal lie and presentation of the fetus. The fetal heart may be absent or distressed, and there may be coagulation problems. It is important to be aware of other conditions that may present with similar symptoms, such as pre-eclampsia, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and anuria.

      In summary, placental abruption is a serious condition that can have significant consequences for both the mother and the fetus. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms of this condition is important for early detection and appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 152 - A 45-year-old female patient visits the clinic and expresses concern about breast cancer...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old female patient visits the clinic and expresses concern about breast cancer screening. She is anxious because her sister was recently diagnosed with breast cancer. She wants to know if she should undergo breast cancer screening. The patient is in good health and has no other family history. What is the best course of action to take next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to the breast clinic

      Explanation:

      A referral to secondary care is necessary when there is a history of breast cancer in the patient’s paternal family. This is because breast cancer may not be detectable during a routine breast examination, and waiting for a screening appointment could result in a delayed diagnosis. It is important to note that a review in one year may also lead to a delay in diagnosis, as the patient is at a high risk for familial breast cancer.

      Breast cancer screening is offered to women aged 50-70 years through the NHS Breast Screening Programme. Mammograms are provided every three years, and women over 70 years are encouraged to make their own appointments. While the effectiveness of breast screening is debated, it is estimated that the programme saves around 1,400 lives annually.

      For those with familial breast cancer, NICE guidelines recommend referral if there is a family history of breast cancer with any of the following: diagnosis before age 40, bilateral breast cancer, male breast cancer, ovarian cancer, Jewish ancestry, sarcoma in a relative under 45 years, glioma or childhood adrenal cortical carcinomas, complicated patterns of multiple cancers at a young age, or paternal history of breast cancer with two or more relatives on the father’s side. Women at increased risk due to family history may be offered screening at a younger age. Referral to a breast clinic is recommended for those with a first-degree relative diagnosed with breast cancer before age 40, a first-degree male relative with breast cancer, a first-degree relative with bilateral breast cancer before age 50, two first-degree relatives or one first-degree and one second-degree relative with breast cancer, or a first- or second-degree relative with breast and ovarian cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 153 - A 49-year-old woman receives a red blood cell transfusion in the emergency department...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman receives a red blood cell transfusion in the emergency department after a car accident. She develops a fever and becomes anxious after 30 minutes. The transfusion is stopped and the following observations are made: respiratory rate 21 breaths per minute, heart rate 74 bpm, saturations 98% (room air), blood pressure 125/85 mmHg, temperature 39ºC. The patient is comfortable at rest and chest auscultation reveals no wheezing. What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient's reaction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paracetamol

      Explanation:

      Complications of Blood Product Transfusion: Understanding the Risks

      Blood product transfusion can lead to various complications that can be classified into different categories. Immunological complications include acute haemolytic reactions, non-haemolytic febrile reactions, and allergic/anaphylaxis reactions. Infective complications may also arise, including the transmission of vCJD. Other complications include transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI), transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO), hyperkalaemia, iron overload, and clotting.

      Non-haemolytic febrile reactions are thought to be caused by antibodies reacting with white cell fragments in the blood product and cytokines that have leaked from the blood cell during storage. On the other hand, allergic reactions to blood transfusions are caused by hypersensitivity reactions to components within the transfusion. TRALI is a rare but potentially fatal complication of blood transfusion, while TACO is a relatively common reaction due to fluid overload resulting in pulmonary oedema.

      It is important to understand the risks associated with blood product transfusion and to be aware of the different types of complications that may arise. Proper management and prompt treatment are crucial in preventing further harm to the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 154 - A 45-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a rash and feeling...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a rash and feeling generally unwell. He has a history of epilepsy and recently started taking phenytoin three weeks ago. He developed mouth ulcers, malaise, and a cough about a week ago. Two days ago, he developed a widespread red rash that has now formed large fluid-filled blisters, covering approximately 30% of his body area. The lesions separate when slight pressure is applied. Upon examination, his temperature is 38.3ºC and pulse is 126/min. Blood results reveal:
      Na+ 144 mmol/l
      K+ 4.2 mmol/l
      Bicarbonate 19 mmol/l
      Urea 13.4 mmol/l
      Creatinine 121 µmol/l
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Toxic epidermal necrolysis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis

      Toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN) is a severe skin disorder that can be life-threatening and is often caused by a reaction to certain drugs. It is characterized by extensive scalding of the skin, and is considered by some experts to be the most severe form of a range of skin disorders that includes erythema multiforme and Stevens-Johnson syndrome. Symptoms of TEN include fever, rapid heartbeat, and a positive Nikolsky’s sign, which means that the epidermis separates easily with slight lateral pressure.

      The most effective way to manage TEN is to stop the use of the drug that caused the reaction. Supportive care is also necessary, and patients are often treated in an intensive care unit to monitor for potential complications such as electrolyte imbalances and fluid loss. Intravenous immunoglobulin is a commonly used first-line treatment for TEN, and has been shown to be effective. Other treatment options include immunosuppressive agents like ciclosporin and cyclophosphamide, as well as plasmapheresis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 155 - An 80-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a painful lesion on his...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a painful lesion on his ear that has been bothering him for a year. The lesion has remained the same for several months but is causing him significant discomfort when he lies down. He reports no other symptoms.
      Upon examination, the doctor observes a well-defined, 10mm, flesh-colored nodule on the superior helix of the ear. The nodule is firm, very tender to touch, and covered with some scales.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chondrodermatitis nodularis helicis

      Explanation:

      Chondrodermatitis nodularis helicis is a painful, non-cancerous nodule that commonly occurs on the ear, particularly in men. Based on the patient’s level of pain and the stable nature of the lesion, this is the most likely diagnosis. While squamous cell carcinoma is a possible differential, it typically progresses more rapidly than this lesion. Similarly, basal cell carcinoma usually develops gradually and is not typically associated with significant pain. Although actinic keratosis can cause a scaly lesion on the ear, it is usually not as painful as chondrodermatitis nodularis helicis and tends to progress slowly over time.

      Understanding Chondrodermatitis Nodularis Helicis

      Chondrodermatitis nodularis helicis (CNH) is a harmless condition that is characterized by the formation of a painful nodule on the ear. It is believed to be caused by various factors such as continuous pressure on the ear, trauma, or exposure to cold. This condition is more prevalent in men and tends to occur more frequently as one ages.

      To manage CNH, it is essential to reduce pressure on the ear. This can be achieved by using foam ear protectors while sleeping. Other treatment options include cryotherapy, steroid injection, and collagen injection. However, surgical treatment may be necessary in some cases, although there is a high likelihood of recurrence.

      Overall, understanding CNH is crucial in managing this condition effectively. By taking the necessary precautions and seeking appropriate treatment, individuals can alleviate the pain and discomfort associated with CNH.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 156 - A 63-year-old man with angina and breathlessness at rest is found to have...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man with angina and breathlessness at rest is found to have severe aortic stenosis. Since he has no prior medical history, he undergoes an open aortic valve replacement and a mechanical valve is implanted. What is the most suitable medication for long-term anticoagulation after the surgery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Warfarin

      Explanation:

      Prosthetic Heart Valves: Options for Replacement

      Prosthetic heart valves are commonly used to replace damaged aortic and mitral valves. There are two main options for replacement: biological (bioprosthetic) or mechanical. Biological valves are usually sourced from bovine or porcine origins and are commonly used in older patients. However, they have a major disadvantage of structural deterioration and calcification over time. On the other hand, mechanical valves have a low failure rate but require long-term anticoagulation due to the increased risk of thrombosis. Warfarin is still the preferred anticoagulant for patients with mechanical heart valves, and the target INR varies depending on the valve type. Aspirin is only given in addition if there is an additional indication, such as ischaemic heart disease. Following the 2008 NICE guidelines, antibiotics are no longer recommended for common procedures such as dental work for prophylaxis of endocarditis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 157 - A 25-year-old male comes to the neurology department with complaints of weakness. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male comes to the neurology department with complaints of weakness. He initially experienced weakness in his legs a few days ago, which has now progressed to involve his arms. Additionally, he is experiencing shooting pains in his back and limbs. About four weeks ago, he had a brief episode of vomiting and diarrhea. Upon examination, reduced tendon reflexes and weakness are confirmed.

      What test results would you anticipate for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Abnormal nerve conduction studies

      Explanation:

      Guillain-Barre syndrome can be diagnosed with the help of nerve conduction studies. The presence of ascending weakness after an infection is a common symptom of this syndrome. Most patients with Guillain-Barre syndrome show abnormal nerve conduction study results. If there are cord signal changes, it may indicate spinal cord compression or a spinal lesion. Inflammatory infiltrates on muscle biopsy are typically observed in patients with myositis. Myasthenia gravis is characterized by the presence of anti-acetylcholine receptor antibodies. In Guillain-Barre syndrome, the CSF protein level is usually elevated, not decreased.

      Understanding Guillain-Barre Syndrome: Symptoms and Features

      Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition that affects the peripheral nervous system and is caused by an immune-mediated demyelination. It is often triggered by an infection, with Campylobacter jejuni being a common culprit. The initial symptoms of the illness include back and leg pain, which is experienced by around 65% of patients. The characteristic feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is a progressive, symmetrical weakness of all the limbs, with the weakness typically starting in the legs and ascending upwards. Reflexes are reduced or absent, and sensory symptoms tend to be mild, with very few sensory signs.

      Other features of Guillain-Barre syndrome may include a history of gastroenteritis, respiratory muscle weakness, cranial nerve involvement, diplopia, bilateral facial nerve palsy, oropharyngeal weakness, and autonomic involvement. Autonomic involvement may manifest as urinary retention or diarrhea. Less common findings may include papilloedema, which is thought to be secondary to reduced CSF resorption.

      To diagnose Guillain-Barre syndrome, a lumbar puncture may be performed, which can reveal a rise in protein with a normal white blood cell count (albuminocytologic dissociation) in 66% of cases. Nerve conduction studies may also be conducted, which can show decreased motor nerve conduction velocity due to demyelination, prolonged distal motor latency, and increased F wave latency. Understanding the symptoms and features of Guillain-Barre syndrome is crucial for prompt diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 158 - A 55-year-old female patient arrived at the emergency department complaining of intense pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old female patient arrived at the emergency department complaining of intense pain in her left eye, along with redness and sensitivity to light. Upon examination, her intraocular pressure was found to be elevated at 30 mmHg, and her pupil was mid-dilated. After diagnosing her with acute angle closure glaucoma, you promptly administered IV acetazolamide and topical pilocarpine. What is the definitive treatment for this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Laser peripheral iridotomy in both eyes

      Explanation:

      The definitive treatment for acute angle-closure glaucoma is laser peripheral iridotomy, which creates an additional pathway in the iris for aqueous to flow from the posterior chamber to the anterior chamber and be drained into the angle. While topical beta blockers, alpha agonists, prostaglandin analogues, and carbonic anhydrase inhibitors can all help control intraocular pressure in glaucoma patients, they are not considered definitive treatments for AACG.

      Glaucoma is a group of disorders that cause optic neuropathy due to increased intraocular pressure (IOP). However, not all patients with raised IOP have glaucoma, and vice versa. Acute angle-closure glaucoma (AACG) is a type of glaucoma where there is a rise in IOP due to impaired aqueous outflow. Factors that increase the risk of AACG include hypermetropia, pupillary dilatation, and lens growth associated with age. Symptoms of AACG include severe pain, decreased visual acuity, haloes around lights, and a hard, red-eye. Management of AACG is an emergency and requires urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. Emergency medical treatment is necessary to lower the IOP, followed by definitive surgical treatment once the acute attack has subsided.

      There are no specific guidelines for the initial medical treatment of AACG, but a combination of eye drops may be used, including a direct parasympathomimetic, a beta-blocker, and an alpha-2 agonist. Intravenous acetazolamide may also be administered to reduce aqueous secretions. Definitive management of AACG involves laser peripheral iridotomy, which creates a small hole in the peripheral iris to allow aqueous humour to flow to the angle. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if symptoms of AACG are present to prevent permanent vision loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 159 - A patient with a history of heart failure is experiencing discomfort even at...

    Incorrect

    • A patient with a history of heart failure is experiencing discomfort even at rest and is unable to engage in any physical activity without symptoms. What is the New York Heart Association classification that best describes the severity of their condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: NYHA Class IV

      Explanation:

      NYHA Classification for Chronic Heart Failure

      The NYHA classification is a widely used system for categorizing the severity of chronic heart failure. It is based on the symptoms experienced by the patient during physical activity. NYHA Class I indicates no symptoms and no limitations on physical activity. NYHA Class II indicates mild symptoms and slight limitations on physical activity. NYHA Class III indicates moderate symptoms and marked limitations on physical activity. Finally, NYHA Class IV indicates severe symptoms and an inability to carry out any physical activity without discomfort. This classification system is helpful in determining the appropriate treatment and management plan for patients with chronic heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 160 - A 25-year-old pregnant woman presented with a minor painless vaginal bleed at 38...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old pregnant woman presented with a minor painless vaginal bleed at 38 weeks' gestation. An ultrasound scan revealed that the placenta was anterior and partially covering the internal cervical os. The presenting foetal pole was in the cephalic position. The bleeding had ceased.
      What is the most suitable method of delivery? Choose the ONE most appropriate option from the list provided.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Admit into hospital and aim for elective caesarean section at 39 weeks

      Explanation:

      When a pregnant woman experiences vaginal bleeding in the third trimester, it is important to promptly assess her and focus on her and the fetus’s well-being. This includes monitoring vital signs, initiating electronic fetal monitoring, and obtaining blood tests to determine the need for Rh immunoglobulin and blood transfusions. If significant bleeding occurs, blood should be cross-matched for rapid replacement of blood volume. Once stability is achieved, the cause of the bleeding can be assessed through ultrasound and sterile speculum exams. If the bleeding is severe or fetal monitoring is non-reassuring, emergency caesarean delivery is necessary. Otherwise, the mode of delivery is determined by the proximity of the placenta to the internal os of the cervix. Hospitalization is recommended for at least 48 hours during a sentinel bleeding episode, and multiple episodes may require hospitalization until delivery. Disseminated intravascular coagulation should also be considered, and clotting studies may be ordered. this patient should be admitted and aim for elective caesarean section at 39 weeks
      Respiratory morbidity, including transient tachypnoea of the newborn (TTN), is more common in babies delivered by caesarean section, especially before 39 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 161 - A 49-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician complaining of severe hot...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman presents to her primary care physician complaining of severe hot flashes and vaginal dryness that have been ongoing for 6 weeks. She suspects that she may be experiencing menopause. The patient has a medical history of hypothyroidism and psoriasis and is currently taking levothyroxine and has a Mirena intrauterine system in place.

      What would be the most suitable course of action to address the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Estradiol

      Explanation:

      The Mirena intrauterine system is approved for use as the progesterone component of hormone replacement therapy for a duration of 4 years. In a woman with a uterus, hormone replacement therapy aims to replace oestrogen to alleviate menopausal symptoms, but an additional source of progesterone is required to counteract the effects of unopposed oestrogen on the uterus, which increases the risk of endometrial hyperplasia and malignancy. As this patient already has the Mirena coil in place, which releases progesterone locally to act on the uterus, the only necessary treatment is oestrogen. Estradiol is the only option that provides only oestrogen therapy and can be administered topically or transdermally. Combined HRT, which includes both oestrogen and progesterone, would be inappropriate as the patient is already receiving progesterone from the Mirena coil. Levonorgestrel and medroxyprogesterone are both progesterones and would not provide oestrogen supplementation to the patient, which is necessary to alleviate her menopausal symptoms.

      Managing Menopause: Lifestyle Modifications, Hormone Replacement Therapy, and Non-Hormone Replacement Therapy

      Menopause is a natural biological process that marks the end of a woman’s reproductive years. It is diagnosed when a woman has not had a period for 12 consecutive months. Menopausal symptoms are common and can last for up to 7 years, with varying degrees of severity and duration. The management of menopause can be divided into three categories: lifestyle modifications, hormone replacement therapy (HRT), and non-hormone replacement therapy.

      Lifestyle modifications can help manage menopausal symptoms such as hot flushes, sleep disturbance, mood changes, and cognitive symptoms. Regular exercise, weight loss, stress reduction, and good sleep hygiene are recommended. For women who cannot or do not want to take HRT, non-hormonal treatments such as fluoxetine, citalopram, or venlafaxine for vasomotor symptoms, vaginal lubricants or moisturizers for vaginal dryness, and cognitive behavior therapy or antidepressants for psychological symptoms can be prescribed.

      HRT is a treatment option for women with moderate to severe menopausal symptoms. However, it is contraindicated in women with current or past breast cancer, any estrogen-sensitive cancer, undiagnosed vaginal bleeding, or untreated endometrial hyperplasia. HRT brings certain risks, including venous thromboembolism, stroke, coronary heart disease, breast cancer, and ovarian cancer. Women should be advised of these risks and the fact that symptoms typically last for 2-5 years.

      When stopping HRT, it is important to gradually reduce the dosage to limit recurrence of symptoms in the short term. However, in the long term, there is no difference in symptom control. Women who experience ineffective treatment, ongoing side effects, or unexplained bleeding should be referred to secondary care. Overall, managing menopause requires a personalized approach that takes into account a woman’s medical history, preferences, and individual symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 162 - A 43-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a painful right shoulder. Despite...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a painful right shoulder. Despite being generally healthy and playing tennis regularly, he has been limited by the pain. Upon examination, his shoulders appear symmetrical with no skin changes, but he experiences mild tenderness over the right acromion. He can fully abduct his arm, but experiences pain approximately halfway through the motion, with the start and end of abduction being pain-free. There are no other symptoms or abnormalities in his upper limbs. What is the probable underlying pathology for this man's presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Subacromial impingement

      Explanation:

      Subacromial impingement is often characterized by a painful arc of abduction. This is likely the cause of the patient’s shoulder pain, which is accompanied by tenderness at the acromion and pain around the midpoint of abduction (typically between 60 to 120 degrees). These symptoms are not indicative of inflammatory arthritis affecting the acromioclavicular joint, which is rare. Osteoarthritis affecting the ACJ may cause tenderness and swelling, but not acromial tenderness or a painful arc in abduction. Cervical radiculopathy would cause neuropathic pain in the distribution of a cervical root, which is not consistent with the patient’s symptoms. Rheumatoid arthritis and other inflammatory arthropathies typically cause acute joint inflammation and effusion, which is not present in this case. A supraspinatus tear is a possible differential diagnosis, but the pain would be limited to the initial 60 degrees of abduction rather than the midpoint, indicating impingement as the more likely cause. Depending on the extent of the tear, abduction may also be limited due to difficulty initiating the movement.

      Understanding Rotator Cuff Injuries

      Rotator cuff injuries are a common cause of shoulder problems that can be classified into four types of disease: subacromial impingement, calcific tendonitis, rotator cuff tears, and rotator cuff arthropathy. The symptoms of a rotator cuff injury include shoulder pain that worsens during abduction.

      The signs of a rotator cuff injury include a painful arc of abduction, which typically occurs between 60 and 120 degrees in cases of subacromial impingement. In cases of rotator cuff tears, the pain may be felt in the first 60 degrees of abduction. Additionally, tenderness over the anterior acromion may be present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 163 - A 42-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of itchy, violaceous papules on...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of itchy, violaceous papules on the flexor aspects of her wrists. She has no significant medical history and has never experienced a similar rash before. Based on the probable diagnosis, what other symptom is she most likely to exhibit?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mucous membrane involvement

      Explanation:

      Lichen planus is a skin condition characterized by a rash of purple, itchy, polygonal papules on the flexor surfaces of the body. The affected area may also have Wickham’s striae. Oral involvement is common. In addition, elderly women may experience itchy white spots on the vulva, known as lichen sclerosus. Mucous membrane involvement is also frequently observed in lichen planus.

      Understanding Lichen Planus

      Lichen planus is a skin condition that is believed to be caused by an immune response, although the exact cause is unknown. It is characterized by an itchy, papular rash that typically appears on the palms, soles, genitalia, and flexor surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive white-lines pattern on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon.

      Oral involvement is common in around 50% of patients, with a white-lace pattern often appearing on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes may also occur, including thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging. Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, such as gold, quinine, and thiazides.

      The main treatment for lichen planus is potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more extensive cases, oral steroids or immunosuppression may be necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 164 - A 32-year old woman who is currently breastfeeding her 8-week-old baby girl presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year old woman who is currently breastfeeding her 8-week-old baby girl presents to the clinic with complaints of a painful right breast. During examination, her temperature is 38.5C, HR 110, the right breast appears significantly red and warm, and there is an area of fluctuance in the upper outer quadrant.
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Breast abscess

      Explanation:

      Breast Mass Differential Diagnosis

      Breast abscesses typically present with localised breast inflammation, pain, and fever. Treatment involves antibiotics and/or incision and drainage. Early breast cancer may be asymptomatic, but may present with changes in breast size or shape, skin dimpling, nipple abnormalities, and axillary lump. Fat necrosis is a benign inflammatory process that can result from trauma or surgery, and presents as a firm, painless mass. Fibroadenoma is the most common cause of breast mass in women aged <35 years, presenting as a singular, firm, rubbery, smooth, mobile, painless mass. Diffuse cystic mastopathy is characterised by cysts of varying sizes due to hormonal changes, but typically presents with multiple lumps and is not associated with inflammation. Clinical examination and biopsy may be needed to differentiate between these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 165 - A 68-year-old man presents with confusion and evidence of right lower lobe pneumonia...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man presents with confusion and evidence of right lower lobe pneumonia on Chest X-Ray. He appears unwell to you. His urea level is 8 mmol/l, and respiratory rate is 38 breaths per minute. His pulse rate is 89, and blood pressure is 120/58 mmHg.

      What is the patient's CURB 65 score?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5

      Explanation:

      Pneumonia is a serious respiratory infection that requires prompt assessment and management. In the primary care setting, the CRB65 criteria are used to stratify patients based on their risk of mortality. Patients with a score of 0 are considered low risk and may be treated at home, while those with a score of 3 or 4 are high risk and require urgent admission to hospital. The use of a point-of-care CRP test can help guide antibiotic therapy. In the secondary care setting, the CURB65 criteria are used, which includes an additional criterion of urea > 7 mmol/L. Chest x-rays and blood and sputum cultures are recommended for intermediate or high-risk patients. Treatment for low-severity community acquired pneumonia typically involves a 5-day course of amoxicillin, while moderate and high-severity cases may require dual antibiotic therapy for 7-10 days. Discharge criteria and advice post-discharge are also provided, including information on expected symptom resolution timeframes and the need for a repeat chest x-ray at 6 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 166 - A 70-year-old man complains of back pain that occurs during walking. Upon obtaining...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man complains of back pain that occurs during walking. Upon obtaining a thorough medical history and conducting a neurological and vascular assessment, the possibility of spinal stenosis is considered. Following the prescription of pain relief medication, what is the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer for MRI

      Explanation:

      To confirm the diagnosis and rule out other potential causes, an MRI is necessary for this presentation.

      Lower back pain is a common issue that is often caused by muscular strain. However, it is important to be aware of potential underlying causes that may require specific treatment. Certain red flags should be considered, such as age under 20 or over 50, a history of cancer, night pain, trauma, or systemic illness. There are also specific causes of lower back pain that should be kept in mind. Facet joint pain may be acute or chronic, worse in the morning and on standing, and typically worsens with back extension. Spinal stenosis may cause leg pain, numbness, and weakness that is worse on walking and relieved by sitting or leaning forward. Ankylosing spondylitis is more common in young men and causes stiffness that is worse in the morning and improves with activity. Peripheral arterial disease may cause pain on walking and weak foot pulses. It is important to consider these potential causes and seek appropriate diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 167 - A 60-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with mild central abdominal discomfort....

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with mild central abdominal discomfort. She also reports unintentional weight loss over the past four months. However, she denies any rectal bleeding or fatigue and has no significant family history.
      What is the most appropriate course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 2-week wait referral to the colorectal services

      Explanation:

      Referral for Investigation of Colorectal Cancer with a 2-Week Wait

      According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, patients aged 40 or over who present with unexplained weight loss and abdominal pain should be referred for investigation of colorectal cancer with a 2-week wait. Other criteria for a 2-week wait referral include patients with unexplained rectal bleeding, iron-deficiency anaemia, change in bowel habit, positive faecal occult blood tests, rectal or abdominal mass, unexplained anal mass or anal ulceration, and patients under 50 years with rectal bleeding and any of the following unexplained symptoms or findings: abdominal pain, change in bowel habit, weight loss or iron-deficiency anaemia.

      Doing nothing and just following up with the patient, prescribing analgesia and following up in one month, referring the patient routinely, or taking urgent bloods and following up in two weeks would not be appropriate in the presence of red-flag symptoms and can create a serious delay in diagnosis and treatment. Therefore, referral for investigation of colorectal cancer with a 2-week wait is the recommended course of action. However, taking urgent bloods and following up the patient in two weeks can still be done while the patient is waiting for the referral appointment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 168 - A 62-year-old woman visits the clinic complaining of unpleasant breath and gurgling sounds...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman visits the clinic complaining of unpleasant breath and gurgling sounds while swallowing. She reports no other symptoms or changes in her health.
      What is the MOST probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pharyngeal pouch

      Explanation:

      Pharyngeal Pouch and Hiatus Hernia: Two Common Causes of Oesophageal Symptoms

      Pharyngeal pouch and hiatus hernia are two common conditions that can cause symptoms related to the oesophagus. A pharyngeal pouch is a diverticulum that forms in the posterior aspect of the oesophagus due to herniation between two muscles that constrict the inferior part of the pharynx. This pouch can trap food and cause halitosis, regurgitation of food or gurgling noises, and sometimes a palpable lump on the side of the neck. Treatment involves surgery to correct the herniation or sometimes to close the diverticulum.

      Hiatus hernia, on the other hand, occurs when part of the stomach protrudes through the diaphragm into the chest cavity, leading to a retrosternal burning sensation, gastro-oesophageal reflux, and dysphagia. This condition is more common in older people and those with obesity or a history of smoking. Treatment may involve lifestyle changes, such as weight loss and avoiding trigger foods, as well as medications to reduce acid production or strengthen the lower oesophageal sphincter.

      Other possible causes of oesophageal symptoms include gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD), oesophageal candidiasis, and oesophageal carcinoma. GORD is a chronic condition that involves reflux of gastric contents into the oesophagus, causing symptoms of heartburn and acid regurgitation. Oesophageal candidiasis is a fungal infection that usually affects people with weakened immune systems. Oesophageal carcinoma is a type of cancer that can develop in the lining of the oesophagus, often with symptoms such as weight loss, dysphagia, abdominal pain, and dyspepsia. However, based on the history provided, pharyngeal pouch and hiatus hernia are more likely causes of the patient’s symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
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  • Question 169 - An 80-year-old man visits his primary care physician for a routine check-up. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man visits his primary care physician for a routine check-up. Upon examination, an irregularly irregular heart rate is detected and confirmed to be atrial fibrillation on an ECG. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. The physician is worried about preventing stroke. What medication would be the most appropriate for this concern?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rivaroxaban

      Explanation:

      For reducing the risk of stroke in patients with atrial fibrillation (AF), the first-line anticoagulation should be a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) such as rivaroxaban. This recommendation is based on a scenario where a patient is found to have AF during a wellbeing check and requires anticoagulation due to the increased risk of thrombosis. Aspirin is not the correct choice as it is an antiplatelet and not an anticoagulant. While dalteparin and enoxaparin are low molecular weight heparins that are often used for VTE prophylaxis, DOACs are preferred first-line for stroke risk reduction in AF. Patients often prefer DOACs as they are available in tablet form.

      NICE recommends using the CHA2DS2-VASc score to determine the need for anticoagulation in patients with any history of AF. The ORBIT scoring system should be used to assess bleeding risk, but anticoagulation should not be withheld solely on the grounds of age or risk of falls. DOACs are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF, with warfarin used second-line if a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 170 - A 9-year-old boy is being evaluated at the Enuresis clinic. Despite using an...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old boy is being evaluated at the Enuresis clinic. Despite using an enuresis alarm for the past three months, he continues to wet the bed at night. He has no issues with urination during the day and has a daily bowel movement. What treatment option is most probable to be suggested?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Desmopressin

      Explanation:

      Nocturnal enuresis, or bedwetting, is when a child involuntarily urinates during the night. Most children achieve continence by the age of 3 or 4, so enuresis is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine in a child aged 5 or older without any underlying medical conditions. Enuresis can be primary, meaning the child has never achieved continence, or secondary, meaning the child has been dry for at least 6 months before.

      When managing bedwetting, it’s important to look for any underlying causes or triggers, such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset UTIs. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Reward systems, like star charts, can also be helpful, but should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights.

      The first-line treatment for bedwetting is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up to use the toilet. If short-term control is needed, such as for sleepovers, or if the alarm is ineffective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin may be prescribed. Overall, managing bedwetting involves identifying any underlying causes and implementing strategies to promote continence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 171 - Among the following options, which condition is considered a restrictive lung disease/condition? ...

    Incorrect

    • Among the following options, which condition is considered a restrictive lung disease/condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Severe scoliosis

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Lung Diseases and their Spirometry Patterns

      Scoliosis and Lung Function
      Severe scoliosis can affect the respiratory muscles and the natural movements of the thoracic cage, leading to a restrictive pattern in pulmonary function tests. This can prevent the lungs from expanding correctly, compromising their function.

      Cystic Fibrosis and Lung Function
      In early stage cystic fibrosis, the presence of inflammation and thick secretions in the airways can cause an obstructive pattern in spirometry tests. As damage to the lung tissue occurs, a restrictive component can also develop, resulting in a combined obstructive and restrictive pattern.

      Emphysema and Lung Function
      Emphysema is a type of obstructive lung disease characterized by abnormal and irreversible enlargement of air spaces and alveolar wall destruction. This leads to airflow limitation and a spirometry pattern typical of obstructive lung disease.

      Asthma and Lung Function
      Asthma is an inflammatory disorder of the airways that causes hyperresponsiveness and constriction of the airways in response to various stimuli. This leads to airflow limitation and a spirometry pattern typical of obstructive lung disease.

      Bronchiectasis and Lung Function
      Bronchiectasis is characterized by abnormal and irreversible dilatation of the bronchial walls, leading to accumulation of secretions and recurrent inflammation of the airways. This produces an obstructive pattern in pulmonary function tests.

      In summary, different types of lung diseases can affect lung function in various ways, leading to different spirometry patterns. Understanding these patterns can help in the diagnosis and management of these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 172 - A 65-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 4-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 4-day history of increased shortness of breath, cough with green sputum, and reduced exercise tolerance. She has a history of COPD and is currently on a salbutamol inhaler, combined glycopyrronium and indacaterol inhaler, and oral prednisolone to manage her symptoms. She is being evaluated for BIPAP home therapy. On examination, her respiratory rate is 22/min, oxygen saturations are 85% in room air, heart rate is 86/min, temperature is 37.7ºC, and blood pressure is 145/78 mmHg. What is the most likely causative organism for her presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haemophilus influenzae

      Explanation:

      The most frequent cause of infective exacerbations of COPD is Haemophilus influenzae, according to research. This bacterium’s strains that cause COPD exacerbations are more virulent and induce greater airway inflammation than those that only colonize patients without causing symptoms. Patients with COPD have reduced mucociliary clearance, making them susceptible to H. influenzae, which can lead to airway inflammation and increased breathing effort. Coxsackievirus is linked to hand, foot, and mouth disease, which primarily affects children but can also affect immunocompromised adults. This option is incorrect because the patient does not have the typical symptoms of sore throat, fever, and maculopapular rash on hands, foot, and mucosa. Influenza A virus is associated with the bird flu pandemic and is not the most common cause of infective exacerbations of COPD. Staphylococcus aureus is not commonly associated with infective exacerbations of COPD. This bacterium is more commonly seen in mild cases of skin infections or can lead to infective endocarditis and is associated with biofilms causing infection.

      Acute exacerbations of COPD are a common reason for hospital visits in developed countries. The most common causes of these exacerbations are bacterial infections, with Haemophilus influenzae being the most common culprit, followed by Streptococcus pneumoniae and Moraxella catarrhalis. Respiratory viruses also account for around 30% of exacerbations, with human rhinovirus being the most important pathogen. Symptoms of an exacerbation include an increase in dyspnea, cough, and wheezing, as well as hypoxia and acute confusion in some cases.

      NICE guidelines recommend increasing the frequency of bronchodilator use and giving prednisolone for five days. Antibiotics should only be given if sputum is purulent or there are clinical signs of pneumonia. Admission to the hospital is recommended for patients with severe breathlessness, acute confusion or impaired consciousness, cyanosis, oxygen saturation less than 90%, social reasons, or significant comorbidity.

      For severe exacerbations requiring secondary care, oxygen therapy should be used with an initial saturation target of 88-92%. Nebulized bronchodilators such as salbutamol and ipratropium should also be administered, along with steroid therapy. IV hydrocortisone may be considered instead of oral prednisolone, and IV theophylline may be used for patients not responding to nebulized bronchodilators. Non-invasive ventilation may be used for patients with type 2 respiratory failure, with bilevel positive airway pressure being the typical method used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 173 - As a rheumatology clinic doctor, you are reviewing a 75-year-old woman who has...

    Incorrect

    • As a rheumatology clinic doctor, you are reviewing a 75-year-old woman who has recently been diagnosed with osteoporosis. Following the FRAX/NOGG guidance and the results of her DEXA scan, you have prescribed alendronic acid as part of her treatment plan. During your counseling session, she asks why she cannot take this medication like her other medications after breakfast. What is the potential risk if she does not take the medication as instructed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oesophageal reaction

      Explanation:

      When taking oral bisphosphonates, it is important to swallow them with plenty of water while sitting or standing on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or any other oral medication. After taking the medication, the patient should remain upright for at least 30 minutes. Effective counseling on administration is necessary as oral bisphosphonates can cause oesophageal retention and increase the risk of esophagitis. Oesophageal disorders and an unsafe swallow are contraindications for oral bisphosphonate therapy. Acute phase response may occur as a reaction to the bisphosphonate therapy itself, not the route of administration. Long-term bisphosphonate therapy is associated with atypical stress fractures, but this risk is not affected by the route of administration. Hypocalcaemia may occur with long-term bisphosphonate therapy, but it is not associated with the route of administration.

      Bisphosphonates: Uses and Adverse Effects

      Bisphosphonates are drugs that mimic the action of pyrophosphate, a molecule that helps prevent bone demineralization. They work by inhibiting osteoclasts, which are cells that break down bone tissue. This reduces the risk of bone fractures and can be used to treat conditions such as osteoporosis, hypercalcemia, Paget’s disease, and pain from bone metastases.

      However, bisphosphonates can have adverse effects, including oesophageal reactions such as oesophagitis and ulcers, osteonecrosis of the jaw, and an increased risk of atypical stress fractures of the proximal femoral shaft in patients taking alendronate. Patients may also experience an acute phase response, which can cause fever, myalgia, and arthralgia. Hypocalcemia, or low calcium levels, can also occur due to reduced calcium efflux from bone, but this is usually not clinically significant.

      To minimize the risk of adverse effects, patients taking oral bisphosphonates should swallow the tablets whole with plenty of water while sitting or standing. They should take the medication on an empty stomach at least 30 minutes before breakfast or other oral medications and remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the tablet. Hypocalcemia and vitamin D deficiency should be corrected before starting bisphosphonate treatment, and calcium supplements should only be prescribed if dietary intake is inadequate. The duration of bisphosphonate treatment varies depending on the patient’s level of risk, and some authorities recommend stopping treatment after five years for low-risk patients with a femoral neck T-score of > -2.5.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 174 - A 19-year-old female patient presents to the GP surgery with a 2-year history...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old female patient presents to the GP surgery with a 2-year history of heavy menstrual bleeding. She reports that it has been manageable since the start of her menarche at the age of 14 but last 2 years it has become increasingly heavy that it has been causing problems at college. She has to change the sanitary towels every hour on the first 3 days of her periods and has been experiencing significant social embarrassment associated with over-flowing. She reports mild cramping pain on the first 2 days of the menstruation and denies dyspareunia. She is currently not sexually active. You arrange some blood tests which showed a mild iron deficiency anaemia but otherwise normal. An ultrasound revealed a normal looking uterus.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dysfunctional uterine bleeding

      Explanation:

      When there is excessive menstrual bleeding without any underlying medical condition, it is referred to as dysfunctional uterine bleeding. Endometriosis typically causes pain a few days before menstruation and painful intercourse. The absence of fibroids and polyps is indicated by a normal ultrasound scan, and this condition is more prevalent in older women. Although a clotting disorder must be ruled out, the blood test results suggest that it is improbable.

      Understanding Menorrhagia: Causes and Definition

      Menorrhagia is a condition characterized by heavy menstrual bleeding. While it was previously defined as total blood loss exceeding 80 ml per menstrual cycle, the assessment and management of the condition now focuses on the woman’s perception of excessive bleeding and its impact on her quality of life. Dysfunctional uterine bleeding, which occurs in the absence of underlying pathology, is the most common cause of menorrhagia, accounting for about half of all cases. Anovulatory cycles, uterine fibroids, hypothyroidism, pelvic inflammatory disease, and bleeding disorders such as von Willebrand disease are other potential causes of menorrhagia. It is important to note that the use of intrauterine devices, specifically copper coils, may also contribute to heavy menstrual bleeding. However, the intrauterine system (Mirena) is a treatment option for menorrhagia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 175 - A 26-year-old male is admitted with acute severe asthma. The initial treatment of...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old male is admitted with acute severe asthma. The initial treatment of 100% oxygen, nebulised salbutamol and ipratropium bromide nebulisers and IV hydrocortisone is initiated. However, there is no improvement. What should be the next step in management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV magnesium sulphate

      Explanation:

      The routine use of non-invasive ventilation in asthmatics is not supported by current guidelines.

      Management of Acute Asthma

      Acute asthma is classified by the British Thoracic Society (BTS) into three categories: moderate, severe, and life-threatening. Patients with any of the life-threatening features should be treated as having a life-threatening attack. A fourth category, Near-fatal asthma, is also recognized. Further assessment may include arterial blood gases for patients with oxygen saturation levels below 92%. A chest x-ray is not routinely recommended unless the patient has life-threatening asthma, suspected pneumothorax, or failure to respond to treatment.

      Admission criteria include a previous near-fatal asthma attack, pregnancy, an attack occurring despite already using oral corticosteroid, and presentation at night. All patients with life-threatening asthma should be admitted to the hospital, and patients with features of severe acute asthma should also be admitted if they fail to respond to initial treatment. Oxygen therapy should be started for hypoxaemic patients. Bronchodilation with short-acting betaâ‚‚-agonists (SABA) is recommended, and all patients should be given 40-50mg of prednisolone orally daily. Ipratropium bromide and IV magnesium sulphate may also be considered for severe or life-threatening asthma. Patients who fail to respond require senior critical care support and should be treated in an appropriate ITU/HDU setting. Criteria for discharge include stability on discharge medication, checked and recorded inhaler technique, and PEF levels above 75% of best or predicted.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 176 - A 25-year-old actress visits your clinic seeking advice on contraception. She expresses concern...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old actress visits your clinic seeking advice on contraception. She expresses concern about weight gain as she needs to maintain her figure for her profession. Which contraceptive method has been linked to weight gain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Depo Provera (Medroxyprogesterone acetate)

      Explanation:

      Weight gain is a known side effect of the Depo Provera contraceptive method. Additionally, it may take up to a year for fertility to return after discontinuing use, and there is an increased risk of osteoporosis and irregular bleeding. Other contraceptive methods such as the combined pill, progesterone only pill, and subdermal implant do not have a proven link to weight gain.

      Injectable Contraceptives: Depo Provera

      Injectable contraceptives are a popular form of birth control in the UK, with Depo Provera being the main option available. This contraceptive contains 150mg of medroxyprogesterone acetate and is administered via intramuscular injection every 12 weeks. It can be given up to 14 weeks after the last dose without the need for extra precautions. The primary method of action is by inhibiting ovulation, while secondary effects include cervical mucus thickening and endometrial thinning.

      However, there are some disadvantages to using Depo Provera. Once the injection is given, it cannot be reversed, and there may be a delayed return to fertility of up to 12 months. Adverse effects may include irregular bleeding and weight gain, and there is a potential increased risk of osteoporosis. It should only be used in adolescents if no other method of contraception is suitable.

      It is important to note that there are contraindications to using Depo Provera, such as current breast cancer (UKMEC 4) or past breast cancer (UKMEC 3). While Noristerat is another injectable contraceptive licensed in the UK, it is rarely used in clinical practice and is given every 8 weeks. Overall, injectable contraceptives can be an effective form of birth control, but it is important to weigh the potential risks and benefits before deciding on this method.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 177 - A 35-year-old woman is referred to Rheumatology by her General Practitioner with general...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman is referred to Rheumatology by her General Practitioner with general ill-health. She has been complaining of general muscle weakness, a feeling of fatigue and a persistent cough. An autoimmune screen reveals high titres of anti-smooth muscle antibodies.
      Which of the following conditions is the most likely cause of this autoantibody profile?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Autoimmune hepatitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Anti-Smooth Muscle Antibodies and Their Association with Various Conditions

      Anti-smooth muscle antibodies (ASMA) are often present in autoimmune hepatitis type 1, primary biliary cholangitis, primary sclerosing cholangitis, and overlap syndromes. In contrast, low titres are seen with Epstein–Barr virus (EBV) infections and hepatitis A. Negative titres for ASMA are expected in healthy individuals.

      It is important to note that ASMA are not found in hypothyroidism or fibrosing alveolitis. Additionally, only low titres of ASMA can be seen with hepatitis A and EBV infections.

      Overall, the presence of ASMA can indicate the presence of underlying conditions and should be further investigated by a healthcare professional.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
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  • Question 178 - Samantha, a 56-year-old teacher, visits you for a check-up regarding her angina. Despite...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha, a 56-year-old teacher, visits you for a check-up regarding her angina. Despite taking the highest dosage of bisoprolol, she experiences chest pain during physical activity, which hinders her daily routine as she frequently needs to take breaks and rest after walking short distances. Her pain never occurs while at rest, and she has no known allergies or drug sensitivities. What is the recommended course of action for managing Samantha's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add amlodipine

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines (2019), if a beta-blocker is not effectively controlling angina, a long-acting dihydropyridine calcium-channel blocker (CCB) like amlodipine should be added. It is important to ensure that the patient is taking the highest tolerated dose of their current medications before adding new ones.

      Ramipril is not the best treatment option for this patient as there is no evidence of hypertension in their medical history. While ACE inhibitors like ramipril can be effective in preventing myocardial infarction and stroke in patients with angina and hypertension, they are not indicated in this case.

      Verapamil is a CCB that can be used to manage angina, but it should not be used in combination with a beta-blocker as this can increase the risk of severe bradycardia and heart failure.

      As the patient is not displaying any signs of unstable angina, such as pain at rest or rapidly progressing symptoms, admission to the emergency department is not necessary.

      If there is evidence of extensive ischaemia on an electrocardiograph (ECG) or the patient is not responding well to an optimised drug treatment, referral to cardiology for angioplasty may be necessary.

      Angina pectoris is a condition that can be managed through various methods, including lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. The first-line medication should be either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If the initial treatment is not effective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, other drugs such as long-acting nitrates, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. Nitrate tolerance is a common issue, and patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate should use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. This effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 179 - You are examining a 65-year-old individual with acanthosis nigricans. You suggest screening for...

    Incorrect

    • You are examining a 65-year-old individual with acanthosis nigricans. You suggest screening for diabetes. Due to the widespread skin alterations, including some oral changes, what other potential underlying condition should be taken into account?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Internal malignancy

      Explanation:

      While acanthosis nigricans may occur on its own in individuals with dark skin, it is typically a sign of insulin resistance and associated conditions such as type 2 diabetes, polycystic ovarian syndrome, Cushing’s syndrome, and hypothyroidism. Certain medications, including corticosteroids, insulin, and hormone medications, can also cause this condition. If acanthosis nigricans appears suddenly and in unusual areas such as the mouth, it may indicate the presence of an internal malignancy, particularly gastric cancer.

      Acanthosis nigricans is a condition characterized by the presence of symmetrical, brown, velvety plaques on the neck, axilla, and groin. This condition can be caused by various factors such as type 2 diabetes mellitus, gastrointestinal cancer, obesity, polycystic ovarian syndrome, acromegaly, Cushing’s disease, hypothyroidism, familial factors, Prader-Willi syndrome, and certain drugs like the combined oral contraceptive pill and nicotinic acid. The pathophysiology of acanthosis nigricans involves insulin resistance, which leads to hyperinsulinemia. This, in turn, stimulates the proliferation of keratinocytes and dermal fibroblasts through interaction with insulin-like growth factor receptor-1 (IGFR1).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 180 - A 26-year-old woman is recuperating from a kidney transplant. Within 24 hours of...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman is recuperating from a kidney transplant. Within 24 hours of the surgery, she complains of increased discomfort at the transplant site. Upon examination, she has a fever, tenderness at the transplant site, and has not produced urine since the procedure. Her creatinine levels have significantly increased in the past 24 hours. What is the fundamental mechanism behind her rejection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pre-existing antibodies against ABO or HLA antigens

      Explanation:

      Understanding HLA Typing and Graft Failure in Renal Transplants

      The human leucocyte antigen (HLA) system, also known as the major histocompatibility complex (MHC), is located on chromosome 6 and plays a crucial role in renal transplants. The HLA system includes class 1 antigens (A, B, and C) and class 2 antigens (DP, DQ, and DR), with DR being the most important for HLA matching in renal transplants. Graft survival rates for cadaveric transplants are 90% at 1 year and 60% at 10 years, while living-donor transplants have a 95% survival rate at 1 year and 70% at 10 years.

      Post-operative problems may include acute tubular necrosis of the graft, vascular thrombosis, urine leakage, and urinary tract infections. Hyperacute rejection, which occurs within minutes to hours, is caused by pre-existing antibodies against ABO or HLA antigens and leads to widespread thrombosis of graft vessels, resulting in the need for graft removal. Acute graft failure, which occurs within 6 months, is usually due to mismatched HLA and is picked up by a rising creatinine, pyuria, and proteinuria. Chronic graft failure, which occurs after 6 months, is caused by both antibody and cell-mediated mechanisms and leads to fibrosis of the transplanted kidney, with recurrence of the original renal disease being a common cause.

      In summary, understanding the HLA system and its role in renal transplants is crucial for successful outcomes. Monitoring for post-operative problems and early detection of graft failure can help improve long-term survival rates.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 181 - A 14-year-old girl, who is a keen dancer, visits her General Practitioner with...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old girl, who is a keen dancer, visits her General Practitioner with a painful rash on her foot. She says that it started several weeks ago and often stings. Examination reveals a red rash in the interdigital spaces, with small fissures and white exudate.
      What is the most appropriate treatment option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical miconazole

      Explanation:

      Understanding Topical Treatments for Skin Conditions

      Athlete’s foot is a common fungal infection that affects the toe webs and is often caused by excess moisture. The first-line treatment for this condition is a topical antifungal such as miconazole or terbinafine cream, which should be used twice daily for four weeks. If there is no improvement, further investigations may be required, and oral antifungals may be prescribed. It is important to advise patients on foot hygiene and to avoid walking barefoot in communal areas.

      Dithranol is a topical treatment for psoriasis, a condition that presents as large, scaly plaques with a symmetrical distribution. This is different from athlete’s foot, which is characterized by a moist, peeling rash between the toes. Emollients, which are topical moisturizers, are used for atopic eczema management and have no role in treating athlete’s foot.

      Oral terbinafine is reserved for severe or extensive fungal infections that cannot be treated with topical antifungal agents. Finally, while an antifungal/topical steroid combination may reduce symptoms more rapidly in cases of inflamed tissue, it has no overall benefit. Moderately potent topical steroids such as eumovate are more appropriate for managing atopic eczema.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 182 - An 88-year-old man with known metastatic prostate cancer is brought to the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • An 88-year-old man with known metastatic prostate cancer is brought to the emergency department confused. He is unable to provide further history but reports feeling generally unwell. Upon examination, his chest is clear, heart sounds normal, and abdomen is soft with no tenderness. The initial blood tests reveal:
      - Na+ 134 mmol/l
      - K+ 4.7 mmol/l
      - Urea 7.8 mmol/l
      - Creatinine 104 µmol/l
      - Adjusted Ca2+ 3.5 mmol/l
      - Mg2+ 0.81 mmol/l

      What would be your initial treatment plan?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: IV fluids

      Explanation:

      Severe cases (>3.0 mmol/l) requiring admission are often caused by malignancy, as seen in this patient. Treatment involves obtaining IV access and conducting appropriate biochemistry tests to check for other electrolyte abnormalities. A chest x-ray and ECG should also be performed. The first intervention should be fluid resuscitation to replace the deficit and maintain hydration, which may require large volumes (3-4 litres in the first 24 hours). If hypercalcaemia persists, IV bisphosphonates like zoledronate or pamidronate can be administered. Specific anticancer therapies can be considered after this.

      Managing Hypercalcaemia

      Hypercalcaemia is a condition where there is an excess of calcium in the blood. The initial management of hypercalcaemia involves rehydration with normal saline, typically 3-4 litres per day. This helps to flush out the excess calcium from the body. Once rehydration is achieved, bisphosphonates may be used to further lower the calcium levels. These drugs take 2-3 days to work, with maximal effect being seen at 7 days.

      Calcitonin is another option for managing hypercalcaemia. It works quicker than bisphosphonates but is less commonly used due to its short duration of action. Steroids may be used in sarcoidosis, a condition that can cause hypercalcaemia.

      Loop diuretics such as furosemide may also be used in hypercalcaemia, particularly in patients who cannot tolerate aggressive fluid rehydration. However, they should be used with caution as they may worsen electrolyte derangement and volume depletion.

      In summary, the management of hypercalcaemia involves rehydration with normal saline followed by the use of bisphosphonates or other medications depending on the underlying cause of the condition. It is important to monitor electrolyte levels and adjust treatment accordingly to prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 183 - A 67-year-old man with COPD comes to the emergency department complaining of right-sided...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man with COPD comes to the emergency department complaining of right-sided chest pain and shortness of breath that has been present for the past 4 days. A chest x-ray reveals a 2cm right-sided apical pneumothorax, which the on-call emergency physician promptly aspirates. The man has a smooth recovery but is curious about how he can avoid any future recurrences.

      What recommendations should be given to the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Avoid deep sea diving for life

      Explanation:

      The patient should be advised to avoid deep-sea diving for life due to the risk of pneumothorax. However, they can fly one week after having a chest x-ray showing complete resolution of the pneumothorax. There is no increased risk of catamenial pneumothoraces. Pleurodesis is not necessary for a single pneumothorax, whether primary or secondary.

      Management of Pneumothorax: BTS Guidelines

      Pneumothorax is a condition where air accumulates in the pleural space, causing the lung to collapse. The British Thoracic Society (BTS) has published updated guidelines for the management of spontaneous pneumothorax, which can be primary or secondary. Primary pneumothorax occurs without any underlying lung disease, while secondary pneumothorax is associated with lung disease.

      The BTS guidelines recommend that patients with a rim of air less than 2cm and no shortness of breath may be discharged, while those with a larger rim of air or shortness of breath should undergo aspiration or chest drain insertion. For secondary pneumothorax, patients over 50 years old with a rim of air greater than 2cm or shortness of breath should undergo chest drain insertion. Aspiration may be attempted for those with a rim of air between 1-2cm, but chest drain insertion is necessary if aspiration fails.

      For iatrogenic pneumothorax, observation is usually sufficient, but chest drain insertion may be necessary in some cases. Ventilated patients and those with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) may require chest drain insertion. If a patient has persistent or recurrent pneumothorax, video-assisted thoracoscopic surgery (VATS) may be necessary.

      Patients should be advised to avoid smoking to reduce the risk of further episodes. Fitness to fly is an absolute contraindication, but patients may travel 1 week after successful drainage if there is no residual air. Scuba diving should be permanently avoided unless the patient has undergone bilateral surgical pleurectomy and has normal lung function and chest CT scan postoperatively.

      Overall, the BTS guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to the management of pneumothorax, taking into account the type of pneumothorax, patient characteristics, and potential complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 184 - A 6-year-old boy is brought to the paediatrician for evaluation of recurrent sinus...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old boy is brought to the paediatrician for evaluation of recurrent sinus infections, tonsillitis and urinary tract infections. Laboratory analysis of his blood revealed severe lymphopenia, and his lymphocytes did not respond to mitogens. His levels of serum antibodies were abnormally diminished, as were B-cell and T-cell functions.
      What was the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID)

      Explanation:

      Severe combined immunodeficiency disease (SCID) is a condition that affects both B- and T-cell immunity, making patients more susceptible to viral, bacterial, mycobacterial, or fungal infections. It typically presents at a young age due to the severity of the immunodeficiency. SCID has two major forms: an X-linked recessive mutation in the γ-chain subunit of a cytokine receptor, which is more common in males, and an autosomal recessive mutation in the genes that encode the enzyme adenosine deaminase, which leads to toxic accumulation of nucleotides in differentiating lymphocytes, especially those in the T-cell lineage. Based on the patient’s female gender, young age at presentation, history of infections, and diminished B and T cells with low serum immunoglobulins, autosomal recessive SCID is the most likely diagnosis. Other conditions such as acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS), di George syndrome (dGS), systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), and Wiskott–Aldrich syndrome (WAS) have different pathogenic mechanisms and are less likely to be the cause of the patient’s presentation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
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  • Question 185 - A 78-year-old man is undergoing evaluation for a possible cognitive impairment and movement...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man is undergoing evaluation for a possible cognitive impairment and movement disorder. Various scans have been ordered to aid in the assessment. The scan results are as follows: MRI head shows normal age-related changes, while the SPECT scan reveals decreased dopaminergic activity in the substantia nigra. Based on this information, what is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Parkinson's disease

      Explanation:

      Neurodegenerative diseases are characterized by the progressive loss of neurons in the brain, leading to a range of symptoms. Parkinson’s disease is a common example, which affects the basal ganglia and causes movement disorders such as bradykinesia, muscle rigidity, tremor, and postural instability. Alzheimer’s dementia, on the other hand, is associated with atrophy of the medial temporal lobe and temporoparietal cortex, but does not typically involve movement disorders. Huntington’s disease primarily affects the striatum, leading to a loss of striatal volume and the characteristic symptom of chorea – jerky, uncontrollable limb movements. Multi-system atrophy is a rare condition that affects both the basal ganglia and cerebellum, leading to autonomic dysfunction, ataxia, and Parkinsonism, but cognitive impairment is not typically seen.

      Parkinson’s disease is a progressive neurodegenerative condition that occurs when dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra degenerate. This leads to a classic triad of symptoms, including bradykinesia, tremor, and rigidity, which are typically asymmetrical. The disease is more common in men and is usually diagnosed around the age of 65. Bradykinesia is characterized by a poverty of movement, shuffling steps, and difficulty initiating movement. Tremors are most noticeable at rest and typically occur in the thumb and index finger. Rigidity can be either lead pipe or cogwheel, and other characteristic features include mask-like facies, flexed posture, and micrographia. Psychiatric features such as depression, dementia, and sleep disturbances may also occur. Diagnosis is usually clinical, but if there is difficulty differentiating between essential tremor and Parkinson’s disease, 123I‑FP‑CIT single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT) may be considered.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 186 - A 58-year-old man presents to his doctor with concerns about his chest. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man presents to his doctor with concerns about his chest. He feels embarrassed and believes that he is developing breast tissue. Upon examination, bilateral gynaecomastia is the only abnormal finding. The patient has a medical history of hypertension, high cholesterol, type 2 diabetes, and benign prostatic hyperplasia. Which medication is the most probable cause of this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Finasteride

      Explanation:

      Gynaecomastia in males can have various underlying causes, some of which may be serious, such as endocrine disorders, liver failure, kidney failure, or malignancy. Additionally, medication-related causes should be considered, as in the case of this patient who was taking finasteride, which is known to cause gynaecomastia. Finasteride functions by inhibiting 5-alpha-reductase, which reduces dihydrotestosterone production and shrinks the prostate. However, it can also lead to side effects such as sexual dysfunction and gynaecomastia.

      Understanding Finasteride: Its Uses and Side Effects

      Finasteride is a medication that works by inhibiting the activity of 5 alpha-reductase, an enzyme responsible for converting testosterone into dihydrotestosterone. This drug is commonly used to treat benign prostatic hyperplasia and male-pattern baldness.

      However, like any medication, finasteride has its own set of adverse effects. Some of the most common side effects include impotence, decreased libido, ejaculation disorders, gynaecomastia, and breast tenderness. It is important to note that finasteride can also cause decreased levels of serum prostate-specific antigen.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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  • Question 187 - A 28-year-old woman visits her doctor to discuss her fertility and the possibility...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman visits her doctor to discuss her fertility and the possibility of conceiving. She is worried about the risk of spina bifida after a friend had a baby with the condition. The patient has no notable medical history and no family history of birth defects. What is the recommended dosage of the supplement used to prevent neural tube defects during the first 12 weeks of pregnancy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 400 micrograms

      Explanation:

      To prevent neural tube defects in the foetus, it is crucial to consume folic acid. It is advised that women who are planning to conceive should take a supplement of 400 micrograms of folic acid daily. This dose should be continued until the 12th week of pregnancy. If there is a family history or a previous pregnancy affected by neural tube defects, the recommended dose should be increased.

      Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention

      Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. It is found in green, leafy vegetables and plays a crucial role in the transfer of 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in the synthesis of DNA and RNA. However, certain factors such as phenytoin, methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause a deficiency in folic acid. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.

      To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, it is recommended that all women take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if they or their partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with certain medical conditions such as coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, or those taking antiepileptic drugs, or who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also considered higher risk.

      In summary, folic acid is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in DNA and RNA synthesis. Deficiency in folic acid can lead to serious health consequences, including neural tube defects. However, taking folic acid supplements during pregnancy can prevent these defects and ensure a healthy pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 188 - A 6-month-old infant presents to the Emergency Department with respiratory distress. The child...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-month-old infant presents to the Emergency Department with respiratory distress. The child has epicanthic folds and a single palmar crease. Genetic testing confirms an autosomal trisomy. What is the most frequent cardiac anomaly observed in infants with this disorder?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Atrioventricular septal defect

      Explanation:

      Cardiac Abnormalities in Down Syndrome Patients

      Down syndrome is a genetic disorder that often presents with physical characteristics such as epicanthic folds, single creases, and an autosomal trisomy. It is common for children with Down syndrome to have congenital heart disease, with 42% of the population affected. Of those, 23% have multiple cardiac abnormalities. The most prevalent cardiac abnormality, found in 37% of cases, is a complete atrioventricular septal defect. Ventricular septal defects are the second most common, affecting 30% of patients. Mitral valve disorders occur in up to 40% of Down syndrome patients, but mitral stenosis is less common. Atrial septal defects affect 15% of patients, while patent ductus arteriosus affects only 2%. Understanding the prevalence of these cardiac abnormalities in Down syndrome patients is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 189 - An 80-year-old man presents to ophthalmology with complaints of progressive vision loss over...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man presents to ophthalmology with complaints of progressive vision loss over the past few months, which has worsened suddenly in the last week. On visual field testing, a central scotoma is noted, and fundoscopy reveals well-defined red patches on the retina. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Wet age-related macular degeneration

      Explanation:

      If a patient experiences a gradual decline in vision over several months, along with metamorphopsia and a central scotoma, it is highly likely that they have wet age-related macular degeneration (ARMD). This condition is characterized by a sudden deterioration in vision, red patches on the retina during fundoscopy, and leakage of serous fluid and blood. Acute angle-closure glaucoma, on the other hand, presents with severe headaches, vomiting, and mid-dilated or irregularly shaped pupils. Dry ARMD also causes a slow decline in vision, but it does not result in sudden deterioration or red patches on the retina. Retinal detachment causes a painless loss of vision that starts peripherally and progresses centrally, while vitreous hemorrhage is a common cause of sudden visual loss in diabetics, characterized by dark spots in the vision and a hemorrhage within the vitreous cavity during fundoscopy.

      Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.

      To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with anti-oxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.

      In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and anti-oxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 190 - Which one of the following statements regarding the Holmes-Adie pupil is incorrect? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding the Holmes-Adie pupil is incorrect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bilateral in 80% of cases

      Explanation:

      Understanding Holmes-Adie Pupil

      Holmes-Adie pupil is a condition that is more commonly observed in women and is considered a benign condition. It is one of the possible causes of a dilated pupil. In about 80% of cases, it affects only one eye. The main characteristic of this condition is a dilated pupil that remains small for an unusually long time after it has constricted. The pupil also reacts slowly to accommodation but poorly or not at all to light.

      Holmes-Adie syndrome is a condition that is associated with Holmes-Adie pupil. It is characterized by the absence of ankle and knee reflexes. This condition is not harmful and does not require any treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 191 - A 79-year-old man presents to the emergency department with persistent left-sided epistaxis following...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old man presents to the emergency department with persistent left-sided epistaxis following a fall and hitting his nose on a door. He has a medical history of hypertension managed with amlodipine, atrial fibrillation managed with apixaban, stroke, and type 2 diabetes managed with metformin. On examination, he has active bleeding from the left anterior nasal septum and is spitting blood. Despite attempting to control the bleeding by squeezing his nose for 30 minutes and inserting a Rapid Rhino, the bleeding persists. What is an indication for surgical intervention in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Failure of nasal packing

      Explanation:

      If all emergency measures fail to stop epistaxis, sphenopalatine ligation in a surgical setting may be necessary.

      To manage epistaxis in an emergency, it is important to provide adequate first aid for at least 20 minutes by firmly squeezing both nasal ala and sitting forward. Ice in the mouth can also be helpful. Topical adrenaline and local anaesthetic, as well as topical tranexamic acid, can be applied. If these measures are unsuccessful, nasal packing with devices such as Rapid Rhino may be necessary. If the bleeding persists, a posterior pack or Foley catheter may be used. In cases where all of these measures fail, surgical intervention such as sphenopalatine artery ligation may be required.

      Understanding Epistaxis: Causes and Management

      Epistaxis, commonly known as nosebleeds, can be categorized into anterior and posterior bleeds. Anterior bleeds usually have a visible source of bleeding and occur due to an injury to the network of capillaries that form Kiesselbach’s plexus. On the other hand, posterior haemorrhages tend to be more severe and originate from deeper structures. They are more common in older patients and pose a higher risk of aspiration and airway obstruction.

      Most cases of epistaxis are benign and self-limiting. However, certain factors can exacerbate the condition, such as nose picking, nose blowing, trauma to the nose, insertion of foreign bodies, bleeding disorders, and immune thrombocytopenia. Other causes include the use of cocaine, hereditary haemorrhagic telangiectasia, and granulomatosis with polyangiitis.

      If the patient is haemodynamically stable, bleeding can be controlled with first aid measures. This involves asking the patient to sit with their torso forward and their mouth open, pinching the cartilaginous area of the nose firmly for at least 20 minutes, and using a topical antiseptic to reduce crusting and the risk of vestibulitis. If bleeding persists, cautery or packing may be necessary. Patients should be advised to avoid activities that increase the risk of re-bleeding.

      In cases where emergency management fails, sphenopalatine ligation in theatre may be required. Patients with unknown or posterior sources of bleeding should be admitted to the hospital for observation and review. Overall, understanding the causes and management of epistaxis is crucial in providing effective care for patients experiencing this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
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  • Question 192 - A 16-year-old complains of left knee pain that has been present for the...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old complains of left knee pain that has been present for the last 4 weeks. No injury history is reported. The pain is located in the front of the joint and is aggravated when ascending or descending stairs. Physical examination reveals no significant findings. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chondromalacia patellae

      Explanation:

      Common Knee Problems in Children and Young Adults

      Knee problems are common in children and young adults, especially those who are active in sports.
      Chondromalacia patellae is a condition that is more common in teenage girls. It is characterized by the softening of the cartilage of the patella, which can cause anterior knee pain when walking up and down stairs or rising from prolonged sitting. This condition usually responds well to physiotherapy.

      Osgood-Schlatter disease, also known as tibial apophysitis, is often seen in sporty teenagers. It causes pain, tenderness, and swelling over the tibial tubercle.

      Osteochondritis dissecans can cause pain after exercise, as well as intermittent swelling and locking of the knee.

      Patellar subluxation can cause medial knee pain due to lateral subluxation of the patella. The knee may also give way.

      Patellar tendonitis is more common in athletic teenage boys. It causes chronic anterior knee pain that worsens after running. On examination, the area below the patella is tender. It is important to note that referred pain may come from hip problems such as slipped upper femoral epiphysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 193 - A 70-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of feeling generally unwell...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of feeling generally unwell and lethargic for the past 2 weeks. He reports a yellow-green tinge to his vision as his only other symptom. The patient has a medical history of atrial fibrillation, depression, and a myocardial infarction 3 years ago. He takes multiple medications that come in a blister pack, but he is unsure of their names. Upon blood testing, his Digoxin concentration is 3 mcg/l (<1 mcg/l). What medication could have caused this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Explanation:

      Thiazides like bendroflumethiazide can cause digoxin toxicity by causing hypokalaemia, which allows digoxin to have more of an effect on Na+/K+ ATPase. Symptoms of digoxin toxicity are vague but may include gastrointestinal upset, weakness, fatigue, and xanthopsia. Citalopram, isosorbide mononitrate, and ramipril do not appear to have any significant effect on digoxin toxicity.

      Understanding Digoxin and Its Toxicity

      Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure patients. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, it has a narrow therapeutic index and requires monitoring for toxicity.

      Toxicity may occur even when the digoxin concentration is within the therapeutic range. Symptoms of toxicity include lethargy, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, confusion, yellow-green vision, arrhythmias, and gynaecomastia. Hypokalaemia is a classic precipitating factor, as it allows digoxin to more easily bind to the ATPase pump and increase its inhibitory effects. Other factors that may contribute to toxicity include increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, electrolyte imbalances, hypoalbuminaemia, hypothermia, hypothyroidism, and certain medications such as amiodarone, quinidine, and verapamil.

      Management of digoxin toxicity involves the use of Digibind, correction of arrhythmias, and monitoring of potassium levels. It is important to recognize the potential for toxicity and monitor patients accordingly to prevent adverse outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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  • Question 194 - A 72-year-old man presents to the cardiology clinic with symptomatic aortic stenosis. Despite...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents to the cardiology clinic with symptomatic aortic stenosis. Despite his overall good health, he is eager for intervention. What intervention is most likely to be recommended for him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bioprosthetic aortic valve replacement

      Explanation:

      Mechanical valves are typically preferred for younger patients as they have a longer lifespan compared to other types of prosthetic heart valves.

      Prosthetic Heart Valves: Options for Replacement

      Prosthetic heart valves are commonly used to replace damaged aortic and mitral valves. There are two main options for replacement: biological (bioprosthetic) or mechanical. Biological valves are usually sourced from bovine or porcine origins and are commonly used in older patients. However, they have a major disadvantage of structural deterioration and calcification over time. On the other hand, mechanical valves have a low failure rate but require long-term anticoagulation due to the increased risk of thrombosis. Warfarin is still the preferred anticoagulant for patients with mechanical heart valves, and the target INR varies depending on the valve type. Aspirin is only given in addition if there is an additional indication, such as ischaemic heart disease. Following the 2008 NICE guidelines, antibiotics are no longer recommended for common procedures such as dental work for prophylaxis of endocarditis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 195 - An 80-year-old man is admitted with a right lower lobe pneumonia. Along with...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man is admitted with a right lower lobe pneumonia. Along with consolidation, there seems to be a moderate-sized pleural effusion on the same side. A pleural fluid aspiration is performed under ultrasound guidance, and the fluid's appearance is clear, sent off for culture. While waiting for the culture results, what is the most crucial factor in deciding whether to place a chest tube?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: pH of the pleural fluid

      Explanation:

      According to the British Thoracic Society (BTS), chest tube placement in pleural infection is mainly indicated for patients with purulent or cloudy pleural fluid, positive Gram stain and/or culture results from non-purulent pleural fluid, and pleural fluid pH below 7.2. Among these indications, pleural fluid pH is considered the most valuable test.

      Investigating and Managing Pleural Effusion: BTS Guidelines

      Pleural effusion is a condition where fluid accumulates in the pleural space, the area between the lungs and the chest wall. To investigate and manage this condition, the British Thoracic Society (BTS) has provided guidelines.

      Imaging is an essential part of the investigation process, and the BTS recommends performing posterioranterior (PA) chest x-rays in all patients. Ultrasound is also recommended as it increases the likelihood of successful pleural aspiration and is sensitive for detecting pleural fluid septations. Contrast CT is increasingly performed to investigate the underlying cause, particularly for exudative effusions.

      Pleural aspiration is another crucial step in the investigation process. The BTS recommends using ultrasound to reduce the complication rate. A 21G needle and 50ml syringe should be used, and fluid should be sent for pH, protein, lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), cytology, and microbiology. Light’s criteria can help distinguish between a transudate and an exudate. Other characteristic pleural fluid findings include low glucose in rheumatoid arthritis and tuberculosis, raised amylase in pancreatitis and oesophageal perforation, and heavy blood staining in mesothelioma, pulmonary embolism, and tuberculosis.

      In cases of pleural infection, diagnostic pleural fluid sampling is required for all patients with a pleural effusion in association with sepsis or a pneumonic illness. If the fluid is purulent or turbid/cloudy, a chest tube should be placed to allow drainage. If the fluid is clear but the pH is less than 7.2 in patients with suspected pleural infection, a chest tube should be placed.

      For managing recurrent pleural effusion, options include recurrent aspiration, pleurodesis, indwelling pleural catheter, and drug management to alleviate symptoms such as opioids to relieve dyspnoea. The BTS guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to investigating and managing pleural effusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 196 - A 35-year-old woman comes back from a trip. During her final day overseas,...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman comes back from a trip. During her final day overseas, she had lunch from an unlicensed street food vendor. After eight days of returning home, she encounters bloating, abdominal discomfort, and non-bloody diarrhea, and she observes that her stools are floating in the toilet bowl. The patient's symptoms persist for nine weeks. What is the probable pathogen responsible for the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Giardia

      Explanation:

      Chronic Giardia infection can lead to malabsorption.

      Giardia is a type of protozoan that can be transmitted through the ingestion of contaminated fecal matter. While giardiasis typically resolves within a few weeks, if the infection persists for more than six weeks, it is considered chronic. Chronic Giardia infection can cause malabsorption of various nutrients, including vitamin A, B12, iron, zinc, and lipids. This malabsorption can result in steatorrhea, which is characterized by greasy, foul-smelling stools that float in the toilet bowl.

      It is important to note that other pathogens, such as Entamoeba histolytica, Escherichia coli, and Salmonella, do not commonly cause malabsorption. While they may cause diarrhea and other gastrointestinal symptoms, they do not typically result in the malabsorption of nutrients.

      Understanding Giardiasis

      Giardiasis is a condition caused by a type of protozoan called Giardia lamblia. It is transmitted through the faeco-oral route and can be contracted through various means such as foreign travel, drinking water from rivers or lakes, and even male-male sexual contact. While some individuals may not experience any symptoms, others may suffer from non-bloody diarrhea, bloating, abdominal pain, lethargy, flatulence, and weight loss. In severe cases, malabsorption and lactose intolerance may occur. Diagnosis can be made through stool microscopy, stool antigen detection assay, or PCR assays. Treatment typically involves the use of metronidazole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 197 - A breathless 65-year-old smoker presents with the following lung function tests:
    FEV1 (forced expiratory...

    Incorrect

    • A breathless 65-year-old smoker presents with the following lung function tests:
      FEV1 (forced expiratory volume in 1 second) 1.5 l (60%)
      FVC (forced vital capacity) 1.8 l (55%)
      FEV1:FVC ratio = 84%
      TLC (total lung capacity) = 66% predicted
      RV (residual volume) = 57% predicted
      TLCO (carbon monoxide transfer factor) = 55% predicted
      KCO (carbon monoxide transfer coefficient) = 60% predicted
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case?
      Select the SINGLE most likely diagnosis.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis: Differential Diagnosis with Other Respiratory Conditions

      Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF), also known as fibrosing alveolitis, is a chronic and progressive lung disease that affects people between the ages of 50 and 70 years. The disease is characterized by a significant restrictive defect in lung function tests, reduced KCO, and breathlessness. While there is no definitive treatment for IPF, up to 20% of patients can survive more than 5 years from diagnosis.

      When considering a differential diagnosis, it is important to rule out other respiratory conditions that may present with similar symptoms. Anaemia, for example, may cause breathlessness but would not produce a defect in lung function tests. Emphysema, on the other hand, would produce an obstructive pattern with a FEV1:FVC ratio of less than 70%. Obesity may also fit the picture of a restrictive defect, but it would not affect the KCO. In the case of asthma, an obstructive pattern with a FEV1:FVC ratio of less than 70% would be expected.

      In summary, understanding the differential diagnosis of IPF is crucial in providing appropriate treatment and management for patients with respiratory conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 198 - A 32-year-old woman with epilepsy complains of acne and bleeding gums. Which medication...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman with epilepsy complains of acne and bleeding gums. Which medication is most likely responsible for these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Phenytoin

      Explanation:

      Side Effects of Common Anticonvulsants

      Anticonvulsants are medications used to treat seizures and epilepsy. However, they commonly have side effects that patients should be aware of. Here are some of the common or more serious side effects reported for some of the most commonly prescribed anticonvulsants:

      Phenytoin: This medication can cause paraesthesia, gingival hypertrophy, tiredness, acne, hirsutism, coarsening of facial appearance, peripheral neuropathy, Steven-Johnson syndrome, and blood dyscrasias (such as aplastic anaemia and megaloblastic anaemia).

      Sodium valproate (Epilim®): Side effects of this medication may include weight gain, thrombocytopenia, transient hair loss, aggression and behavioural changes, ataxia and tremors.

      Carbamazepine: Dry mouth, fatigue, hyponatraemia, blood dyscrasia (such as aplastic anaemia), thrombocytopenia, haemolytic anaemia, eosinophilia, dermatitis, gynaecomastia, male infertility, hepatitis, and restlessness are all possible side effects of this medication.

      Lamotrigine (Lamictal®): Skin rash and hypersensitivity, blurred vision, dizziness, sleep disturbance, and joint pains are some of the side effects that may occur with this medication.

      Levetiracetam (Keppra®): Weight change and anorexia, abdominal pains, nausea, diarrhoea, and anxiety are all possible side effects of this medication.

      It’s important to note that gingival hypertrophy and tenderness are common effects of phenytoin, but not the other medications listed. Patients taking phenytoin should be encouraged to maintain good oral hygiene. Overall, patients should be aware of the potential side effects of their anticonvulsant medication and discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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  • Question 199 - A 32-year-old woman who is 8 weeks pregnant comes in with symptoms of...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman who is 8 weeks pregnant comes in with symptoms of 'cystitis'. She reports experiencing dysuria, suprapubic pains, and frequency for the past two days. She denies any vaginal bleeding. Upon urine dipstick testing, leucocytes and nitrites are present. Her temperature is 37.6ºC. What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral nitrofurantoin

      Explanation:

      This expectant woman displays indications that align with a urinary tract infection. According to the BNF, trimethoprim should not be used during the initial trimester as it can hinder folate. Ciprofloxacin is not recommended for use during pregnancy. Since the patient is clearly experiencing a UTI and has a fever, prompt treatment is necessary instead of waiting for the MSU.

      Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in adults and can affect different parts of the urinary tract. The management of UTIs depends on various factors such as the patient’s age, gender, and pregnancy status. For non-pregnant women, local antibiotic guidelines should be followed if available. Trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin for three days are recommended by NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. However, if the patient is aged over 65 years or has visible or non-visible haematuria, a urine culture should be sent. Pregnant women with UTIs should be treated with nitrofurantoin, amoxicillin, or cefalexin for seven days. Trimethoprim should be avoided during pregnancy as it is teratogenic in the first trimester. Asymptomatic bacteriuria in pregnant women should also be treated to prevent progression to acute pyelonephritis. Men with UTIs should be offered a seven-day course of trimethoprim or nitrofurantoin unless prostatitis is suspected. A urine culture should be sent before antibiotics are started. Catheterised patients should not be treated for asymptomatic bacteria, but if symptomatic, a seven-day course of antibiotics should be given. Acute pyelonephritis requires hospital admission and treatment with a broad-spectrum cephalosporin or quinolone for 10-14 days. Referral to urology is not routinely required for men who have had one uncomplicated lower UTI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 200 - A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic with symptoms of petechiae, purpura, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic with symptoms of petechiae, purpura, and epistaxis. She had a cold 6 weeks ago and has no known family history of bleeding disorders. Her lab results show a platelet count of 80 * 109/L (normal range: 150 - 400). What is the recommended first-line treatment for her likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Understanding Immune Thrombocytopenia (ITP) in Adults

      Immune thrombocytopenia (ITP) is a condition where the immune system attacks and reduces the number of platelets in the blood. This is caused by antibodies targeting the glycoprotein IIb/IIIa or Ib-V-IX complex. While children with ITP usually experience acute thrombocytopenia after an infection or vaccination, adults tend to have a more chronic form of the condition. ITP is more common in older females and may be detected incidentally during routine blood tests. Symptoms may include petechiae, purpura, and bleeding, but catastrophic bleeding is not a common presentation.

      To diagnose ITP, a full blood count and blood film are typically performed. While a bone marrow examination is no longer routinely used, antiplatelet antibody testing may be done, although it has poor sensitivity and does not affect clinical management. The first-line treatment for ITP is oral prednisolone, but pooled normal human immunoglobulin (IVIG) may also be used if active bleeding or an urgent invasive procedure is required. Splenectomy is now less commonly used as a treatment option.

      In some cases, ITP may be associated with autoimmune haemolytic anaemia (AIHA), which is known as Evan’s syndrome. It is important for individuals with ITP to work closely with their healthcare provider to manage their condition and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Dermatology (2/2) 100%
Cardiovascular (4/4) 100%
Paediatrics (5/6) 83%
Haematology/Oncology (5/5) 100%
Ophthalmology (5/5) 100%
Infectious Diseases (5/6) 83%
Genetics (1/2) 50%
Musculoskeletal (4/4) 100%
Reproductive Medicine (5/6) 83%
Neurology (4/4) 100%
Pharmacology/Therapeutics (3/4) 75%
Respiratory Medicine (4/4) 100%
ENT (5/6) 83%
Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease (4/5) 80%
Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Immunology/Allergy (3/3) 100%
Gastroenterology/Nutrition (2/3) 67%
Renal Medicine/Urology (2/2) 100%
Passmed