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Question 1
Correct
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What advice would you give a young man about his alcohol consumption?
Your Answer: No more than 14 units of alcohol per week. If you do drink as much as 14 units per week, it is best to spread this evenly over 3 days or more
Explanation:Please limit your alcohol consumption to a maximum of 21 units per week, with no more than 3 units in a single day.
Alcohol consumption guidelines were revised in 2016 by the Chief Medical Officer, based on recommendations from an expert group report. The most significant change was a reduction in the recommended maximum number of units of alcohol for men from 21 to 14, aligning with the guidelines for women. The government now advises that both men and women should not exceed 14 units of alcohol per week, and if they do, it is best to spread it evenly over three or more days. Pregnant women are advised not to drink alcohol at all, as it can cause long-term harm to the baby. One unit of alcohol is equivalent to 10 mL of pure ethanol, and the strength of a drink is determined by its alcohol by volume (ABV). Examples of one unit of alcohol include a 25ml single measure of spirits with an ABV of 40%, a third of a pint of beer with an ABV of 5-6%, and half a 175ml standard glass of red wine with an ABV of 12%. To calculate the number of units in a drink, multiply the number of millilitres by the ABV and divide by 1,000.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 2
Correct
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A 39-year-old woman experiences lower back pain that travels down her left leg while doing DIY work. She reports a severe, sharp, stabbing pain that worsens with movement. During clinical examination, a positive straight leg raise test is observed on the left side. The patient is given appropriate pain relief. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Your Answer: Arrange physiotherapy
Explanation:A prolapsed disc is suspected based on the patient’s symptoms. However, even if an MRI scan confirms this diagnosis, the initial management would remain the same as most patients respond well to conservative treatment like physiotherapy.
Understanding Prolapsed Disc and its Features
A prolapsed lumbar disc is a common cause of lower back pain that can lead to neurological deficits. It is characterized by clear dermatomal leg pain, which is usually worse than the back pain. The pain is often aggravated when sitting. The features of the prolapsed disc depend on the site of compression. For instance, L3 nerve root compression can cause sensory loss over the anterior thigh, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test. On the other hand, L4 nerve root compression can lead to sensory loss in the anterior aspect of the knee, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test.
The management of prolapsed disc is similar to that of other musculoskeletal lower back pain. It involves analgesia, physiotherapy, and exercises. According to NICE, the first-line treatment for back pain without sciatica symptoms is NSAIDs +/- proton pump inhibitors, rather than neuropathic analgesia. If the symptoms persist after 4-6 weeks, referral for consideration of MRI is appropriate. Understanding the features of prolapsed disc can help in the diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 3
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 4-month history of nasal congestion and coughing. Over the previous few days, she has also been experiencing a persistent headache which seems to be worse when she leans forward.
Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Chronic rhinosinusitis
Explanation:Differentiating Chronic Rhinosinusitis from Other Headache Disorders
Chronic rhinosinusitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the paranasal sinuses and nasal passages that lasts for 12 weeks or longer. Patients with chronic rhinosinusitis typically present with symptoms such as nasal congestion, coughing, persistent headache that worsens on bending forwards, facial pain, nasal discharge, and postnasal drip. Predisposing factors for chronic rhinosinusitis include atopy, nasal obstruction, recent local infection, swimming or diving, and smoking. Management of chronic rhinosinusitis involves avoidance of allergens, intranasal corticosteroids, and nasal irrigation with saline.
Acute sinusitis shares many features with chronic rhinosinusitis, but the history of symptoms is much shorter. Treatment for acute sinusitis includes analgesia, intranasal decongestants or nasal saline, and intranasal corticosteroids if symptoms persist for more than ten days. Oral antibiotics may be given for severe presentations.
Cluster headaches are characterized by intense, sharp, stabbing pain around one eye, accompanied by eye redness, lacrimation, lid swelling, nasal stuffiness, skin erythema, miosis or ptosis. Cluster headaches occur in clusters lasting between four and 12 weeks, with patients feeling completely fine in between clusters. Tension headaches are described as a band-like headache that does not impair activities of daily living.
Postnasal drip (PND) typically presents with a chronic cough and bad breath, unlike the presentation in chronic rhinosinusitis. It is important to differentiate chronic rhinosinusitis from other headache disorders to ensure appropriate management and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 4
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman with mild learning disability lives with her sister who has recently undergone surgery. Her sister reports that, since her surgery, the woman has stopped attending her weekly art class, has lost weight and has become withdrawn, refusing to engage in conversation.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Depression
Explanation:Differentiating between Mental Health Disorders in Patients with Learning Disabilities
When diagnosing mental health disorders in patients with learning disabilities, it can be challenging to differentiate between different conditions. In cases of major depression, patients may present with loss of interests, social withdrawal, and biological symptoms such as loss of appetite and weight. However, individuals with learning disabilities may be less likely to express depressive ideas, making diagnosis more reliant on changes in behavior and physical symptoms. Treatment for depression in patients with learning disabilities is similar to that of the general population, but special care must be taken in selecting antidepressants due to the higher incidence of physical health problems.
In cases of dementia, cognitive decline is typically present, whereas the patient in this scenario is experiencing depression following a traumatic event. Anxiety can also accompany depression, but the presence of biological symptoms and loss of interests suggest major depression. Social withdrawal in this scenario is more likely caused by depression rather than psychosis, and symptoms of mania would be the opposite of those listed. Overall, careful observation and consideration of individual patient history and symptoms are necessary for accurate diagnosis and treatment of mental health disorders in patients with learning disabilities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 5
Correct
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A 42-year-old female complains of a burning sensation on the anterolateral aspect of her right thigh. The doctor suspects meralgia paraesthetica. Which nerve is the most probable cause of this condition?
Your Answer: Lateral cutaneous nerve of thigh
Explanation:A possible cause of burning pain in the thigh is compression of the lateral cutaneous nerve, which can lead to a condition called meralgia paraesthetica. Meralgia paraesthetica, a condition characterized by burning pain in the thigh, may result from compression of the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh.
Understanding Meralgia Paraesthetica
Meralgia paraesthetica is a condition characterized by paraesthesia or anaesthesia in the distribution of the lateral femoral cutaneous nerve (LFCN). It is caused by entrapment of the LFCN, which can be due to various factors such as trauma, iatrogenic causes, or neuroma. Although not rare, it is often underdiagnosed.
The LFCN is a sensory nerve that originates from the L2/3 segments and runs beneath the iliac fascia before exiting through the lateral aspect of the inguinal ligament. Compression of the nerve can occur anywhere along its course, but it is most commonly affected as it curves around the anterior superior iliac spine. Meralgia paraesthetica is more common in men than women and is often seen in those aged between 30 and 40.
Patients with meralgia paraesthetica typically experience burning, tingling, coldness, or shooting pain, as well as numbness and deep muscle ache in the upper lateral aspect of the thigh. Symptoms are usually aggravated by standing and relieved by sitting. The condition can be mild and resolve spontaneously or severely restrict the patient for many years.
Diagnosis of meralgia paraesthetica can be made based on the pelvic compression test, which is highly sensitive. Injection of the nerve with local anaesthetic can also confirm the diagnosis and provide relief. Ultrasound is effective both for diagnosis and guiding injection therapy. Nerve conduction studies may also be useful. Overall, understanding meralgia paraesthetica is important for prompt diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man undergoes a routine medical examination and is found to have 3+ haematuria. This is confirmed on microscopy and on a second urinalysis 9 months later. He recalls experiencing two episodes of red urine in the past year, both of which occurred during upper respiratory tract infections. There is no family history of renal disease. He has no oedema but his blood pressure is 150/100 mmHg. His plasma creatinine level is 65 μmol/l (reference range 53–106 μmol/l). What is the most likely finding on a renal biopsy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Immunoglobulin A (IgA) nephropathy
Explanation:Common Kidney Diseases and Their Clinical Features
Immunoglobulin A (IgA) Nephropathy, Kimmelstiel Wilson Lesions, Cast Nephropathy, Minimal Change Disease, and Thin Basement Membranes are some of the common kidney diseases that affect people. Each of these diseases has unique clinical features that help in their diagnosis.
IgA Nephropathy, also known as Berger’s disease, is the most common cause of glomerulonephritis worldwide. It is characterized by predominant IgA deposition in the glomerular mesangium. Clinical features range from asymptomatic haematuria to rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis.
Kimmelstiel–Wilson Lesions, also known as nodular glomerulosclerosis, is a complication of diabetes mellitus. It is characterized by the formation of nodules of hyaline material in regions of glomerular capillary loops in the glomerulus.
Cast Nephropathy, also known as myeloma cast nephropathy, is the formation of urinary casts in the renal tubules from free immunoglobulin light chains, causing intratubular obstruction and damage, which leads to renal failure in the context of multiple myeloma.
Minimal Change Disease, also known as lipoid nephrosis or nil disease, arises from a histopathologic lesion in the glomerulus and is characterized by intense proteinuria leading to oedema and intravascular volume depletion.
Thin Basement Membranes is a group of inherited heterogeneous disorders involving the basement membranes of the kidney and frequently affecting the cochlea and eye as well. It is characterized by splitting and lamellation of the glomerular basement membrane.
In conclusion, understanding the clinical features of these common kidney diseases is crucial in their diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman with a dichorionic twin pregnancy is concerned about the possibility of her twins having Down's syndrome. What is the most suitable investigation to perform in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nuchal translucency ultrasonography on each twin
Explanation:There are several methods for screening and diagnosing Down’s syndrome in pregnancy. The nuchal translucency scan, which measures fluid in the fetal neck, is best done between 11 and 14 weeks and can detect an increased risk of genetic syndromes. The triple screen, which measures levels of certain hormones in the mother’s blood, is done in the second trimester and can detect up to 69% of cases in singleton pregnancies, but may have a higher false positive or false negative in twin pregnancies. Amniocentesis and chorionic villous sampling are invasive diagnostic tests that can detect chromosomal disorders with high accuracy, but carry a small risk of pregnancy loss. The routine anomaly scan should not be used for Down’s syndrome screening. Cell-free fetal DNA screening is a newer method that can detect about 99% of Down’s syndrome pregnancies, but is currently only offered by private clinics at a high cost. A positive screening result suggests an increased risk for Down’s syndrome, and definitive testing with chorionic villous sampling or amniocentesis is indicated.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 6-month-old is brought in by a concerned mother. She reports her baby crying after feeds and drawing his legs to his chest for several weeks. His growth is good and examination unremarkable.
Which of the following is the best treatment option?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Supportive advice and reassurance
Explanation:Managing Infantile Colic: Supportive Advice and Reassurance
Infantile colic can be a challenging condition for both parents and babies. While there is little evidence for treating colic, there are some strategies that can help manage the symptoms. Nursing the baby upright after feeds, bathing the infant in warm water, using white noise, gentle movement of baby, eg rocking the crib, holding baby during an episode, winding well and offering reassurance when needed can all be helpful.
However, it’s important to note that medications such as Infacol, Colief, Gaviscon, and Ranitidine are not recommended as first-line treatments due to lack of evidence. Maternal diet modification, probiotic supplements, herbal supplements, and manipulative strategies are also not recommended.
If your baby is experiencing colic, know that you are not alone and that supportive advice and reassurance can go a long way in managing the symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old known to be HIV positive comes to the clinic complaining of diarrhoea that has been ongoing for 2 days. What is the probable cause of his diarrhoea?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cryptosporidium
Explanation:Patients with HIV infection commonly experience diarrhoea as a result of Cryptosporidium, while respiratory infection may be caused by Histoplasmosis.
Diarrhoea in HIV Patients: Causes and Management
Diarrhoea is a common symptom experienced by patients with HIV. It can be caused by the virus itself, known as HIV enteritis, or by opportunistic infections. The most common infective cause of diarrhoea in HIV patients is Cryptosporidium, an intracellular protozoa with an incubation period of 7 days. Symptoms can range from mild to severe diarrhoea, and diagnosis is made through a modified Ziehl-Neelsen stain of the stool. Unfortunately, treatment is difficult, and supportive therapy is the mainstay of management.
Other possible causes of diarrhoea in HIV patients include Cytomegalovirus, Mycobacterium avium intracellulare, and Giardia. Mycobacterium avium intracellulare is an atypical mycobacteria that is typically seen when the CD4 count is below 50. Symptoms include fever, sweats, abdominal pain, and diarrhoea, and diagnosis is made through blood cultures and bone marrow examination. Management involves the use of rifabutin, ethambutol, and clarithromycin.
In summary, diarrhoea is a common symptom experienced by HIV patients, and it can be caused by a variety of opportunistic infections. While treatment can be difficult, supportive therapy can help manage symptoms. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of the potential causes of diarrhoea in HIV patients and to work with their patients to develop an appropriate management plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 10
Incorrect
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You are seeing a 5-year-old boy in your clinic who has a history of multiple wheezy episodes over the past 4 years and was diagnosed with asthma. He was admitted to the hospital 5 months ago with shortness-of-breath and wheeze and was diagnosed with a viral exacerbation of asthma. The paediatric team prescribed him a Clenil (beclometasone dipropionate) inhaler 50mcg bd and salbutamol 100mcg prn via a spacer before his discharge. His mother reports that he has a persistent night-time cough and is regularly using his salbutamol inhaler. On clinical examination, his chest appears normal. What would be the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add a leukotriene receptor antagonist
Explanation:Managing Asthma in Children: NICE Guidelines
Asthma management in children has been updated by NICE in 2017, following the 2016 BTS guidelines. The new guidelines for children aged 5-16 are similar to those for adults, with a stepwise approach for treatment. For newly-diagnosed asthma, short-acting beta agonist (SABA) is recommended. If symptoms persist, a combination of SABA and paediatric low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) is used. Leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) is added if symptoms still persist, followed by long-acting beta agonist (LABA) if necessary. Maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) is used as a combination of ICS and LABA for daily maintenance therapy and symptom relief. For children under 5 years old, clinical judgement plays a greater role in diagnosis. The stepwise approach is similar to that for older children, with an 8-week trial of paediatric moderate-dose ICS before adding LTRA. If symptoms persist, referral to a paediatric asthma specialist is recommended.
It should be noted that NICE does not recommend changing treatment for well-controlled asthma patients simply to adhere to the latest guidelines. The definitions of low, moderate, and high-dose ICS have also changed, with different definitions for adults and children. For children, <= 200 micrograms budesonide or equivalent is considered a paediatric low dose, 200-400 micrograms is a moderate dose, and > 400 micrograms is a high dose. Overall, the new NICE guidelines provide a clear and concise approach to managing asthma in children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 46-year-old woman who is passionate about health and fitness visits your GP clinic. She reports experiencing weight loss, increased thirst, and frequent urination. A urine dip test shows glucosuria, and her blood work indicates an HBA1c level of 63 mmol/mol. She mentions that her aunt passed away due to a pancreas problem. Despite receiving treatment for newly diagnosed diabetes, she still complains of weight loss. What factors should you take into account?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: CT scan
Explanation:If a person develops new onset diabetes at the age of 56 and has a strong interest in health and fitness, it is unlikely that they have type 2 diabetes. Therefore, it may be necessary to investigate secondary causes of pancreatic insufficiency, such as pancreatic cancer. In such cases, a CT scan is the most appropriate diagnostic tool, while abdominal X-ray and ultrasound are unlikely to be helpful. Repeating the urine dip test is not likely to provide any additional information, and delaying treatment by repeating blood tests in 120 days would be inappropriate. This person should be treated promptly, as they are symptomatic with an HBA1c level of over 48mmol.
Understanding Pancreatic Cancer: Risk Factors, Symptoms, and Management
Pancreatic cancer is a type of cancer that is often diagnosed late due to its non-specific symptoms. Adenocarcinomas, which occur at the head of the pancreas, make up over 80% of pancreatic tumors. Risk factors for pancreatic cancer include increasing age, smoking, diabetes, chronic pancreatitis, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma, and genetic mutations such as BRCA2 and KRAS.
Symptoms of pancreatic cancer can include painless jaundice, pale stools, dark urine, pruritus, anorexia, weight loss, epigastric pain, loss of exocrine and endocrine function, and atypical back pain. Migratory thrombophlebitis, also known as Trousseau sign, is more common in pancreatic cancer than in other cancers.
Diagnosis of pancreatic cancer can be made through ultrasound or high-resolution CT scanning, which may show the double duct sign – simultaneous dilatation of the common bile and pancreatic ducts. However, less than 20% of patients are suitable for surgery at diagnosis. A Whipple’s resection, or pancreaticoduodenectomy, may be performed for resectable lesions in the head of the pancreas. Adjuvant chemotherapy is usually given following surgery, and ERCP with stenting may be used for palliation.
In summary, pancreatic cancer is a serious disease with non-specific symptoms that can be difficult to diagnose. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms can help with early detection and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old female patient complains of gradual tingling and numbness in her right hand's 4th and 5th fingers. The symptoms were occasional at first, but now they are persistent. She observes that the discomfort intensifies when she rests her right elbow on a surface. She remembers hitting her elbow against a door a while back. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cubital tunnel syndrome
Explanation:Cubital tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the ulnar nerve is compressed, resulting in tingling and numbness in the fourth and fifth fingers.
The correct answer is cubital tunnel syndrome. The ulnar nerve passes through the cubital tunnel, and when it is compressed, it can cause the symptoms described, such as tingling and numbness in the fourth and fifth fingers. Treatment for this condition may involve conservative measures, but surgery may be necessary in some cases.
Carpal tunnel syndrome, on the other hand, is caused by compression of the median nerve at the wrist, leading to pain and tingling in the hand and wrist, rather than specific fingers.
De Quervain’s tenosynovitis presents differently, with pain occurring during movement of the thumb and wrist, and the radial styloid may become thickened and hardened.
Medial epicondylitis, or golfer’s elbow, causes pain in the medial elbow area, near the cubital tunnel, but it is a tendinopathy rather than nerve compression. The pain is localized to the affected area.
Understanding Cubital Tunnel Syndrome
Cubital tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the ulnar nerve is compressed as it passes through the cubital tunnel. This can cause a range of symptoms, including tingling and numbness in the fourth and fifth fingers, which may start off intermittent but eventually become constant. Over time, patients may also experience weakness and muscle wasting. Pain is often worse when leaning on the affected elbow, and there may be a history of osteoarthritis or prior trauma to the area.
Diagnosis of cubital tunnel syndrome is usually made based on clinical features, although nerve conduction studies may be used in selected cases. Management of the condition typically involves avoiding aggravating activities, undergoing physiotherapy, and receiving steroid injections. In cases where these measures are not effective, surgery may be necessary. By understanding the symptoms and treatment options for cubital tunnel syndrome, patients can take steps to manage their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old boy comes to the clinic with complaints of sudden jerking movements of his neck, causing his head to move involuntarily from left to right. He has been experiencing these symptoms for a few years, but lately, he has been feeling embarrassed as he involuntarily utters swear words in social situations. These symptoms worsen when he is under stress. What is the most probable diagnosis for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tourette’s syndrome
Explanation:Differentiating between Mental Disorders: Tourette’s Syndrome, Malingering, Conduct Disorder, Dissocial Personality Disorder, and Schizophrenia
Tourette’s Syndrome is a tic disorder that usually develops in childhood or adolescence, characterized by multiple motor tics and one or more vocal tics. The vocal tics need not be complete words or phrases and are often throat-clearing and grunting. Anti-psychotics such as pimozide, risperidone, and sulpiride have been shown to be of benefit.
Malingering is the act of fabricating symptoms for some sort of secondary gain, such as financial, manipulative, avoidance of school, obtaining drugs, or gaining sympathy or attention.
Conduct Disorder is a mental disorder diagnosed before or after the age of 10, characterized by a persistent and repetitive pattern of behavior that violates either the basic rights of others or goes against age-developmental norms. Childhood onset disorder can be linked to attention deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) type symptoms.
Dissocial Personality Disorder is characterized by a long-term disregard for others or the violation of others. Its precursor is conduct disorder. Antisocial personality disorder can be diagnosed when the patient reaches the age of 18 and has a history of conduct disorder in childhood or adolescence.
Schizophrenia does not typically present with involuntary movements. There is also no history of hallucinations, auditory or visual, or confused thinking.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old accountant has presented to her GP with a 5-day history of heartburn, nausea and a metallic taste in her mouth. She has a good appetite and has lost 2kg in the last month. She has a past medical history of hypertension, gastro-oesophageal reflux disease and osteoporosis. She takes amlodipine 5mg OD, risedronate 35 mg OD and lansoprazole 30 mg OD.
On examination, her abdomen is soft and nontender and there are no palpable masses. Her observations are normal.
What is the most appropriate management for this patient from the following options?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent upper gastrointestinal endoscopy
Explanation:An urgent referral is warranted when weight loss is a prominent symptom in dyspepsia.
Management of Dyspepsia and Referral for Possible Cancer
Dyspepsia is a common symptom that can be caused by various factors, including medication and lifestyle choices. However, it can also be a sign of underlying conditions such as stomach or oesophageal cancer. The 2015 NICE guidelines provide updated advice on when urgent referral for endoscopy is necessary. Patients with dysphagia or an upper abdominal mass consistent with stomach cancer should be referred urgently. Patients aged 55 years or older with weight loss and upper abdominal pain, reflux, or dyspepsia should also be referred urgently. Non-urgent referrals include patients with haematemesis or those with treatment-resistant dyspepsia, upper abdominal pain with low haemoglobin levels, or raised platelet count with other symptoms.
For patients with undiagnosed dyspepsia, a step-wise approach is recommended. First, medications should be reviewed for possible causes. Lifestyle advice should also be given. If symptoms persist, a trial of full-dose proton pump inhibitor for one month or a ‘test and treat’ approach for H. pylori can be tried. If symptoms persist after either approach, the alternative should be attempted. Testing for H. pylori infection can be done using a carbon-13 urea breath test, stool antigen test, or laboratory-based serology. If symptoms resolve following test and treat, there is no need to check for H. pylori eradication. However, if repeat testing is required, a carbon-13 urea breath test should be used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old man has been referred due to a tremor and bradykinesia, leading to a diagnosis of Parkinson's disease. These symptoms are now interfering with his work as an accountant and overall quality of life. What initial treatment is he likely to receive?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Levodopa
Explanation:Patients with newly diagnosed Parkinson’s who experience motor symptoms that negatively impact their quality of life should be provided with levodopa.
Management of Parkinson’s Disease: Medications and Considerations
Parkinson’s disease is a complex condition that requires specialized expertise in movement disorders for diagnosis and management. However, all healthcare professionals should be familiar with the medications used to treat Parkinson’s disease due to its prevalence. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) published guidelines in 2017 to aid in the management of Parkinson’s disease.
For first-line treatment, levodopa is recommended if motor symptoms are affecting the patient’s quality of life. If motor symptoms are not affecting the patient’s quality of life, dopamine agonists (non-ergot derived), levodopa, or monoamine oxidase B (MAO-B) inhibitors may be used. NICE provides tables to aid in decision-making regarding the use of these medications, taking into account their effects on motor symptoms, activities of daily living, motor complications, and adverse events.
If a patient continues to have symptoms despite optimal levodopa treatment or has developed dyskinesia, NICE recommends the addition of a dopamine agonist, MAO-B inhibitor, or catechol-O-methyl transferase (COMT) inhibitor as an adjunct. Other considerations in Parkinson’s disease management include the risk of acute akinesia or neuroleptic malignant syndrome if medication is not taken or absorbed, the potential for impulse control disorders with dopaminergic therapy, and the need to adjust medication if excessive daytime sleepiness or orthostatic hypotension develops.
Specific medications used in Parkinson’s disease management include levodopa, dopamine receptor agonists, MAO-B inhibitors, amantadine, COMT inhibitors, and antimuscarinics. Each medication has its own set of benefits and potential adverse effects, which should be carefully considered when selecting a treatment plan. Overall, the management of Parkinson’s disease requires a comprehensive approach that takes into account the individual needs and circumstances of each patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman presents with a 3-day history of cough, fever and left-sided pleuritic pain. On examination she has a temperature of 38.5 °C, a respiratory rate of 37/min, a blood pressure of 110/80 mm/Hg and a pulse rate of 110/min. Oxygen saturations are 95%. She has basal crepitations and dullness to percussion at the left lung base.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bronchopneumonia
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Cough and Fever: Bronchopneumonia vs. Other Conditions
Bronchopneumonia is a common condition that presents with a cough and fever, along with other symptoms such as sputum production, dyspnea, and pleuritic pain. Examination findings may include decreased breath sounds and focal chest signs. A chest radiograph can confirm the diagnosis. In primary care, a CRB-65 score is used to assess mortality risk and determine where to treat the patient: one point each for acute confusion, respiratory rate (RR) ≥30/min, systolic blood pressure (BP) <90 mmHg or diastolic BP <60 mmHg, age >65 years).
CRB-65 score Mortality risk (%) – Where to treat
0 <1 At home
1-2 1-10 Hospital advised, particularly score of 2
3-4 >10 Hospital advised, may require stay in intensive therapy unit (ITU).Other conditions that may present with similar symptoms include pneumothorax, pulmonary embolism, malignant mesothelioma, and tuberculosis. However, these conditions have distinct features that differentiate them from bronchopneumonia. For example, pneumothorax involves partial or full collapse of a lung, while pulmonary embolism results from obstruction of one or more of the pulmonary arteries. Malignant mesothelioma is a cancer that affects the pleura and peritoneum, and tuberculosis usually presents with a persistent productive cough, weight loss, night sweats, fevers, lymphadenopathy, and general malaise.
It is important to consider these differentials when evaluating a patient with cough and fever, and to use appropriate diagnostic tools to confirm the diagnosis and determine the best course of treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 17
Incorrect
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Which of the following relating to St John's Wort is not true?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Causes inhibition of the P450 system
Explanation:The P450 system is known to be induced by St John’s Wort.
St John’s Wort: An Alternative Treatment for Mild-Moderate Depression
St John’s Wort has been found to be as effective as tricyclic antidepressants in treating mild-moderate depression. Its mechanism of action is thought to be similar to SSRIs, although it has also been shown to inhibit noradrenaline uptake. However, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) advises against its use due to uncertainty about appropriate doses, variation in the nature of preparations, and potential serious interactions with other drugs.
In clinical trials, the adverse effects of St John’s Wort were similar to those of a placebo. However, it can cause serotonin syndrome and is an inducer of the P450 system, which can lead to decreased levels of drugs such as warfarin and ciclosporin. Additionally, the effectiveness of the combined oral contraceptive pill may be reduced.
Overall, St John’s Wort may be a viable alternative treatment for those with mild-moderate depression. However, caution should be exercised due to potential interactions with other medications and the lack of standardization in dosing and preparation. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional before starting any new treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old woman, who is 14 weeks and 5 days into her first pregnancy, visits the clinic to inquire about Down's syndrome screening. She failed to attend her screening appointment at 12 weeks pregnant and is curious if she can still undergo the combined test.
What guidance would you provide to her?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The combined test can still be offered
Explanation:Screening for Down’s syndrome, which involves the nuchal scan, is conducted during antenatal care at 11-13+6 weeks. The combined test, which also includes the nuchal scan, is performed during this time frame. However, if the patient prefers to undergo the screening at a later stage of pregnancy, they can opt for the triple or quadruple test between 15 and 20 weeks.
NICE guidelines recommend 10 antenatal visits for first pregnancies and 7 for subsequent pregnancies if uncomplicated. The purpose of each visit is outlined, including booking visits, scans, screening for Down’s syndrome, routine care for blood pressure and urine, and discussions about labour and birth plans. Rhesus negative women are offered anti-D prophylaxis at 28 and 34 weeks. The guidelines also recommend discussing options for prolonged pregnancy at 41 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old girl presents to her General Practitioner complaining of pain to the left knee which is worse after running. The knee is stiff in the morning and sometimes locks. There is a knee effusion present on examination and an X-ray shows a loose body in the knee joint.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Osteochondritis dissecans
Explanation:Common Causes of Knee Pain in Adolescents and Young Adults
Knee pain is a common complaint among adolescents and young adults. There are several possible causes of knee pain, including osteochondritis dissecans, chondromalacia patellae, Osgood-Schlatter disease, osteoarthritis, and patellar dislocation.
Osteochondritis dissecans occurs when the articular cartilage separates from the joint surface, typically in the knee joint. This condition is common in teenagers and young adults and can cause vague, achy joint pain that worsens with activity. Other symptoms may include swelling, locking, catching, and giving way. Diagnosis is confirmed with an X-ray and magnetic resonance imaging can help with management and prognosis.
Chondromalacia patellae is characterized by abnormal softening of the cartilage on the underside of the patella. This condition is a common cause of chronic knee pain in teenagers and young adults. Symptoms include anterior knee pain that worsens after sitting for a prolonged period or walking down stairs. Diagnosis is made through examination and a positive shrug test.
Osgood-Schlatter disease is a cause of knee pain in young adolescents, particularly sporty boys. It is caused by overuse of the quadriceps, which strains the patellar ligament attachment to the tibia. Symptoms include pain inferior to the patella that worsens with activity and improves with rest. Diagnosis is usually clinical and treatment involves simple analgesics and ice packs.
Osteoarthritis is a disease of older age caused by degeneration of the articular cartilage. It is often seen in weight-bearing areas such as the knee and hip, but is unlikely in young adults.
Patellar dislocation is most common in teenage girls and often occurs during sports. Symptoms include sudden pain and an inability to weight bear on the affected side. Examination reveals a dislocated patella, often laterally, and an associated osteochondral fracture may be seen on an X-ray.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old college student presents with results from triple swabs for a yellow vaginal discharge. Microscopy reveals the presence of 'intracellular Gram-negative diplococci'. The patient is in good health with a negative pregnancy test. What course of treatment would you recommend?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IM ceftriaxone
Explanation:Gonorrhoea is best treated with intramuscular ceftriaxone.
Understanding Gonorrhoea: Causes, Symptoms, Microbiology, and Management
Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the Gram-negative diplococcus Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It can occur on any mucous membrane surface, including the genitourinary tract, rectum, and pharynx. The incubation period of gonorrhoea is typically 2-5 days. Symptoms in males include urethral discharge and dysuria, while females may experience cervicitis leading to vaginal discharge. Rectal and pharyngeal infections are usually asymptomatic.
Immunisation against gonorrhoea is not possible, and reinfection is common due to antigen variation of type IV pili and Opa proteins. Local complications may develop, including urethral strictures, epididymitis, and salpingitis, which can lead to infertility. Disseminated infection may also occur, with gonococcal infection being the most common cause of septic arthritis in young adults.
Management of gonorrhoea involves the use of antibiotics. Ciprofloxacin used to be the treatment of choice, but there is now increased resistance to it. Cephalosporins are now more widely used, with a single dose of IM ceftriaxone 1g being the new first-line treatment. If ceftriaxone is refused, oral cefixime 400mg + oral azithromycin 2g should be used. Disseminated gonococcal infection (DGI) and gonococcal arthritis may also occur, with symptoms including tenosynovitis, migratory polyarthritis, and dermatitis. Later complications include septic arthritis, endocarditis, and perihepatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She has a history of perianal abscess, but no other significant medical issues. Over the past few months, she has visited the Emergency Department twice due to persistent abdominal pain. She has also experienced occasional episodes of bloody diarrhea. Blood tests reveal microcytic anemia and mild hypokalemia. Her albumin levels are low, but her liver function tests are normal. Barium imaging shows a small bowel stricture with evidence of mucosal ulceration, as well as normal-looking mucosa and skip pattern lesions. Based on these symptoms, what is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Crohn's disease
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of Chronic Diarrhoea with Abdominal Pain and Weight Loss
Chronic diarrhoea with abdominal pain and weight loss can be indicative of various gastrointestinal disorders. A thorough differential diagnosis is necessary to determine the underlying cause.
Crohn’s Disease: This inflammatory bowel disease can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract and is characterized by prolonged diarrhoea with abdominal pain, weight loss, and fatigue. Diarrhoea is usually not bloody, but if the colon is involved, patients may report diffuse abdominal pain accompanied by mucus, blood, and pus in the stool. Serologic tests such as ASCA and p-ANCA can help differentiate Crohn’s disease from other conditions.
Ulcerative Colitis: Unlike Crohn’s disease, UC involves only the large bowel and is characterized by rectal bleeding, frequent stools, and mucus discharge from the rectum. Sigmoidoscopy can confirm the diagnosis.
Small Bowel Lymphoma: MALTomas can occur in various gastrointestinal sites, but most patients have no physical findings.
Coeliac Disease: This chronic disorder results in an inability to tolerate gliadin and is characterized by electrolyte imbalances, evidence of malnutrition, and anaemia. Diarrhoea is the most common symptom, with characteristic foul-smelling stools.
Tropical Sprue: This syndrome is characterized by acute or chronic diarrhoea, weight loss, and nutrient malabsorption and occurs in residents or visitors to the tropics and subtropics. However, it is not suggestive in the absence of a history of foreign travel.
In conclusion, a thorough evaluation of symptoms and diagnostic tests is necessary to differentiate between these gastrointestinal disorders and determine the appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A mother brings in her 4-week old male baby who was born at 30 weeks. He was discharged from neonatal intensive care unit 2 weeks ago. She reports that for the last 4 days, he has been refusing feed. This morning she noticed that he passed some bloody stools. On examination, the baby has a distended abdomen.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Necrotising enterocolitis
Explanation:Feeding intolerance, abdominal distension, and bloody stools are among the early signs of necrotising enterocolitis, which is a high risk for preterm babies. Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GORD) does not cause abdominal distension and bloody stools, while duodenal atresia typically presents with bilious vomiting within the first day of life and does not cause bloody stools. Although hospital-acquired infection is a possibility, given the clinical picture and preterm status, ruling out necrotising enterocolitis should be the priority.
Understanding Necrotising Enterocolitis
Necrotising enterocolitis is a serious condition that is responsible for a significant number of premature infant deaths. The condition is characterized by symptoms such as feeding intolerance, abdominal distension, and bloody stools. If left untreated, these symptoms can quickly progress to more severe symptoms such as abdominal discolouration, perforation, and peritonitis.
To diagnose necrotising enterocolitis, doctors often use abdominal x-rays. These x-rays can reveal a number of important indicators of the condition, including dilated bowel loops, bowel wall oedema, and intramural gas. Other signs that may be visible on an x-ray include portal venous gas, pneumoperitoneum resulting from perforation, and air both inside and outside of the bowel wall. In some cases, an x-ray may also reveal air outlining the falciform ligament, which is known as the football sign.
Overall, understanding the symptoms and diagnostic indicators of necrotising enterocolitis is crucial for early detection and treatment of this serious condition. By working closely with healthcare professionals and following recommended screening protocols, parents and caregivers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for premature infants at risk for this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old male presents to the neurology clinic with concerns about increasing numbness in his fingers and soles of his feet. He was diagnosed with epilepsy in his early twenties and has been managing his seizures effectively. Which medication is most likely responsible for his symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phenytoin
Explanation:Phenytoin is recognized to cause peripheral neuropathy as a side effect.
Phenytoin: Mechanism of Action and Adverse Effects
Phenytoin is a medication used to manage seizures. Its mechanism of action involves binding to sodium channels, which increases their refractory period. However, the drug is associated with a large number of adverse effects, which can be categorized as acute, chronic, idiosyncratic, and teratogenic. Acute effects include dizziness, diplopia, nystagmus, slurred speech, ataxia, confusion, and seizures. Chronic effects include gingival hyperplasia, hirsutism, coarsening of facial features, drowsiness, megaloblastic anemia, peripheral neuropathy, enhanced vitamin D metabolism causing osteomalacia, lymphadenopathy, and dyskinesia. Idiosyncratic effects include fever, rashes, hepatitis, Dupuytren’s contracture, aplastic anemia, and drug-induced lupus. Teratogenic effects are associated with cleft palate and congenital heart disease. Although routine monitoring of phenytoin levels is not necessary, trough levels should be checked before dosing in cases of dose adjustment, suspected toxicity, or non-adherence to the prescribed medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old male visits his primary care physician for a diabetic check-up. He has been dealing with type-two diabetes mellitus for a while, but has not been able to control it completely. Despite making all the necessary lifestyle changes and taking metformin and gliclazide, he complains of polyuria and his Hba1c is 62 mmol/mol. He has a history of hypertension, which is managed with amlodipine, and recurrent urinary tract infections. He is hesitant to use insulin due to his fear of needles. What is the best course of action for managing his condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Add sitagliptin
Explanation:If a patient with TD2M is already taking two drugs and their HbA1c is above 58 mmol/mol, they should be offered a third drug or insulin therapy. However, insulin therapy should be avoided if possible for patients who are afraid of needles. In this case, the best option is to add sitagliptin to the patient’s current medication regimen of metformin and gliclazide. SGLT-2 inhibitors should be avoided due to the patient’s history of recurrent urinary tract infections, and pioglitazone is rarely prescribed. Exenatide is not appropriate for this patient as it is a GLP-1 mimetic and should only be added if the patient cannot tolerate triple therapy and has a BMI greater than 35. It is not recommended to stop any current medications and substitute them with sitagliptin, as the drugs should work synergistically together.
NICE updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022, reflecting advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. The first-line drug of choice remains metformin, which should be titrated up slowly to minimize gastrointestinal upset. HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients and checked every 3-6 months until stable, with consideration for relaxing targets on a case-by-case basis. Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates and controlling intake of foods containing saturated fats and trans fatty acids. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease. Only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin, with atorvastatin 20mg as the first-line choice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman is admitted to hospital with community-acquired pneumonia. She has developed acute kidney injury. Her blood results show the following:
Test Result Reference range
Potassium (K) (mmol/l) 6.0 3.5-5.3
Creatine (Cr) (μmol/l) 220
Male: 80-110
Female: 70-100
Which of the following of her medications should be stopped immediately?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:Medication and Renal Impairment: Considerations and Dose Adjustments
When prescribing medication for patients with renal impairment, it is important to consider the potential for inducing or worsening kidney damage. Here are some considerations and dose adjustments for commonly prescribed medications:
Ramipril: This ACE inhibitor has the potential to cause hypotension, which can lead to impaired kidney function. In patients with stable renal impairment, a maximum daily dose of 5 mg can be considered. The initial dose should not exceed 1.25 mg daily if eGFR is <30 ml/min per 1.73 m2. Bisoprolol: This medication is not associated with inducing or worsening kidney damage. However, the dose should be reduced if eGFR is lower than 20 ml/min per 1.73 m2 (maximum 10 mg daily). Paracetamol: At therapeutic doses, paracetamol is not associated with kidney damage. However, in overdose, it can cause renal damage. The minimum interval between doses should be six hours if eGFR is <30 ml/min per 1.73 m2. Fluticasone with salmeterol: Neither component of this inhaler is associated with kidney damage and does not require dose adjustment in patients with renal disease. Simvastatin: Statins should be used with caution in patients with renal impairment, as the likelihood of muscle toxicity increases with higher doses. Doses >10 mg daily should be used with caution if eGFR is lower than 30 ml/min per 1.73 m2.
In summary, medication dosing and selection should be carefully considered in patients with renal impairment to avoid potential kidney damage and ensure optimal therapeutic outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man with a history of epilepsy presents with a complaint of numbness in his hands and feet after a recent change in medication. Upon examination, he exhibits reduced sensation in a glove-and-stocking distribution and a decreased ankle reflex. Additionally, he has lymphadenopathy in the cervical and inguinal region and bleeding gums. Which medication is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phenytoin
Explanation:Phenytoin: Mechanism of Action and Adverse Effects
Phenytoin is a medication used to manage seizures. Its mechanism of action involves binding to sodium channels, which increases their refractory period. However, the drug is associated with a large number of adverse effects, which can be categorized as acute, chronic, idiosyncratic, and teratogenic. Acute effects include dizziness, diplopia, nystagmus, slurred speech, ataxia, confusion, and seizures. Chronic effects include gingival hyperplasia, hirsutism, coarsening of facial features, drowsiness, megaloblastic anemia, peripheral neuropathy, enhanced vitamin D metabolism causing osteomalacia, lymphadenopathy, and dyskinesia. Idiosyncratic effects include fever, rashes, hepatitis, Dupuytren’s contracture, aplastic anemia, and drug-induced lupus. Teratogenic effects are associated with cleft palate and congenital heart disease. Although routine monitoring of phenytoin levels is not necessary, trough levels should be checked before dosing in cases of dose adjustment, suspected toxicity, or non-adherence to the prescribed medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man visits his GP complaining of burning and itching of his eyelids, particularly in the mornings. He reports feeling dryness and grittiness in his eyes and has stopped using contact lenses, opting for glasses instead. Upon examination, the GP notes redness, crusting, and slight swelling of the eyelid margins, as well as a small chalazion on the lower right lid. The patient's visual acuity remains unchanged and both conjunctivae are clear. What is the recommended first-line treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Regular lid hygiene
Explanation:The initial and most important treatment for blepharitis, a common and chronic condition, is regular lid hygiene. Although there are different types of blepharitis, lid hygiene is the first-line treatment for all of them. The goal is to clear out any stagnant oily secretions, unblock meibomian glands, remove bacteria and flakes of skin, and soothe the eyelids. Patients should practice lid hygiene twice daily, which involves warmth, massage, and cleansing. There are many patient information leaflets available online that explain the process. Oral tetracycline is not the first-line treatment for blepharitis and is usually unnecessary if lid hygiene measures are followed. If symptoms persist, a course of oral tetracycline may be considered, especially in cases where meibomian gland dysfunction is prominent and there is associated rosacea. Sodium cromoglicate eye drops are not used in the management of blepharitis, as they are intended for allergic eye disease. Steroid eye drops are not a primary care treatment option for blepharitis and are not first-line, although they may be considered by specialists in cases resistant to other treatment measures.
Blepharitis is a condition where the eyelid margins become inflamed. This can be caused by dysfunction of the meibomian glands (posterior blepharitis) or seborrhoeic dermatitis/staphylococcal infection (anterior blepharitis). It is more common in patients with rosacea. The meibomian glands secrete oil to prevent rapid evaporation of the tear film, so any problem affecting these glands can cause dryness and irritation of the eyes. Symptoms of blepharitis are usually bilateral and include grittiness, discomfort around the eyelid margins, sticky eyes in the morning, and redness of the eyelid margins. Styes and chalazions are also more common in patients with blepharitis, and secondary conjunctivitis may occur.
Management of blepharitis involves softening the lid margin with hot compresses twice a day and practicing lid hygiene to remove debris from the lid margins. This can be done using cotton wool buds dipped in a mixture of cooled boiled water and baby shampoo or sodium bicarbonate in cooled boiled water. Artificial tears may also be given for symptom relief in people with dry eyes or an abnormal tear film.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old boy is presented for surgery after the appearance of multiple small, umbilicated lesions on his right leg. He has no prior history of such lesions and is generally healthy, except for a history of allergies. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassure
Explanation:Understanding Molluscum Contagiosum
Molluscum contagiosum is a viral skin infection that is commonly seen in children, particularly those with atopic eczema. It is caused by the molluscum contagiosum virus and can be transmitted through direct contact or contaminated surfaces. The infection presents as pinkish or pearly white papules with a central umbilication, which can appear anywhere on the body except for the palms of the hands and soles of the feet. In children, lesions are commonly seen on the trunk and in flexures, while in adults, sexual contact may lead to lesions developing on the genitalia, pubis, thighs, and lower abdomen.
While molluscum contagiosum is a self-limiting condition that usually resolves within 18 months, it is important to avoid sharing towels, clothing, and baths with uninfected individuals to prevent transmission. Scratching the lesions should also be avoided, and treatment may be considered if the itch is problematic. However, treatment is not usually recommended, and if necessary, simple trauma or cryotherapy may be used. In some cases, referral may be necessary, such as for individuals who are HIV-positive with extensive lesions or those with eyelid-margin or ocular lesions and associated red eye.
Overall, understanding molluscum contagiosum and taking appropriate precautions can help prevent transmission and alleviate symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old female patient visits the clinic and expresses concern about breast cancer screening. She is anxious because her sister was recently diagnosed with breast cancer. She wants to know if she should undergo breast cancer screening. The patient is in good health and has no other family history. What is the best course of action to take next?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to the breast clinic
Explanation:A referral to secondary care is necessary when there is a history of breast cancer in the patient’s paternal family. This is because breast cancer may not be detectable during a routine breast examination, and waiting for a screening appointment could result in a delayed diagnosis. It is important to note that a review in one year may also lead to a delay in diagnosis, as the patient is at a high risk for familial breast cancer.
Breast cancer screening is offered to women aged 50-70 years through the NHS Breast Screening Programme. Mammograms are provided every three years, and women over 70 years are encouraged to make their own appointments. While the effectiveness of breast screening is debated, it is estimated that the programme saves around 1,400 lives annually.
For those with familial breast cancer, NICE guidelines recommend referral if there is a family history of breast cancer with any of the following: diagnosis before age 40, bilateral breast cancer, male breast cancer, ovarian cancer, Jewish ancestry, sarcoma in a relative under 45 years, glioma or childhood adrenal cortical carcinomas, complicated patterns of multiple cancers at a young age, or paternal history of breast cancer with two or more relatives on the father’s side. Women at increased risk due to family history may be offered screening at a younger age. Referral to a breast clinic is recommended for those with a first-degree relative diagnosed with breast cancer before age 40, a first-degree male relative with breast cancer, a first-degree relative with bilateral breast cancer before age 50, two first-degree relatives or one first-degree and one second-degree relative with breast cancer, or a first- or second-degree relative with breast and ovarian cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of difficulty with fine movements in her hands. She reports that her hands become pale and numb when exposed to cold temperatures. Upon examination, the GP observes thickening and tightening of the skin over the patient's hands. What other symptom would indicate a possible diagnosis of limited systemic sclerosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Heartburn
Explanation:CREST syndrome is a subtype of limited systemic sclerosis that includes calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, oesophageal dysmotility, sclerodactyly, and telangiectasia. If a patient experiences heartburn, it may indicate oesophageal dysmotility, which is a feature of CREST syndrome. However, dry eyes are a symptom of Sjogren’s syndrome, which is a separate condition. Hypertension is a complication of diffuse systemic sclerosis, which affects the proximal limbs and trunk and can lead to renal crisis and respiratory involvement. Oliguria is a symptom of renal crisis, which is a complication of diffuse systemic sclerosis.
Understanding Systemic Sclerosis
Systemic sclerosis is a condition that affects the skin and other connective tissues, but its cause is unknown. It is more common in females, with three patterns of the disease. Limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis is characterised by Raynaud’s as the first sign, affecting the face and distal limbs, and associated with anti-centromere antibodies. CREST syndrome is a subtype of limited systemic sclerosis that includes Calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, oEsophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, and Telangiectasia. Diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis affects the trunk and proximal limbs, associated with scl-70 antibodies, and has a poor prognosis. Respiratory involvement is the most common cause of death, with interstitial lung disease and pulmonary arterial hypertension being the primary complications. Renal disease and hypertension are also possible complications, and patients with renal disease should be started on an ACE inhibitor. Scleroderma without internal organ involvement is characterised by tightening and fibrosis of the skin, manifesting as plaques or linear. Antibodies such as ANA, RF, anti-scl-70, and anti-centromere are associated with different types of systemic sclerosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A previously healthy 27-year-old man presents with abdominal discomfort and shortness of breath. He has been experiencing a dry cough for the past two weeks. He works as a full-time accountant, does not smoke, and drinks approximately 15 units of alcohol per week. He recently went on a trip to Amsterdam with some friends. He has also noticed a widespread skin rash with pink rings and pale centers. Upon admission, his blood work shows low sodium levels, normal potassium levels, elevated urea levels, and high creatinine levels. His chest x-ray reveals diffuse reticular infiltrates and a small pleural effusion on the right side. What is the most likely organism responsible for his symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mycoplasma pneumoniae
Explanation:Typical presentation of mycoplasma pneumonia includes flu-like symptoms that progressively worsen and a dry cough. During examination, the patient may exhibit erythema multiforme, indicating the presence of the infection. This type of pneumonia is commonly acquired within the community. Although Streptococcus pneumoniae is also a possible cause, it is not the focus of this particular case.
Mycoplasma pneumoniae: A Cause of Atypical Pneumonia
Mycoplasma pneumoniae is a type of bacteria that causes atypical pneumonia, which is more common in younger patients. This disease is associated with various complications such as erythema multiforme and cold autoimmune haemolytic anaemia. Epidemics of Mycoplasma pneumoniae typically occur every four years. It is important to recognize atypical pneumonia because it may not respond to penicillins or cephalosporins due to the bacteria lacking a peptidoglycan cell wall.
The disease usually has a gradual onset and is preceded by flu-like symptoms, followed by a dry cough. X-rays may show bilateral consolidation. Complications may include cold agglutinins, erythema multiforme, erythema nodosum, meningoencephalitis, Guillain-Barre syndrome, bullous myringitis, pericarditis/myocarditis, and gastrointestinal and renal problems.
Diagnosis is generally made through Mycoplasma serology and a positive cold agglutination test. Management involves the use of doxycycline or a macrolide such as erythromycin or clarithromycin.
In comparison to Legionella pneumonia, which is caused by a different type of bacteria, Mycoplasma pneumoniae has a more gradual onset and is associated with different complications. It is important to differentiate between the two types of pneumonia to ensure appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female presents to the ENT specialists with a 1-month-history of severe otalgia, temporal headaches, and purulent otorrhoea. She has a medical history of type one diabetes mellitus and no allergies. On examination, the left external auditory canal and periauricular soft tissue are erythematous and tender. What is the most suitable antibiotic treatment for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:For patients with diabetes who present with otitis externa, it is important to consider the possibility of malignant otitis externa, which is a severe bacterial infection that can spread to the bony ear canal and cause osteomyelitis. Pseudomonas aeruginosa is the most common cause of this condition, so treatment should involve coverage for this bacteria. Intravenous ciprofloxacin is the preferred antibiotic for this purpose. It is also important to note that diabetic patients with non-malignant otitis externa should also be treated with ciprofloxacin due to their increased risk of developing malignant otitis externa. Clarithromycin and flucloxacillin are not appropriate choices for this condition, and leaving the infection untreated can lead to serious complications.
Malignant Otitis Externa: A Rare but Serious Infection
Malignant otitis externa is a type of ear infection that is uncommon but can be serious. It is typically found in individuals who are immunocompromised, with 90% of cases occurring in diabetics. The infection starts in the soft tissues of the external auditory meatus and can progress to involve the soft tissues and bony ear canal, eventually leading to temporal bone osteomyelitis.
When diagnosing malignant otitis externa, doctors will typically perform a CT scan. Key features in a patient’s medical history include diabetes or immunosuppression, severe and unrelenting ear pain, temporal headaches, and purulent otorrhea. In some cases, patients may also experience dysphagia, hoarseness, and/or facial nerve dysfunction.
If a patient presents with non-resolving otitis externa and worsening pain, they should be referred urgently to an ear, nose, and throat specialist. Treatment typically involves intravenous antibiotics that cover pseudomonal infections.
Overall, while malignant otitis externa is rare, it is important to be aware of its symptoms and risk factors, particularly in immunocompromised individuals. Early diagnosis and treatment can help prevent the infection from progressing and causing more serious complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 33
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old who is currently 26 weeks pregnant comes to see you about a thin, white discharge. Swabs are taken and clue cells are seen on microscopy. Which treatment do you initiate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metronidazole 400mg bd for 7 days
Explanation:Pregnant women with symptomatic bacterial vaginosis (BV) should be offered treatment using oral metronidazole. If BV is incidentally detected in a pregnant woman without symptoms, it is advisable to discuss with her obstetrician whether treatment is necessary. High-dose regimens are not recommended during pregnancy. In case the woman prefers a topical treatment or is unable to tolerate oral metronidazole, intravaginal metronidazole gel or clindamycin cream can be used as alternative choices. However, oral clindamycin is not widely recommended in primary care due to the increased risk of pseudomembranous colitis. This information is sourced from NICE CKS – Bacterial Vaginosis.
Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a condition where there is an overgrowth of anaerobic organisms, particularly Gardnerella vaginalis, in the vagina. This leads to a decrease in the amount of lactobacilli, which produce lactic acid, resulting in an increase in vaginal pH. BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but it is commonly seen in sexually active women. Symptoms include a fishy-smelling vaginal discharge, although some women may not experience any symptoms at all. Diagnosis is made using Amsel’s criteria, which includes the presence of thin, white discharge, clue cells on microscopy, a vaginal pH greater than 4.5, and a positive whiff test. Treatment involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, with a cure rate of 70-80%. However, relapse rates are high, with over 50% of women experiencing a recurrence within 3 months. Topical metronidazole or clindamycin may be used as alternatives.
Bacterial vaginosis during pregnancy can increase the risk of preterm labor, low birth weight, chorioamnionitis, and late miscarriage. It was previously recommended to avoid oral metronidazole in the first trimester and use topical clindamycin instead. However, recent guidelines suggest that oral metronidazole can be used throughout pregnancy. The British National Formulary (BNF) still advises against using high-dose metronidazole regimes. Clue cells, which are vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria, can be seen on microscopy in women with BV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A woman presents with an area of dermatitis on her right ankle. She suspects she may have a nickel allergy. What is the most appropriate test to confirm this suspicion?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Skin patch test
Explanation:Types of Allergy Tests
Allergy tests are used to determine if a person has an allergic reaction to a particular substance. There are several types of allergy tests available, each with its own advantages and limitations. The most commonly used test is the skin prick test, which is easy to perform and inexpensive. Drops of diluted allergen are placed on the skin, and a needle is used to pierce the skin. A wheal will typically develop if a patient has an allergy. This test is useful for food allergies and pollen.
Another type of allergy test is the radioallergosorbent test (RAST), which determines the amount of IgE that reacts specifically with suspected or known allergens. Results are given in grades from 0 (negative) to 6 (strongly positive). This test is useful for food allergies, inhaled allergens (e.g. pollen), and wasp/bee venom.
Skin patch testing is useful for contact dermatitis. Around 30-40 allergens are placed on the back, and irritants may also be tested for. The patches are removed 48 hours later, and the results are read by a dermatologist after a further 48 hours. Blood tests may be used when skin prick tests are not suitable, for example if there is extensive eczema or if the patient is taking antihistamines. Overall, allergy tests are an important tool in diagnosing and managing allergies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 12-day history of muscle cramping and fatigue. His blood tests and ECG are as follows:
- Na+ 140 mmol/L (135 - 145)
- K+ 3.7 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
- Bicarbonate 28 mmol/L (22 - 29)
- Urea 6.2 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
- Creatinine 95 µmol/L (55 - 120)
- Calcium 1.7 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
- Phosphate 1.3 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
- Magnesium 0.62 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)
The patient's ECG shows a regular sinus rhythm with a rate of 72 BPM and a QTc of 480 ms. What is the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intravenous calcium gluconate
Explanation:A 68-year-old man presents with hypocalcaemia and a prolonged QT interval, which can increase the risk of cardiac arrhythmias such as Torsades de pointes. Urgent intravenous calcium gluconate is the recommended treatment for severe hypocalcaemia, which can cause symptoms such as hand and foot spasming, tetany, and seizures. Checking the vitamin D level is important for identifying the cause of hypocalcaemia, but it is not the next best step in managing this patient’s acute condition. Oral calcium carbonate supplementation may be useful in some cases, but intravenous calcium is the preferred treatment for severe hypocalcaemia. Levothyroxine is not indicated for this patient, as hypothyroidism has not been diagnosed and urgent IV calcium gluconate should be given.
Understanding Hypocalcaemia: Its Causes and Management
Hypocalcaemia is a medical condition characterized by low levels of calcium in the blood. It can be caused by various factors such as vitamin D deficiency, chronic kidney disease, hypoparathyroidism, pseudohypoparathyroidism, rhabdomyolysis, magnesium deficiency, massive blood transfusion, and acute pancreatitis. In some cases, contamination of blood samples with EDTA may also lead to falsely low calcium levels.
To manage severe hypocalcaemia, which may manifest as carpopedal spasm, tetany, seizures, or prolonged QT interval, intravenous calcium replacement is necessary. The preferred method is through the administration of intravenous calcium gluconate, with a recommended dose of 10ml of 10% solution over 10 minutes. However, it is important to note that intravenous calcium chloride may cause local irritation. ECG monitoring is also recommended during the treatment process. Further management of hypocalcaemia depends on the underlying cause.
In summary, hypocalcaemia is a condition that can be caused by various factors, and its management depends on the severity of the symptoms and the underlying cause. Intravenous calcium replacement is the preferred method for severe cases, and ECG monitoring is recommended during treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 28 year-old carpenter complains of itchy and painful skin on his hands and wrists. He suspects that it might be due to something he is exposed to at work. What test would be most appropriate to investigate this hypothesis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Patch testing
Explanation:When there is a suspicion of allergic contact dermatitis, patch testing is the preferred method of investigation. This condition can be caused by either irritants or allergens. The patient’s back is exposed to different allergens, including standard batteries and any substances that the patient suspects. The skin is then evaluated for any reaction after 48 hours and 7 days.
Understanding Contact Dermatitis
Contact dermatitis is a skin condition that can be caused by two main types of reactions. The first type is irritant contact dermatitis, which is a non-allergic reaction that occurs due to exposure to weak acids or alkalis, such as detergents. This type of dermatitis is commonly seen on the hands and is characterized by erythema, but crusting and vesicles are rare. The second type is allergic contact dermatitis, which is a type IV hypersensitivity reaction. This type of dermatitis is uncommon and is often seen on the head following hair dyes. It presents as an acute weeping eczema that predominantly affects the margins of the hairline rather than the hairy scalp itself. Topical treatment with a potent steroid is indicated for this type of dermatitis.
Cement is a frequent cause of contact dermatitis. The alkaline nature of cement may cause an irritant contact dermatitis, while the dichromates in cement can also cause an allergic contact dermatitis. It is important to understand the different types of contact dermatitis and their causes to properly diagnose and treat the condition. Proper treatment can help alleviate symptoms and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man visits his doctor with a persistent cough that has lasted for 5 weeks. He reports coughing up smelly, green phlegm and experiencing night sweats, left-sided chest pain, and occasional fevers. He denies any weight loss. During the examination, the lower left lung is dull to percussion with low-pitched bronchial breath sounds, and he has a temperature of 38.2°C. The patient has not traveled recently or had any contact with sick individuals. The doctor notes that he was treated for pneumonia 7 weeks ago. What is the most probable cause of this patient's presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lung abscess
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis for this patient is lung abscess, as they are presenting with a subacute productive cough, foul-smelling sputum, and night sweats. The duration of a cough can be categorized as acute, subacute, or chronic, and this patient falls under the subacute category. The patient’s recent history of aspiration pneumonia and examination findings, such as dullness on percussion, bronchial breath sounds, and fever, support the diagnosis of lung abscess.
Lung cancer is not the most likely diagnosis for this patient, as they do not have weight loss and have other findings that point towards lung abscess. Pulmonary fibrosis is also unlikely, as it is rare to have unilateral pulmonary fibrosis, and the patient’s examination findings do not support this diagnosis. Recurrent pneumonia is a good differential, but the presence of bronchial breath sounds and night sweats make lung abscess a more likely diagnosis.
Understanding Lung Abscess
A lung abscess is a localized infection that occurs within the lung tissue. It is commonly caused by aspiration pneumonia, which can be triggered by poor dental hygiene, reduced consciousness, or previous stroke. Other potential causes include haematogenous spread, direct extension, and bronchial obstruction. The infection is typically polymicrobial, with Staphylococcus aureus, Klebsiella pneumonia, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa being the most common monomicrobial causes.
The symptoms of lung abscess are similar to pneumonia, but they tend to develop more slowly over several weeks. Patients may experience fever, productive cough, foul-smelling sputum, chest pain, and dyspnea. Some may also have systemic features such as night sweats and weight loss, while a minority may experience haemoptysis. Physical examination may reveal dull percussion and bronchial breathing, as well as clubbing in some cases.
To diagnose lung abscess, a chest x-ray is usually performed, which shows a fluid-filled space within an area of consolidation. Sputum and blood cultures should also be obtained to identify the causative organism. Treatment typically involves intravenous antibiotics, but if the infection does not resolve, percutaneous drainage or surgical resection may be required in rare cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 38
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents with a 3-day history of a painful and swollen right ankle. She is pyrexial with a temperature of 38.2 °C. Examination of her cardiovascular and respiratory systems is normal, and an abdominal examination is also normal. She mentions that she developed a painful left ear and saw another doctor 4 days ago, who told her that she had an infected ear and prescribed antibiotics. Her right ankle is swollen, red, tender and slightly flexed. A diagnosis of septic arthritis is made.
Which of the following is the most likely causative organism?
Select the SINGLE most likely causative organism.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus (S. aureus)
Explanation:Common Bacterial Infections and their Causes
Septic arthritis is a joint infection caused by pyogenic organisms, with S. aureus being the most common culprit. Other organisms responsible include streptococci, Neisseria species, and Gram-negative bacilli. The infection typically spreads to the joint via the bloodstream or from adjacent osteomyelitis or trauma. Symptoms include pain, redness, warmth, and swelling in the affected joint. Diagnosis is established by aspirating and culturing the joint fluid. Immediate treatment with appropriate antibiotics is crucial to prevent cartilage destruction, and needle aspiration or surgical drainage may be necessary.
N. meningitidis is a Gram-negative bacterium that causes meningococcaemia and meningococcal meningitis, particularly in children and young adults. It is spread via respiratory secretions and can be carried asymptomatically by 5-10% of adults, with higher rates in close communities. The disease carries significant morbidity and mortality.
S. viridans is commonly found in the mouth and can cause endocarditis if introduced into the bloodstream. It is the most common cause of subacute bacterial endocarditis.
S. epidermidis is a Gram-positive staphylococcus that normally resides on human skin and mucosa. It commonly causes infections on catheters and implants, and is a frequent cause of nosocomial infections, particularly in TPN and bone marrow transplant patients.
E. coli is commonly found in the large intestine and is a major cause of urinary tract infections, cholecystitis and cholangitis, and neonatal meningitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A mother brings her 2-year-old daughter to your clinic with a similar concern about a mass around her belly button that seems to increase in size when she coughs or strains. Upon examination, you diagnose an unobstructed umbilical hernia that is soft, nontender, and reducible.
What is the recommended course of action for managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reassure mum that umbilical hernias usually resolve but if persisting at 2-3 years of age surgery may be considered
Explanation:It is important to reassure the mother that umbilical hernias in newborns usually resolve on their own by the age of 3. However, if the hernia persists beyond this age, surgery may be considered. As there are no alarming symptoms currently present, urgent or routine referrals are not necessary. The use of laxatives would only be recommended if there is a history of constipation or faecal loading.
Umbilical Hernia in Children: Causes and Treatment
Umbilical hernias are a common occurrence in children and are often detected during the newborn examination. This condition is characterized by a bulge or protrusion near the belly button, caused by a weakness in the abdominal muscles. While umbilical hernias can occur in any child, they are more common in Afro-Caribbean infants and those with Down’s syndrome or mucopolysaccharide storage diseases.
Fortunately, in most cases, umbilical hernias in children do not require treatment and will resolve on their own by the age of three. However, if the hernia persists beyond this age or becomes painful, surgery may be necessary to repair the abdominal wall. It is important to monitor the hernia and seek medical attention if there are any changes in size or symptoms.
In summary, umbilical hernias are a common condition in children that typically resolve on their own without treatment. However, certain factors such as ethnicity and underlying medical conditions may increase the likelihood of developing an umbilical hernia. Parents should be aware of the signs and symptoms of umbilical hernias and seek medical attention if necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 40
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman complains of a yellowish-green vaginal discharge that began two weeks ago. During examination, her vagina appears swollen and red.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Trichomoniasis
Explanation:Common Genitourinary Infections: Symptoms and Diagnosis
Trichomoniasis, Candidiasis, AIDS, HPV, and Lactobacilli infection are some of the most common genitourinary infections. Trichomoniasis is caused by Trichomonas vaginalis and presents with abnormal vaginal discharge, odour, itching, burning, soreness, and dyspareunia. Candidiasis is a fungal infection caused by yeasts from the genus Candida and presents with pruritus, vaginal discharge, dysuria, and dyspareunia. AIDS is a viral infection that has a hyperacute onset and is unlikely in patients with no past medical history or risk factors. HPV infection is common and often goes unnoticed, but can manifest as warty lesions on the genital or anal area. Lactobacilli infection is not associated with causing infection. Diagnosis of these infections depends on laboratory testing, with culture being the current criterion standard for trichomoniasis and physical examination for candidiasis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 41
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old female patient presents to her doctor seeking guidance on pregnancy and the postpartum period. She is currently 12 weeks pregnant and has not experienced any complications thus far. The patient has a history of HIV and is currently taking antiretroviral medication. She has expressed a desire to breastfeed her baby once it is born.
What recommendations should be given to this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She should not breastfeed
Explanation:In the UK, it is recommended that all women who are HIV-positive should not breastfeed their babies. This advice remains the same even if the mother’s viral load is undetectable. The decision should not be left to the HIV consultant as the national guidelines are clear on this matter. Although breastfeeding may reduce the risk of transmission if the maternal viral load is less than 50 copies/ml, there is still a risk involved. Therefore, the advice remains not to breastfeed. Continuing with antiretroviral therapy is expected regardless of the decision not to breastfeed as it significantly reduces the risk of vertical transmission during pregnancy. Babies born to HIV-positive mothers are given antiretroviral therapy, either zidovudine alone if the maternal viral load is less than 50 copies/ml or triple-therapy if it is higher. However, this does not change the advice to avoid breastfeeding.
HIV and Pregnancy: Guidelines for Minimizing Vertical Transmission
With the increasing prevalence of HIV infection among heterosexual individuals, there has been a rise in the number of HIV-positive women giving birth in the UK. In fact, in London alone, the incidence may be as high as 0.4% of pregnant women. The primary goal of treating HIV-positive women during pregnancy is to minimize harm to both the mother and fetus, and to reduce the chance of vertical transmission.
To achieve this goal, various factors must be considered. Firstly, all pregnant women should be offered HIV screening, according to NICE guidelines. Additionally, antiretroviral therapy should be offered to all pregnant women, regardless of whether they were taking it previously. This therapy has been shown to significantly reduce vertical transmission rates, which can range from 25-30% to just 2%.
The mode of delivery is also an important consideration. Vaginal delivery is recommended if the viral load is less than 50 copies/ml at 36 weeks. If the viral load is higher, a caesarean section is recommended, and a zidovudine infusion should be started four hours before the procedure. Neonatal antiretroviral therapy is also typically administered to the newborn, with zidovudine being the preferred medication if the maternal viral load is less than 50 copies/ml. If the viral load is higher, triple ART should be used, and therapy should be continued for 4-6 weeks.
Finally, infant feeding is an important consideration. In the UK, all women should be advised not to breastfeed, as this can increase the risk of vertical transmission. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can help to minimize the risk of vertical transmission and ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and child.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman begins taking Cerazette (desogestrel) on the 7th day of her menstrual cycle. After how much time can she consider it a reliable form of birth control?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2 days
Explanation:Contraceptives – Time to become effective (if not used on the first day of period):
Immediate: IUD
2 days: Progestin-only pill (POP)
7 days: Combined oral contraceptive (COC), injection, implant, intrauterine system (IUS)Counselling for Women Considering the Progestogen-Only Pill
Women who are considering taking the progestogen-only pill (POP) should receive counselling on various aspects of the medication. One of the most common potential adverse effects is irregular vaginal bleeding. When starting the POP, immediate protection is provided if it is commenced up to and including day 5 of the cycle. If it is started later, additional contraceptive methods such as condoms should be used for the first 2 days. If switching from a combined oral contraceptive (COC), immediate protection is provided if the POP is continued directly from the end of a pill packet.
It is important to take the POP at the same time every day, without a pill-free break, unlike the COC. If a pill is missed by less than 3 hours, it should be taken as normal. If it is missed by more than 3 hours, the missed pill should be taken as soon as possible, and extra precautions such as condoms should be used until pill taking has been re-established for 48 hours. Diarrhoea and vomiting do not affect the POP, but assuming pills have been missed and following the above guidelines is recommended. Antibiotics have no effect on the POP, unless they alter the P450 enzyme system, such as rifampicin. Liver enzyme inducers may reduce the effectiveness of the POP.
In addition to these specific guidelines, women should also have a discussion on sexually transmitted infections (STIs) when considering the POP. It is important for women to receive comprehensive counselling on the POP to ensure they are aware of its potential effects and how to use it effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 17-year-old girl with a history of acne is interested in starting a combined oral contraceptive pill (COC). She has been taking doxycycline for the past 2 months. What advice should be given?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She can start using a COC with usual advice
Explanation:If the COC is not started on the first day of the next period, it is important to follow the standard guidelines and use condoms for 7 days.
Special Situations for Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill
Concurrent antibiotic use has been a concern for many years in the UK, as doctors have advised that it may interfere with the effectiveness of the combined oral contraceptive pill. However, this approach is not taken in the US or most of mainland Europe. In 2011, the Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare updated their guidelines to abandon the extra precautions previously advised during antibiotic treatment and for 7 days afterwards. The latest edition of the British National Formulary (BNF) has also been updated to reflect this guidance, although precautions should still be taken with enzyme-inducing antibiotics such as rifampicin.
When it comes to switching combined oral contraceptive pills, the BNF and Faculty of Sexual & Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) appear to give contradictory advice. The FSRH’s Combined Oral Contraception guidelines state that the pill-free interval does not need to be omitted, while the BNF advises missing the pill-free interval if the progesterone changes. Given this uncertainty, it is best to follow the BNF’s advice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old man suffers an Achilles tendon rupture while playing basketball. He has never had any medical issues related to his muscles or bones. He recently began taking antibiotics for an infection and has been on them for the past week. What type of antibiotic is he likely taking?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ciprofloxacin
Explanation:New-onset Achilles tendon disorders, including tendinitis and tendon rupture, are likely caused by ciprofloxacin, a medication with important side effects to consider.
Achilles tendon disorders are a common cause of pain in the back of the heel. These disorders can include tendinopathy, partial tears, and complete ruptures of the Achilles tendon. Certain factors, such as the use of quinolone antibiotics and high cholesterol levels, can increase the risk of developing these disorders. Symptoms of Achilles tendinopathy typically include gradual onset of pain that worsens with activity, as well as morning stiffness. Treatment for this condition usually involves pain relief, reducing activities that exacerbate the pain, and performing calf muscle eccentric exercises.
In contrast, an Achilles tendon rupture is a more serious condition that requires immediate medical attention. This type of injury is often caused by sudden, forceful movements during sports or running. Symptoms of an Achilles tendon rupture include an audible popping sound, sudden and severe pain in the calf or ankle, and an inability to walk or continue the activity. To help diagnose an Achilles tendon rupture, doctors may use Simmond’s triad, which involves examining the foot for abnormal angles and feeling for a gap in the tendon. Ultrasound is typically the first imaging test used to confirm a diagnosis of Achilles tendon rupture. If a rupture is suspected, it is important to seek medical attention from an orthopaedic specialist as soon as possible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 45
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of chest pain and shortness of breath. Her oxygen saturation is 90%. After receiving oxygen, she experiences ventricular fibrillation and has a GCS of 3. ALS is initiated. The patient has a medical history of type 2 diabetes and multiple pulmonary emboli. What additional medication should be considered for her management during ALS?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alteplase
Explanation:During CPR, thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolism (PE) is suspected. Alteplase is a suitable option for advanced life support (ALS) in such cases. This is particularly relevant for patients who present with symptoms suggestive of a PE and have a medical history of previous pulmonary emboli. Thrombolysis can be a life-saving intervention for these patients.
Adenosine is not appropriate for this situation as it is a class 5 antiarrhythmic used mainly for supraventricular tachycardia. Apixaban is an anticoagulant that is useful for long-term treatment and prevention of pulmonary emboli, but it is not suitable for immediate use in a hemodynamically unstable patient requiring advanced life support. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that is used in peripheral arterial disease and acute coronary syndrome, but it has no role in the acute treatment of a life-threatening pulmonary embolism.
The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken when dealing with patients with shockable and non-shockable rhythms. For both types of patients, chest compressions are a crucial part of the process, with a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 ventilations. Defibrillation is recommended for shockable rhythms, with a single shock for VF/pulseless VT followed by 2 minutes of CPR. Adrenaline and amiodarone are the drugs of choice for non-shockable rhythms, with adrenaline given as soon as possible and amiodarone administered after 3 shocks for VF/pulseless VT. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolus is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98% following successful resuscitation. The Hs and Ts should be considered as potential reversible causes of cardiac arrest.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old female patient who is 10-weeks pregnant visits the GP clinic with a painless rash on her left leg that has been expanding outwardly in a circular pattern. She mentions that the rash appeared 3 weeks after returning from a hiking trip in the western part of the United States. Lyme disease is confirmed through serological testing, but doxycycline cannot be prescribed due to her pregnancy. What is the best alternative treatment option for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amoxicillin
Explanation:Understanding Lyme Disease
Lyme disease is a bacterial infection caused by Borrelia burgdorferi and is transmitted through tick bites. The early symptoms of Lyme disease include erythema migrans, a characteristic bulls-eye rash that appears at the site of the tick bite. This rash is painless, slowly increases in size, and can be more than 5 cm in diameter. Other early symptoms include headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain.
If erythema migrans is present, Lyme disease can be diagnosed clinically, and antibiotics should be started immediately. The first-line test for Lyme disease is an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) to detect antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi. If the ELISA is negative but Lyme disease is still suspected, it should be repeated 4-6 weeks later. If Lyme disease is suspected in patients who have had symptoms for 12 weeks or more, an immunoblot test should be done.
Tick bites can cause significant anxiety, but routine antibiotic treatment is not recommended by NICE. If the tick is still present, it should be removed using fine-tipped tweezers, and the area should be washed. In cases of suspected or confirmed Lyme disease, doxycycline is the preferred treatment for early disease, while ceftriaxone is used for disseminated disease. A Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction may occur after initiating therapy, which can cause fever, rash, and tachycardia.
In summary, Lyme disease is a bacterial infection transmitted through tick bites. Early symptoms include erythema migrans, headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain. Diagnosis is made through clinical presentation and ELISA testing, and treatment involves antibiotics. Tick bites do not require routine antibiotic treatment, and ticks should be removed using fine-tipped tweezers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 1-year-old child is diagnosed with multiple congenital abnormalities such as an extra finger on each hand, microphthalmia, microcephaly, and cleft palate and lip. Which chromosome is most likely to be affected in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 13
Explanation:A newborn has been diagnosed with Patau syndrome, which is caused by an extra full copy of chromosome 13 (trisomy 13). This chromosomal abnormality often results in physical and mental disabilities, with distinguishing features including polydactyly, cleft lips and palates, microcephaly, and microphthalmia. Unfortunately, many infants with Patau syndrome do not survive beyond their first year of life. Those who do survive often experience intellectual and motor disabilities.
Childhood syndromes are a group of medical conditions that affect children and are characterized by a set of common features. Patau syndrome, also known as trisomy 13, is a syndrome that is characterized by microcephaly, small eyes, cleft lip/palate, polydactyly, and scalp lesions. Edward’s syndrome, also known as trisomy 18, is characterized by micrognathia, low-set ears, rocker bottom feet, and overlapping of fingers. Fragile X syndrome is characterized by learning difficulties, macrocephaly, long face, large ears, and macro-orchidism. Noonan syndrome is characterized by a webbed neck, pectus excavatum, short stature, and pulmonary stenosis. Pierre-Robin syndrome is characterized by micrognathia, posterior displacement of the tongue, and cleft palate. Prader-Willi syndrome is characterized by hypotonia, hypogonadism, and obesity. William’s syndrome is characterized by short stature, learning difficulties, friendly, extrovert personality, and transient neonatal hypercalcaemia. Cri du chat syndrome, also known as chromosome 5p deletion syndrome, is characterized by a characteristic cry, feeding difficulties and poor weight gain, learning difficulties, microcephaly and micrognathism, and hypertelorism. It is important to note that Treacher-Collins syndrome is similar to Pierre-Robin syndrome, but it is autosomal dominant and usually has a family history of similar problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of left eye pain, headache, and blurred vision that started 3 hours ago. He denies any history of eye disease or trauma.
During the examination, the left eye appears red and watery, while the right pupil reacts normally to light, but the left pupil remains dilated and unresponsive.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute closed-angle glaucoma
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis for this patient is acute closed-angle glaucoma, which is characterized by sudden onset of unilateral eye pain and visual loss, often accompanied by a headache. Examination findings consistent with glaucoma include an erythematous globe with a fixed and dilated pupil and a hazy cornea. Anterior uveitis, conjunctivitis, and keratitis are unlikely diagnoses as they present with different symptoms and examination findings.
Glaucoma is a group of disorders that cause optic neuropathy due to increased intraocular pressure (IOP). However, not all patients with raised IOP have glaucoma, and vice versa. Acute angle-closure glaucoma (AACG) is a type of glaucoma where there is a rise in IOP due to impaired aqueous outflow. Factors that increase the risk of AACG include hypermetropia, pupillary dilatation, and lens growth associated with age. Symptoms of AACG include severe pain, decreased visual acuity, haloes around lights, and a hard, red-eye. Management of AACG is an emergency and requires urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. Emergency medical treatment is necessary to lower the IOP, followed by definitive surgical treatment once the acute attack has subsided.
There are no specific guidelines for the initial medical treatment of AACG, but a combination of eye drops may be used, including a direct parasympathomimetic, a beta-blocker, and an alpha-2 agonist. Intravenous acetazolamide may also be administered to reduce aqueous secretions. Definitive management of AACG involves laser peripheral iridotomy, which creates a small hole in the peripheral iris to allow aqueous humour to flow to the angle. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if symptoms of AACG are present to prevent permanent vision loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man is scheduled for an elective knee replacement and presents to the orthopaedic surgery ward. He has osteoarthritis and hypertension and is currently being treated for an episode of giant cell arteritis that occurred four months ago with 20 mg prednisolone daily. This will be his first surgery and he is feeling anxious about the anaesthetic. What is the most crucial medication to prescribe before the operation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hydrocortisone
Explanation:Patients who are on chronic glucocorticoid therapy, such as prednisolone for the treatment of conditions like giant cell arteritis, may require hydrocortisone supplementation before undergoing surgery. This is because long-term use of glucocorticoids can suppress the hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis, which can lead to inadequate adrenal gland response during times of stress, such as surgery. The amount of hydrocortisone required depends on the type of surgery being performed, with minor procedures under local anesthesia not requiring supplementation. For moderate to major surgeries, 50mg to 100mg of hydrocortisone should be given before induction, followed by additional doses every 8 hours for 24 hours. Diazepam should not be routinely given to control anxiety, and there is no indication that this patient requires additional medications for her hypertension preoperatively. Instead, the patient may benefit from speaking with someone who can provide reassurance about the procedure.
Preparation for surgery varies depending on whether the patient is undergoing an elective or emergency procedure. For elective cases, it is important to address any medical issues beforehand through a pre-admission clinic. Blood tests, urine analysis, and other diagnostic tests may be necessary depending on the proposed procedure and patient fitness. Risk factors for deep vein thrombosis should also be assessed, and a plan for thromboprophylaxis formulated. Patients are advised to fast from non-clear liquids and food for at least 6 hours before surgery, and those with diabetes require special management to avoid potential complications. Emergency cases require stabilization and resuscitation as needed, and antibiotics may be necessary. Special preparation may also be required for certain procedures, such as vocal cord checks for thyroid surgery or bowel preparation for colorectal cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman visits her GP seeking advice on starting hormone replacement therapy (HRT) due to distressing vasomotor symptoms. Her LMP was 10 months ago, and she has not undergone any surgeries, has no significant medical history, and is not sexually active. Despite making lifestyle changes, she has not experienced much relief. Assuming there are no contraindications, what treatment would you suggest?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cyclical combined HRT
Explanation:When a woman expresses interest in starting hormone replacement therapy (HRT), it is important to gather a detailed medical history to determine her menopausal status. This includes information about her last menstrual period (LMP) and any bleeding patterns leading up to it. Based on this information, it appears that the woman in question is peri-menopausal, as she has not been without a period for a full year.
The primary reason for starting HRT is to alleviate vasomotor symptoms, such as hot flashes. However, it may also be used to prevent osteoporosis in women who have been diagnosed with premature menopause.
For women who still have a uterus, HRT should consist of a combination of estrogen and progesterone. The progesterone is essential for reducing the risk of endometrial cancer, which can occur when estrogen is used alone. Women who have had a hysterectomy will typically receive continuous estrogen-only therapy.
The type of HRT prescribed will depend on the woman’s menopausal status. Those who have had their LMP within the past year should receive cyclical combined HRT, while those who have been without a period for at least a year or who have experienced premature menopause should receive continuous combined HRT.
For women who are unable or unwilling to take HRT, there are several non-hormonal treatments available for vasomotor symptoms. These include certain selective serotonin and noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors, clonidine, and gabapentin. However, sertraline is not effective for treating hot flashes. It is worth noting that the National Institute for Health and Clinical Excellence (NICE) does not recommend the use of herbal or complementary therapies for managing hot flashes and night sweats.
Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) involves a small dose of oestrogen and progestogen to alleviate menopausal symptoms. The indications for HRT have changed due to the long-term risks, and it is primarily used for vasomotor symptoms and preventing osteoporosis in younger women. HRT consists of natural oestrogens and synthetic progestogens, and can be taken orally or transdermally. Transdermal is preferred for women at risk of venous thromboembolism.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 51
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old woman visits her doctor seeking guidance on managing recurrent episodes of urinary incontinence that occur during laughter or coughing. She reports no symptoms of dysuria, frequency, or urgency. Additionally, she has been experiencing night sweats and irregular periods for the past year. The patient's medical history includes hypertension and depression. A urine dipstick and examination of the vulva/vagina reveal no abnormalities. What is the recommended initial treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pelvic floor muscle exercises
Explanation:The primary treatment for stress incontinence is pelvic floor muscle training.
Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Causes, Classification, and Management
Urinary incontinence (UI) is a common condition that affects around 4-5% of the population, with elderly females being more susceptible. Several risk factors contribute to UI, including advancing age, previous pregnancy and childbirth, high body mass index, hysterectomy, and family history. UI can be classified into different types, such as overactive bladder (OAB)/urge incontinence, stress incontinence, mixed incontinence, overflow incontinence, and functional incontinence.
Initial investigation of UI involves completing bladder diaries for at least three days, vaginal examination, urine dipstick and culture, and urodynamic studies. Management of UI depends on the predominant type of incontinence. For urge incontinence, bladder retraining and bladder stabilizing drugs such as antimuscarinics are recommended. For stress incontinence, pelvic floor muscle training and surgical procedures such as retropubic mid-urethral tape procedures may be offered. Duloxetine, a combined noradrenaline and serotonin reuptake inhibitor, may also be used as an alternative to surgery.
In summary, understanding the causes, classification, and management of UI is crucial in providing appropriate care for patients. Early diagnosis and intervention can significantly improve the quality of life for those affected by this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 52
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man presents with worsening dyspnea. He has been a smoker for the past 20 years. Upon conducting pulmonary function tests, the following results were obtained:
- FEV1: 1.3 L (predicted 3.6 L)
- FVC: 1.6 L (predicted 4.2 L)
- FEV1/FVC: 80% (normal > 75%)
What respiratory disorder is most likely causing these findings?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Neuromuscular disorder
Explanation:Pulmonary function tests reveal a restrictive pattern in individuals with neuromuscular disorders, while obstructive patterns may be caused by other conditions.
Understanding Pulmonary Function Tests
Pulmonary function tests are a useful tool in determining whether a respiratory disease is obstructive or restrictive. These tests measure the amount of air a person can exhale forcefully and the total amount of air they can exhale. The results of these tests can help diagnose conditions such as asthma, COPD, bronchiectasis, and pulmonary fibrosis.
Obstructive lung diseases are characterized by a significant reduction in the amount of air a person can exhale forcefully (FEV1) and a reduced FEV1/FVC ratio. Examples of obstructive lung diseases include asthma, COPD, bronchiectasis, and bronchiolitis obliterans.
On the other hand, restrictive lung diseases are characterized by a significant reduction in the total amount of air a person can exhale (FVC) and a normal or increased FEV1/FVC ratio. Examples of restrictive lung diseases include pulmonary fibrosis, asbestosis, sarcoidosis, acute respiratory distress syndrome, infant respiratory distress syndrome, kyphoscoliosis, and neuromuscular disorders.
Understanding the results of pulmonary function tests can help healthcare professionals diagnose and manage respiratory diseases more effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 53
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with an acutely swollen and tender abdomen. He reports that it has been happening over the past few days. The patient appears unkempt and denies any significant medical history, medications, or drug use. He admits to drinking but is unsure of the amount. Upon examination, his abdomen is distended with shifting dullness, he has approximately 10 blanching red spots on his upper chest, and has tortuous dilated veins on his abdomen. The following are his vital signs:
Temperature: 36.4ºC
Blood pressure: 134/87 mmHg
Heart rate: 94 beats/min
Respiratory rate: 12 breaths/min
Oxygen saturation: 98% on room air
What is the most appropriate medication to initiate in this scenario, given the probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spironolactone
Explanation:Patients who have ascites due to liver cirrhosis should receive an aldosterone antagonist, such as spironolactone, as it helps to counteract the secondary hyperaldosteronism that occurs in cirrhosis. This condition attempts to increase intravascular volume, which is lost into the abdomen as ascites. Amiloride is not effective in treating ascites as it does not lead to significant diuresis and has no effect on the aldosterone pathway. Eplerenone is an alternative to spironolactone for patients who cannot tolerate its adverse effects. Furosemide is useful in treating ascites but should be used in conjunction with spironolactone due to the additional benefits of aldosterone blocking. Bendroflumethiazide is not useful in managing or preventing fluid overload conditions such as ascites.
Understanding Ascites: Causes and Management
Ascites is a medical condition characterized by the accumulation of abnormal fluid in the abdomen. The causes of ascites can be classified into two groups based on the serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) level. A SAAG level greater than 11g/L indicates portal hypertension, which is commonly caused by liver disorders such as cirrhosis, alcoholic liver disease, and liver metastases. On the other hand, a SAAG level less than 11g/L is caused by hypoalbuminaemia, malignancy, infections, and other factors such as bowel obstruction and biliary ascites.
The management of ascites involves reducing dietary sodium and fluid restriction, especially if the sodium level is less than 125 mmol/L. Aldosterone antagonists like spironolactone and loop diuretics are often prescribed to patients. In some cases, drainage through therapeutic abdominal paracentesis is necessary. Large-volume paracentesis requires albumin cover to reduce the risk of paracentesis-induced circulatory dysfunction and mortality. Prophylactic antibiotics are also recommended to prevent spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. In severe cases, a transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) may be considered.
Understanding the causes and management of ascites is crucial in providing appropriate medical care to patients. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help alleviate symptoms and improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 54
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man with a history of untreated hypertension had a heart attack and received coronary stenting. He was prescribed multiple medications and his blood test results showed:
Na+ 140 mmol/l
K+ 6.2 mmol/l
Which of the following antihypertensive drugs could be causing this result?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Enalapril
Explanation:Hyperkalaemia is caused by ACE inhibitor.
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. These inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and for secondary prevention of ischaemic heart disease. The mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors is to inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. They are metabolized in the liver through phase 1 metabolism.
ACE inhibitors may cause side effects such as cough, which occurs in around 15% of patients and may occur up to a year after starting treatment. This is thought to be due to increased bradykinin levels. Angioedema may also occur up to a year after starting treatment. Hyperkalaemia and first-dose hypotension are other potential side effects, especially in patients taking diuretics. ACE inhibitors should be avoided during pregnancy and breastfeeding, and caution should be exercised in patients with renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema.
Patients receiving high-dose diuretic therapy (more than 80 mg of furosemide a day) are at an increased risk of hypotension when taking ACE inhibitors. Before initiating treatment, urea and electrolytes should be checked, and after increasing the dose, a rise in creatinine and potassium may be expected. Acceptable changes include an increase in serum creatinine up to 30% from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment. The current NICE guidelines provide a flow chart for the management of hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 55
Incorrect
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You are speaking to a 26-year-old man who is known to have haemophilia A. His wife has had genetic testing and was found not to be a carrier of haemophilia. He asks you what the chances are of his future children developing haemophilia. What is the correct answer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 0%
Explanation:If the mother is not a carrier of the X-linked recessive condition, so there is no risk of future children developing haemophilia. However, any daughters the father has will be carriers. Male-to-male transmission is not possible, and affected males can only have unaffected sons and carrier daughters.
Understanding X-Linked Recessive Inheritance
X-linked recessive inheritance is a genetic pattern where only males are affected, except in rare cases such as Turner’s syndrome. This type of inheritance is transmitted by heterozygote females, who are carriers of the gene mutation. Male-to-male transmission is not observed in X-linked recessive disorders. Affected males can only have unaffected sons and carrier daughters.
If a female carrier has children, each male child has a 50% chance of being affected, while each female child has a 50% chance of being a carrier. It is important to note that the possibility of an affected father having children with a heterozygous female carrier is generally rare. However, in some Afro-Caribbean communities, G6PD deficiency is relatively common, and homozygous females with clinical manifestations of the enzyme defect are observed.
In summary, X-linked recessive inheritance is a genetic pattern that affects only males and is transmitted by female carriers. Understanding this pattern is crucial in predicting the likelihood of passing on genetic disorders to future generations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 56
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old homeless woman with drug addiction presents with fever, rash and progressive swelling of the left side of her face, which began with an itchy scab on her left cheek 24 hours ago. Her temperature is 38.5 °C, and she is unable to open her left eye because of the swelling.
Which of the following is the most likely causal organism?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Group A Streptococcus
Explanation:Bacterial Skin Infections: Understanding the Causes and Symptoms
Erysipelas, a bacterial skin infection, is characterized by a tender, intensely erythematous, indurated plaque with a sharply demarcated border. It is caused by Streptococcus pyogenes, which is often sourced from the host’s nasopharynx. Prodromal symptoms such as malaise, chills, and high fever often precede the onset of skin lesions. Haemophilus influenzae can also cause cellulitis, but the skin lesion described in erysipelas is more consistent with this condition. Herpes simplex viruses cause a wide variety of disease states, including oropharyngeal infections and cold sores. Meningococcaemia, caused by Neisseria meningitidis, presents with a characteristic petechial skin rash on the trunk and legs. Understanding the causes and symptoms of these bacterial skin infections is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 57
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman presents with a four month history of right-sided hip pain. The pain has developed without any apparent cause and is mainly felt on the outer side of the hip. It is particularly severe at night when she lies on her right side. Upon examination, there is a complete range of motion in the hip joint, including internal and external rotation. However, deep palpation of the lateral aspect of the right hip joint reproduces the pain. An x-ray of the right hip reveals a normal appearance with only minor joint space narrowing. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Greater trochanteric pain syndrome
Explanation:Trochanteric bursitis is no longer the preferred term and has been replaced by greater trochanteric pain syndrome. The x-ray reveals joint space narrowing, which is a common occurrence. Osteoarthritis is unlikely due to the palpable pain and short duration of symptoms.
Causes of Hip Pain in Adults
Hip pain in adults can be caused by a variety of conditions. Osteoarthritis is a common cause, with pain that worsens with exercise and improves with rest. Reduced internal rotation is often the first sign, and risk factors include age, obesity, and previous joint problems. Inflammatory arthritis can also cause hip pain, with pain typically worse in the morning and accompanied by systemic features and raised inflammatory markers. Referred lumbar spine pain may be caused by femoral nerve compression, which can be tested with a positive femoral nerve stretch test. Greater trochanteric pain syndrome, or trochanteric bursitis, is caused by repeated movement of the iliotibial band and is most common in women aged 50-70 years. Meralgia paraesthetica is caused by compression of the lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh and typically presents as a burning sensation over the antero-lateral aspect of the thigh. Avascular necrosis may have gradual or sudden onset and may follow high dose steroid therapy or previous hip fracture or dislocation. Pubic symphysis dysfunction is common in pregnancy and presents with pain over the pubic symphysis with radiation to the groins and medial aspects of the thighs, often with a waddling gait. Transient idiopathic osteoporosis is an uncommon condition sometimes seen in the third trimester of pregnancy, with groin pain and limited range of movement in the hip, and patients may be unable to weight bear. ESR may be elevated in this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 58
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old girl arrives at the clinic with her mother. She is asking for the combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill as she has recently started a relationship with a 19-year-old man whom she met at a local coffee shop, but they have not yet engaged in sexual activity. During the consultation, you discuss the age difference, but the mother assures you that she has met the boyfriend and believes he treats her daughter well. Both the girl and her mother insist that they do not want anyone else involved. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Immediately phone local child protection lead and refer to social services
Explanation:According to the GMC guidelines, sexual intercourse with children below the age of 13 cannot be considered consensual, and therefore, any sexual activity would be classified as rape. In such cases, breaking confidentiality is mandatory.
Guidelines for Obtaining Consent in Children
The General Medical Council has provided guidelines for obtaining consent in children. According to these guidelines, young people who are 16 years or older can be treated as adults and are presumed to have the capacity to make decisions. However, for children under the age of 16, their ability to understand what is involved determines whether they have the capacity to decide. If a competent child refuses treatment, a person with parental responsibility or the court may authorize investigation or treatment that is in the child’s best interests.
When it comes to providing contraceptives to patients under 16 years of age, the Fraser Guidelines must be followed. These guidelines state that the young person must understand the professional’s advice, cannot be persuaded to inform their parents, is likely to begin or continue having sexual intercourse with or without contraceptive treatment, and will suffer physical or mental health consequences without contraceptive treatment. Additionally, the young person’s best interests require them to receive contraceptive advice or treatment with or without parental consent.
Some doctors use the term Fraser competency when referring to contraception and Gillick competency when referring to general issues of consent in children. However, rumors that Victoria Gillick removed her permission to use her name or applied copyright have been debunked. It is important to note that in Scotland, those with parental responsibility cannot authorize procedures that a competent child has refused.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 59
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old woman visits her GP on a Friday afternoon with concerns about her chances of getting pregnant. She engaged in unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) on Sunday at 9 pm, which was five days ago. The patient has no medical history of note and is not taking any regular medications. However, she reports experiencing abnormal discharge and intermenstrual bleeding for the past two weeks. What emergency contraception method would you suggest?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ulipristal acetate
Explanation:Ulipristal, also known as EllaOne, is a form of emergency hormonal contraception that can be taken within 120 hours after engaging in unprotected sexual intercourse.
Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 60
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man is admitted for an elective total knee replacement (TKR).
His past medical history includes type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), which is well controlled with metformin 500mg BD and gliclazide 80 mg OD.
The surgery is scheduled for the morning, but he is not placed on a variable rate insulin infusion (VRII).
What adjustments should be made to his antidiabetic medication regimen on the day of surgery?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Only the morning dose of gliclazide should be omitted
Explanation:On the day of surgery, it is recommended to omit the morning dose of gliclazide for patients taking sulfonylureas. However, if the patient takes BD, they can have the afternoon dose. Metformin should be taken as usual on the day before and on the day of elective surgery, except for lunchtime dose if taken three times a day.
Preparation for surgery varies depending on whether the patient is undergoing an elective or emergency procedure. For elective cases, it is important to address any medical issues beforehand through a pre-admission clinic. Blood tests, urine analysis, and other diagnostic tests may be necessary depending on the proposed procedure and patient fitness. Risk factors for deep vein thrombosis should also be assessed, and a plan for thromboprophylaxis formulated. Patients are advised to fast from non-clear liquids and food for at least 6 hours before surgery, and those with diabetes require special management to avoid potential complications. Emergency cases require stabilization and resuscitation as needed, and antibiotics may be necessary. Special preparation may also be required for certain procedures, such as vocal cord checks for thyroid surgery or bowel preparation for colorectal cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 61
Incorrect
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A 42 year old undergoes a thyroidectomy and is informed about the potential impact on her parathyroid glands. What is a possible sign of parathyroid damage after the surgery?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tingling around the hands, feet or mouth, and unusual muscle movements
Explanation:Symptoms and Complications of Thyroidectomy
Thyroidectomy is a common surgical procedure that involves the removal of the thyroid gland. However, it can lead to various complications, including hypoparathyroidism and hyperparathyroidism. Here are some symptoms to watch out for:
Acute hypocalcaemia, characterized by tingling around the hands, feet, or mouth, and unusual muscle movements, is a common complication of hypoparathyroidism post-thyroidectomy. Intravenous calcium may be necessary to correct the hypocalcaemia.
Headache, sweating, and tachycardia are classic symptoms of phaeochromocytoma, which can occur in patients at risk of hypoparathyroidism post-thyroidectomy.
Dry, thick skin, coarse hair, and brittle nails are signs of hypothyroidism, not hypoparathyroidism.
Feeling thirsty and passing a lot of urine are signs of hypercalcaemia, which may be caused by hyperparathyroidism. Hypoparathyroidism post-thyroidectomy is a common complication that can lead to hypercalcaemia.
Hyperactivity and mood swings are more indicative of hyperthyroidism, but patients at risk of hypoparathyroidism post-thyroidectomy should still be monitored for these symptoms.
In summary, patients who undergo thyroidectomy should be aware of the potential complications and symptoms that may arise. Regular monitoring and prompt medical attention can help manage these issues effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 62
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with complaints of abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. His urine and serum tests reveal elevated ketone levels, and his serum glucose level is 3 mmol/L. An ABG is conducted, and the results are as follows:
pH 7.24
PaO2 14.7 kPa
PCO2 3.5 kPa
HCO3 13 mEq/L
What is the most probable cause of these findings?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alcoholic ketoacidosis
Explanation:If a patient is experiencing metabolic ketoacidosis with normal or low glucose levels, alcohol consumption should be considered as a possible cause. This condition is characterized by partial respiratory compensation. While diabetic ketoacidosis could also be a potential cause, a serum glucose level of 3mmol/L makes it less likely. Therefore, the patient is more likely to be suffering from alcoholic ketoacidosis. It is important to note that a hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state would present with high serum glucose levels and normal ketone levels, while a diabetic hypoglycemic episode would not typically result in elevated ketone levels or metabolic acidosis.
Alcoholic ketoacidosis is a type of ketoacidosis that occurs in individuals who consume large amounts of alcohol regularly. This condition is not related to diabetes and is characterized by normal blood sugar levels. Alcoholics often suffer from malnutrition due to their irregular eating habits and may vomit the food they consume, leading to starvation. When the body becomes malnourished, it starts breaking down body fat, which produces ketones and leads to ketoacidosis.
The typical symptoms of alcoholic ketoacidosis include metabolic acidosis, elevated anion gap, elevated serum ketone levels, and normal or low glucose concentration. The most effective treatment for this condition is an infusion of saline and thiamine. Thiamine is essential to prevent the development of Wernicke encephalopathy or Korsakoff psychosis. Therefore, it is crucial to provide timely and appropriate treatment to individuals suffering from alcoholic ketoacidosis to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 63
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old man is being evaluated for cognitive impairment with concerns about a movement disorder. As part of his evaluation, he undergoes cross-sectional brain imaging and a dopamine Transporter Scan (DaTscan). The results show reduced dopaminergic activity in the substantia nigra bilaterally on the DaTscan and age-related changes on the MRI head. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Parkinson’s disease
Explanation:Differentiating Neurodegenerative Disorders: A Comparison of Parkinson’s Disease, Alzheimer’s Dementia, Frontotemporal Dementia, Huntington’s Disease, and Vascular Dementia
Neurodegenerative disorders can be difficult to differentiate due to overlapping symptoms. Parkinson’s disease, for example, involves the death of neurones in the substantia nigra and is often confirmed through the use of DaTscan, which visualises dopamine transporter levels in the brain. Dementia is a common complication of Parkinson’s disease, affecting 20-40% of patients and causing cognitive, mood, and behavioural changes.
Alzheimer’s dementia, on the other hand, is characterised by cortical atrophy visible on CT and MRI scans and is not typically associated with movement disorders. Frontotemporal dementia primarily affects behaviour and language and is also not typically associated with movement disorders.
Huntington’s disease is another basal ganglia disorder, but it primarily involves cell loss in the striatum, leading to chorea – uncontrollable limb movements. CT and MRI scans can show loss of striatal volume in moderate-to-severe cases, but early scans may appear normal.
Vascular dementia, the second most common cause of dementia after Alzheimer’s, often has a history of cerebral vascular disease and is not typically associated with movement disorders. Understanding the unique characteristics of each neurodegenerative disorder is crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 64
Incorrect
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Given that PKU is an autosomal-recessive condition that can be diagnosed at birth or in adolescence and adulthood, a teenager seeks genetic counselling. His mother and brother have PKU, while his father is a carrier but does not have the disease. The teenager himself does not have PKU. What is the probability that he is a carrier of the disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 100%
Explanation:Understanding Autosomal-Recessive Inheritance and Phenylketonuria (PKU)
Autosomal-recessive diseases require both parents to carry the gene, with one parent having the disease and the other being a carrier. In the case of Phenylketonuria (PKU), a specific enzyme deficiency leads to the accumulation of phenylalanine and a deficiency of tyrosine, resulting in reduced melanin and pigmented areas of the brain being affected. PKU is tested for at birth using the Guthrie test and can be treated by removing phenylalanine from the diet.
In the given scenario, the teenager’s mother has the disease and his father is a carrier. This means there is a 100% chance that the teenager has at least one abnormal copy of the gene, making him a carrier. It is important to understand the inheritance pattern of autosomal-recessive diseases to identify carriers and prevent mental retardation in affected children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 65
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man comes in after a fall and reports feeling constantly cold. Thyroid function tests are ordered and the results are as follows:
Free T4 7.1 pmol/l
TSH 14.3 mu/l
What should be done next?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start levothyroxine 25mcg od
Explanation:The patient exhibits hypothyroidism, indicated by low free T4 and elevated TSH levels. Considering her age, it is recommended to gradually introduce levothyroxine at a starting dose of 25mcg once daily.
Managing Hypothyroidism: Dosage, Monitoring, and Side-Effects
Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormone. The main treatment for hypothyroidism is levothyroxine, a synthetic form of thyroid hormone. When managing hypothyroidism, it is important to consider the patient’s age, cardiac history, and initial starting dose. Elderly patients and those with ischaemic heart disease should start with a lower dose of 25mcg od, while other patients can start with 50-100mcg od. After a change in dosage, thyroid function tests should be checked after 8-12 weeks to ensure the therapeutic goal of normalising the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level is achieved. The target TSH range is 0.5-2.5 mU/l.
Women with hypothyroidism who become pregnant should have their dose increased by at least 25-50 micrograms levothyroxine due to the increased demands of pregnancy. The TSH should be monitored carefully, aiming for a low-normal value. It is important to note that there is no evidence to support combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine.
While levothyroxine is generally well-tolerated, there are some potential side-effects to be aware of. Over-treatment can lead to hyperthyroidism, while long-term use can reduce bone mineral density. In patients with cardiac disease, levothyroxine can worsen angina and lead to atrial fibrillation. It is also important to be aware of drug interactions, particularly with iron and calcium carbonate, which can reduce the absorption of levothyroxine. These medications should be given at least 4 hours apart.
In summary, managing hypothyroidism involves careful consideration of dosage, monitoring of TSH levels, and awareness of potential side-effects and drug interactions. With appropriate management, patients with hypothyroidism can achieve normal thyroid function and improve their overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 66
Incorrect
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Sarah is a 54-year-old woman presenting with painful hand movement. She had recently moved homes and had been carrying multiple heavy boxes during this time when the pain came on along her forearm. The pain is acutely worse when she is carrying objects but improves on rest.
Physical examination reveals that the pain was recreated with wrist extension and forearm supination when the elbow is extended. Maximal pain is palpated over the insertion of the common extensor tendon. No sensory or motor deficits were noted on examination.
What could be the possible cause of her pain?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lateral epicondylitis
Explanation:Understanding Lateral Epicondylitis
Lateral epicondylitis, commonly known as tennis elbow, is a condition that often occurs after engaging in activities that the body is not accustomed to, such as painting or playing tennis. It is most prevalent in individuals aged 45-55 years and typically affects the dominant arm. The primary symptom of this condition is pain and tenderness localized to the lateral epicondyle. The pain is often exacerbated by wrist extension against resistance with the elbow extended or supination of the forearm with the elbow extended. Episodes of lateral epicondylitis can last between 6 months and 2 years, with patients experiencing acute pain for 6-12 weeks.
To manage lateral epicondylitis, it is essential to avoid muscle overload and engage in simple analgesia. Steroid injections and physiotherapy are also viable options for managing the condition. By understanding the symptoms and management options for lateral epicondylitis, individuals can take the necessary steps to alleviate pain and discomfort associated with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 67
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old woman presents to the gastroenterology ward with a 4-day history of profuse, foul-smelling diarrhoea. Stool cultures are taken and reveal a positive Clostridium difficile toxin. She is treated with oral vancomycin for 10 days and discharged home. However, she returns to the hospital 4 days later with ongoing diarrhoea. On examination, she has a temperature of 38.2ºC, heart rate of 99 beats/min, and blood pressure of 120/68 mmHg. Her abdomen is tender but soft with no guarding. What is the next step in managing this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral fidaxomicin
Explanation:If the initial treatment with vancomycin fails to treat Clostridioides difficile, the next recommended option is oral fidaxomicin, unless the infection is life-threatening. In such cases, other treatment options should be considered. Faecal transplant is not typically used until after second and third-line treatments have been attempted. Intravenous cefuroxime and metronidazole is not recommended for treating Clostridioides difficile, as cephalosporins can increase the risk of infection. Intravenous vancomycin is also not recommended for treating Clostridioides difficile, as it is not as effective as oral vancomycin.
Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It is a Gram positive rod that produces an exotoxin which can cause damage to the intestines, leading to a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is suppressed by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause of C. difficile. Other risk factors include proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale, which ranges from mild to life-threatening.
To diagnose C. difficile, a stool sample is tested for the presence of C. difficile toxin (CDT). Treatment for a first episode of C. difficile infection typically involves oral vancomycin for 10 days, with fidaxomicin or a combination of oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole being used as second and third-line therapies. Recurrent infections occur in around 20% of patients, increasing to 50% after their second episode. In such cases, oral fidaxomicin is recommended within 12 weeks of symptom resolution, while oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin can be used after 12 weeks. For life-threatening C. difficile infections, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole are used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 68
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man is brought to the Accident and Emergency Department after having a blackout. He was walking down the street when he felt nauseated, dizzy and sweaty. He collapsed and lost consciousness for one minute. A friend says that he was pale and had some jerking of his limbs for 10 seconds, but he did not bite his tongue and there was no history of urinary incontinence. He recovered immediately, with no confusion or disorientation. Examination and the electrocardiogram (ECG) are normal. He is otherwise usually fit and well and on no regular medications.
What further investigation is required to make a diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No investigation
Explanation:When to Investigate Transient Loss of Consciousness: A Guide for Clinicians
Transient loss of consciousness (LOC) can be a concerning symptom for patients and clinicians alike. However, not all cases require extensive investigation. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, patients presenting with a transient LOC should undergo a thorough history, examination, and electrocardiogram (ECG). If these are normal and the patient meets certain criteria, further work-up may not be necessary.
For example, uncomplicated vasovagal syncope can be diagnosed if there are no features suggesting an alternative diagnosis and if the patient experiences the 3 Ps of posture-prolonged standing, provoking factors, and prodromal symptoms. Doppler ultrasonography of the carotids would only be indicated if there was suspicion of carotid artery stenosis, while a single syncopal episode is not an indication for a computed tomography (CT) scan of the brain.
Electroencephalogram (EEG) may be considered if the history is suggestive of epilepsy, but it should not be routinely used in the work-up for transient LOC. Features strongly suggestive of epilepsy include a bitten tongue, head turning to one side during transient LOC, no memory of abnormal behavior witnessed by someone else, unusual posturing, prolonged limb jerking, confusion following the event, and prodromal déjà vu or jamais vu. If any of these are present, the patient should be reviewed by a specialist within 2 weeks, who would then make a decision regarding EEG.
In summary, a thorough evaluation is necessary for all patients presenting with a transient LOC. However, if the patient meets certain criteria and there are no features suggesting an alternative diagnosis, further investigation may not be required.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 69
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old woman comes to see her doctor complaining of increasing fatigue, itchy skin, and pain in the upper right side of her abdomen. She has a medical history of autoimmune disorders such as hypothyroidism and coeliac disease. The doctor suspects that she may have primary biliary cholangitis (PBC). What is the first test that should be ordered for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-mitochondrial autoantibodies
Explanation:Understanding the Diagnostic Tests for Primary Biliary Cholangitis
Primary biliary cholangitis (PBC) is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects the biliary system. It can lead to the destruction of small bile ducts and eventually cirrhosis. While it may be asymptomatic in the early stages, symptoms such as fatigue, abdominal pain, and dry eyes may develop over time. To diagnose PBC, a blood test for anti-mitochondrial antibodies is the most appropriate first step. If positive, a liver ultrasound scan and biopsy can confirm the diagnosis. Other tests, such as an MRI scan or tests for anti-La and anti-Ro antibodies, are not used in the diagnosis of PBC.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 70
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman comes to you with a sudden onset of right-sided facial weakness, which appears to be a lower motor neuron palsy. There are no other neurological symptoms on examination, and her ears appear normal. You diagnose her with Bell's palsy and prescribe prednisolone. What is the crucial next step in managing her condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe artifical tears and advise eye taping at night
Explanation:Understanding Bell’s Palsy
Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It is more common in individuals aged 20-40 years and pregnant women. The condition is characterized by lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy, which affects the forehead. Unlike upper motor neuron lesions, the upper face is spared. Patients may also experience post-auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.
The management of Bell’s palsy has been a subject of debate. However, it is now widely accepted that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, but it may be beneficial for severe facial palsy. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients should be prescribed artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eyes at bedtime, they should tape them closed using microporous tape.
If the paralysis shows no sign of improvement after three weeks, an urgent referral to ENT is necessary. Patients with long-standing weakness may require a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within 3-4 months. However, untreated patients may experience permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 71
Incorrect
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A woman in her early stages of pregnancy seeks guidance on whether it is safe to consume alcohol. What advice aligns with the current NICE guidelines?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Avoid alcohol throughout pregnancy
Explanation:Antenatal care guidelines were issued by NICE in March 2008, which included specific points for the care of healthy pregnant women. Nausea and vomiting can be treated with natural remedies such as ginger and acupuncture on the ‘p6’ point, as recommended by NICE. Antihistamines, with promethazine as the first-line option according to the BNF, can also be used. Adequate vitamin D intake is crucial for the health of both the mother and baby, and women should be informed about this at their booking appointment. The Chief Medical Officer advises all pregnant and breastfeeding women to take a daily supplement containing 10 micrograms of vitamin D, with particular care taken for those at risk. In 2016, new guidelines were proposed by the Chief Medical Officer regarding alcohol consumption during pregnancy. The government now advises pregnant women not to drink any alcohol to minimize the risk of harm to the baby.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 72
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man with a history of hypertension comes in for a check-up. During his annual health assessment, he undergoes a U&E, HbA1c, and cholesterol test. The results are as follows:
His blood pressure today is 128/78 mmHg. He takes ramipril 5mg od as his only regular medication.
Na+ 142 mmol/l
K+ 4.6 mmol/l
Urea 5.2 mmol/l
Creatinine 88 µmol/l
Total cholesterol 5.2 mmol/l
HbA1c 45 mmol/mol (6.3%)
His 10-year QRISK2 score is 7%. What is the most appropriate course of action based on these findings?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange a fasting glucose sample
Explanation:There is no need to take any action regarding his cholesterol as it is under control. Additionally, his blood pressure is also well managed. However, his HbA1c level is in the pre-diabetes range (42-47 mmol/mol) and requires further investigation. It is important to note that a HbA1c reading alone cannot rule out diabetes, and a fasting sample should be arranged for confirmation.
Type 2 diabetes mellitus can be diagnosed through a plasma glucose or HbA1c sample. The diagnostic criteria vary depending on whether the patient is experiencing symptoms or not. If the patient is symptomatic, a fasting glucose level of 7.0 mmol/l or higher or a random glucose level of 11.1 mmol/l or higher (or after a 75g oral glucose tolerance test) indicates diabetes. If the patient is asymptomatic, the same criteria apply but must be demonstrated on two separate occasions.
In 2011, the World Health Organization released supplementary guidance on the use of HbA1c for diagnosing diabetes. A HbA1c level of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or higher is diagnostic of diabetes mellitus. However, a HbA1c value of less than 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) does not exclude diabetes and may not be as sensitive as fasting samples for detecting diabetes. For patients without symptoms, the test must be repeated to confirm the diagnosis. It is important to note that increased red cell turnover can cause misleading HbA1c results.
There are certain conditions where HbA1c cannot be used for diagnosis, such as haemoglobinopathies, haemolytic anaemia, untreated iron deficiency anaemia, suspected gestational diabetes, children, HIV, chronic kidney disease, and people taking medication that may cause hyperglycaemia (such as corticosteroids).
Impaired fasting glucose (IFG) is defined as a fasting glucose level of 6.1 mmol/l or higher but less than 7.0 mmol/l. Impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) is defined as a fasting plasma glucose level less than 7.0 mmol/l and an OGTT 2-hour value of 7.8 mmol/l or higher but less than 11.1 mmol/l. People with IFG should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test to rule out a diagnosis of diabetes. A result below 11.1 mmol/l but above 7.8 mmol/l indicates that the person does not have diabetes but does have IGT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 73
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old student taking the oral contraceptive pill develops pain and soreness around the genitals. She has just completed an elective year in the United States (USA). On examination, there are multiple, shallow and tender ulcers at the skin and mucous membrane of the vagina.
Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Genital herpes
Explanation:Sexually Transmitted Diseases: Causes and Symptoms
Sexually transmitted diseases (STDs) are infections that are spread through sexual contact. There are various types of STDs, each with its own set of symptoms and causes. Genital herpes is caused by herpes simplex viruses, with type 2 being responsible for the majority of cases. It can present as vesicular lesions around the genitals, rectum or mouth, but most individuals are asymptomatic. Granuloma inguinale is a chronic bacterial infection that results in nodular lesions that evolve into ulcers. Chancroid is a bacterial STD caused by Haemophilus ducreyi, characterised by painful necrotising genital ulcers. Primary syphilis is caused by the spirochaete Treponema pallidum, with lesions beginning as solitary, raised, firm, red papules that can be several centimetres in diameter. Lymphogranuloma venereum is an uncommon STD caused by Chlamydia trachomatis, characterised by self-limited genital papules or ulcers, followed by painful inguinal and/or femoral lymphadenopathy. Non-infectious causes include fixed drug reactions, Behçet’s disease, neoplasms and trauma. It is important to consider these alternative causes if evaluations for the infectious aetiologies do not lead to a diagnosis. HIV infection should always be considered and tested for.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 74
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old man is brought to the hospital after experiencing a generalized seizure. He complains of feeling ill with a fever and headache for the past 48 hours, and his mother notes that he has been unusually irritable lately. The patient has no prior medical history. During the examination, there is mild nuchal rigidity and hyperreflexia in the lower limbs. A CT scan of the head reveals bilateral hypodensities in the temporal lobes. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Herpes simplex encephalitis
Explanation:Consider herpes simplex encephalitis as the possible cause for the observed temporal lobe changes on the CT head.
Understanding Herpes Simplex Encephalitis
Herpes simplex encephalitis is a common topic in medical exams. This viral infection affects the temporal lobes of the brain, causing symptoms such as fever, headache, seizures, and vomiting. Focal features like aphasia may also be present. It is important to note that peripheral lesions, such as cold sores, are not related to the presence of HSV encephalitis.
HSV-1 is responsible for 95% of cases in adults and typically affects the temporal and inferior frontal lobes. Diagnosis is made through CSF analysis, PCR for HSV, and imaging studies like CT or MRI. EEG patterns may also show lateralized periodic discharges at 2 Hz.
Treatment involves intravenous aciclovir, and prompt initiation of treatment is crucial for a good prognosis. If treatment is started early, the mortality rate is around 10-20%. However, if left untreated, the mortality rate can approach 80%.
In summary, understanding the symptoms, pathophysiology, and treatment of herpes simplex encephalitis is important for medical professionals and students alike. Early recognition and treatment can greatly improve outcomes for patients with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 75
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old woman of Afro-Caribbean origin presents to her General Practitioner for a hypertension review. She has been taking 8 mg of perindopril per day for the last three years. Her average home blood pressure (BP) readings are 150/92 mmHg.
On examination, she is obese, with a body mass index of 33 kg/m2. On investigation, her renal function is normal, as is urine dipstick testing. There is no evidence of left ventricular hypertrophy on the electrocardiogram. She is not diabetic.
What is the most appropriate next step in this patient’s management?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate option from the list below.
Select ONE option only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Switch to amlodipine
Explanation:Treatment Options for Uncontrolled Hypertension
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health complications if left untreated. When first-line treatment with an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor is not effective, there are several options for adjusting medication to better control blood pressure.
Switching to a calcium-channel blocker like amlodipine is recommended as a second-line treatment. Thiazide-like diuretics may also be considered. For patients over 55 years old without diabetes, or those of black African or Afro-Caribbean family origin without diabetes, calcium-channel blockers should be started as first-line treatment.
Increasing the dose of perindopril erbumine beyond the maximum of 8 mg is not safe and may cause renal impairment. Adding atenolol is reserved for patients with known coronary artery disease or inadequately controlled hypertension on maximal doses of other medications.
Thiazide diuretics like bendroflumethiazide are no longer recommended by NICE guidance. Instead, thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide are recommended as a second-line alternative to calcium-channel blockers if hypertension is not adequately controlled on maximal doses of first-line treatment.
If blood pressure remains uncontrolled despite medication adjustments, referral for ambulatory blood pressure monitoring may be necessary to determine the best course of action.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 76
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl comes to your clinic complaining of lower abdominal pain during her menstrual cycle for the past 6 months. The pain usually begins 1-2 hours after the start of her period and subsides after 1-2 days. She reports that her period is not abnormally heavy, and she is not sexually active at the moment. What is the best course of action for managing her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start mefenamic acid
Explanation:The initial treatment for primary dysmenorrhoea, which this girl is experiencing, is NSAIDs like mefenamic acid. There is no need for gynaecological investigation at this point. If mefenamic acid does not work, she could consider taking the combined oral contraceptive pill, but since she is not sexually active, it may not be necessary. Tranexamic acid is helpful for menorrhagia, but it will not alleviate pain. A transvaginal ultrasound scan is not necessary for primary dysmenorrhoea.
Dysmenorrhoea is a condition where women experience excessive pain during their menstrual period. There are two types of dysmenorrhoea: primary and secondary. Primary dysmenorrhoea affects up to 50% of menstruating women and is not caused by any underlying pelvic pathology. It usually appears within 1-2 years of the menarche and is thought to be partially caused by excessive endometrial prostaglandin production. Symptoms include suprapubic cramping pains that may radiate to the back or down the thigh, and pain typically starts just before or within a few hours of the period starting. NSAIDs such as mefenamic acid and ibuprofen are effective in up to 80% of women, and combined oral contraceptive pills are used second line for management.
Secondary dysmenorrhoea, on the other hand, typically develops many years after the menarche and is caused by an underlying pathology. The pain usually starts 3-4 days before the onset of the period. Causes of secondary dysmenorrhoea include endometriosis, adenomyosis, pelvic inflammatory disease, intrauterine devices, and fibroids. Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend referring all patients with secondary dysmenorrhoea to gynaecology for investigation. It is important to note that the intrauterine system (Mirena) may help dysmenorrhoea, but this only applies to normal copper coils.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 77
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of weight gain and irregular menstrual cycles. She reports feeling weak and depressed. During the examination, the doctor notices multiple purplish striae on her abdomen and bruises on her lower extremities. Laboratory tests show normal thyroid hormone levels and TSH, but elevated cortisol secretion. If the patient has adrenal hyperfunction, what other symptom may also be present?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hirsutism
Explanation:Effects of Cortisol on the Body: Misconceptions and Clarifications
Cortisol, a hormone produced by the adrenal glands, plays a crucial role in regulating various bodily functions. However, there are some misconceptions about the effects of cortisol on the body. Here are some clarifications:
Hirsutism: Elevated cortisol levels can cause a condition called Cushingoid, which may result in hirsutism in women. This is characterized by excessive hair growth in areas such as the face, chest, and back.
Hypoglycemia: Contrary to popular belief, cortisol does not cause hypoglycemia. Instead, it increases gluconeogenesis (the production of glucose from non-carbohydrate sources) and reduces glucose uptake in peripheral tissues, resulting in hyperglycemia.
Enhanced glucose uptake: Cortisol actually has the opposite effect on glucose uptake. It reduces the uptake of glucose into peripheral tissues and accelerates gluconeogenesis.
Hypotension: Patients with adrenal hyperfunction (excessive cortisol production) often suffer from hypertension (high blood pressure), not hypotension (low blood pressure). This is because excessive mineralocorticoids are released, which can cause fluid retention and increase blood pressure.
Hypocalciuria: Cortisol can lead to osteopenia and osteoporosis by increasing bone breakdown. This may result in hypercalcemia (high levels of calcium in the blood), which can cause hypercalciuria (excessive calcium in the urine), not hypocalciuria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 78
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man with a history of Wilson’s disease and mild osteoarthritis presents with features of nephrotic syndrome.
Which medication is the most likely cause for his condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: d-Penicillamine
Explanation:Pharmacologic Treatments and Complications: A Review
Secondary membranous nephropathy can be caused by autoimmune diseases, infectious diseases, malignancy, and exposure to certain drugs such as captopril, gold, lithium, or penicillamine. Treatment with chelating agents like D-penicillamine is the mainstay of treatment for Wilson’s disease, but it can cause proteinuria in up to 30% of patients. Hydroxychloroquine is used for active rheumatoid arthritis but can cause ocular toxicity. Methotrexate is used for severe Crohn’s disease and rheumatoid arthritis but can cause bone marrow suppression. Topical NSAIDs are unlikely to cause systemic side-effects, while sulfasalazine can cause rare but serious side-effects in patients with G6PD deficiency. It is important to monitor patients closely for complications when using these pharmacologic treatments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 79
Incorrect
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You are conducting an interview with a 24-year-old man who has arrived at the emergency department after self-harming. As you converse with him, you observe that his facial expression is devoid of emotion, his tone of voice is flat, and his body language lacks any animation. This is evident even when he talks about his traumatic experiences of childhood abuse. How would you record this in your documentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Flattened affect
Explanation:Affect and mood can be easily confused during a mental state exam. Affect refers to the current emotional state that can be observed, while mood is the predominant emotional state over a longer period. It is helpful to think of affect as the weather on a particular day and mood as the overall climate.
Mood is determined by the patient’s history and can be described as their emotional state over the past month. Symptoms of depression or mania can be used to determine the patient’s mood. On the other hand, affect is the emotional state that is currently being displayed by the patient during the assessment. It is expressed through facial expressions, voice tone, and body movements. Affect can be normal, restricted, blunted, or flat. Labile affect is characterized by abrupt shifts in emotions.
In the given scenario, the patient is displaying a flattened affect, which means there is no expression of emotion. Apathy may be a symptom present in the patient’s history, but the scenario is specifically referring to the current observed emotional state. Depressed mood may also be present, but it is discussed in the patient’s history and is not the same as affect. Symptoms of depressed mood include anhedonia, low mood, lack of energy, poor concentration, and poor sleep.
Thought disorders can manifest in various ways, including circumstantiality, tangentiality, neologisms, clang associations, word salad, Knight’s move thinking, flight of ideas, perseveration, and echolalia. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, but eventually returning to the original point. Tangentiality, on the other hand, refers to wandering from a topic without returning to it. Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two existing words. Clang associations occur when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes. Word salad is a type of speech that is completely incoherent, with real words strung together into nonsensical sentences. Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, characterized by unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. Flight of ideas is a thought disorder that involves jumping from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them. Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic. Finally, echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 80
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female patient complains of hypopigmented skin lesions on her chest and back. She has just come back from a trip to Spain and has a tanned complexion. During examination, the lesions appear to be slightly scaly. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pityriasis versicolor
Explanation:Understanding Pityriasis Versicolor
Pityriasis versicolor, also known as tinea versicolor, is a fungal infection that affects the skin’s surface. It is caused by Malassezia furfur, which was previously known as Pityrosporum ovale. This condition is characterized by patches that may be hypopigmented, pink, or brown, and it is most commonly found on the trunk. The patches may become more noticeable following a suntan, and scaling is a common symptom. Mild pruritus may also occur.
Pityriasis versicolor can affect healthy individuals, but it is more likely to occur in those who are immunosuppressed, malnourished, or have Cushing’s syndrome. Treatment typically involves the use of topical antifungal medications, with ketoconazole shampoo being the recommended option due to its cost-effectiveness for larger areas. If topical treatment fails, alternative diagnoses should be considered, and oral itraconazole may be prescribed. Scrapings may also be sent for confirmation of the diagnosis. Understanding the features, predisposing factors, and management of pityriasis versicolor can help individuals recognize and effectively treat this common fungal infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 81
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man presents to ophthalmology with complaints of progressive vision loss over the past few months, which has worsened suddenly in the last week. On visual field testing, a central scotoma is noted, and fundoscopy reveals well-defined red patches on the retina. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Wet age-related macular degeneration
Explanation:If a patient experiences a gradual decline in vision over several months, along with metamorphopsia and a central scotoma, it is highly likely that they have wet age-related macular degeneration (ARMD). This condition is characterized by a sudden deterioration in vision, red patches on the retina during fundoscopy, and leakage of serous fluid and blood. Acute angle-closure glaucoma, on the other hand, presents with severe headaches, vomiting, and mid-dilated or irregularly shaped pupils. Dry ARMD also causes a slow decline in vision, but it does not result in sudden deterioration or red patches on the retina. Retinal detachment causes a painless loss of vision that starts peripherally and progresses centrally, while vitreous hemorrhage is a common cause of sudden visual loss in diabetics, characterized by dark spots in the vision and a hemorrhage within the vitreous cavity during fundoscopy.
Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.
To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with anti-oxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.
In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and anti-oxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 82
Incorrect
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A woman who is 16 weeks pregnant presents as she came into contact with a child who has chickenpox around 4 days ago. She is unsure if she had the condition herself as a child. Blood tests show the following:
Varicella IgM Negative
Varicella IgG Negative
What is the most suitable course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Varicella zoster immunoglobulin
Explanation:Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral aciclovir may be given if she is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 83
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman presents to the breast clinic with an abnormal mammogram and a small fixed lump in her right breast. What type of breast cancer is most frequently encountered?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Invasive ductal carcinoma (no special type)
Explanation:The most prevalent form of breast cancer is invasive ductal carcinoma, without any distinctive features.
Breast Cancer: Understanding Types and Classification
Breast cancer can be classified based on the type of tissue it originates from, namely duct or lobular tissue. Ductal carcinoma and lobular carcinoma are the two main types of breast cancer, which can further be classified as either carcinoma-in-situ or invasive. Invasive ductal carcinoma, also known as No Special Type, is the most common type of breast cancer. Lobular carcinoma and other rare types of breast cancer are classified as Special Type.
Apart from the common types, there are several rarer types of breast cancer, including medullary breast cancer, mucinous breast cancer, tubular breast cancer, adenoid cystic carcinoma of the breast, metaplastic breast cancer, lymphoma of the breast, basal type breast cancer, phyllodes or cystosarcoma phyllodes, and papillary breast cancer. Paget’s disease of the nipple is another type of breast cancer that is associated with an underlying mass lesion. Inflammatory breast cancer is a rare type of breast cancer that results in an inflamed appearance of the breast due to cancerous cells blocking the lymph drainage.
Understanding the different types and classifications of breast cancer is crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment. It is important to note that some types of breast cancer may be associated with underlying lesions seen in the common types, rather than being completely separate subtypes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 84
Incorrect
-
You are contemplating prescribing mefloquine as a prophylaxis for malaria for a 26-year-old female. What is the most crucial contraindication to keep in mind?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A history of anxiety or depression
Explanation:Strengthened Warnings on the Neuropsychiatric Side-Effects of Mefloquine
Mefloquine, also known as Lariam, is a medication used for the prevention and treatment of certain types of malaria. However, there has been a long-standing concern about its potential neuropsychiatric side-effects. A recent review has led to strengthened warnings about the risks associated with mefloquine.
Patients taking mefloquine may experience side-effects such as nightmares or anxiety, which could be a warning sign of a more serious neuropsychiatric event. There have been reports of suicide and deliberate self-harm in patients taking mefloquine. Adverse reactions may also continue for several months due to the long half-life of the medication.
It is important to note that mefloquine should not be used in patients with a history of anxiety, depression, schizophrenia, or other psychiatric disorders. If patients experience any neuropsychiatric side-effects while taking mefloquine, they should stop taking the medication and seek medical advice. These strengthened warnings aim to ensure that patients are fully informed about the potential risks associated with mefloquine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 85
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old obese man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus presents at the clinic for a review. He is currently asymptomatic but his recent annual blood tests have shown slightly abnormal liver function tests. The results are as follows:
- Bilirubin: 20 µmol/L (3 - 17)
- ALP: 104 u/L (30 - 100)
- ALT: 53 u/L (3 - 40)
- γGT: 58 u/L (8 - 60)
- Albumin: 38 g/L (35 - 50)
A liver ultrasound was conducted and reported fatty changes. All other standard liver screen bloods, including viral serology, are normal. The patient's alcoholic intake is within recommended limits. What is the most appropriate next test to perform?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Enhanced liver fibrosis blood test
Explanation:For patients with non-alcoholic fatty liver disease who exhibit characteristics such as obesity and type 2 diabetes mellitus, it is recommended to conduct an enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) test to aid in the diagnosis of liver fibrosis. According to NICE guidelines, if NAFLD is discovered incidentally, an ELF blood test should be conducted to evaluate for the presence of more advanced liver disease.
Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease: Causes, Features, and Management
Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is a prevalent liver disease in developed countries, primarily caused by obesity. It encompasses a range of conditions, from simple steatosis (fat accumulation in the liver) to steatohepatitis (fat with inflammation) and may progress to fibrosis and liver cirrhosis. Insulin resistance is believed to be the primary mechanism leading to steatosis, making NAFLD a hepatic manifestation of metabolic syndrome. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is a type of liver damage similar to alcoholic hepatitis but occurs in the absence of alcohol abuse. It affects around 3-4% of the general population and may be responsible for some cases of cryptogenic cirrhosis.
NAFLD is usually asymptomatic, but hepatomegaly, increased echogenicity on ultrasound, and elevated ALT levels are common features. The enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) blood test is recommended by NICE to check for advanced fibrosis in patients with incidental NAFLD. If the ELF blood test is not available, non-invasive tests such as the FIB4 score or NAFLD fibrosis score, in combination with a FibroScan, may be used to assess the severity of fibrosis. Patients with advanced fibrosis should be referred to a liver specialist for further evaluation, which may include a liver biopsy to stage the disease more accurately.
The mainstay of NAFLD treatment is lifestyle changes, particularly weight loss, and monitoring. Research is ongoing into the role of gastric banding and insulin-sensitizing drugs such as metformin and pioglitazone. While there is no evidence to support screening for NAFLD in adults, NICE guidelines recommend the management of incidental NAFLD findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 86
Incorrect
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Among the fruit juices listed, which one is most likely to have an interaction with atorvastatin?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Grapefruit juice
Explanation:Understanding the Interaction of Juices with Medications: A Focus on Cytochrome P450 Enzymes
Certain juices can interact with medications, potentially leading to adverse effects if dosage is not adjusted. Grapefruit juice, for example, can inhibit the CYP3A4 enzyme responsible for metabolizing 90% of drugs, leading to subtherapeutic drug levels. On the other hand, tomato, apple, lemon, and pineapple juices are not known to interact with any medications.
To understand these interactions better, it is important to look at the role of cytochrome P450 enzymes in drug metabolism. These enzymes play a crucial role in metabolizing a wide variety of endogenous and exogenous chemicals, including drugs. Changes in CYP enzyme activity can affect the metabolism and clearance of various drugs, leading to adverse drug interactions.
It is also important to note that certain drugs can either induce or inhibit the activity of various CYP isoenzymes, further affecting drug metabolism. For example, carbamazepine and rifampin can induce the biosynthesis of CYP2C9, while fluconazole and ritonavir can inhibit its activity.
In summary, understanding the interaction of juices with medications requires a deeper understanding of the role of cytochrome P450 enzymes in drug metabolism and the potential effects of drug-induced changes in enzyme activity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 87
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old male with a history of eczema and asthma complains of rhinorrhoea and nasal congestion for the past six months. His asthma is currently well managed and he rarely uses his blue inhaler. He occasionally feels pressure in his sinuses. What is the first-line treatment option available?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nasal irrigation with saline solution
Explanation:Chronic rhinosinusitis can be treated with nasal irrigation using saline solution as a first-line option. However, it is unlikely that symptoms will resolve without additional interventions such as smoking cessation, avoidance of allergens, and a 3-month course of a steroid nasal spray like fluticasone or mometasone. It is important to note that optimizing asthma control is also crucial in managing chronic rhinosinusitis, but there is no indication of poorly controlled asthma in this case. It is not recommended to initiate long-term antibiotics without consulting a specialist as there is limited evidence of their effectiveness in treating this condition.
Understanding Chronic Rhinosinusitis
Chronic rhinosinusitis is a common condition that affects approximately 1 in 10 people. It is characterized by inflammation of the paranasal sinuses and nasal passages that lasts for 12 weeks or longer. There are several factors that can predispose individuals to this condition, including atopy (such as hay fever or asthma), nasal obstruction (such as a deviated septum or nasal polyps), recent local infections (such as rhinitis or dental extractions), swimming or diving, and smoking.
Symptoms of chronic rhinosinusitis include facial pain, nasal discharge, nasal obstruction, and post-nasal drip. Facial pain is typically felt as pressure in the frontal area and worsens when bending forward. Nasal discharge is usually clear if the condition is caused by allergies or vasomotor issues, but thicker and purulent discharge may indicate a secondary infection. Nasal obstruction can lead to mouth breathing, while post-nasal drip can cause a chronic cough.
Management of chronic rhinosinusitis involves avoiding allergens, using intranasal corticosteroids, and nasal irrigation with saline solution. However, it is important to be aware of red flag symptoms, such as unilateral symptoms, persistent symptoms despite 3 months of treatment compliance, and epistaxis (nosebleeds). If any of these symptoms occur, it is important to seek medical attention promptly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 88
Incorrect
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Which one of the following nail changes is least likely to occur in psoriasis for a 30-year-old patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Yellow nail syndrome
Explanation:Psoriasis and Psoriatic Arthropathy: Nail Changes
Psoriasis is a skin condition that can also affect the nails. The changes in the nails do not necessarily indicate the severity of psoriasis, but they are often associated with psoriatic arthropathy. In fact, around 80-90% of patients with psoriatic arthropathy have nail changes.
The nail changes that may occur in psoriasis include pitting, onycholysis (separation of the nail from the nail bed), subungual hyperkeratosis, and loss of the nail. These changes can affect both the fingers and toes. It is important to note that while nail changes may not be a reliable indicator of psoriasis severity, they can be a sign of psoriatic arthropathy, which is a type of arthritis that can occur in people with psoriasis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 89
Incorrect
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You are conducting an 8-week examination on a baby with a prominent purplish birthmark. The mother was informed that it may not disappear on its own and could be linked to other vascular issues. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Port wine stain
Explanation:Understanding Port Wine Stains
Port wine stains are a type of birthmark that are characterized by their deep red or purple color. Unlike other vascular birthmarks, such as salmon patches and strawberry hemangiomas, port wine stains do not go away on their own and may even become more prominent over time. These birthmarks are typically unilateral, meaning they only appear on one side of the body.
Fortunately, there are treatment options available for those who wish to reduce the appearance of port wine stains. Cosmetic camouflage can be used to cover up the birthmark, while laser therapy is another option that requires multiple sessions. It’s important to note that while these treatments can help reduce the appearance of port wine stains, they may not completely eliminate them. Understanding the nature of port wine stains and the available treatment options can help individuals make informed decisions about managing these birthmarks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 90
Incorrect
-
A 45-year-old woman develops significantly increasing pain in her leg one day postoperatively following surgery for a tibial shaft fracture. The plaster cast is removed and examination reveals tender swelling of her lower leg. All distal pulses are present and the foot and leg are warm. Pain is significantly worse with passive extension of the toes.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute compartment syndrome
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Swollen Calf: Understanding Acute Compartment Syndrome and Other Potential Causes
A swollen calf can be a concerning symptom, especially following trauma or surgery on the lower limb. One potential cause is acute compartment syndrome, which is a surgical emergency that can lead to limb-threatening complications. This condition occurs when pressure within a closed fascial compartment increases and compromises the neurovascular supply to the muscles within that compartment. Other potential causes of a swollen calf include a ruptured Baker’s cyst, acute limb ischaemia, cellulitis, and deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Understanding the clinical features and differential diagnosis of these conditions is crucial for prompt and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 91
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman is seen by her general practitioner. She has lost 8 kg in weight; her previous weight was 70 kg, and she now weighs 60 kg. She has a fear of gaining weight, but no further symptoms are elicited. On examination, she appears underweight and her skin looks dry; there is evidence of thin, soft, unpigmented hair on her back; her blood pressure is 110/70 mmHg, and her heart rate is 65 bpm.
What is your preferred diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anorexia nervosa
Explanation:Differentiating Anorexia Nervosa from Other Mental Disorders
Anorexia nervosa (AN) is a mental disorder characterized by deliberate weight loss induced and sustained by the patient. In this scenario, a woman presents with a fear of gaining weight and has lost more than 15% of her body weight, suggesting a diagnosis of AN. Other physical symptoms such as dry skin, lanugo hair, hypotension, and bradycardia help confirm the diagnosis. However, a more detailed history, a full assessment of her mental state, and clinical investigations are necessary to confirm the diagnosis and inform management.
While weight loss can also be present in other mental disorders such as generalized anxiety disorder (GAD), depression, schizophrenia, and bulimia nervosa (BN), they are not accompanied by a fear of gaining weight. Patients with GAD experience persistent anxiety that affects several aspects of their lives, while depression is characterized by a persistent feeling of sadness and hopelessness. Schizophrenia involves self-neglect and/or delusional beliefs around food, while BN is characterized by episodes of binge eating followed by purging behaviors.
It is worth noting that eating disorders have the highest mortality among all mental disorders, with AN being no exception. The excess mortality is explained by the associated physical complications and increased risk of suicide. Psychological interventions are the mainstay of treatment for all eating disorders, but antidepressants have a role in some types (e.g., BN), and a multidisciplinary approach is recommended in any case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 92
Incorrect
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A 6-month-old infant presents to the Emergency Department with respiratory distress. The child has epicanthic folds and a single palmar crease. Genetic testing confirms an autosomal trisomy. What is the most frequent cardiac anomaly observed in infants with this disorder?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Atrioventricular septal defect
Explanation:Cardiac Abnormalities in Down Syndrome Patients
Down syndrome is a genetic disorder that often presents with physical characteristics such as epicanthic folds, single creases, and an autosomal trisomy. It is common for children with Down syndrome to have congenital heart disease, with 42% of the population affected. Of those, 23% have multiple cardiac abnormalities. The most prevalent cardiac abnormality, found in 37% of cases, is a complete atrioventricular septal defect. Ventricular septal defects are the second most common, affecting 30% of patients. Mitral valve disorders occur in up to 40% of Down syndrome patients, but mitral stenosis is less common. Atrial septal defects affect 15% of patients, while patent ductus arteriosus affects only 2%. Understanding the prevalence of these cardiac abnormalities in Down syndrome patients is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 93
Incorrect
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Liam is a 30-year-old software engineer who has been admitted to the hospital due to a relapse of his schizophrenia. He has been detained under section 3 of the Mental Health Act for 2 weeks after refusing to take his medication.
The consultant psychiatrist suggests starting Liam on risperidone, but during the team meeting, Liam was informed of the potential risks and benefits of the medication and decided he does not want to take it. The team believes that Liam has the capacity to make this decision, but they also feel that he needs treatment with an antipsychotic to reduce the risk to himself and others.
What is the most appropriate course of action in this situation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rosie can be treated against her will under section 3, even if she has capacity
Explanation:If a patient is under section 2 or 3, treatment can be administered even if they refuse it. Patients who are detained under section 3 can be treated against their will, regardless of their capacity. However, after three months, if the patient still refuses treatment, an impartial psychiatrist must review the proposed medication and agree with the treating team’s plan. The Mental Health Act takes precedence over the Mental Capacity Act, so a best interests meeting is not necessary. The treating team must consider the patient’s best interests, and in this case, they believe that medication is necessary for Rosie’s mental health. While benzodiazepines can alleviate agitation and distress, they are unlikely to improve her psychotic symptoms, so they are not a suitable option. If Rosie continues to refuse treatment after three months under section 3, a second opinion will be required.
Sectioning under the Mental Health Act is a legal process used for individuals who refuse voluntary admission. This process excludes patients who are under the influence of drugs or alcohol. There are several sections under the Mental Health Act that allow for different types of admission and treatment.
Section 2 allows for admission for assessment for up to 28 days, which is not renewable. An Approved Mental Health Professional (AMHP) or the nearest relative (NR) can make the application on the recommendation of two doctors, one of whom should be an approved consultant psychiatrist. Treatment can be given against the patient’s wishes.
Section 3 allows for admission for treatment for up to 6 months, which can be renewed. An AMHP and two doctors, both of whom must have seen the patient within the past 24 hours, can make the application. Treatment can also be given against the patient’s wishes.
Section 4 is used as an emergency 72-hour assessment order when a section 2 would involve an unacceptable delay. A GP and an AMHP or NR can make the application, which is often changed to a section 2 upon arrival at the hospital.
Section 5(2) allows a doctor to legally detain a voluntary patient in hospital for 72 hours, while section 5(4) allows a nurse to detain a voluntary patient for 6 hours.
Section 17a allows for Supervised Community Treatment (Community Treatment Order) and can be used to recall a patient to the hospital for treatment if they do not comply with the conditions of the order in the community, such as taking medication.
Section 135 allows for a court order to be obtained to allow the police to break into a property to remove a person to a Place of Safety. Section 136 allows for someone found in a public place who appears to have a mental disorder to be taken by the police to a Place of Safety. This section can only be used for up to 24 hours while a Mental Health Act assessment is arranged.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 94
Incorrect
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What potential complication is associated with an increased risk when using combined oral contraceptives?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Breast cancer
Explanation:The Benefits and Risks of Oral Contraceptives in Relation to Cancer
Oral contraceptives have been a topic of controversy when it comes to their association with cancer in women. However, various studies have shown that they can have both positive and negative effects on different types of cancer.
Breast Cancer:
The Collaborative Group on Hormonal Factors in Breast Cancer conducted a comprehensive analysis and found that current oral contraceptive users and those who had used them within the past 1-4 years had a slightly increased risk of breast cancer. However, the risk is small and resulting tumors spread less aggressively than usual.Dysmenorrhoea:
For women with primary dysmenorrhoea who do not wish to conceive, a 3-6 month trial of hormonal contraception is reasonable. Monophasic combined oral contraceptives containing 30-35 μg of ethinylestradiol and norethisterone, norgestimate or levonorgestrel are usually the first choice.Ovarian Cancer:
Oral contraceptives have been noted to prevent epithelial ovarian carcinoma, with studies showing an approximately 40% reduced risk of malignant and borderline ovarian epithelial cancer. This protection lasts for at least 15 years after discontinuation of use and increases with duration of use.Endometrial Cancer:
Use of oral contraceptives is associated with a 50% reduction of risk of endometrial adenocarcinoma. Protection appears to persist for at least 15 years following discontinuation of use.Colorectal Cancer:
Women who take combined oral contraceptives are 19% less likely to develop colorectal cancer.In conclusion, while there are some risks associated with oral contraceptives, they also have benefits in reducing the risk of certain types of cancer. It is important for women to discuss their individual risks and benefits with their healthcare provider when considering the use of oral contraceptives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 95
Incorrect
-
A 68-year-old man who is a smoker presents with complaints about his left eye. Upon examination, it is found that he has a constricted left pupil with a ptosis and anhidrosis.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Horner syndrome
Explanation:Horner syndrome is a rare condition caused by a disruption of the sympathetic nerve supply to the eye. It is characterized by a triad of symptoms including a constricted pupil, partial drooping of the eyelid, and loss of sweating on one side of the face. Possible causes of Horner syndrome include brain-stem stroke or tumor, brachial plexus trauma, lung infections or tumors, carotid artery issues, and migraines. Multiple sclerosis is an autoimmune disease that attacks the central nervous system and can cause optic neuritis, but the symptoms described in the scenario do not match those of MS. Holmes-Adie syndrome is a neurological disorder characterized by a dilated pupil that reacts slowly to light, loss of deep tendon reflexes, and profuse sweating, which is not consistent with the scenario. Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder that causes muscle weakness, but it typically affects the facial muscles and extraocular muscles, not the pupil. Riley-Day syndrome is a disorder of the autonomic nervous system that affects infants and is characterized by the absence of overflow tears with emotional crying.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 96
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis complains of bloody diarrhoea, accompanied by fever and abdominal pain for the past week. She is on methotrexate for her rheumatoid arthritis, which is usually well-controlled. Upon testing her stool sample, Campylobacter jejuni is detected. What is the best course of action for treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fluids + clarithromycin
Explanation:Campylobacter: The Most Common Bacterial Cause of Intestinal Disease in the UK
Campylobacter is a Gram-negative bacillus that is responsible for causing infectious intestinal disease in the UK. The bacteria is primarily spread through the faecal-oral route and has an incubation period of 1-6 days. Symptoms of Campylobacter infection include a prodrome of headache and malaise, diarrhoea (often bloody), and abdominal pain that may mimic appendicitis.
In most cases, Campylobacter infection is self-limiting and does not require treatment. However, the British National Formulary (BNF) recommends treatment with antibiotics if the patient is immunocompromised or if symptoms are severe (high fever, bloody diarrhoea, or more than eight stools per day) and have lasted for more than one week. The first-line antibiotic for Campylobacter infection is clarithromycin, although ciprofloxacin is an alternative. It is important to note that strains with decreased sensitivity to ciprofloxacin are frequently isolated.
Complications of Campylobacter infection may include Guillain-Barre syndrome, reactive arthritis, septicaemia, endocarditis, and arthritis. It is important to seek medical attention if symptoms are severe or persist for an extended period of time.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 97
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old male arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of feeling extremely sick. He reports that his GP had prescribed him antibiotics for a chest infection. Upon examination, an ECG reveals polymorphic ventricular tachycardia (torsades de pointes). What medication is he likely taking?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:Torsades de pointes can be caused by macrolides, particularly clarithromycin, due to its potential to prolong the QT interval and trigger polymorphic ventricular tachycardia. This risk is higher in patients with an underlying channelopathy. Long QT syndrome can be caused by genetic factors such as potassium or sodium channel mutations, as well as electrolyte imbalances like hypocalcaemia, hypomagnesaemia, and hypokalaemia. Certain drugs, including antiarrhythmics, antibiotics, and psychotropic medications, can also cause long QT syndrome.
Torsades de Pointes: A Life-Threatening Condition
Torsades de pointes is a type of ventricular tachycardia that is associated with a prolonged QT interval. This condition can lead to ventricular fibrillation, which can cause sudden death. There are several causes of a prolonged QT interval, including congenital conditions such as Jervell-Lange-Nielsen syndrome and Romano-Ward syndrome, as well as certain medications like antiarrhythmics, tricyclic antidepressants, and antipsychotics. Other causes include electrolyte imbalances, myocarditis, hypothermia, and subarachnoid hemorrhage.
The management of torsades de pointes involves the administration of intravenous magnesium sulfate. This can help to stabilize the heart rhythm and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 98
Incorrect
-
A 25-year-old is diagnosed with an ectopic pregnancy at 8 weeks gestation and undergoes a salpingectomy. She is also rhesus negative. What is the advice regarding anti-D?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-D should be given
Explanation:When managing an ectopic pregnancy through surgery, it is necessary to administer Anti-D immunoglobulin. However, if the ectopic pregnancy is being treated medically or if the location of the pregnancy is unknown, Anti-D is not needed. The Coombs test has two types: Direct Coombs, which is used to detect autoimmune haemolytic anaemia, and Indirect Coombs, which is used during pregnancy to identify antibodies in the mother’s blood that can cause haemolytic disease in the newborn.
Rhesus negative pregnancies can lead to the formation of anti-D IgG antibodies in the mother if she delivers a Rh +ve child, which can cause haemolysis in future pregnancies. Prevention involves testing for D antibodies and giving anti-D prophylaxis to non-sensitised Rh -ve mothers at 28 and 34 weeks. Anti-D immunoglobulin should be given within 72 hours in various situations. Tests should be done on all babies born to Rh -ve mothers, and affected fetuses may experience various complications and require treatment such as transfusions and UV phototherapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 99
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl comes to see her doctor because she has not yet begun menstruating. During the physical examination, you observe that she has a short stature and a webbed neck. What would you anticipate hearing when listening to her heart?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ejection systolic murmur
Explanation:The ejection systolic murmur present in this patient is likely due to her Turner’s syndrome, which is associated with a bicuspid aortic valve. A continuous machinery murmur, late systolic murmur, and mid-late diastolic murmur are less likely causes, as they are associated with different conditions that are not commonly seen in patients with Turner’s syndrome.
Understanding Turner’s Syndrome
Turner’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects approximately 1 in 2,500 females. It is caused by the absence of one sex chromosome (X) or a deletion of the short arm of one of the X chromosomes. This condition is denoted as 45,XO or 45,X.
The features of Turner’s syndrome include short stature, a shield chest with widely spaced nipples, a webbed neck, a bicuspid aortic valve (15%), coarctation of the aorta (5-10%), primary amenorrhea, cystic hygroma (often diagnosed prenatally), a high-arched palate, a short fourth metacarpal, multiple pigmented naevi, lymphoedema in neonates (especially feet), and elevated gonadotrophin levels. Hypothyroidism is much more common in Turner’s syndrome, and there is also an increased incidence of autoimmune disease (especially autoimmune thyroiditis) and Crohn’s disease.
In summary, Turner’s syndrome is a chromosomal disorder that affects females and can cause a range of physical features and health issues. Early diagnosis and management can help individuals with Turner’s syndrome lead healthy and fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 100
Incorrect
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As a foundation doctor on the neonatal ward, you consult with your supervisor regarding a patient who is five days old and displaying symptoms of cyanosis, tachypnoea, and weak peripheral pulses. Your suspicion is that the patient has a duct dependent cardiac lesion. Once this is confirmed, what would be the most suitable course of treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prostaglandins
Explanation:Prostaglandins can maintain the patency of a patent ductus arteriosus, which can be beneficial in cases of duct dependent cardiac lesions such as tetralogy of Fallot, Ebstein’s anomaly, pulmonary atresia, and pulmonary stenosis. These conditions may be diagnosed before birth or present with symptoms such as cyanosis, tachypnea, and weak peripheral pulses at birth. While surgery is often the definitive treatment, keeping the duct open with prostaglandins can provide time for appropriate management planning. Aspirin is not recommended for children due to the risk of Reyes syndrome, which can cause liver and brain edema and be fatal. Indomethacin and other medications may also be used to close the duct.
Patent ductus arteriosus is a type of congenital heart defect that is typically classified as ‘acyanotic’. However, if left untreated, it can eventually lead to late cyanosis in the lower extremities, which is known as differential cyanosis. This condition is caused by a connection between the pulmonary trunk and descending aorta that fails to close with the first breaths due to increased pulmonary flow that enhances prostaglandins clearance. Patent ductus arteriosus is more common in premature babies, those born at high altitude, or those whose mothers had rubella infection during the first trimester of pregnancy.
The features of patent ductus arteriosus include a left subclavicular thrill, a continuous ‘machinery’ murmur, a large volume, bounding, collapsing pulse, a wide pulse pressure, and a heaving apex beat. To manage this condition, indomethacin or ibuprofen is given to the neonate, which inhibits prostaglandin synthesis and closes the connection in the majority of cases. If patent ductus arteriosus is associated with another congenital heart defect that is amenable to surgery, then prostaglandin E1 is useful to keep the duct open until after surgical repair.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 101
Incorrect
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An 82-year-old woman is brought to see you by her daughter who complains that she has to repeat everything multiple times for her mother to understand. An audiogram confirms sensorineural hearing loss.
What is the most probable cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Presbyacusis
Explanation:Causes of Hearing Loss in Adults: Understanding the Differences
As we age, our hearing abilities may decline, leading to a condition known as presbyacusis. This age-related hearing loss affects high-frequency sounds and can be detected through an audiogram that shows reduced hearing for both air and bone conduction at higher frequencies in the affected ear.
Another cause of hearing loss is otosclerosis, which is a form of conductive hearing loss caused by problems with the ossicular chain. An audiogram would show a wide air-bone gap, indicating a gap between the hearing level for both air and bone conduction.
While multiple sclerosis can cause sensorineural hearing loss in adults, it is a rare occurrence and not the most likely option in most cases. Barotrauma, on the other hand, is a conductive cause of hearing loss that can lead to drum perforation. An audiogram would show a wide air-bone gap on the affected ear.
Ménière’s disease is another cause of sensorineural hearing loss, but it is less common than presbyacusis. It typically presents with symptoms of tinnitus, vertigo, and a fullness in the ear. Infections such as measles and mumps, or ototoxic medications, would usually present earlier. Barotrauma and otosclerosis are causes of conductive deafness.
In summary, understanding the differences between these various causes of hearing loss can help individuals and healthcare professionals identify the most likely cause and determine the appropriate treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 102
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of a headache that she describes as worsening over the past three weeks. She reports that the headache wakes her during the night, and is worse when she coughs.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Brain tumour
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms suggest a headache caused by increased pressure within the skull, which is often associated with a space-occupying lesion such as a brain tumor. This type of headache is typically worse in the morning and aggravated by bending forward, coughing, or sneezing. As the tumor grows, other symptoms such as vomiting, seizures, and neurological deficits may develop. Brain tumors can be primary or metastatic, with the most common types being astrocytoma, glioblastoma, oligodendroglioma, ependymoma, meningioma, and primary CNS lymphoma.
The patient’s history does not support a diagnosis of giant cell arteritis, which typically affects individuals over 50 years old and presents with an abrupt-onset headache, scalp tenderness, jaw pain, visual disturbances, and constitutional symptoms such as fever and weight loss. The diagnosis of GCA requires specific criteria, including age at onset, new headache, temporal artery abnormality, elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate, and abnormal artery biopsy.
The patient’s symptoms are also not consistent with cluster headaches, which typically affect younger males and present with severe, unilateral pain around the eye, accompanied by lacrimation and nasal congestion. Cluster headaches have a circadian pattern and occur in episodes, followed by symptom-free periods.
Migraine is another type of headache that is not likely in this case, as the patient’s symptoms do not fit the typical pattern of unilateral, pulsating pain lasting 4-72 hours, accompanied by nausea/vomiting and photophobia.
Finally, subarachnoid hemorrhage is a medical emergency that presents with a sudden, severe headache, often described as the worst headache of one’s life, along with other symptoms such as vomiting, loss of consciousness, seizures, and neurological deficits. However, the patient’s headache has been progressing over weeks, which is not consistent with SAH.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 103
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old construction worker complains of headache, fever and muscle pains. Initially, he thought it was just a common cold but his symptoms have worsened over the past week. He also reports feeling nauseous and having decreased urine output. Upon examination, his temperature is 38.2ºC, pulse is 102 / min and his chest is clear. There are subconjunctival haemorrhages present but no signs of jaundice. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Leptospirosis
Explanation:Leptospirosis: A Tropical Disease with Flu-Like Symptoms
Leptospirosis is a disease caused by the spirochaete Leptospira interrogans, which is commonly spread through contact with infected rat urine. While it is often seen in individuals who work in sewage, farming, veterinary, or abattoir settings, it is more prevalent in tropical regions and should be considered in returning travelers. The disease has two phases, with the early phase lasting around a week and characterized by flu-like symptoms and fever. The second immune phase may lead to more severe disease, including acute kidney injury, hepatitis, and aseptic meningitis. Diagnosis can be made through serology, PCR, or culture, with high-dose benzylpenicillin or doxycycline being the recommended treatment.
Leptospirosis is a tropical disease that presents with flu-like symptoms and is commonly spread through contact with infected rat urine. While it is often seen in individuals who work in certain settings, it is more prevalent in tropical regions and should be considered in returning travelers. The disease has two phases, with the early phase lasting around a week and characterized by flu-like symptoms and fever. The second immune phase may lead to more severe disease, including acute kidney injury, hepatitis, and aseptic meningitis. Diagnosis can be made through serology, PCR, or culture, with high-dose benzylpenicillin or doxycycline being the recommended treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 104
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of right upper quadrant pain, dark urine, and pale stools that have been present for the past 24 hours. He reports being a part-time teacher and smoking 10 cigarettes daily. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any medications. Upon examination, his sclera are yellow, and his BMI is 29 kg/m². What investigation would be the most useful in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ultrasound of abdomen
Explanation:Gallstones: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Gallstones are a common condition, with up to 24% of women and 12% of men affected. Local infection and cholecystitis may develop in up to 30% of cases, and 12% of patients undergoing surgery will have stones in the common bile duct. The majority of gallstones are of mixed composition, with pure cholesterol stones accounting for 20% of cases. Symptoms typically include colicky right upper quadrant pain that worsens after fatty meals. Diagnosis involves abdominal ultrasound and liver function tests, with magnetic resonance cholangiography or intraoperative imaging used to confirm the presence of stones in the bile duct. Treatment options include expectant management for asymptomatic gallstones, laparoscopic cholecystectomy for symptomatic gallstones, and early ERCP or surgical exploration for stones in the bile duct. Intraoperative cholangiography or laparoscopic ultrasound may be used to confirm anatomy or exclude CBD stones during surgery. ERCP carries risks such as bleeding, duodenal perforation, cholangitis, and pancreatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 105
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman who is 10 weeks postpartum and currently breastfeeding presents with a complaint of a foul odor in her vaginal area. Upon examination, clue cells are detected. What treatment option would you suggest for this probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metronidazole 400mg bd for 5 days
Explanation:The recommended treatment for bacterial vaginosis in this patient is metronidazole, but high doses of this medication are not safe for breastfeeding. Fluconazole is used to treat thrush, while azithromycin is used for Chlamydia. Clarithromycin is prescribed for pneumonia, strep throat, and H. pylori infections.
Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a condition where there is an overgrowth of anaerobic organisms, particularly Gardnerella vaginalis, in the vagina. This leads to a decrease in the amount of lactobacilli, which produce lactic acid, resulting in an increase in vaginal pH. BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but it is commonly seen in sexually active women. Symptoms include a fishy-smelling vaginal discharge, although some women may not experience any symptoms at all. Diagnosis is made using Amsel’s criteria, which includes the presence of thin, white discharge, clue cells on microscopy, a vaginal pH greater than 4.5, and a positive whiff test. Treatment involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, with a cure rate of 70-80%. However, relapse rates are high, with over 50% of women experiencing a recurrence within 3 months. Topical metronidazole or clindamycin may be used as alternatives.
Bacterial vaginosis during pregnancy can increase the risk of preterm labor, low birth weight, chorioamnionitis, and late miscarriage. It was previously recommended to avoid oral metronidazole in the first trimester and use topical clindamycin instead. However, recent guidelines suggest that oral metronidazole can be used throughout pregnancy. The British National Formulary (BNF) still advises against using high-dose metronidazole regimes. Clue cells, which are vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria, can be seen on microscopy in women with BV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 106
Incorrect
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Sophie is a premature baby (28 weeks) who was born 3 weeks ago. During the past week, she has been experiencing bloody stools, abdominal distension, and poor feeding. Upon physical examination, there is an increase in abdominal size with decreased bowel sounds. An abdominal X-ray reveals asymmetrical bowel loops that are dilated and have bowel wall oedema. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Necrotising enterocolitis
Explanation:Understanding Necrotising Enterocolitis
Necrotising enterocolitis is a serious condition that is responsible for a significant number of premature infant deaths. The condition is characterized by symptoms such as feeding intolerance, abdominal distension, and bloody stools. If left untreated, these symptoms can quickly progress to more severe symptoms such as abdominal discolouration, perforation, and peritonitis.
To diagnose necrotising enterocolitis, doctors often use abdominal x-rays. These x-rays can reveal a number of important indicators of the condition, including dilated bowel loops, bowel wall oedema, and intramural gas. Other signs that may be visible on an x-ray include portal venous gas, pneumoperitoneum resulting from perforation, and air both inside and outside of the bowel wall. In some cases, an x-ray may also reveal air outlining the falciform ligament, which is known as the football sign.
Overall, understanding the symptoms and diagnostic indicators of necrotising enterocolitis is crucial for early detection and treatment of this serious condition. By working closely with healthcare professionals and following recommended screening protocols, parents and caregivers can help ensure the best possible outcomes for premature infants at risk for this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 107
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old male patient comes to you with a rash that has spread all over his body. He has multiple erythematous lesions less than 1 cm in diameter on his torso and limbs, some of which are covered by a fine scale. Two weeks ago, he had exudative tonsillitis when he was seen with a sore throat. Apart from asthma, he has no other medical history. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Guttate psoriasis
Explanation:Tear-drop scaly papules suddenly appearing on the trunk and limbs may indicate guttate psoriasis.
Guttate psoriasis is a type of psoriasis that is more commonly seen in children and adolescents. It is often triggered by a streptococcal infection that occurred 2-4 weeks prior to the appearance of the lesions. The name guttate comes from the Latin word for drop, as the lesions appear as small, tear-shaped papules on the trunk and limbs. These papules are pink and scaly, and the onset of the condition is usually acute, occurring over a few days.
In most cases, guttate psoriasis will resolve on its own within 2-3 months. There is no clear evidence to support the use of antibiotics to treat the underlying streptococcal infection. Treatment options for guttate psoriasis include topical agents commonly used for psoriasis and UVB phototherapy. In cases where the condition recurs, a tonsillectomy may be necessary.
It is important to differentiate guttate psoriasis from pityriasis rosea, another skin condition that can present with similar symptoms. Guttate psoriasis is often preceded by a streptococcal sore throat, while pityriasis rosea may be preceded by a respiratory tract infection. The appearance of guttate psoriasis is characterized by tear-shaped papules on the trunk and limbs, while pityriasis rosea presents with a herald patch followed by multiple oval lesions with a fine scale. While guttate psoriasis resolves within a few months, pityriasis rosea typically resolves after around 6 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 108
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of thick, white vaginal discharge that is causing itchiness and hindering her ability to focus on her studies. She reveals that she has previously attempted to treat these symptoms with over-the-counter remedies, as she has experienced two similar episodes within the past five months. The patient is sexually active and uses both condoms and oral contraceptives. During her visit, a urine dip test is conducted, which yields negative results for pregnancy, protein, leucocytes, and nitrites. What would be the most effective course of action for managing this patient's recurring symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral fluconazole
Explanation:For patients experiencing recurrent vaginal candidiasis, it is recommended to consider an induction-maintenance regime of oral fluconazole. Over the counter antifungal treatments, such as clotrimazole cream, are typically effective for one-off episodes of thrush. However, in cases of recurrent symptoms, a more comprehensive treatment plan may be necessary. It is important to ensure that the patient is not taking SSRI medications or has hypersensitivity to ‘azole’ antifungal medications before prescribing fluconazole. It should be noted that IM ceftriaxone and oral ciprofloxacin are used to manage Neisseria gonorrhoea, not thrush, and oral metronidazole is used to manage bacterial vaginosis, not thrush.
Vaginal candidiasis, also known as thrush, is a common condition that many women can diagnose and treat themselves. Candida albicans is responsible for about 80% of cases, while other candida species cause the remaining 20%. Although most women have no predisposing factors, certain factors such as diabetes mellitus, antibiotics, steroids, pregnancy, and HIV can increase the likelihood of developing vaginal candidiasis. Symptoms include non-offensive discharge resembling cottage cheese, vulvitis, itching, vulval erythema, fissuring, and satellite lesions. A high vaginal swab is not routinely indicated if the clinical features are consistent with candidiasis. Treatment options include local or oral therapy, with oral fluconazole 150 mg as a single dose being the first-line treatment according to NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. If there are vulval symptoms, a topical imidazole may be added to an oral or intravaginal antifungal. Pregnant women should only use local treatments. Recurrent vaginal candidiasis is defined as four or more episodes per year by BASHH. Compliance with previous treatment should be checked, and a high vaginal swab for microscopy and culture should be performed to confirm the diagnosis. A blood glucose test may be necessary to exclude diabetes, and differential diagnoses such as lichen sclerosus should be ruled out. An induction-maintenance regime involving oral fluconazole may be considered. Induction involves taking oral fluconazole every three days for three doses, while maintenance involves taking oral fluconazole weekly for six months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 109
Incorrect
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An 85-year-old woman and her daughter visit your clinic to inquire about the need for bone protection medication. The patient has a medical history of a fractured neck of femur 12 months ago, chronic kidney disease stage IV, hypertension, and ischaemic heart disease. She was prescribed alendronic acid after her fracture, but it was discontinued six months ago due to reflux issues. Risedronate was also not tolerated due to the same reason. Her DEXA scan after the fracture revealed a T score of -4.2. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer for consideration of denosumab
Explanation:The situation is complex as the patient requires bone protection due to her low T score and previous hip fracture. However, bisphosphonates are not suitable for her as they are contraindicated in patients with an eGFR below 35 mL/minute/1.73m(2), which she has due to her stage IV chronic kidney disease. Therefore, reintroducing alendronate or using IV zoledronate infusion is not an option. Repeating her DEXA scan at this point would not provide any additional information. While calcium and vitamin D supplementation should continue, they are not sufficient for her bone protection needs. The best option is denosumab, which would require administration in a secondary care setting and close monitoring of her calcium levels due to her renal disease.
The NICE guidelines for managing osteoporosis in postmenopausal women include offering vitamin D and calcium supplementation, with alendronate being the first-line treatment. If a patient cannot tolerate alendronate, risedronate or etidronate may be given as second-line drugs, with strontium ranelate or raloxifene as options if those cannot be taken. Treatment criteria for patients not taking alendronate are based on age, T-score, and risk factors. Bisphosphonates have been shown to reduce the risk of fractures, with alendronate and risedronate being superior to etidronate in preventing hip fractures. Other treatments include selective estrogen receptor modulators, strontium ranelate, denosumab, teriparatide, and hormone replacement therapy. Hip protectors and falls risk assessment may also be considered in management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 110
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with central abdominal pain. She has vomited twice since the onset of the pain and has not passed any wind or faeces in the last twelve hours. Her medical history includes a partial small bowel resection due to traumatic perforation. On examination, her abdomen appears distended and there is generalised tenderness on palpation. Her blood tests reveal a Hb level of 153 g/L (115 - 160), platelets of 312 * 109/L (150 - 400), WBC count of 10.8 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0), bilirubin of 17 µmol/L (3 - 17), ALP of 78 u/L (30 - 100), ALT of 29 u/L (3 - 40), and amylase of 880 U/L (70 - 300). What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Small bowel obstruction
Explanation:Elevated serum amylase levels are not always indicative of acute pancreatitis, as they can also be seen in cases of small bowel obstruction. In this scenario, the patient is experiencing abdominal pain, vomiting, and a lack of bowel movements or gas, which are all typical symptoms of small bowel obstruction. The fact that the patient has a history of abdominal surgery further supports this diagnosis, despite the misleading blood test results. Acute cholecystitis, on the other hand, presents with different symptoms such as fever, right upper quadrant pain, and systemic distress, and does not typically cause elevated amylase levels. Acute pancreatitis may also be considered as a differential diagnosis, but it is not associated with a lack of bowel movements or gas, and previous bowel surgery is not a risk factor. Ascending cholangitis and large bowel obstruction can also be ruled out based on the patient’s symptoms and test results.
Small bowel obstruction occurs when the small intestines are blocked, preventing the passage of food, fluids, and gas. The most common cause of this condition is adhesions, which can develop after previous surgeries, followed by hernias. Symptoms of small bowel obstruction include diffuse, central abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting (often bilious), constipation, and abdominal distension. Tinkling bowel sounds may also be present in early stages of obstruction. Abdominal x-ray is typically the first-line imaging for suspected small bowel obstruction, showing distended small bowel loops with fluid levels. CT is more sensitive and considered the definitive investigation, particularly in early obstruction. Management involves initial steps such as NBM, IV fluids, and nasogastric tube with free drainage. Some patients may respond to conservative management, but others may require surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 111
Incorrect
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An increase in alkaline phosphatase can be attributed to any of the following conditions except?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypoparathyroidism
Explanation:Understanding Alkaline Phosphatase and Its Causes
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) is an enzyme found in various tissues throughout the body, including the liver, bones, and intestines. When the levels of ALP in the blood are elevated, it can indicate a potential health issue. The causes of raised ALP can be divided into two categories based on the calcium level in the blood.
If both ALP and calcium levels are high, it may indicate bone metastases, hyperparathyroidism, osteomalacia, or renal failure. On the other hand, if ALP is high but calcium is low, it may be due to cholestasis, hepatitis, fatty liver, neoplasia, Paget’s disease, or physiological factors such as pregnancy, growing children, or healing fractures.
It is important to note that elevated ALP levels do not necessarily indicate a specific condition, but rather serve as a signal for further investigation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 112
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman presents with urgency and frequency. Three weeks ago she consulted with a colleague as she felt 'dry' during intercourse. She has been treated for urinary tract infections on multiple occasions in the past but urine culture is always negative. Her only medication is continuous hormone replacement therapy. A vaginal examination is performed which shows no evidence of vaginal atrophy and no masses are felt. An ultrasound is requested:
Both kidneys, spleen and liver are normal size. Outline of the bladder normal. 6 cm complex ovarian cyst noted on left ovary. Right ovary and uterus normal
What is the most appropriate next step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent referral to gynaecology
Explanation:Investigation is necessary for any ovarian mass found in a woman who has undergone menopause.
Ovarian enlargement is typically diagnosed through ultrasound imaging, which can determine whether the cyst is simple or complex. Simple cysts are unilocular and more likely to be benign, while complex cysts are multilocular and more likely to be malignant. Management of ovarian enlargement depends on the patient’s age and symptoms. Younger women may be treated conservatively if the cyst is small and simple, with a repeat ultrasound scheduled in 8-12 weeks. Postmenopausal women, however, should always be referred to a gynecologist for assessment, as physiological cysts are unlikely in this population. It’s important to note that ovarian cancer can present with vague symptoms, leading to delayed diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 113
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic after being released from the acute medical unit 14 days ago. She was admitted due to pleuritic chest pain and shortness of breath, and was diagnosed with a pulmonary embolism. Apixaban was started during her hospital stay. The patient has a clean medical history and is generally healthy. What is the appropriate duration of anticoagulation therapy for this individual?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 6 months
Explanation:Patients with ‘unprovoked’ pulmonary embolisms usually require anticoagulation treatment for a duration of 6 months, as there are no temporary risk factors for venous thromboembolism.
Management of Pulmonary Embolism: NICE Guidelines
Pulmonary embolism (PE) is a serious condition that requires prompt management. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on the management of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in 2020, with some key changes. One of the significant changes is the recommendation to use direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) as the first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including those with active cancer. Another change is the increasing use of outpatient treatment for low-risk PE patients, determined by a validated risk stratification tool.
Anticoagulant therapy is the cornerstone of VTE management, and the guidelines recommend using apixaban or rivaroxaban as the first-line treatment following the diagnosis of a PE. If neither of these is suitable, LMWH followed by dabigatran or edoxaban or LMWH followed by a vitamin K antagonist (VKA) can be used. For patients with active cancer, DOACs are now recommended instead of LMWH. The length of anticoagulation is determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked, with treatment typically stopped after 3-6 months for provoked VTE and continued for up to 6 months for unprovoked VTE.
In cases of haemodynamic instability, thrombolysis is recommended as the first-line treatment for massive PE with circulatory failure. Patients who have repeat pulmonary embolisms, despite adequate anticoagulation, may be considered for inferior vena cava (IVC) filters. However, the evidence base for IVC filter use is weak.
Overall, the updated NICE guidelines provide clear recommendations for the management of PE, including the use of DOACs as first-line treatment and outpatient management for low-risk patients. The guidelines also emphasize the importance of individualized treatment based on risk stratification and balancing the risks of VTE recurrence and bleeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 114
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man came to the clinic complaining of pain, redness, and blurring of vision in his left eye. Upon fundoscopy, a combination of white and red retinal lesions was observed, indicating chorioretinitis. What is the essential test that must be performed to determine the underlying cause of chorioretinitis in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: HIV test
Explanation:Performing an HIV test is crucial in patients with AIDS, as it is the primary diagnostic tool for identifying the underlying cause. While options 1, 2, and 3 may be necessary as baseline investigations in most patients, they are not sufficient for diagnosing the specific condition in this case.
Causes of Chorioretinitis
Chorioretinitis is a medical condition that affects the retina and choroid, which are the layers of tissue at the back of the eye. There are several causes of chorioretinitis, including syphilis, cytomegalovirus, toxoplasmosis, sarcoidosis, and tuberculosis.
Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. It can cause chorioretinitis as part of its secondary stage. Cytomegalovirus is a common virus that can cause chorioretinitis in people with weakened immune systems, such as those with HIV/AIDS. Toxoplasmosis is a parasitic infection that can be contracted from contaminated food or water, and it can cause chorioretinitis in some cases.
Sarcoidosis is a condition that causes inflammation in various parts of the body, including the eyes. It can lead to chorioretinitis in some cases. Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection that can affect the lungs, but it can also spread to other parts of the body, including the eyes. It can cause chorioretinitis as a rare complication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 115
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man presents with sudden onset right-sided weakness and difficulty understanding speech at 9:30 am. It is now 12:15 pm. He has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and hyperlipidemia, and takes lisinopril, metformin, and atorvastatin.
Initial investigations reveal a capillary blood glucose of 5.2 mmol/L (4.0-6.0 mmol/L) and oxygen saturations of 97%. What is the most appropriate next step in his management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Immediate CT head (non-contrast)
Explanation:The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The management of acute stroke includes maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage. Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends thrombectomy for people who have acute ischaemic stroke and confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation demonstrated by computed tomographic angiography or magnetic resonance angiography. Secondary prevention includes the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 116
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a history of chlamydia, low-grade fever, and worsening abdominal pain over the past 6 hours. She reports that the pain is most severe on the right side and radiates into her shoulder. The patient is a smoker with no known medical conditions and is currently taking Microgynon for contraception. Her vital signs are within normal limits, and on palpation of the abdomen, she experiences tenderness in the right upper quadrant. An abdominal ultrasound scan, urine dip, and beta-hCG test all come back normal. What is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome
Explanation:Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome is a condition that arises as a result of pelvic inflammatory disease. It causes inflammation of the liver capsule, leading to pain in the upper right quadrant of the abdomen. Scar tissue formation and peri-hepatic adhesions may also occur. This condition is more common in women who have contracted chlamydia or gonorrhoea. Treatment involves eliminating the responsible organism, and in some cases, laparoscopy may be necessary to remove adhesions that have formed.
Chlamydia is a common sexually transmitted infection caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is prevalent in the UK, with approximately 1 in 10 young women affected. The incubation period is around 7-21 days, but many cases are asymptomatic. Symptoms in women include cervicitis, discharge, and bleeding, while men may experience urethral discharge and dysuria. Complications can include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility.
Traditional cell culture is no longer widely used for diagnosis, with nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) being the preferred method. Testing can be done using urine, vulvovaginal swab, or cervical swab. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years, and opportunistic testing is common.
Doxycycline is the first-line treatment for Chlamydia, with azithromycin as an alternative if doxycycline is contraindicated or not tolerated. Pregnant women may be treated with azithromycin, erythromycin, or amoxicillin. Patients diagnosed with Chlamydia should be offered partner notification services, with all contacts since the onset of symptoms or within the last six months being notified and offered treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 117
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old female visits her GP 4 days after undergoing cataract surgery in her left eye. She reports that the procedure went smoothly and she was discharged on the same day. However, she is currently experiencing pain in the operated eye and notes that it appears redder than before. Her right eye has a corrected visual acuity of 6/6, while her left eye has a corrected visual acuity of 6/18. There are no abnormalities in her pupillary reactions or eye movements. What is the most appropriate course of action at this point?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent ophthalmological referral
Explanation:If a patient experiences redness in the eye, pain, and a decrease in vision after intraocular surgery, it is important to seek urgent ophthalmic evaluation as these symptoms may indicate endophthalmitis, a serious infection within the eye. Treatment options include antibiotics administered systemically or directly into the eye.
Understanding the Causes of Red Eye
Red eye is a common condition that can be caused by various factors. It is important to identify the underlying cause of red eye to determine the appropriate treatment. In some cases, urgent referral to an ophthalmologist may be necessary. Here are some of the key distinguishing features of the different causes of red eye:
Acute angle closure glaucoma is characterized by severe pain, decreased visual acuity, and haloes. The pupil may also be semi-dilated and the cornea hazy.
Anterior uveitis presents with acute onset, pain, blurred vision, and photophobia. The pupil is small and fixed, and there may be ciliary flush.
Scleritis is characterized by severe pain and tenderness, which may worsen with movement. It may also be associated with underlying autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis.
Conjunctivitis may be bacterial or viral, with purulent or clear discharge, respectively.
Subconjunctival haemorrhage may be caused by trauma or coughing bouts.
Endophthalmitis typically occurs after intraocular surgery and presents with red eye, pain, and visual loss.
By understanding the different causes of red eye and their distinguishing features, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate management and referral when necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 118
Incorrect
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A 64-year-old man comes to his GP complaining of pain when swallowing for the past 2 months. He works as a construction worker and has had two colds in the past 2 months since the new building project started - despite his cold symptoms resolving, he reports an ongoing painful swallow. He has noticed some hoarseness in his voice, but attributes this to drinking less water than usual due to his painful swallow. He has no past medical history. He has a 25 pack-year smoking history and does not drink alcohol.
What should be the GP's next course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer for upper GI endoscopy
Explanation:The presence of odynophagia in a patient with risk factors such as smoking and age is a concerning symptom that may indicate oesophageal cancer. In this case, the patient should be referred for a 2 week wait upper GI endoscopy and questioned about other symptoms such as difficulty swallowing, reflux, weight loss, and nausea. It would be inappropriate to reassure the patient and advise over-the-counter medications without further investigation. A chest x-ray is unlikely to show any clear oesophageal pathologies and a barium swallow is only useful if a benign pathology is suspected. As the patient has two features of oesophageal cancer and a smoking history, she should be worked up as a potential cancer patient. There are no emergency symptoms that warrant referral to the emergency department for same-day investigation and blood tests are unlikely to indicate malignancy in a clear and obvious manner.
Oesophageal Cancer: Types, Risk Factors, Features, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Oesophageal cancer used to be mostly squamous cell carcinoma, but adenocarcinoma is now becoming more common, especially in patients with a history of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) or Barrett’s. Adenocarcinoma is usually located near the gastroesophageal junction, while squamous cell tumours are found in the upper two-thirds of the oesophagus.
Risk factors for adenocarcinoma include GORD, Barrett’s oesophagus, smoking, achalasia, and obesity. Squamous cell cancer is more common in the developing world and is associated with smoking, alcohol, achalasia, Plummer-Vinson syndrome, and diets rich in nitrosamines.
The most common presenting symptom for both types of oesophageal cancer is dysphagia, followed by anorexia and weight loss. Other possible features include odynophagia, hoarseness, melaena, vomiting, and cough.
Diagnosis is done through upper GI endoscopy with biopsy, endoscopic ultrasound for locoregional staging, CT scanning for initial staging, and FDG-PET CT for detecting occult metastases. Laparoscopy may also be performed to detect occult peritoneal disease.
Operable disease is best managed by surgical resection, with the most common procedure being an Ivor-Lewis type oesophagectomy. However, the biggest surgical challenge is anastomotic leak, which can result in mediastinitis. Adjuvant chemotherapy may also be used in many patients.
Overall, oesophageal cancer is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the types, risk factors, features, diagnosis, and treatment options can help patients and healthcare providers make informed decisions about managing this disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 119
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old non-smoker with hypertension and diabetes has been diagnosed with bilateral renal artery stenosis. Blood tests reveal that he has normal renal function. He has undergone percutaneous angioplasty to both renal arteries, which was unsuccessful.
Which medication should this patient be started on?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
Explanation:Medical Management of Renal Artery Stenosis
Renal artery stenosis is a condition that requires medical management to control hypertension. Even if the arteries are treated successfully with angioplasty, antihypertensive therapy should be initiated. The ideal agent for this purpose is one that blocks the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system, such as angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors or angiotensin-receptor blockers (ARBs). Warfarin is not indicated in patients with renal artery stenosis, but may be used for prophylaxis of embolisation in other conditions. Clopidogrel is not indicated for hypertension management in renal artery stenosis. Statins may be used for primary prevention of cardiovascular disease if cholesterol levels are raised, but controlling blood pressure is the primary consideration in renal artery stenosis. Spironolactone should not be used in patients with renal compromise. Control of blood pressure should ideally be achieved using ACE inhibitors or ARBs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 120
Incorrect
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A father brings his 5-year-old daughter to the clinic. Despite not getting the MMR vaccine during the recent scare, he now wants to know if it's still possible to have her immunised due to the current measles outbreak. What should be done in this situation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Give MMR with repeat dose in 3 months
Explanation:According to the Green Book, it is recommended to have a 3-month gap between doses for optimal response rate. However, if the child is over 10 years old, a 1-month gap is sufficient. In case of an emergency, such as an outbreak at the child’s school, younger children can have a shorter gap of 1 month.
The MMR Vaccine: Information on Contraindications and Adverse Effects
The Measles, Mumps and Rubella (MMR) vaccine is given to children in the UK twice before they enter primary school. The first dose is administered at 12-15 months, while the second dose is given at 3-4 years old. This vaccine is part of the routine immunisation schedule.
However, there are certain contraindications to the MMR vaccine. Children with severe immunosuppression, allergies to neomycin, or those who have received another live vaccine by injection within four weeks should not receive the MMR vaccine. Pregnant women should also avoid getting vaccinated for at least one month following the MMR vaccine. Additionally, if a child has undergone immunoglobulin therapy within the past three months, there may be no immune response to the measles vaccine if antibodies are present.
While the MMR vaccine is generally safe, there are some adverse effects that may occur. After the first dose of the vaccine, some children may experience malaise, fever, and rash. These symptoms typically occur after 5-10 days and last for around 2-3 days. It is important to be aware of these potential side effects and to consult with a healthcare professional if any concerns arise.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 121
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man presents to the emergency department with his spouse reporting weakness in his right arm and leg, decreased vision, and difficulty speaking. The symptoms began approximately 30 minutes ago, and his wife promptly called for an ambulance. A CT scan of the head ruled out a hemorrhagic stroke, but a CT contrast angiography revealed a confirmed blockage in the proximal anterior circulation. What is the appropriate acute management for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alteplase plus thrombectomy
Explanation:For patients with an acute ischaemic stroke who present within 4.5 hours, the recommended treatment is a combination of thrombolysis and thrombectomy. Thrombolysis involves the use of alteplase, a tissue plasminogen activator that breaks down the clot, while thrombectomy physically removes the clot using a specialized device inserted through the femoral artery. In this case, as the patient has confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation, both thrombolysis and thrombectomy should be performed together for the best possible outcome. While alteplase alone can be considered if thrombectomy is not available, a better prognosis is more likely with the combination treatment. It would not be appropriate to perform thrombectomy alone without considering thrombolysis, as the patient is presenting within the window for thrombolysis and should be considered for both in combination according to the guidelines.
The Royal College of Physicians (RCP) and NICE have published guidelines on the diagnosis and management of patients following a stroke. The management of acute stroke includes maintaining normal levels of blood glucose, hydration, oxygen saturation, and temperature. Blood pressure should not be lowered in the acute phase unless there are complications. Aspirin should be given as soon as possible if a haemorrhagic stroke has been excluded. Anticoagulants should not be started until brain imaging has excluded haemorrhage. Thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms and haemorrhage has been definitively excluded. Mechanical thrombectomy is a new treatment option for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke. NICE recommends thrombectomy for people who have acute ischaemic stroke and confirmed occlusion of the proximal anterior circulation demonstrated by computed tomographic angiography or magnetic resonance angiography. Secondary prevention includes the use of clopidogrel and dipyridamole. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 122
Incorrect
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A 25 year old male arrives at the Emergency Department after being struck in the back of the head with a baseball bat. He reports a headache and has a cut on his occiput. He is alert, responsive to commands, and able to provide a detailed description of the incident.
What is his Glasgow coma scale (GCS)?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 15
Explanation:The GCS score for this patient is 654, which stands for Motor (6 points), Verbal (5 points), and Eye opening (4 points). This scoring system is used to assess a patient’s level of consciousness and is commonly used in cases of head injury to monitor for changes in neurology. The patient in question has a perfect score for eye opening, is fully oriented in time, place, and person, and is able to obey commands, resulting in a motor score of 6.
Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale for Adults
The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool used to assess the level of consciousness in adults who have suffered a brain injury or other neurological condition. It is based on three components: motor response, verbal response, and eye opening. Each component is scored on a scale from 1 to 6, with a higher score indicating a better level of consciousness.
The motor response component assesses the patient’s ability to move in response to stimuli. A score of 6 indicates that the patient is able to obey commands, while a score of 1 indicates no movement at all.
The verbal response component assesses the patient’s ability to communicate. A score of 5 indicates that the patient is fully oriented, while a score of 1 indicates no verbal response at all.
The eye opening component assesses the patient’s ability to open their eyes. A score of 4 indicates that the patient is able to open their eyes spontaneously, while a score of 1 indicates no eye opening at all.
The GCS score is expressed as a combination of the scores from each component, with the motor response score listed first, followed by the verbal response score, and then the eye opening score. For example, a GCS score of 13, M5 V4 E4 at 21:30 would indicate that the patient had a motor response score of 5, a verbal response score of 4, and an eye opening score of 4 at 9:30 PM.
Overall, the Glasgow Coma Scale is a useful tool for healthcare professionals to assess the level of consciousness in adults with neurological conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 123
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old woman comes in for her 8th week of pregnancy and reports an uncomplicated pregnancy thus far. She is currently in good health and not experiencing any symptoms. However, she expresses concern about not being vaccinated against rubella as a child due to her parents' anti-vaccine beliefs. She is aware of the potential harm rubella can cause to her developing fetus and blood tests confirm that she is not immune to the virus.
What advice should be given to her?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She can have the MMR vaccine postnatally
Explanation:In the case of a pregnant woman who is not immune to rubella, it is recommended to offer the MMR vaccination after giving birth. Rubella can cause severe harm to the developing foetus, especially during the first 8-10 weeks of pregnancy. Although congenital rubella syndrome is now rare due to widespread MMR vaccination, there has been a resurgence of measles, mumps, and rubella outbreaks in developed countries due to the anti-vaccination movement. The woman should avoid contact with individuals who may have rubella and cannot receive the vaccine while pregnant. Referral to an obstetrician is not necessary at this time since the woman is asymptomatic and in good health. The MMR vaccine should not be administered at 20 weeks of pregnancy, and if the woman is not immune, it should be offered postnatally. If there is a suspicion of rubella based on the woman’s clinical presentation, the local Health Protection Team should be notified, but this is not necessary in this case since there is no suspicion.
Rubella and Pregnancy: Risks, Features, Diagnosis, and Management
Rubella, also known as German measles, is a viral infection caused by the togavirus. Thanks to the introduction of the MMR vaccine, it is now rare. However, if contracted during pregnancy, there is a risk of congenital rubella syndrome, which can cause serious harm to the fetus. It is important to note that the incubation period is 14-21 days, and individuals are infectious from 7 days before symptoms appear to 4 days after the onset of the rash.
The risk of damage to the fetus is highest in the first 8-10 weeks of pregnancy, with a risk as high as 90%. However, damage is rare after 16 weeks. Features of congenital rubella syndrome include sensorineural deafness, congenital cataracts, congenital heart disease (e.g. patent ductus arteriosus), growth retardation, hepatosplenomegaly, purpuric skin lesions, ‘salt and pepper’ chorioretinitis, microphthalmia, and cerebral palsy.
If a suspected case of rubella in pregnancy arises, it should be discussed immediately with the local Health Protection Unit (HPU) as type/timing of investigations may vary. IgM antibodies are raised in women recently exposed to the virus. It should be noted that it is very difficult to distinguish rubella from parvovirus B19 clinically. Therefore, it is important to also check parvovirus B19 serology as there is a 30% risk of transplacental infection, with a 5-10% risk of fetal loss.
If a woman is tested at any point and no immunity is demonstrated, they should be advised to keep away from people who might have rubella. Non-immune mothers should be offered the MMR vaccination in the post-natal period. However, MMR vaccines should not be administered to women known to be pregnant or attempting to become pregnant.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 124
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman visits her GP with concerns about a lump in her breast that she discovered three weeks ago. The lump is causing discomfort when she wears a bra. During the examination, the doctor detects a 4 cm, non-tethered, and firm lump in the upper left quadrant of her right breast. The surface and contour are smooth, the skin is intact, and it does not transilluminate. The doctor refers her for a triple assessment, which confirms that she has a fibroadenoma. What is the next step in her treatment plan?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer for surgical excision
Explanation:The appropriate action for a patient presenting with a breast fibroadenoma larger than 3 cm is to refer them for surgical excision. Fibroadenomas are benign masses that develop from the whole lobule and are typically small, firm, and smooth, often referred to as breast mice. While they are usually treated conservatively, surgical excision is necessary if they cause discomfort, as in this case. Checking the mass again in three months, discharge and safety netting, prescribing oral antibiotics, and referring for aspiration are all incorrect management options for a fibroadenoma.
Understanding Breast Fibroadenoma
Breast fibroadenoma is a type of breast mass that develops from a whole lobule. It is characterized by a mobile, firm, and smooth lump in the breast, which is often referred to as a breast mouse. Fibroadenoma accounts for about 12% of all breast masses and is more common in women under the age of 30.
Fortunately, fibroadenomas are usually benign and do not increase the risk of developing breast cancer. In fact, over a two-year period, up to 30% of fibroadenomas may even get smaller on their own. However, if the lump is larger than 3 cm, surgical excision is typically recommended.
In summary, breast fibroadenoma is a common type of breast mass that is usually benign and does not increase the risk of breast cancer. While it may cause concern for some women, it is important to remember that most fibroadenomas do not require treatment and may even resolve on their own.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 125
Incorrect
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If you sustain a needlestick injury while taking blood from a patient suspected of having human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), what should be your first course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Wash wound under running water, encouraging active bleeding
Explanation:Immediate Actions to Take Following a Needlestick Injury: A Guide for Healthcare Workers
Needlestick injuries are a common occupational hazard for healthcare workers. If you experience a needlestick injury, it is important to take immediate action to minimize the risk of infection. Here are the steps you should take:
1. Wash the wound thoroughly under running water, while encouraging bleeding. This will help to flush out any pathogens that may be present.
2. Determine the patient’s HIV and bloodborne disease status. If the patient is HIV-positive or deemed to be at high risk, HIV post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) should be offered as soon as possible.
3. Begin Truvada and Kaletra PEP treatment if the patient is definitely HIV-positive or deemed to be at high risk. PEP should be commenced within 72 hours of exposure for maximum effectiveness.
4. Contact occupational health immediately to identify local protocols and receive guidance on next steps.
5. Fill out a clinical incident form to help the hospital identify potential areas for improvement in employee safety.
By following these steps, you can minimize the risk of infection and protect your health as a healthcare worker.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 126
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman presents to her GP with a complaint of difficulty moving her eyes horizontally. She reports that this is more pronounced after she has been conversing.
What is the most probable reason for her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Myasthenia gravis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of Ocular Weakness: Myasthenia Gravis, Mononeuritis Multiplex, Guillain-Barré Syndrome, Multiple Sclerosis, and Polymyositis
Ocular weakness can be caused by a variety of conditions, including myasthenia gravis (MG), mononeuritis multiplex, Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS), multiple sclerosis (MS), and polymyositis. MG is an autoimmune disorder that affects the neuromuscular junction, causing fatigable weakness of the periocular, facial, bulbar, and girdle muscles. Mononeuritis multiplex is a rare condition that involves neuropathy of multiple peripheral and/or cranial nerves, often caused by systemic disorders such as diabetes or granulomatosis with polyangiitis. GBS is an acute, post-infectious polyneuropathy that presents with progressive, ascending weakness, while MS is a chronic, immune-mediated inflammatory condition of the CNS that typically presents with relapsing-remitting disease and transient episodes of visual change or limb weakness. Polymyositis is a connective tissue disease that causes symmetrical proximal muscle weakness, often accompanied by dermatitis. Understanding the key features of each condition can aid in accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 127
Incorrect
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As a general practice doctor, you see a 35-year-old plumber who complains of shooting pains down his left leg for the past 3 weeks. The pain has been increasing in intensity and over the counter analgesia has not helped. The patient has no past medical history and takes no regular medications. During examination, you find normal power in both legs but altered sensation over the great toe on his left. There are no urinary symptoms or perianal sensation issues. An MRI scan of his lumbar spine shows a small left paracentral L4/5 disc prolapse causing compression of the transiting L5 nerve root. There is no compression of the cauda equina with CSF visible around all nerve roots. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start treatment with NSAIDs and refer for physiotherapy
Explanation:Most cases of sciatica can be resolved within 3 months through conservative treatment, and specialist referral is rarely necessary. However, if the pain persists after 4-6 weeks of physiotherapy and anti-neuropathic medication, referral to spinal surgery may be considered. Discharging the patient without proper intervention is not recommended as there is a risk of symptoms worsening and developing cauda equina syndrome. Patients should be advised to seek emergency care if they experience peri-anal or saddle sensory changes, difficulty urinating, or symptoms affecting both legs. Opiates are not recommended for neuropathic pain and may lead to dependence. Instead, a more appropriate and effective pain reliever for the patient’s age would be a non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) like naproxen.
Understanding Prolapsed Disc and its Features
A prolapsed lumbar disc is a common cause of lower back pain that can lead to neurological deficits. It is characterized by clear dermatomal leg pain, which is usually worse than the back pain. The pain is often aggravated when sitting. The features of the prolapsed disc depend on the site of compression. For instance, L3 nerve root compression can cause sensory loss over the anterior thigh, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test. On the other hand, L4 nerve root compression can lead to sensory loss in the anterior aspect of the knee, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test.
The management of prolapsed disc is similar to that of other musculoskeletal lower back pain. It involves analgesia, physiotherapy, and exercises. According to NICE, the first-line treatment for back pain without sciatica symptoms is NSAIDs +/- proton pump inhibitors, rather than neuropathic analgesia. If the symptoms persist after 4-6 weeks, referral for consideration of MRI is appropriate. Understanding the features of prolapsed disc can help in the diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 128
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old woman visits the local clinic with her husband, who reports that his wife has been experiencing chills, night sweats, coughing up yellow phlegm, and is having difficulty answering basic questions.
Which of the following is NOT part of the scoring evaluation for community-acquired pneumonia (CAP)?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Creatinine
Explanation:Understanding the CURB65 Score and its Criteria
The CURB65 score is a tool used to assess the severity of community-acquired pneumonia (CAP) in patients. It consists of five criteria, including confusion, respiratory rate, blood pressure, age, and urea levels. However, creatinine does not play a role in this score.
While the CURB65 score helps determine the appropriate level of care for patients with CAP, it is important to note that acute kidney injury and high creatinine levels may still be independent risk factors for morbidity and mortality.
The criteria for the CURB65 score are as follows: a score of 0-1 indicates that the patient can be managed at home, a score of 2-3 suggests hospital management with close monitoring, and a score of 4-5 indicates the need for admission and observation, potentially in an intensive therapy unit.
Age greater than 65 years old is one of the defining criteria of the CURB65 score, while confusion, respiratory rate > 30 breaths per minute, and blood pressure systolic < 90 mmHg or diastolic < 60 mmHg are also included. Additionally, a blood urea nitrogen level higher than 7 mmol/l is another criterion. In summary, understanding the CURB65 score and its criteria is essential in determining the appropriate level of care for patients with CAP. However, it is important to consider other risk factors, such as creatinine levels, in predicting morbidity and mortality.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 129
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman has been using diphenhydramine (Benadryl) for allergy relief. She reports using it frequently and her doctor suspects she may be experiencing symptoms of the anticholinergic syndrome (ACS).
Which of the following statements accurately describes the anticholinergic syndrome?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hot, dry skin occurs
Explanation:Understanding Anticholinergic Syndrome: Symptoms and Treatment
Anticholinergic syndrome is a condition that occurs when there is an inhibition of cholinergic neurotransmission at muscarinic receptor sites. It can be caused by the ingestion of various medications, intentional overdose, inadvertent ingestion, medical non-compliance, or geriatric polypharmacy. The syndrome produces central nervous system effects, peripheral nervous system effects, or both, resulting in a range of symptoms.
Symptoms of anticholinergic syndrome include flushing, dry skin and mucous membranes, mydriasis with loss of accommodation, altered mental status, fever, sinus tachycardia, decreased bowel sounds, functional ileus, urinary retention, hypertension, tremulousness, and myoclonic jerking. Hot, dry skin and constricted pupils are also common manifestations.
Treatment for anticholinergic syndrome involves stabilizing the patient in A&E and removing the toxin from the gastrointestinal tract. This can be done with a single dose of activated charcoal by mouth or nasogastric tube. Gastric lavage, followed by activated charcoal administration, is acceptable for patients presenting with altered mental state and within 1 hour of ingestion.
Physostigmine salicylate is the classic antidote for anticholinergic toxicity. While most patients can be safely treated without it, it is recommended when tachydysrhythmia is present. However, physostigmine is contraindicated in patients with cardiac conduction disturbances on ECG.
In conclusion, understanding the symptoms and treatment of anticholinergic syndrome is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care for patients who may present with this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 130
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman complains of a sudden 'droop' on the right side of her face upon waking up this morning. She denies any weakness in her limbs, difficulty swallowing, or changes in her vision. Upon examination, you observe paralysis on the upper and lower right side of her face. Which of the following symptoms would be most indicative of Bell's palsy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyperacusis
Explanation:Ramsey Hunt syndrome can be diagnosed based on the presence of a vesicular rash near the ear, which is often accompanied by hyperacusis in approximately one-third of patients.
Understanding Bell’s Palsy
Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It is more common in individuals aged 20-40 years and pregnant women. The condition is characterized by lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy, which affects the forehead. Unlike upper motor neuron lesions, the upper face is spared. Patients may also experience post-auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.
The management of Bell’s palsy has been a subject of debate. However, it is now widely accepted that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, but it may be beneficial for severe facial palsy. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients should be prescribed artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eyes at bedtime, they should tape them closed using microporous tape.
If the paralysis shows no sign of improvement after three weeks, an urgent referral to ENT is necessary. Patients with long-standing weakness may require a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within 3-4 months. However, untreated patients may experience permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 131
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man visits his GP complaining of a sore throat, runny nose, cough, feeling feverish and generally unwell for the past week. He reports no difficulty eating or drinking.
Upon examination, his temperature is 37.2°C, and his chest is clear, but he has a dry cough. His tonsils are inflamed, but there is no exudate. He has no significant medical history.
Based on his Fever PAIN score, what would be the most appropriate course of action?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Advise her that antibiotics are not indicated at this point and to return in one week if there is no improvement
Explanation:Using the FeverPAIN Score to Determine Antibiotic Use for Pharyngitis
When a patient presents with symptoms of pharyngitis, it can be difficult to determine whether antibiotics are necessary. The FeverPAIN Score for Streptococcus pharyngitis was developed to help assess which patients have streptococcal pharyngitis and therefore require antibiotics.
The score assigns points based on the presence of fever, pus, quick attenuation of symptoms, inflamed tonsils, and cough.
Fever PAIN score
Fever – 1
Pus – 1
Attenuates quickly – 1
Inflamed tonsils – 1
No cough – 1
A score of 0-1 is associated with a low likelihood of streptococcal infection and does not require antibiotics. A score of 2-3 may warrant a delayed antibiotic prescription, while a score of 4 or more may require immediate antibiotics.In the case of a patient with a low FeverPAIN score, it is important to advise against antibiotics and instead recommend a follow-up visit in one week if there is no improvement. Safety netting should also be provided to ensure the patient is aware of potential warning signs of deterioration. By using the FeverPAIN score, healthcare providers can reduce inappropriate antibiotic use in pharyngitis and promote more effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 132
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old male arrives at the emergency department with complaints of hand pain after punching a wall. He reports swelling and pain on the ulnar side of his hand. Based on his injury mechanism, what is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 5th metacarpal 'Boxer's' fracture
Explanation:When a person punches a hard surface, they may suffer from a ‘Boxer fracture’, which is a type of 5th metacarpal fracture that is usually only slightly displaced.
Boxer fracture is a type of fracture that occurs in the fifth metacarpal bone. It is usually caused by punching a hard surface, such as a wall, and results in a minimally displaced fracture. This means that the bone is broken but the pieces are still in alignment and have not moved significantly out of place. The injury is named after boxers because it is a common injury in this sport, but it can also occur in other activities that involve punching or striking objects. Proper treatment and management of a boxer fracture is important to ensure proper healing and prevent long-term complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 133
Incorrect
-
A 28-year-old nulliparous woman presents to the labour suite at 40+6 weeks gestation. She has expressed her desire for a vaginal delivery throughout her pregnancy. On cervical examination, the cervix is found to be in an intermediate position with a firm consistency. Cervical effacement is estimated to be around 30%, and the cervical dilatation is less than 1cm. The fetal head is palpable at the level of the ischial spines, and her bishop score is 3/10. The midwife has already performed a membrane sweep. What is the next step in management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vaginal prostaglandin E2
Explanation:Vaginal PGE2 is the preferred method of induction of labour, with other options such as emergency caesarean section, maternal oxytocin infusion, amniotomy, and cervical ripening balloon being considered only in certain situations. Women undergoing vaginal PGE2 should be aware of the risk of uterine hyperstimulation and may require additional analgesia. The cervix should be reassessed before considering oxytocin infusion. Amniotomy may be used in combination with oxytocin infusion in patients with a ripe cervix. Cervical ripening balloon should not be used as the primary method for induction of labour due to its potential pain, bleeding, and infection risks.
Induction of Labour: Reasons, Methods, and Complications
Induction of labour is a medical process that involves starting labour artificially. It is necessary in about 20% of pregnancies due to various reasons such as prolonged pregnancy, prelabour premature rupture of the membranes, diabetes, pre-eclampsia, and rhesus incompatibility. The Bishop score is used to assess whether induction of labour is required, which takes into account cervical position, consistency, effacement, dilation, and fetal station. A score of less than 5 indicates that labour is unlikely to start without induction, while a score of 8 or more indicates that the cervix is ripe and there is a high chance of spontaneous labour or response to interventions made to induce labour.
There are several methods of induction of labour, including membrane sweep, vaginal prostaglandin E2, maternal oxytocin infusion, amniotomy, and cervical ripening balloon. Membrane sweeping involves separating the chorionic membrane from the decidua by rotating the examining finger against the wall of the uterus. Vaginal prostaglandin E2 is the preferred method of induction of labour, unless there are specific clinical reasons for not using it. Uterine hyperstimulation is the main complication of induction of labour, which refers to prolonged and frequent uterine contractions that can cause fetal hypoxemia and acidemia. In rare cases, uterine rupture may occur, which requires removing the vaginal prostaglandins and stopping the oxytocin infusion if one has been started, and tocolysis with terbutaline.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 134
Incorrect
-
A 54-year-old woman arrived at the hospital complaining of chest pain and difficulty breathing. She has a history of left breast cancer and had undergone local wide excision recently. She is scheduled to begin radiotherapy soon. After a diagnostic workup, it was discovered that she has a segmental pulmonary embolism. Her blood tests indicate good renal function. What is the most suitable treatment option for this diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Apixaban
Explanation:For cancer patients with VTE, the recommended treatment is a DOAC for a period of 6 months. Among the DOACs, apixaban is the most suitable option as it has been found to have a lower risk of bleeding complications compared to LMWH and VKA. Moreover, patients taking apixaban can benefit from oral treatment and avoid frequent monitoring required with other anticoagulation treatments. Studies have also shown that apixaban is the most cost-effective option as it results in fewer bleeds.
NICE updated their guidelines on the investigation and management of venous thromboembolism (VTE) in 2020. The use of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) is recommended as first-line treatment for most people with VTE, including as interim anticoagulants before a definite diagnosis is made. Routine cancer screening is no longer recommended following a VTE diagnosis. The cornerstone of VTE management is anticoagulant therapy, with DOACs being the preferred choice. All patients should have anticoagulation for at least 3 months, with the length of anticoagulation being determined by whether the VTE was provoked or unprovoked.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 135
Incorrect
-
As a foundation doctor on the postnatal ward, you conduct a newborn examination on a two-day-old baby girl. She was delivered normally and in good condition. During the hip examination, you notice that the left hip can be relocated, which raises concerns. What is the next appropriate step in management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent referral for hip ultrasound
Explanation:The Ortolani manoeuvre was performed on a newborn to relocate the femoral head after dislocation caused by the Barlow manoeuvre. The result was abnormal, indicating a need for urgent assessment to check for potential developmental dysplasia of the hip. The best imaging option is ultrasound, which avoids radiation and provides optimal visualization of the hip’s development. Referring the child for routine assessment would cause unnecessary delay in treatment, and providing reassurance would be inappropriate given the abnormal screening result.
Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is a condition that affects 1-3% of newborns and is more common in females, firstborn children, and those with a positive family history or breech presentation. It used to be called congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH). DDH is more often found in the left hip and can be bilateral in 20% of cases. Screening for DDH is recommended for infants with certain risk factors, and all infants are screened using the Barlow and Ortolani tests at the newborn and six-week baby check. Clinical examination includes testing for leg length symmetry, restricted hip abduction, and knee level when hips and knees are flexed. Ultrasound is used to confirm the diagnosis if clinically suspected, but x-ray is the first line investigation for infants over 4.5 months. Management includes the use of a Pavlik harness for children under 4-5 months and surgery for older children with unstable hips.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 136
Incorrect
-
A 56-year-old woman collapses during a hypertension clinic. She is not breathing and a carotid pulse cannot be felt. What is the appropriate ratio of chest compressions to ventilation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 30:02:00
Explanation:The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken when dealing with patients with shockable and non-shockable rhythms. For both types of patients, chest compressions are a crucial part of the process, with a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 ventilations. Defibrillation is recommended for shockable rhythms, with a single shock for VF/pulseless VT followed by 2 minutes of CPR. Adrenaline and amiodarone are the drugs of choice for non-shockable rhythms, with adrenaline given as soon as possible and amiodarone administered after 3 shocks for VF/pulseless VT. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolus is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98% following successful resuscitation. The Hs and Ts should be considered as potential reversible causes of cardiac arrest.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 137
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old man presents to the General Practitioner (GP) with hypertension which fails to fall into the normal range after three successive measurements at the practice nurse. These were 155/92 mmHg, 158/96 mmHg and 154/94 mmHg. He has a past history of some urinary tract infections as a child. The GP arranges some routine blood tests.
Investigations reveal the following:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin (Hb) 139 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 5.4 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
Platelets (PLT) 201 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine (Cr) 187 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
Ultrasound scan (USS) Left kidney 8.4 cm and appears scarred.
Right kidney 10.3 cm
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chronic reflux nephropathy
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a 25-Year-Old Man with Renal Issues
Upon reviewing the history and test results of a 25-year-old man with renal issues, several potential diagnoses can be considered. Chronic reflux nephropathy appears to be the most likely diagnosis, given the patient’s history of urinary tract infections as a child, ultrasound scan results, and elevated creatinine levels. Further testing, such as renal tract computed tomography and a voiding cystourethrogram, can confirm this diagnosis.
Essential hypertension, while a risk factor for reno-vascular disease, is unlikely to be the cause of the patient’s symptoms. It would not lead to a rise in creatinine or asymmetrical kidneys in a young patient.
IgA nephropathy is another potential diagnosis, but the patient’s lack of haematuria or history of recent illness does not support this diagnosis. The history of urinary tract infections also does not align with IgA nephropathy.
Renal artery stenosis is relatively rare in young patients and would lead to a unilaterally reduced kidney size, which does not fit with the patient’s symptoms.
White coat hypertension, while a possibility, would not explain the rise in creatinine or the reduced size and scarring of the left kidney. A 24-hour blood pressure monitor may be needed to differentiate between persistent hypertension and white coat hypertension.
In conclusion, chronic reflux nephropathy is the most likely diagnosis for this patient, but further testing may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis and rule out other potential causes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 138
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She has recently noticed several areas of pale skin on her hands. Despite using an emollient and topical hydrocortisone, there has been no improvement. During the examination, you observe multiple depigmented patches on the back of both hands. The patient's medical history includes a previous diagnosis of thyrotoxicosis, for which she is currently taking carbimazole and thyroxine. What is the probable reason for her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitiligo
Explanation:Patients with autoimmune conditions like thyrotoxicosis are more likely to have vitiligo, but there are no other indications in the medical history that point towards Addison’s disease.
Understanding Vitiligo
Vitiligo is a condition that affects the skin, resulting in the loss of melanocytes and causing depigmentation. It is an autoimmune disorder that affects approximately 1% of the population, with symptoms typically appearing between the ages of 20-30 years. The condition is characterized by well-defined patches of depigmented skin, with the peripheries being the most affected. Trauma can also trigger new lesions, known as the Koebner phenomenon.
Vitiligo is often associated with other autoimmune disorders such as type 1 diabetes mellitus, Addison’s disease, autoimmune thyroid disorders, pernicious anemia, and alopecia areata. Management of the condition includes the use of sunblock for affected areas of skin, camouflage make-up, and topical corticosteroids, which may reverse the changes if applied early. There may also be a role for topical tacrolimus and phototherapy, although caution needs to be exercised with light-skinned patients.
In summary, vitiligo is a condition that affects the skin, resulting in depigmentation. It is an autoimmune disorder that can be managed with various treatments, including sunblock, make-up, and topical corticosteroids. It is often associated with other autoimmune disorders, and caution should be exercised when using certain treatments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 139
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 1-week history of an itchy rash in both his armpits and the flexor surfaces of his elbows on both sides. He states that this came on gradually and that he has had similar episodes in the past. However, none of them lasted more than one month.
He states that according to his mother, the first episode occurred when he was around seven years old. He claims to only suffer from generally dry skin and asthma, which he controls with emollient creams and inhalers, respectively.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Select ONE option onlyYour Answer:
Correct Answer: Atopic eczema
Explanation:Dermatological Conditions: Characteristics and Differential Diagnosis
Atopic Eczema: This condition is characterized by an itchy rash with a predominantly flexural distribution, along with a history of asthma and dry skin. It is episodic in nature and typically starts in childhood. Atopic eczema is a clinical diagnosis, but investigations may be helpful to exclude differential diagnoses.
Irritant Eczema: This form of dermatitis is caused by exposure to irritants such as strong acids and alkalis. Symptoms and signs vary and may include stinging, burning, and chapping. Skin changes are usually restricted to the area in contact with the irritant. Avoidance of the causative agent usually leads to the resolution of symptoms within a few days.
Lichen Planus: This skin disorder is of unknown aetiology and mainly involves an itchy, papular rash commonly on the palms, soles, genitalia, and flexor surfaces of arms. The rash is often polygonal in shape, with a ‘white lines’ pattern on the surface. Management typically involves topical steroids.
Molluscum Contagiosum: This common skin infection is caused by the M. contagiosum virus and presents with characteristic pinkish or pearly white papules with a central umbilication. Lesions appear in clusters in areas anywhere on the body, except the palms of the hands and the soles of the feet.
Psoriasis: This chronic skin disorder typically presents with erythematous plaques covered with a silvery-white scale, occurring typically on the extensor surfaces such as the elbows and knees, as well as on the scalp, trunk, buttocks, and periumbilical area. There usually is a clear delineation between normal and affected skin, and plaques typically range from 1 cm to 10 cm in size.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 140
Incorrect
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ACE inhibitors can cause cough as a side effect. Which of the following statements is true about the cause of this cough? Please select one option.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: They affect the breakdown of bradykinin within the lungs
Explanation:The Effects of ACE Inhibitors on the Lungs
ACE inhibitors are a class of medications commonly used to treat hypertension and heart failure. While they are generally well-tolerated, they can have some effects on the lungs. Here are some key points to keep in mind:
– ACE inhibitors can increase the concentration of bradykinin within the lungs, which can lead to a persistent dry cough in some patients.
– Unlike beta blockers, ACE inhibitors do not cause bronchospasm. In fact, they may be a good choice for patients with asthma or other respiratory conditions.
– Dysgeusia, or a metallic taste in the mouth, is a possible side effect of ACE inhibitors. This is more common with captopril than with other drugs in this class.
– ACE inhibitors do not increase bronchial mucus secretion.
– While ACE inhibitors do cause vasodilation, which can lower blood pressure, they are not associated with pulmonary congestion.Overall, ACE inhibitors are generally safe and effective medications for treating hypertension and heart failure. However, patients should be aware of these potential effects on the lungs and discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 141
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old patient with type 2 diabetes mellitus complains of a 'rash' on their left shin. The rash has increased in size over the last two days and is now a painful, hot, red area on their anterior left shin that spreads around to the back of the leg. The patient is feeling well overall, and it is decided that oral treatment is the best course of action. The patient has a history of penicillin allergy. What is the best antibiotic to prescribe?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clarithromycin
Explanation:Understanding Cellulitis: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment
Cellulitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the skin and subcutaneous tissues caused by bacterial infection, usually Streptococcus pyogenes or Staphylcoccus aureus. It commonly occurs on the shins and is accompanied by symptoms such as erythema, pain, and swelling. In some cases, patients may also experience systemic upset, including fever.
The diagnosis of cellulitis is typically made based on clinical presentation, and no further investigations are required in primary care. However, blood tests and cultures may be requested if the patient is admitted to the hospital and sepsis is suspected.
To guide the management of patients with cellulitis, healthcare providers may use the Eron classification system. Patients with Eron Class III or IV cellulitis, severe or rapidly deteriorating cellulitis, or certain risk factors such as immunocompromisation or significant lymphoedema should be admitted for intravenous antibiotics. Patients with Eron Class II cellulitis may not require admission if appropriate facilities and expertise are available in the community to administer intravenous antibiotics and monitor the patient.
The first-line treatment for mild to moderate cellulitis is flucloxacillin, while clarithromycin, erythromycin (in pregnancy), or doxycycline may be used in patients allergic to penicillin. Patients with severe cellulitis should be offered co-amoxiclav, cefuroxime, clindamycin, or ceftriaxone.
Overall, understanding the symptoms, diagnosis, and treatment of cellulitis is crucial for effective management of this common bacterial infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 142
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old man complains of fatigue. During the physical examination, a soft diastolic murmur is detected, which is most audible in the second intercostal space on the right. His blood pressure is measured at 162/65 mmHg. What is the probable reason for the murmur?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aortic regurgitation
Explanation:The patient exhibits a diastolic murmur that is most pronounced over the aortic valve, along with a wide pulse pressure, indicating a diagnosis of aortic regurgitation. Aortic stenosis, on the other hand, would manifest as a systolic murmur with a narrow pulse pressure. Meanwhile, mitral regurgitation would present as a systolic murmur that is most audible over the mitral valve, while mitral stenosis would produce a diastolic murmur that is loudest over the mitral valve and would not result in a wide pulse pressure.
Aortic regurgitation is a condition where the aortic valve of the heart leaks, causing blood to flow in the opposite direction during ventricular diastole. This can be caused by disease of the aortic valve or by distortion or dilation of the aortic root and ascending aorta. In the developing world, rheumatic fever is the most common cause of AR, while in developed countries, calcific valve disease and connective tissue diseases like rheumatoid arthritis and SLE are more common causes. Symptoms of AR include an early diastolic murmur, collapsing pulse, wide pulse pressure, Quincke’s sign, and De Musset’s sign. Echocardiography is used to investigate suspected AR. Management includes medical management of any associated heart failure and surgery for symptomatic patients with severe AR or asymptomatic patients with severe AR who have LV systolic dysfunction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 143
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old boy has been treated for a first urinary tract infection. There was no evidence of pyelonephritis. Urine culture demonstrated growth of Escherichia coli. He was given a course of trimethoprim and recovered well.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in his management?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate next step from the list below. Select ONE option only.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No imaging required
Explanation:Imaging Guidelines for Urinary Tract Infections in Children
Urinary tract infections (UTIs) are common in children and can be divided into upper and lower UTIs. Current guidelines recommend different imaging investigations based on the type of UTI and the child’s age. For infants and children aged ≥6 months with a first-time UTI that responds to treatment, routine ultrasonography is not recommended unless the child has an atypical UTI. Micturating cystourethrography (MCUG) is indicated if renal and bladder ultrasonography reveals hydronephrosis, scarring, or other findings that suggest high-grade vesicoureteral reflux (VUR) or obstructive uropathy. Ultrasonography of the urinary tract is the imaging study of choice in children with a UTI, and it is useful in excluding obstructive uropathy and identifying renal damage caused by pyelonephritis. Technectium-99m-labelled dimercaptosuccinic acid (99mTc-DMSA) is a scintigraphic agent that can be used to assess acute pyelonephritis, renal cortical scarring, and the identification of a malpositioned kidney. However, no imaging is required for a typical, non-recurrent UTI in a child aged ≥3 years. Atypical UTI features include being seriously ill, having poor urine flow, an abdominal or bladder mass, raised creatinine, septicaemia, failure to respond to treatment with suitable antibiotics within 48 hours, or infection with non-E. coli organisms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 144
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 3-month history of diarrhoea and intermittent abdominal pain. He has also noticed blood mixed with his stools over the past week. He is referred to secondary care where he has a colonoscopy and is diagnosed with Crohn’s disease.
Which of the following medications would be used to induce remission in this patient with a first presentation of Crohn’s disease?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate management from the list below.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prednisolone
Explanation:Treatment Options for Crohn’s Disease
Crohn’s disease is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease that can cause a range of symptoms, including abdominal pain, diarrhea, and weight loss. There are several treatment options available for patients with Crohn’s disease, depending on the severity of their symptoms and the stage of their disease.
Prednisolone is a commonly used corticosteroid for patients with a first presentation of Crohn’s disease or a single inflammatory exacerbation within a 12-month period. Azathioprine may be added to glucocorticoid treatment to induce remission if there are more than two exacerbations in a 12-month period or difficulty in tapering the glucocorticoid dose. Infliximab is recommended for adults with severe active Crohn’s disease who have not responded to or are intolerant to conventional therapy.
Mesalazine, an aminosalicylate, may be used for a first presentation of Crohn’s disease if glucocorticoids are contraindicated or not tolerated. It may also be used in addition to oral steroid treatment. Methotrexate should not be used as a monotherapy to induce remission. Instead, corticosteroids are the first-line treatment for inducing remission in patients with a first presentation of Crohn’s disease. If an adjuvant treatment is required, azathioprine or mercaptopurine can be taken with the corticosteroid. If these medications cannot be tolerated, methotrexate may be added instead.
In summary, the treatment options for Crohn’s disease vary depending on the severity of the disease and the patient’s response to previous treatments. It is important for patients to work closely with their healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for their individual needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 145
Incorrect
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In an adult patient with Marfan syndrome, what is the most frequently observed cardiovascular abnormality?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aortic root dilatation
Explanation:Marfan Syndrome: A Connective Tissue Disorder with Cardiovascular Manifestations
Marfan syndrome is an autosomal dominant connective tissue disorder that presents with a wide range of clinical manifestations. The ocular, skeletal, and cardiovascular systems are characteristically involved. Aortic root dilatation, occurring in 70-80% of cases, is the most common cardiovascular manifestation, followed by mitral valve prolapse at 60-70%. Mitral annular calcification is less common, occurring in 8-15% of cases. Aortic dissection, accounting for around 5% of all cases, is more likely in patients with Marfan syndrome, especially those with severe aortic root dilatation.
The weakening of the aortic media leads to a fusiform ascending aortic aneurysm, which may be complicated by aortic regurgitation and aortic dissection. Mitral regurgitation can result from mitral valve prolapse, dilatation of a mitral valve annulus, or mitral annular calcification. Pregnancy is particularly hazardous for patients with Marfan syndrome. Treatment with β blockers can reduce the rate of aortic dilatation and the risk of rupture.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 146
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman, who has been struggling with drug addiction and living on the streets, presents to the Emergency Department complaining of epigastric pain. The patient reports that she developed acute abdominal pain two hours prior to the presentation after eating a hot dog. The patient otherwise has no significant past medical history, takes no medications and admits to smoking and occasional alcohol consumption.
On examination, the patient has normal vital signs. Her abdominal examination demonstrates normoactive bowel sounds, no tenderness to palpation in the epigastrium and no guarding or rebound tenderness. Rectal exam for stool occult blood is negative and a chest X-ray does not reveal free air under the diaphragm. A right upper quadrant ultrasound does not demonstrate stones. The doctor recommends antacids. When the doctor tells the patient that she is safe for discharge, the patient insists that she must be admitted to the hospital for further tests.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Malingering
Explanation:Differentiating between Malingering, Hypochondriasis, Conversion Disorder, Factitious Disorder, and Munchausen Syndrome by Proxy
When evaluating patients, it is important to differentiate between various conditions that may present with similar symptoms. Malingering is a condition where a patient feigns or exaggerates symptoms for secondary gain, such as meals or a place to sleep. Hypochondriasis, on the other hand, is a condition where a patient fears having a medical illness despite negative tests and reassurance. Conversion disorder refers to the manifestation of psychological illness as neurologic pathology, while factitious disorder involves a patient who assumes the sick role for personal satisfaction. Finally, Munchausen syndrome by proxy is similar to factitious disorder but involves a patient seeking the sick role vicariously through a second patient, often a child. By understanding the differences between these conditions, healthcare providers can provide appropriate care and treatment for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 147
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old female presents to her primary care physician with a 2-month history of progressive fatigue. She has a medical history of type-1 diabetes mellitus. Her doctor orders a full blood count, which reveals a low Hb and high mean cell volume. The platelet and WBC counts are within normal limits. Which antibody test should be performed to assist in the diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intrinsic-factor antibodies
Explanation:When investigating vitamin B12 deficiency, intrinsic factor antibodies are more useful than gastric parietal cell antibodies due to the low specificity of the latter. Megaloblastic anaemia, characterized by low haemoglobin and raised mean cell volume, can be caused by B12 or folate deficiency and may indicate pernicious anaemia, an autoimmune condition that impairs B12 uptake. Intrinsic factor antibodies are more specific for pernicious anaemia and are commonly used to confirm the diagnosis along with a blood test. Anti-histone antibodies are involved in drug-induced lupus caused by certain drugs. Anti-TTG antibodies are used to screen for coeliac disease, which can cause microcytic anaemia due to iron deficiency from malabsorption. While gastric parietal cell antibodies are linked to pernicious anaemia, their low specificity makes them less reliable for diagnosis compared to intrinsic factor antibodies.
Understanding Pernicious Anaemia
Pernicious anaemia is a condition that results in vitamin B12 deficiency due to an autoimmune disorder affecting the gastric mucosa. The term pernicious means causing harm in a gradual or subtle way, and this is reflected in the often subtle symptoms and delayed diagnosis of the condition. While pernicious anaemia is the most common cause of vitamin B12 deficiency, other causes include atrophic gastritis, gastrectomy, and malnutrition.
The pathophysiology of pernicious anaemia involves antibodies to intrinsic factor and/or gastric parietal cells. These antibodies can bind to intrinsic factor, blocking the vitamin B12 binding site, or reduce acid production and cause atrophic gastritis. This leads to reduced intrinsic factor production and reduced vitamin B12 absorption, which can result in megaloblastic anaemia and neuropathy.
Risk factors for pernicious anaemia include being female, middle to old age, and having other autoimmune disorders such as thyroid disease, type 1 diabetes mellitus, Addison’s, rheumatoid arthritis, and vitiligo. It is also more common in individuals with blood group A.
Symptoms of pernicious anaemia include anaemia features such as lethargy, pallor, and dyspnoea, as well as neurological features such as peripheral neuropathy and subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord. Neuropsychiatric features such as memory loss, poor concentration, confusion, depression, and irritability may also be present, along with mild jaundice and glossitis.
Diagnosis of pernicious anaemia involves a full blood count, vitamin B12 and folate levels, and testing for antibodies such as anti intrinsic factor antibodies and anti gastric parietal cell antibodies. Treatment involves vitamin B12 replacement, usually given intramuscularly, and folic acid supplementation may also be required. Complications of pernicious anaemia include an increased risk of gastric cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 148
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old woman with poorly controlled type 1 diabetes mellitus presents with complaints of bloating and vomiting after meals. She reports that her blood glucose levels have been fluctuating more frequently lately. Which medication is most likely to provide relief for her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metoclopramide
Explanation:Gastric emptying dysfunction can cause upper gastrointestinal symptoms and disrupt glucose control. Metoclopramide, a pro-kinetic medication, can help improve gastric emptying and alleviate these issues.
Diabetes can cause peripheral neuropathy, which typically results in sensory loss rather than motor loss. This often affects the lower legs first due to the length of the sensory neurons supplying this area, resulting in a glove and stocking distribution. Painful diabetic neuropathy is a common issue that can be managed with drugs such as amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. If these drugs do not work, tramadol may be used as a rescue therapy, and topical capsaicin may be used for localized neuropathic pain. Pain management clinics may also be helpful for patients with resistant problems.
Gastrointestinal autonomic neuropathy can cause gastroparesis, which can lead to erratic blood glucose control, bloating, and vomiting. This can be managed with prokinetic agents such as metoclopramide, domperidone, or erythromycin. Chronic diarrhea, which often occurs at night, is another potential complication of diabetic neuropathy. Gastroesophageal reflux disease can also occur due to decreased lower esophageal sphincter pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 149
Incorrect
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A child is born with a genetic condition that is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. The parents are informed of this. What is the most likely condition that the child has?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Myotonic dystrophy
Explanation:Myotonic dystrophy is an autosomal dominant disorder causing muscle weakness and wasting. Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disease affecting chloride transport and causing thick mucus secretions. Homocystinuria is an autosomal recessive disorder of methionine metabolism leading to accumulation of homocysteine and its metabolites. Phenylketonuria is an autosomal recessive disease causing mental retardation due to the inability to convert phenylalanine to tyrosine. Sickle-cell anaemia is an autosomal recessive disorder causing deformed red blood cells and oxygen deficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 150
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman experiences hypertension during the third trimester of her initial pregnancy. Upon conducting a 24-hour urine collection, it is revealed that she has 0.5g protein. Which of the following complications is the least commonly associated with this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Transverse myelitis
Explanation:Transverse myelitis is not linked to pre-eclampsia.
Pre-eclampsia is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to complications such as eclampsia, neurological issues, fetal growth problems, liver involvement, and cardiac failure. Severe pre-eclampsia is marked by hypertension, proteinuria, headache, visual disturbances, and other symptoms. Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include hypertension in a previous pregnancy, chronic kidney disease, autoimmune disease, diabetes, chronic hypertension, first pregnancy, and age over 40. Aspirin may be recommended for women with high or moderate risk factors. Treatment involves emergency assessment, admission for observation, and medication such as labetalol, nifedipine, or hydralazine. Delivery of the baby is the most important step in management, with timing depending on the individual case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 151
Incorrect
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You are evaluating a patient who is experiencing double vision. While gazing straight ahead, the patient's left eye deviates inward. When looking to the right, there is no apparent squint. However, when looking to the left, the patient cannot move the left eye outward, and double vision becomes more severe. What is the probable underlying issue?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left 6th nerve palsy
Explanation:Understanding the 12 Cranial Nerves and their Functions
The human body has 12 pairs of cranial nerves that originate from the brainstem and control various functions such as movement, sensation, and reflexes. Each nerve has a specific function and pathway, and damage to any of these nerves can result in various clinical symptoms.
Some of the important functions of these nerves include smell (olfactory nerve), sight (optic nerve), eye movement (oculomotor, trochlear, and abducens nerves), facial sensation and mastication (trigeminal nerve), facial movement and taste (facial nerve), hearing and balance (vestibulocochlear nerve), taste and swallowing (glossopharyngeal nerve), phonation and innervation of viscera (vagus nerve), head and shoulder movement (accessory nerve), and tongue movement (hypoglossal nerve).
In addition to their primary functions, some of these nerves also play a role in various reflexes such as the corneal reflex, jaw jerk reflex, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and pathways of these cranial nerves is essential for diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 152
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man is brought into the emergency department resus, after being involved in a road traffic collision, where he, a motorbike rider, collided with a car. As one of the doctors receiving the patient into resus, you are tasked with calculating the current Glasgow coma score (GCS) of the patient. The patient's eyes are open, but he seems disoriented and asks you if he's on a spaceship.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 13
Explanation:The patient’s GCS score is 13, with a breakdown of 4 out of 4 for eye opening, 4 out of 5 for verbal response (due to confusion), and 5 out of 6 for motor response (exhibiting localisation to pain). A helpful mnemonic to remember this breakdown is 654…MoVE.
Understanding the Glasgow Coma Scale for Adults
The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is a tool used to assess the level of consciousness in adults who have suffered a brain injury or other neurological condition. It is based on three components: motor response, verbal response, and eye opening. Each component is scored on a scale from 1 to 6, with a higher score indicating a better level of consciousness.
The motor response component assesses the patient’s ability to move in response to stimuli. A score of 6 indicates that the patient is able to obey commands, while a score of 1 indicates no movement at all.
The verbal response component assesses the patient’s ability to communicate. A score of 5 indicates that the patient is fully oriented, while a score of 1 indicates no verbal response at all.
The eye opening component assesses the patient’s ability to open their eyes. A score of 4 indicates that the patient is able to open their eyes spontaneously, while a score of 1 indicates no eye opening at all.
The GCS score is expressed as a combination of the scores from each component, with the motor response score listed first, followed by the verbal response score, and then the eye opening score. For example, a GCS score of 13, M5 V4 E4 at 21:30 would indicate that the patient had a motor response score of 5, a verbal response score of 4, and an eye opening score of 4 at 9:30 PM.
Overall, the Glasgow Coma Scale is a useful tool for healthcare professionals to assess the level of consciousness in adults with neurological conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 153
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not an absolute contraindication to using combined oral contraceptive pills for women?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Breast feeding a 10-week-old baby
Explanation:Breastfeeding is classified as UKMEC category 4 if done for less than 6 weeks after giving birth, but it is categorized as UKMEC category 2 if done after this period.
The decision to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill is now based on the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC), which categorizes potential contraindications and cautions on a four-point scale. UKMEC 1 indicates no restrictions for use, while UKMEC 2 suggests that the benefits outweigh the risks. UKMEC 3 indicates that the disadvantages may outweigh the advantages, and UKMEC 4 represents an unacceptable health risk. Examples of UKMEC 3 conditions include controlled hypertension, a family history of thromboembolic disease in first-degree relatives under 45 years old, and current gallbladder disease. Examples of UKMEC 4 conditions include a history of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation, breast cancer, and uncontrolled hypertension. Diabetes mellitus diagnosed over 20 years ago is classified as UKMEC 3 or 4 depending on severity. In 2016, breast feeding between 6 weeks and 6 months postpartum was changed from UKMEC 3 to UKMEC 2.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 154
Incorrect
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A 64-year-old man with a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and ischaemic heart disease visits his GP complaining of erectile dysfunction. What medication would make prescribing sildenafil contraindicated?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Isosorbide mononitrate
Explanation:Sildenafil, a PDE 5 inhibitor, should not be taken with nitrates or nicorandil as it can enhance the vasodilating effects of these medications.
Understanding Phosphodiesterase Type V Inhibitors
Phosphodiesterase type V (PDE5) inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. These drugs work by increasing the levels of cGMP, which leads to the relaxation of smooth muscles in the blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which was the first drug of its kind. It is a short-acting medication that is usually taken one hour before sexual activity.
Other PDE5 inhibitors include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra). Tadalafil is longer-acting than sildenafil and can be taken on a regular basis, while vardenafil has a similar duration of action to sildenafil. However, these drugs are not suitable for everyone. Patients taking nitrates or related drugs, those with hypotension, and those who have had a recent stroke or myocardial infarction should not take PDE5 inhibitors.
Like all medications, PDE5 inhibitors can cause side effects. These may include visual disturbances, blue discolouration, non-arteritic anterior ischaemic neuropathy, nasal congestion, flushing, gastrointestinal side-effects, headache, and priapism. It is important to speak to a healthcare professional before taking any medication to ensure that it is safe and appropriate for you.
Overall, PDE5 inhibitors are an effective treatment for erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. However, they should only be used under the guidance of a healthcare professional and with careful consideration of the potential risks and benefits.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 155
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old child with a history of infective diarrhoea presents with fever, hypertension, haematuria and bloody stools two weeks later. What could be a potential diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haemolytic uraemic syndrome
Explanation:Haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS) is a condition that causes progressive kidney failure and is associated with microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia and thrombocytopenia. There are two main types of HUS, one of which is associated with Shiga-like toxin (Stx) and is commonly seen in children who have had diarrhoea. The classic form of Stx-HUS is often caused by E. coli O157:H7 and is characterized by a history of gastroenteritis, fever, bloody diarrhoea, oedema, and hypertension. Henoch-Schönlein purpura is an acute disorder that affects small blood vessels in various parts of the body, including the skin, gastrointestinal tract, kidneys, and joints. It is characterized by a rash with bullae and ulcers, which typically appears in crops. Post-infectious glomerulonephritis is a condition that occurs after a streptococcal infection and is characterized by haematuria, proteinuria, red blood cell casts in the urine, oedema, and hypertension. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis is a rare cause of chronic nephritis that occurs primarily in children and young adults and may be idiopathic or secondary in aetiology. Acute interstitial nephritis is a condition that causes sudden kidney dysfunction, fever, and occasionally a rash, and is often associated with drug use.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 156
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man comes to the clinic with persistent low mood. Despite undergoing CBT in the past, he has not experienced any improvement and wishes to try medication. He has a medical history of hypertension and atrial fibrillation and is currently taking amlodipine and warfarin.
Which antidepressant should be steered clear of in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Citalopram
Explanation:Patients who are taking warfarin or heparin should avoid taking selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) due to their antiplatelet effect, which can increase the risk of bleeding. Therefore, citalopram is the appropriate choice. It is important to note that some tricyclic antidepressants and mirtazapine can also increase the INR, so caution is necessary when prescribing these medications. According to the Nice CKS guidelines on warfarin administration, trazodone may be the preferred antidepressant for these patients.
Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.
The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.
When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.
When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 157
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old male presents to the Emergency Department with chest pain and shortness of breath. He reports that the pain started after he slipped and fell in his home. The pain is rated at 7/10 but increases to 9/10 when he takes a deep breath.
The doctor suspects a possible pulmonary embolism (PE) based on the patient's medical history. The doctor calculates a 2-level PE Wells score of 1.0 (for recent surgery) and orders a D-dimer test. The patient is started on anticoagulation while waiting for the test results, which are expected to take over 4 hours to return.
The patient's chest x-ray appears normal, and the D-dimer test comes back negative.
What is the most appropriate next step?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stop the anticoagulation and consider an alternative diagnosis
Explanation:When investigating a suspected pulmonary embolism (PE), a low Wells score of ≤ 4 and a negative D-dimer result suggest that an alternative diagnosis should be considered and anticoagulation should be stopped. In this case, the patient’s symptoms and history of trauma suggest a musculoskeletal injury may be the cause of their chest pain and shortness of breath. An urgent CTPA would only be necessary if the Wells score was 4 or higher or if the D-dimer test was positive. As neither of these occurred, repeating the D-dimer test is unnecessary. Continuing anticoagulation without a confirmed PE would increase the risk of bleeding. If a PE is confirmed, anticoagulation with warfarin or a direct oral anticoagulant would be appropriate.
Investigating Pulmonary Embolism: Key Features and Diagnostic Criteria
Pulmonary embolism (PE) can be challenging to diagnose as it can present with a wide range of cardiorespiratory symptoms and signs depending on its location and size. The PIOPED study in 2007 found that tachypnea, crackles, tachycardia, and fever were the most common clinical signs associated with PE. To aid in the diagnosis of PE, NICE updated their guidelines in 2020 to include the use of the pulmonary embolism rule-out criteria (PERC) and the 2-level PE Wells score. The PERC rule should be used when there is a low pre-test probability of PE, and a negative PERC result reduces the probability of PE to less than 2%. The 2-level PE Wells score should be performed if a PE is suspected, with a score of more than 4 points indicating a likely PE and a score of 4 points or less indicating an unlikely PE.
If a PE is likely, an immediate computed tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) should be arranged, and interim therapeutic anticoagulation should be given if there is a delay in getting the CTPA. If a PE is unlikely, a D-dimer test should be arranged, and if positive, an immediate CTPA should be performed. The consensus view from the British Thoracic Society and NICE guidelines is that CTPA is the recommended initial lung-imaging modality for non-massive PE. However, V/Q scanning may be used initially if appropriate facilities exist, the chest x-ray is normal, and there is no significant symptomatic concurrent cardiopulmonary disease.
Other diagnostic tools include age-adjusted D-dimer levels, ECG, chest x-ray, V/Q scan, and CTPA. It is important to note that a chest x-ray is recommended for all patients to exclude other pathology, but it is typically normal in PE. While investigating PE, it is crucial to consider other differential diagnoses and to tailor the diagnostic approach to the individual patient’s clinical presentation and risk factors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 158
Incorrect
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An obese 28-year-old female visits her GP with concerns about acne and difficulty conceiving after trying to get pregnant for two years. What is the most probable reason for her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS)
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of a Woman with Acne and Infertility
Polycystic ovarian syndrome (PCOS), endogenous Cushing’s syndrome, Addison’s disease, congenital adrenal hyperplasia (CAH), and primary hypoparathyroidism are all potential differential diagnoses for a woman presenting with acne and infertility. PCOS is the most likely diagnosis, as it presents with menstrual dysfunction, anovulation, and signs of hyperandrogenism, including excess terminal body hair in a male distribution pattern, acne, and male-pattern hair loss. Endogenous Cushing’s syndrome and primary hypoparathyroidism are less likely, as they do not present with acne and infertility. Addison’s disease is characterized by hyperpigmentation, weakness, fatigue, poor appetite, and weight loss, while CAH may present with oligomenorrhoea, hirsutism, and/or infertility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 159
Incorrect
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Which of the following is a side-effect of lithium therapy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hypothyroidism
Explanation:Understanding the Side-Effects of Lithium Maintenance Therapy
Lithium maintenance therapy is a common treatment for bipolar disorder, but it can also cause a range of side-effects. One of the most common is hypothyroidism, which affects up to 5% of patients on lithium and requires regular thyroid function tests. Weight gain, acne, tremors, and polydipsia are also common, as well as ankle edema and a metallic taste in the mouth. Lithium can also cause renal toxicity, so regular urea and electrolyte tests are necessary. However, lithium does not cause abnormal liver function or fever, and actually causes leukocytosis rather than leucopenia. Cystitis is also not a typical side-effect of lithium. Overall, understanding the potential side-effects of lithium maintenance therapy is crucial for managing bipolar disorder effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 160
Incorrect
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A 4-week-old baby boy is brought to the Emergency Department with a two-week history of vomiting after every feed and then appearing very hungry afterwards. His weight has remained at 4 kg for the past two weeks, and for the past two days, the vomiting has become projectile. His birthweight was 3.6 kg. He is exclusively breastfed. A small mass can be palpated in the right upper quadrant of his abdomen.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pyloric stenosis
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of vomiting and poor weight gain in infants
Vomiting and poor weight gain are common symptoms in infants, but they can be caused by different conditions that require specific management. One possible cause is pyloric stenosis, which results from an enlarged muscle at the outlet of the stomach, leading to projectile vomiting, dehydration, and failure to thrive. Another possible cause is gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD), which may also involve vomiting, but not projectile, and may respond to conservative measures such as frequent feeds and upright positioning, or medication such as Gaviscon® or proton pump inhibitors. Cow’s milk protein allergy is another potential cause, which may present with a range of symptoms, including vomiting, but not projectile, and may require an exclusion diet for the mother if breastfeeding. Gastroenteritis is a common cause of vomiting and diarrhoea in infants, but it usually resolves within a few days and does not cause an abdominal mass. Finally, volvulus is a rare but serious condition that involves a twisted bowel, leading to acute obstruction and ischaemia, which requires urgent surgical intervention. Therefore, a careful history, examination, and investigations, such as ultrasound or blood tests, may help to differentiate these conditions and guide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 161
Incorrect
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A 64-year-old man with chronic kidney disease due to diabetes mellitus is being evaluated. In evaluating his estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR), which of the following variables is not necessary for the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) equation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serum urea
Explanation:The eGFR (estimated glomerular filtration rate) is determined by several variables, including CAGE, which stands for Creatinine, Age, Gender, and Ethnicity.
Understanding Chronic Kidney Disease: eGFR and Classification
Chronic kidney disease (CKD) is a condition that affects the kidneys’ ability to filter waste products from the blood. Serum creatinine, a commonly used measure of kidney function, may not provide an accurate estimate due to differences in muscle mass. To address this, formulas such as the Modification of Diet in Renal Disease (MDRD) equation were developed to estimate the glomerular filtration rate (eGFR). The MDRD equation takes into account variables such as serum creatinine, age, gender, and ethnicity.
It is important to note that certain factors may affect the accuracy of eGFR results, such as pregnancy, muscle mass, and recent consumption of red meat. CKD can be classified based on eGFR, with stage 1 indicating a GFR greater than 90 ml/min with some sign of kidney damage on other tests. Stage 2 indicates a GFR of 60-90 ml/min with some sign of kidney damage, while stage 3a and 3b indicate a moderate reduction in kidney function with GFR ranges of 45-59 ml/min and 30-44 ml/min, respectively. Stage 4 indicates a severe reduction in kidney function with a GFR range of 15-29 ml/min, while stage 5 indicates established kidney failure with a GFR less than 15 ml/min, which may require dialysis or a kidney transplant. It is important to note that if all kidney tests are normal, there is no CKD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 162
Incorrect
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A young librarian seeks therapy as he is lonely and unhappy. He describes a solitary life cataloguing books all day and then remaining alone all night and on weekends. He declines invitations for dinners, as he feels anxious when other people are around.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Social phobia
Explanation:Differentiating Anxiety Disorders: A Vignette Analysis
The following vignette describes a patient with symptoms of anxiety in a social situation. To properly diagnose the patient, it is important to differentiate between various anxiety disorders.
Social Phobia: This disorder is characterized by anxiety in public, particularly when feeling scrutinized. It typically starts in adolescence and is equally prevalent in men and women. Some patients have a specific social phobia, while others have a more diffuse type. Treatment is mainly with psychological interventions.
Generalized Anxiety Disorder (GAD): GAD is characterized by non-specific and persistent anxiety. Patients feel anxious most days for periods of at least several weeks, and may experience a variety of worries that are not objectively warranted by their circumstances. Autonomic and motor overactivity are also common.
Panic Disorder: Panic attacks are recurrent episodes of severe anxiety that occur unpredictably and under unrestricted circumstances. A diagnosis of panic disorder can be given only if several panic attacks have occurred in about 1 month in situations that do not pose an objective danger, in unrestricted circumstances and with relative freedom from symptoms of anxiety between attacks.
Separation Anxiety Disorder: This disorder is mainly diagnosed in children, although an adult form has been increasingly recognized. Symptoms include anxiety and fear when separated from emotionally attached individuals, and avoidance of being alone.
Conduct Disorder: This disorder is a precursor to dissocial personality disorder and presents as a persistent and repetitive pattern of dissocial behavior beyond the expected mischief and rebelliousness of childhood and adolescence.
In the vignette, the patient’s anxiety is specific to certain situations and therefore predictable, which excludes the diagnosis of panic disorder. The patient’s symptoms do not fit the criteria for GAD or separation anxiety disorder. The most likely diagnosis is social phobia, which is characterized by anxiety in public situations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 163
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old expectant mother seeks guidance regarding the likelihood of her child inheriting polycystic kidney disease. Despite her diagnosis, she is presently in good health. Her father, who also has the condition, is currently undergoing dialysis. What is the probability that her offspring will develop the disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 50%
Explanation:Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) is a prevalent genetic condition that affects approximately 1 in 1,000 Caucasians. The disease is caused by mutations in two genes, PKD1 and PKD2, which produce polycystin-1 and polycystin-2, respectively. ADPKD type 1 accounts for 85% of cases, while ADPKD type 2 accounts for the remaining 15%. Individuals with ADPKD develop multiple fluid-filled cysts in their kidneys, which can lead to renal failure.
To diagnose ADPKD in individuals with a positive family history, an abdominal ultrasound is typically performed. The diagnostic criteria for ultrasound include the presence of two cysts, either unilateral or bilateral, in individuals under 30 years of age, two cysts in both kidneys for those aged 30-59 years, and four cysts in both kidneys for those over 60 years of age.
Management of ADPKD may involve the use of tolvaptan, a vasopressin receptor 2 antagonist, for select patients. Tolvaptan has been recommended by NICE as an option for treating ADPKD in adults with chronic kidney disease stage 2 or 3 at the start of treatment, evidence of rapidly progressing disease, and if the company provides it with the agreed discount in the patient access scheme. The goal of treatment is to slow the progression of cyst development and renal insufficiency. An enlarged kidney with extensive cysts is a common finding in individuals with ADPKD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 164
Incorrect
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A 14-month-old baby is presented by his mother who is worried about his persistent eczematous rashes, pruritus, loose stools and colic symptoms for a few weeks. The mother is uncertain about the frequency of occurrence but reports that it is happening daily. Despite using emollients, there has been no improvement. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Non-IgE-mediated cows’ milk protein allergy
Explanation:Understanding Non-IgE-Mediated Cows’ Milk Protein Allergy
When a child presents with a combination of cutaneous and gastrointestinal symptoms, an allergy to cows’ milk protein is the most likely cause. This is especially true for infants who are being weaned onto cows’ milk, as in this case. However, it’s important to note that this type of allergy is often confused with lactose intolerance, which is a different condition altogether.
One key indicator that this is a non-IgE-mediated allergy is the presence of an eczematous rash rather than an immediate reaction following ingestion. This is in contrast to an IgE-mediated reaction, which would result in an urticarial rash and occur immediately after milk was ingested.
It’s also worth noting that this is not likely to be eczema, as the symptoms have not improved with emollients and there are accompanying gastrointestinal symptoms. Similarly, a peanut allergy can be ruled out as the symptoms do not fit the diagnosis of an IgE-mediated reaction.
Overall, understanding the nuances of non-IgE-mediated cows’ milk protein allergy is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 165
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner. She has a past medical history of hypertension, diabetes mellitus type II, peripheral vascular disease and ischaemic heart disease. The patient had an episode of retinal artery occlusion (RAO) and had to go to the Eye Hospital as an emergency.
After many investigations, the Ophthalmologist stated that the cause of her RAO is atherosclerosis of her central retinal artery (CRA). The patient is worried about her eyesight becoming worse and asks about long-term management plans for RAO.
Which of the following is considered part of the long-term management plan for RAO?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate management from the list below.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prophylaxis with an antiplatelet agent
Explanation:Retinal artery occlusion is a condition that increases the risk of ischemic end-organ damage, such as stroke. Long-term management involves identifying and addressing underlying causes, reducing risk factors for atherosclerosis, and considering carotid endarterectomy if necessary. Ophthalmic follow-up and referral to low-vision-aid clinics may also be necessary. Acute treatment options include ocular massage, intra-arterial fibrinolysis, and lowering intraocular pressure with anterior chamber paracentesis. Atherosclerosis and embolism are the main causes of RAO, and prophylaxis with an antiplatelet or anticoagulation agent may be necessary for long-term management. However, even with early treatment, the prognosis is generally poor, and only about one-third of patients show any improvement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 166
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is struggling to manage his symptoms through dietary changes alone. He is primarily bothered by abdominal discomfort and bloating.
What is the most suitable next step in his treatment plan?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mebeverine hydrochloride
Explanation:Pharmacological Management of Irritable Bowel Syndrome
Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a common gastrointestinal disorder that affects 10-20% of the population, with women being more susceptible than men. The condition is characterized by abdominal pain, bloating, and altered bowel habits without any specific organic pathology. Management of IBS involves psychological support, dietary measures, and pharmacological treatment for symptom relief.
Antispasmodics, such as mebeverine hydrochloride, are commonly used to alleviate pain and bloating in IBS patients. Loperamide is the first choice of antimotility agent for diarrhea, while laxatives are recommended for constipation. Tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs), such as amitriptyline, are considered a second-line treatment option for IBS patients who do not respond to other medications. However, the use of opioids, such as tramadol, is not recommended due to the risk of constipation, dependence, and tolerance.
In conclusion, pharmacological management of IBS should be tailored to the individual patient’s symptoms and needs, with a focus on providing relief from pain, bloating, and altered bowel habits. Regular review and adjustment of medication dosages are necessary to ensure optimal treatment outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 167
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old man visits his GP complaining of recurring central chest pain during physical activity. He reports no chest pain while at rest. The patient was diagnosed with angina six months ago and has been taking verapamil and GTN spray. His medical history includes hypertension, asthma, and osteoarthritis of the right knee. What medication should the doctor prescribe?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Isosorbide mononitrate
Explanation:If a patient with symptomatic stable angina is already on a calcium channel blocker but cannot take a beta-blocker due to a contraindication, the next step in treatment should involve long-acting nitrates, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine. This scenario involves a 64-year-old man who experiences recurring chest pain during physical activity, which is likely due to poorly controlled stable angina. Although calcium channel blockers and beta-blockers are typically the first-line treatment for stable angina, the patient’s history of asthma makes beta-blockers unsuitable. As the initial treatment has not been effective, the patient should try the next line of therapy. Atenolol, bisoprolol, and diltiazem are not appropriate options for this patient due to their potential risks and lack of effectiveness in this case.
Angina pectoris is a condition that can be managed through various methods, including lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. The first-line medication should be either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If the initial treatment is not effective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, other drugs such as long-acting nitrates, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. Nitrate tolerance is a common issue, and patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate should use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. This effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 168
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old male with a history of COPD and hypertension complains of pain while swallowing. The patient is currently taking a salbutamol and beclomethasone inhaler, bendroflumethiazide, and amlodipine. What could be the possible reason for this symptom?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oesophageal candidiasis
Explanation:Oesophageal candidiasis, a known complication of inhaled steroid therapy, often presents with pain while swallowing (odynophagia).
Understanding Dysphagia and its Causes
Dysphagia, or difficulty in swallowing, can be caused by various conditions affecting the esophagus, such as oesophageal cancer, oesophagitis, oesophageal candidiasis, achalasia, pharyngeal pouch, systemic sclerosis, and myasthenia gravis. Each condition has its own characteristic features, which can help in identifying the underlying cause of dysphagia. For instance, dysphagia associated with weight loss, anorexia, or vomiting during eating may indicate oesophageal cancer, while dysphagia of both liquids and solids from the start may suggest achalasia.
To determine the cause of dysphagia, patients usually undergo an upper GI endoscopy, which allows doctors to examine the esophagus and detect any abnormalities. Fluoroscopic swallowing studies may also be done to evaluate motility disorders. Additionally, a full blood count and ambulatory oesophageal pH and manometry studies may be required for certain conditions.
It’s important to note that new-onset dysphagia is a red flag symptom that requires urgent endoscopy, regardless of age or other symptoms. Therefore, understanding the different causes of dysphagia and their characteristic features can aid in prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 169
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old man presents to the emergency department after intentionally overdosing on paracetamol. He reports taking 28 tablets, each containing 500 milligrams of paracetamol, in an attempt to end his life. However, he now expresses regret and desires full medical treatment.
As the healthcare provider, you determine that a paracetamol level is necessary to guide treatment with acetylcysteine. What is the earliest time frame after ingestion of the tablets that a paracetamol level can be utilized for treatment guidance?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 4 hours after ingestion
Explanation:A plasma paracetamol level taken within four hours of ingestion cannot be accurately interpreted. This is because the drug is still being absorbed from the gastrointestinal tract during this time, which can result in an underestimation of the total ingestion of paracetamol. To obtain an accurate reading, it is important to wait until at least four hours have passed before taking a blood sample and plotting it on the treatment nomogram.
For patients who present within one hour of ingestion, activated charcoal may be administered to reduce absorption of the drug. However, a paracetamol level taken at this stage may not provide much useful information.
In cases where the ingestion time is unknown or the overdose was taken over a period of more than an hour, acetylcysteine treatment may be initiated regardless of the paracetamol level.
Paracetamol overdose management guidelines were reviewed by the Commission on Human Medicines in 2012. The new guidelines removed the ‘high-risk’ treatment line on the normogram, meaning that all patients are treated the same regardless of their risk factors for hepatotoxicity. However, for situations outside of the normal parameters, it is recommended to consult the National Poisons Information Service/TOXBASE. Patients who present within an hour of overdose may benefit from activated charcoal to reduce drug absorption. Acetylcysteine should be given if the plasma paracetamol concentration is on or above a single treatment line joining points of 100 mg/L at 4 hours and 15 mg/L at 15 hours, regardless of risk factors of hepatotoxicity. Acetylcysteine is now infused over 1 hour to reduce adverse effects. Anaphylactoid reactions to IV acetylcysteine are generally treated by stopping the infusion, then restarting at a slower rate. The King’s College Hospital criteria for liver transplantation in paracetamol liver failure include arterial pH < 7.3, prothrombin time > 100 seconds, creatinine > 300 µmol/l, and grade III or IV encephalopathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 170
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man presents to the GUM clinic with penile discharge and dysuria for the past 5 days. Urethral swabs are taken and microscopy reveals the presence of diplococci. Sensitivities are not yet available, and he is diagnosed with gonorrhoea. What is the recommended initial treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IM ceftriaxone
Explanation:Gonorrhoea is best treated with intramuscular ceftriaxone, and it is crucial to notify and treat sexual partners. All patients with gonorrhoea should undergo a test of cure after 2 weeks.
Understanding Gonorrhoea: Causes, Symptoms, Microbiology, and Management
Gonorrhoea is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the Gram-negative diplococcus Neisseria gonorrhoeae. It can occur on any mucous membrane surface, including the genitourinary tract, rectum, and pharynx. The incubation period of gonorrhoea is typically 2-5 days. Symptoms in males include urethral discharge and dysuria, while females may experience cervicitis leading to vaginal discharge. Rectal and pharyngeal infections are usually asymptomatic.
Immunisation against gonorrhoea is not possible, and reinfection is common due to antigen variation of type IV pili and Opa proteins. Local complications may develop, including urethral strictures, epididymitis, and salpingitis, which can lead to infertility. Disseminated infection may also occur, with gonococcal infection being the most common cause of septic arthritis in young adults.
Management of gonorrhoea involves the use of antibiotics. Ciprofloxacin used to be the treatment of choice, but there is now increased resistance to it. Cephalosporins are now more widely used, with a single dose of IM ceftriaxone 1g being the new first-line treatment. If ceftriaxone is refused, oral cefixime 400mg + oral azithromycin 2g should be used. Disseminated gonococcal infection (DGI) and gonococcal arthritis may also occur, with symptoms including tenosynovitis, migratory polyarthritis, and dermatitis. Later complications include septic arthritis, endocarditis, and perihepatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 171
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman seeks guidance on managing her menopausal symptoms. She has experienced cessation of her menstrual cycle and is bothered by hot flashes and night sweats. Due to her sister's breast cancer, she is not interested in hormone replacement therapy. What is the most suitable treatment option to suggest?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Citalopram
Explanation:Managing Menopause: Lifestyle Modifications, Hormone Replacement Therapy, and Non-Hormone Replacement Therapy
Menopause is a natural biological process that marks the end of a woman’s reproductive years. It is diagnosed when a woman has not had a period for 12 consecutive months. Menopausal symptoms are common and can last for up to 7 years, with varying degrees of severity and duration. The management of menopause can be divided into three categories: lifestyle modifications, hormone replacement therapy (HRT), and non-hormone replacement therapy.
Lifestyle modifications can help manage menopausal symptoms such as hot flushes, sleep disturbance, mood changes, and cognitive symptoms. Regular exercise, weight loss, stress reduction, and good sleep hygiene are recommended. For women who cannot or do not want to take HRT, non-hormonal treatments such as fluoxetine, citalopram, or venlafaxine for vasomotor symptoms, vaginal lubricants or moisturizers for vaginal dryness, and cognitive behavior therapy or antidepressants for psychological symptoms can be prescribed.
HRT is a treatment option for women with moderate to severe menopausal symptoms. However, it is contraindicated in women with current or past breast cancer, any estrogen-sensitive cancer, undiagnosed vaginal bleeding, or untreated endometrial hyperplasia. HRT brings certain risks, including venous thromboembolism, stroke, coronary heart disease, breast cancer, and ovarian cancer. Women should be advised of these risks and the fact that symptoms typically last for 2-5 years.
When stopping HRT, it is important to gradually reduce the dosage to limit recurrence of symptoms in the short term. However, in the long term, there is no difference in symptom control. Women who experience ineffective treatment, ongoing side effects, or unexplained bleeding should be referred to secondary care. Overall, managing menopause requires a personalized approach that takes into account a woman’s medical history, preferences, and individual symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 172
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman comes in for her routine anatomy ultrasound scan at 20 weeks’ gestation. The ultrasound reveals significant fetal structural abnormalities, such as holoprosencephaly, cleft palate, short limbs, polydactyly, bilateral club feet, enlarged kidneys, and polyhydramnios.
What is the probable underlying condition of the unborn child?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Patau syndrome
Explanation:Common Genetic Disorders and Their Prenatal Ultrasound Findings
Prenatal ultrasound is a valuable tool for detecting genetic disorders in fetuses. Here are some common genetic disorders and their associated ultrasound findings:
1. Patau Syndrome (Trisomy 13): This disorder has a prevalence of 1 per 6500 births. Fetuses with Trisomy 13 may show brain anomalies, midfacial hypoplasia, ventriculomegaly, microcephaly, cleft lip and palate, and cardiac defects.
2. Cystic Fibrosis (CF): Hyperechogenic fetal bowel is often associated with severe diseases, notably CF.
3. Down Syndrome: 20% of all second-trimester Down syndrome fetuses have major structural anomalies, including polyhydramnios, double bubble, and large cardiac septal defects.
4. Klinefelter Syndrome: This disorder results from two or more X chromosomes in boys and may cause infertility and small testicles.
5. Potter Syndrome: This disorder is suspected whenever the combination of intrauterine growth retardation and severe oligohydramnios is seen. It consists of pulmonary hypoplasia, growth restriction, abnormal facies, and limb abnormalities.
In conclusion, prenatal ultrasound can help detect genetic disorders in fetuses, allowing for early intervention and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 173
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of severe mucosal ulceration and blistering lesions on her torso and arms. Upon examination, the blisters are flaccid and rupture easily upon contact. What is the most appropriate course of action for this likely diagnosis? Choose the BEST management option from the list below.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer urgently to dermatology
Explanation:Urgent Referral to Dermatology for Pemphigus Vulgaris Treatment
Pemphigus vulgaris requires urgent referral to the Dermatology Team for investigation and treatment. Supportive measures include wound care and antiseptic regimens to reduce the risk of secondary infection. Patients should also avoid activities that may traumatize the skin and mucous membranes during active phases. Topical steroids are used in milder cases, while systemic corticosteroids with topical treatments are preferred in advanced cases. Emollients and oral antihistamines are not first-line treatments. Topical clobetasone butyrate can be used in mild cases, but referral to Dermatology is still necessary. Topical clotrimazole is not a first-line treatment, and topical dapsone should not be started immediately without further investigation and treatment from Dermatology.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 174
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old man's mother visits his General Practitioner with concerns about her son's behavior. The young man has become isolated from his social circle, has developed an interest in the paranormal, and appears increasingly disheveled. He has been observed talking to himself and recently covered the TV screen with paper. His speech is erratic and jumps from one unrelated topic to another. He is not using any psychotropic drugs and has no history of health issues. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Schizophrenia
Explanation:Differentiating between Schizophrenia and other Mental Disorders
Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that is characterized by delusions, hallucinations, abnormal behavior, social withdrawal, blunted emotions, and breaks in thought processes. These symptoms are often accompanied by an irritable or depressed mood. When presented with a patient exhibiting these symptoms, schizophrenia is the most likely diagnosis.
Dissociative identity disorder, on the other hand, is a complex psychological disorder where the individual appears to have two or more distinct personalities that alternate and dictate their behavior. This disorder is associated with severe childhood trauma, which is not present in the case of the patient in question.
Bipolar disorder is characterized by extreme mood swings, ranging from mania to depression. While the patient exhibits some symptoms of depression, they are not displaying symptoms of mania, making bipolar disorder an unlikely diagnosis.
Delirium is a serious disturbance in mental abilities that results in confused thinking and reduced awareness of the environment. While an underlying physical cause should be excluded, the patient’s symptoms are more consistent with a psychotic illness than delirium.
Depression is characterized by continuous low mood, hopelessness, low self-esteem, tearfulness, and irritability. While patients with severe depression may suffer from psychotic episodes, the patient in question is exhibiting symptoms more consistent with schizophrenia, such as knights move thinking and responding to auditory hallucinations.
In conclusion, differentiating between schizophrenia and other mental disorders requires a thorough understanding of the symptoms and their presentation. While some disorders may share similar symptoms, a careful evaluation of the patient’s history and behavior can help determine the correct diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 175
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old female patient visits the GP clinic with a tiny lump in her right breast. Upon examination, a smooth fluctuant lump is found in the right upper quadrant of the breast. The patient is referred to the breast clinic for an ultrasound scan, which reveals a 2cm cyst in the right upper quadrant of the breast. What is the most suitable course of action for management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aspiration of the cyst
Explanation:Aspirating breast cysts is necessary due to the potential risk of breast cancer, particularly in younger women. Merely monitoring the cysts with ultrasound or mammogram without aspiration is not a suitable approach. There is no need for wide local excision at this point. Providing false reassurance to the patient is not advisable.
Benign breast lesions have different features and treatments. Fibroadenomas are firm, mobile lumps that develop from a whole lobule and usually do not increase the risk of malignancy. Breast cysts are smooth, discrete lumps that may be aspirated, but blood-stained or persistently refilling cysts should be biopsied or excised. Sclerosing adenosis, radial scars, and complex sclerosing lesions cause mammographic changes that may mimic carcinoma, but do not increase the risk of malignancy. Epithelial hyperplasia may present as general lumpiness or a discrete lump, and atypical features and family history of breast cancer increase the risk of malignancy. Fat necrosis may mimic carcinoma and requires imaging and core biopsy. Duct papillomas usually present with nipple discharge and may require microdochectomy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 176
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by his colleagues 30 minutes after being hit in the head with a falling object at a construction site. He did not lose consciousness, has had no problems with memory before or after the injury, and has not had any seizures. Since the injury, he has vomited 3 times but does not currently feel nauseous. The patient has no past medical history. He is responsive to commands, is aware of his surroundings, and his eye movements are normal. There is no visible bruising or fluid discharge from the ear or nose. No delays in investigations are expected. What is the most suitable course of action to take next?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Arrange CT head within 1 hour
Explanation:If a patient experiences more than one episode of vomiting following a head injury, it is necessary to arrange a CT head within one hour. This is because persistent vomiting can indicate the development of neurological complications, such as intracranial bleeds, which can initially present as vomiting. Although the patient in this scenario has a Glasgow coma score of 15 and no other neurological symptoms, the presence of multiple episodes of vomiting warrants urgent imaging. Admitting the patient and arranging neurological observations would not be appropriate unless there was equipment failure preventing the CT scan. Similarly, arranging a CT head within four or eight hours is not appropriate, as the recommended timeframe for imaging in cases of head injury is within one hour for patients with persistent vomiting.
NICE Guidelines for Investigating Head Injuries in Adults
Head injuries can be serious and require prompt medical attention. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has provided clear guidelines for healthcare professionals to determine which adult patients need further investigation with a CT head scan. Patients who require immediate CT head scans include those with a Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score of less than 13 on initial assessment, suspected open or depressed skull fractures, signs of basal skull fractures, post-traumatic seizures, focal neurological deficits, and more than one episode of vomiting.
For patients with any loss of consciousness or amnesia since the injury, a CT head scan within 8 hours is recommended for those who are 65 years or older, have a history of bleeding or clotting disorders, experienced a dangerous mechanism of injury, or have more than 30 minutes of retrograde amnesia of events immediately before the head injury. Additionally, patients on warfarin who have sustained a head injury with no other indications for a CT head scan should also receive a scan within 8 hours of the injury.
It is important for healthcare professionals to follow these guidelines to ensure that patients receive appropriate and timely care for their head injuries. By identifying those who require further investigation, healthcare professionals can provide the necessary treatment and support to prevent further complications and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 177
Incorrect
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Which of the following is a live attenuated vaccine?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mumps
Explanation:Live attenuated vaccines include BCG, MMR, oral polio, yellow fever, and oral typhoid.
Types of Vaccines and Their Characteristics
Vaccines are essential in preventing the spread of infectious diseases. However, it is crucial to understand the different types of vaccines and their characteristics to ensure their safety and effectiveness. Live attenuated vaccines, such as BCG, MMR, and oral polio, may pose a risk to immunocompromised patients. In contrast, inactivated preparations, including rabies and hepatitis A, are safe for everyone. Toxoid vaccines, such as tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis, use inactivated toxins to generate an immune response. Subunit and conjugate vaccines, such as pneumococcus, haemophilus, meningococcus, hepatitis B, and human papillomavirus, use only part of the pathogen or link bacterial polysaccharide outer coats to proteins to make them more immunogenic. Influenza vaccines come in different types, including whole inactivated virus, split virion, and sub-unit. Cholera vaccine contains inactivated strains of Vibrio cholerae and recombinant B-subunit of the cholera toxin. Hepatitis B vaccine contains HBsAg adsorbed onto aluminium hydroxide adjuvant and is prepared from yeast cells using recombinant DNA technology. Understanding the different types of vaccines and their characteristics is crucial in making informed decisions about vaccination.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 178
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman with epilepsy complains of acne and bleeding gums. Which medication is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Phenytoin
Explanation:Side Effects of Common Anticonvulsants
Anticonvulsants are medications used to treat seizures and epilepsy. However, they commonly have side effects that patients should be aware of. Here are some of the common or more serious side effects reported for some of the most commonly prescribed anticonvulsants:
Phenytoin: This medication can cause paraesthesia, gingival hypertrophy, tiredness, acne, hirsutism, coarsening of facial appearance, peripheral neuropathy, Steven-Johnson syndrome, and blood dyscrasias (such as aplastic anaemia and megaloblastic anaemia).
Sodium valproate (Epilim®): Side effects of this medication may include weight gain, thrombocytopenia, transient hair loss, aggression and behavioural changes, ataxia and tremors.
Carbamazepine: Dry mouth, fatigue, hyponatraemia, blood dyscrasia (such as aplastic anaemia), thrombocytopenia, haemolytic anaemia, eosinophilia, dermatitis, gynaecomastia, male infertility, hepatitis, and restlessness are all possible side effects of this medication.
Lamotrigine (Lamictal®): Skin rash and hypersensitivity, blurred vision, dizziness, sleep disturbance, and joint pains are some of the side effects that may occur with this medication.
Levetiracetam (Keppra®): Weight change and anorexia, abdominal pains, nausea, diarrhoea, and anxiety are all possible side effects of this medication.
It’s important to note that gingival hypertrophy and tenderness are common effects of phenytoin, but not the other medications listed. Patients taking phenytoin should be encouraged to maintain good oral hygiene. Overall, patients should be aware of the potential side effects of their anticonvulsant medication and discuss any concerns with their healthcare provider.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 179
Incorrect
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Which of the following causes of diarrhea has the briefest incubation period?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Bacillus cereus
Explanation:Gastroenteritis can occur either at home or while traveling, known as travelers’ diarrhea. This condition is characterized by at least three loose to watery stools in 24 hours, accompanied by abdominal cramps, fever, nausea, vomiting, or blood in the stool. The most common cause of travelers’ diarrhea is Escherichia coli. Acute food poisoning is another pattern of illness that results in sudden onset of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea after ingesting a toxin. Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus, or Clostridium perfringens are typically responsible for acute food poisoning.
There are several types of infections that can cause gastroenteritis, each with its own typical presentation. Escherichia coli is common among travelers and causes watery stools, abdominal cramps, and nausea. Giardiasis results in prolonged, non-bloody diarrhea, while cholera causes profuse, watery diarrhea and severe dehydration leading to weight loss. Shigella causes bloody diarrhea, vomiting, and abdominal pain, while Staphylococcus aureus results in severe vomiting with a short incubation period. Campylobacter typically starts with a flu-like prodrome and progresses to crampy abdominal pains, fever, and diarrhea, which may be bloody and mimic appendicitis. Bacillus cereus can cause two types of illness, vomiting within six hours, typically due to rice, or diarrheal illness occurring after six hours. Amoebiasis has a gradual onset of bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and tenderness that may last for several weeks.
The incubation period for gastroenteritis varies depending on the type of infection. Staphylococcus aureus and Bacillus cereus have an incubation period of 1-6 hours, while Salmonella and Escherichia coli have an incubation period of 12-48 hours. Shigella and Campylobacter have an incubation period of 48-72 hours, while Giardiasis and Amoebiasis have an incubation period of more than seven days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 180
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman comes to the emergency department complaining of fatigue and difficulty breathing for the past 2 days. She has a medical history of hypertension, a heart attack 3 years ago, heart failure, and a recent chest infection that was successfully treated with antibiotics. During the examination, the patient has bibasal crepitations and an elevated JVP. Her temperature is 37ºC, oxygen saturation is 95% on air, heart rate is 95 beats per minute, respiratory rate is 26 breaths per minute, and blood pressure is 129/86 mmHg.
What is the most appropriate course of treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IV furosemide
Explanation:The recommended treatment for acute pulmonary oedema in this patient is IV loop diuretic, specifically furosemide. This is because the patient is experiencing acute decompensated heart failure, which causes pulmonary oedema. IV loop diuretic has a prompt diuretic effect, reducing ventricular filling pressures and improving symptoms within 30 minutes.
IV dobutamine is not necessary for this patient as they are not in shock and dobutamine is typically reserved for patients with severe left ventricular dysfunction who have potentially reversible cardiogenic shock.
IV morphine is not recommended for acute heart failure as it may increase morbidity in patients with acute pulmonary oedema.
Oral furosemide is not the preferred route of administration for this patient as IV furosemide has a faster onset of diuresis.
Heart failure requires acute management, with recommended treatments for all patients including IV loop diuretics such as furosemide or bumetanide. Oxygen may also be necessary, with guidelines suggesting oxygen saturations be kept at 94-98%. Vasodilators such as nitrates should not be routinely given to all patients, but may have a role in cases of concomitant myocardial ischaemia, severe hypertension, or regurgitant aortic or mitral valve disease. However, hypotension is a major side-effect/contraindication. Patients with respiratory failure may require CPAP, while those with hypotension or cardiogenic shock may require inotropic agents like dobutamine or vasopressor agents like norepinephrine. Mechanical circulatory assistance such as intra-aortic balloon counterpulsation or ventricular assist devices may also be necessary. Regular medication for heart failure should be continued, with beta-blockers only stopped in certain circumstances. Opiates should not be routinely offered to patients with acute heart failure due to potential increased morbidity.
In summary, acute management of heart failure involves a range of treatments depending on the patient’s specific condition. It is important to carefully consider the potential side-effects and contraindications of each treatment, and to continue regular medication for heart failure where appropriate. Opiates should be used with caution, and only in cases where they are likely to reduce dyspnoea/distress without causing harm. With appropriate management, patients with acute heart failure can receive the care they need to improve their outcomes and quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 181
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man presents with left-sided pleuritic chest pain and a dry cough. He reports that the pain is alleviated by sitting forward and has been experiencing flu-like symptoms for the past two days. What is the expected ECG finding for a diagnosis of acute pericarditis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Widespread ST elevation
Explanation:Understanding Acute Pericarditis
Acute pericarditis is a medical condition characterized by inflammation of the pericardial sac that lasts for less than 4-6 weeks. The condition can be caused by various factors such as viral infections, tuberculosis, uraemia, post-myocardial infarction, autoimmune pericarditis, radiotherapy, connective tissue disease, hypothyroidism, malignancy, and trauma. Symptoms of acute pericarditis include chest pain, non-productive cough, dyspnoea, and flu-like symptoms. Patients may also experience pericardial rub.
To diagnose acute pericarditis, doctors may perform an electrocardiogram (ECG) to check for changes in the heart’s electrical activity. Blood tests may also be conducted to check for inflammatory markers and troponin levels. Patients suspected of having acute pericarditis should undergo transthoracic echocardiography.
Treatment for acute pericarditis depends on the underlying cause. Patients with high-risk features such as fever or elevated troponin levels may need to be hospitalized. However, most patients with pericarditis secondary to viral infection can be managed as outpatients. Strenuous physical activity should be avoided until symptoms resolve and inflammatory markers normalize. A combination of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and colchicine is typically used as first-line treatment for patients with acute idiopathic or viral pericarditis. The medication is usually tapered off over 1-2 weeks.
Overall, understanding acute pericarditis is important for prompt diagnosis and appropriate management of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 182
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman presents with neck pain and swelling. She reports having symptoms of an upper respiratory tract infection followed by neck pain and swelling for the past 2 weeks. During examination, she appears anxious, her heart rate is 98/min, and her thyroid gland is tender and diffusely swollen.
Her blood tests reveal the following results:
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 0.4 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
Free thyroxine (T4) 42 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)
ESR 65 mm/h (1-20)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Subacute thyroiditis (de Quervain's thyroiditis)
Explanation:Subacute (De Quervain’s) thyroiditis is the likely diagnosis for this woman who presents with hyperthyroidism and a tender goitre following an upper respiratory tract infection. This condition is characterized by high ESR and painful thyroid gland. Graves’ disease, Hashimoto’s thyroiditis, and thyroid cancer are less likely causes as they do not present with these specific symptoms.
Subacute Thyroiditis: A Self-Limiting Condition with Four Phases
Subacute thyroiditis, also known as De Quervain’s thyroiditis or subacute granulomatous thyroiditis, is a condition that is believed to occur after a viral infection. It is characterized by hyperthyroidism, a painful goitre, and raised ESR during the first phase, which lasts for 3-6 weeks. The second phase, which lasts for 1-3 weeks, is characterized by euthyroidism. The third phase, which can last for weeks to months, is characterized by hypothyroidism. Finally, in the fourth phase, the thyroid structure and function return to normal.
To diagnose subacute thyroiditis, thyroid scintigraphy is used to show a globally reduced uptake of iodine-131. However, most patients do not require treatment as the condition is self-limiting. Thyroid pain may respond to aspirin or other NSAIDs, but in more severe cases, steroids may be used, particularly if hypothyroidism develops.
It is important to note that subacute thyroiditis is just one of the many causes of thyroid dysfunction. A Venn diagram can be used to show how different causes of thyroid dysfunction may manifest. It is interesting to note that many causes of hypothyroidism may have an initial thyrotoxic phase. Proper diagnosis and management of thyroid dysfunction are crucial to ensure optimal patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 183
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man has been experiencing recurrent falls due to orthostatic hypotension. Despite trying conservative measures such as increasing fluid and salt intake, reviewing medications, and wearing compression stockings, he still experiences dizziness upon standing. What medication options are available to alleviate his symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fludrocortisone
Explanation:Fludrocortisone and midodrine are two medications that can be used to treat orthostatic hypotension. However, doxazosin, a medication used for hypertension, can actually worsen orthostatic hypotension. Prochlorperazine is used for vertigo and isoprenaline and dobutamine are not used for orthostatic hypotension as they are ionotropic agents used for patients in shock.
Fludrocortisone works by increasing renal sodium reabsorption and plasma volume, which helps counteract the physiological orthostatic vasovagal reflex. Its effectiveness has been supported by two small observational studies and one small double-blind trial, leading the European Society of Cardiology to give it a Class IIa recommendation.
To manage orthostatic hypotension, patients should be educated on lifestyle measures such as staying hydrated and increasing salt intake. Vasoactive drugs like nitrates, antihypertensives, neuroleptic agents, or dopaminergic drugs should be discontinued if possible. If symptoms persist, compression garments, fludrocortisone, midodrine, counter-pressure manoeuvres, and head-up tilt sleeping can be considered.
Understanding Syncope: Causes and Evaluation
Syncope is a temporary loss of consciousness caused by a sudden decrease in blood flow to the brain. This condition is characterized by a rapid onset, short duration, and complete recovery without any medical intervention. It is important to note that syncope is different from other causes of collapse, such as epilepsy. To better understand syncope, the European Society of Cardiology has classified it into three categories: reflex syncope, orthostatic syncope, and cardiac syncope.
Reflex syncope, also known as neurally mediated syncope, is the most common cause of syncope in all age groups. It can be triggered by emotional stress, pain, or other situational factors such as coughing or gastrointestinal issues. Orthostatic syncope occurs when there is a sudden drop in blood pressure upon standing up, and it is more common in older patients. Cardiac syncope is caused by heart-related issues such as arrhythmias, structural abnormalities, or pulmonary embolism.
To evaluate syncope, doctors may perform a series of tests, including a cardiovascular examination, postural blood pressure readings, ECG, carotid sinus massage, tilt table test, and 24-hour ECG monitoring. These tests help to identify the underlying cause of syncope and determine the appropriate treatment plan. By understanding the causes and evaluation of syncope, patients and healthcare providers can work together to manage this condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 184
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman comes to the clinic with a similar concern as the previous patient. She has noticed a volcano-like spot on her left arm that has been present for the past 3 months. Initially, she thought it was a simple spot, but it has not gone away. Upon examination, a 5 mm red, raised lesion with a central keratin-filled crater is observed. The doctor suspects a probable keratoacanthoma. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Urgent referral to dermatology
Explanation:Keratoacanthoma is a benign lesion, but urgent excision is advised due to difficulty in clinically excluding squamous cell carcinoma.
Understanding Keratoacanthoma
Keratoacanthoma is a type of non-cancerous tumor that affects the epithelial cells. It is more commonly found in older individuals and is rare in young people. The tumor is characterized by a dome-shaped papule that resembles a volcano or crater. As it grows, it becomes filled with keratin and develops a central crater. While spontaneous regression of keratoacanthoma is common within three months, it often results in scarring. Therefore, it is important to urgently remove such lesions as it is difficult to clinically differentiate them from squamous cell carcinoma. Removal may also prevent scarring.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 185
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department after experiencing a 3-hour episode of right facial weakness with forehead sparing. He has a medical history of polymyalgia rheumatica and haemophilia B and takes low dose prednisolone as his only regular medication. He has been a smoker for the past 20 years, consuming 20 cigarettes a day. Upon examination, he reports that his neurological symptoms have resolved 30 minutes ago. What is the best initial course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Admit and arrange a CT head
Explanation:If a patient with a bleeding disorder or on anticoagulants such as warfarin or DOACs is suspected of having a TIA, immediate admission for imaging is necessary to rule out a hemorrhage. In this case, the patient’s age, sex, smoking history, and bleeding disorder increase the likelihood of a TIA. The patient’s history of polymyalgia rheumatica and low dose prednisolone management are not relevant to the diagnosis or management of TIA.
Admission and a CT head are necessary due to the patient’s history of haemophilia B, which increases the risk of hemorrhagic causes of stroke-like symptoms. Aspirin should not be given immediately as it may worsen bleeding in patients with bleeding disorders or on anticoagulants. Reassuring and managing as an outpatient is not appropriate for either hemorrhagic or ischemic causes of TIA, both of which are possible in this case. Thrombectomy is not the appropriate management for this patient as he is at high risk of hemorrhagic stroke, and imaging is necessary to rule out a bleed.
A transient ischaemic attack (TIA) is a brief period of neurological deficit caused by a vascular issue, lasting less than an hour. The original definition of a TIA was based on time, but it is now recognized that even short periods of ischaemia can result in pathological changes to the brain. Therefore, a new ’tissue-based’ definition is now used. The clinical features of a TIA are similar to those of a stroke, but the symptoms resolve within an hour. Possible features include unilateral weakness or sensory loss, aphasia or dysarthria, ataxia, vertigo, or loss of balance, visual problems, and sudden transient loss of vision in one eye (amaurosis fugax).
NICE recommends immediate antithrombotic therapy with aspirin 300 mg unless the patient has a bleeding disorder or is taking an anticoagulant. If the patient has had more than one TIA or has a suspected cardioembolic source or severe carotid stenosis, specialist review is necessary. Urgent assessment is required within 24 hours for patients who have had a suspected TIA in the last 7 days. Referral for specialist assessment is necessary as soon as possible within 7 days for patients who have had a suspected TIA more than a week previously. Neuroimaging and carotid imaging are recommended, and antithrombotic therapy is necessary. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if the carotid stenosis is greater than 70% according to ECST criteria or greater than 50% according to NASCET criteria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 186
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents for follow-up. She has a long-standing history of heavy menstrual bleeding, which has worsened over the past six months. She denies experiencing dysmenorrhea, intermenstrual bleeding, or postcoital bleeding. She has completed her family and does not desire any more children. Her gynecological exam is unremarkable, and her cervical screening is current. What is the preferred treatment option?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intrauterine system (Mirena)
Explanation:The recommended initial treatment for menorrhagia is the intrauterine system (Mirena).
Managing Heavy Menstrual Bleeding
Heavy menstrual bleeding, also known as menorrhagia, is a condition where a woman experiences excessive blood loss during her menstrual cycle. While it was previously defined as total blood loss of over 80 ml per cycle, the management of menorrhagia now depends on the woman’s perception of what is excessive. In the past, hysterectomy was a common treatment for heavy periods, but the approach has changed significantly since the 1990s.
To manage menorrhagia, a full blood count should be performed in all women. If symptoms suggest a structural or histological abnormality, a routine transvaginal ultrasound scan should be arranged. For women who do not require contraception, mefenamic acid or tranexamic acid can be used. If there is no improvement, other drugs can be tried while awaiting referral.
For women who require contraception, options include the intrauterine system (Mirena), combined oral contraceptive pill, and long-acting progestogens. Norethisterone can also be used as a short-term option to rapidly stop heavy menstrual bleeding. The flowchart below shows the management of menorrhagia.
[Insert flowchart here]
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 187
Incorrect
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A teenager returns from a backpacking holiday in South America, having developed abdominal pain, diarrhoea and fevers one week before his return. On examination, he has a fever of 38.5 °C and diffuse abdominal pain. Stool microscopy shows pus and red blood cells; culture is awaited.
Which of the following is the most likely organism?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Salmonella species
Explanation:Common Causes of Gastroenteritis in Travellers
Travellers are at risk of contracting various infections that can cause gastroenteritis. Salmonella species, transmitted through contaminated food or beverages, can cause non-typhoidal enterocolitis, non-typhoidal focal disease, or typhoid fever. Rotavirus, which causes self-limited gastroenteritis, typically presents with anorexia, low-grade fever, and watery, bloodless diarrhea. Plasmodium falciparum, a parasite that causes malaria, can be detected through blood films. Norovirus, the most common cause of epidemic non-bacterial gastroenteritis, presents with nausea, vomiting, watery non-bloody/non-purulent diarrhea, and low-grade fever. Vibrio cholerae, which causes cholera, is transmitted through contaminated water or food and can cause severe watery diarrhea, vomiting, and dehydration. It is important to consider these potential causes when diagnosing gastroenteritis in returning travellers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 188
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old with type 1 diabetes presents to the Emergency Department feeling unwell. She reports experiencing vomiting and diarrhoea for the past 2 days and has not been taking her full insulin doses due to loss of appetite. Her capillary glucose level is 37 mmol/l and urinalysis shows 4+ ketones. An arterial blood gas test is conducted, revealing the following results:
pH 7.12
pO2 13 kPa
pCO2 3.5 kPa
HCO3 13
Na 129 mmol/l
K 6.1 mmol/l
What is the most appropriate initial management for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IV 0.9% NaCl bolus
Explanation:Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of type 1 diabetes mellitus, accounting for around 6% of cases. It can also occur in rare cases of extreme stress in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. However, mortality rates have decreased from 8% to under 1% in the past 20 years. DKA is caused by uncontrolled lipolysis, resulting in an excess of free fatty acids that are ultimately converted to ketone bodies. The most common precipitating factors of DKA are infection, missed insulin doses, and myocardial infarction. Symptoms include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and acetone-smelling breath. Diagnostic criteria include glucose levels above 13.8 mmol/l, pH below 7.30, serum bicarbonate below 18 mmol/l, anion gap above 10, and ketonaemia.
Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, insulin, and correction of electrolyte disturbance. Most patients with DKA are depleted around 5-8 litres, and isotonic saline is used initially, even if the patient is severely acidotic. Insulin is administered through an intravenous infusion, and correction of electrolyte disturbance is necessary. Long-acting insulin should be continued, while short-acting insulin should be stopped. DKA resolution is defined as pH above 7.3, blood ketones below 0.6 mmol/L, and bicarbonate above 15.0mmol/L. Complications may occur from DKA itself or the treatment, such as gastric stasis, thromboembolism, arrhythmias, acute respiratory distress syndrome, acute kidney injury, and cerebral oedema. Children and young adults are particularly vulnerable to cerebral oedema following fluid resuscitation in DKA and often need 1:1 nursing to monitor neuro-observations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 189
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements is true for prostate cancer?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: There is currently no screening programme for prostate cancer in the UK.
Explanation:Prostate Cancer: Facts and Controversies
Prostate cancer is the second most common cancer in men in developed countries, with an estimated one in six men being diagnosed with it in their lifetime. However, there is currently no screening programme for prostate cancer in the UK due to the controversial nature of PSA testing. PSA tests can yield unreliable results and may lead to unnecessary treatment for slow-growing tumours that may never cause symptoms or shorten life. Although treating prostate cancer in its early stages can be beneficial, the potential side effects of treatment may cause men to delay treatment until it is absolutely necessary.
The 5-year relative survival rates for prostate cancer vary depending on the stage of the cancer at diagnosis, with local or regional prostate cancer having a survival rate of over 99%, while distant disease has a survival rate of 29%. The Gleason grade, tumour volume, and presence of capsular penetration or margin positivity are important indicators of prognosis for prostate cancer.
Prostate cancer is also the second most common cause of cancer death in men, accounting for 8% of cancer deaths. Advanced prostate cancer may not involve pain, but can result in a range of symptoms including weight loss, anorexia, bone pain, neurological deficits, and lower extremity pain and oedema.
Overall, prostate cancer remains a complex and controversial disease, with ongoing debates surrounding screening and treatment options.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 190
Incorrect
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A 35 year-old woman has been diagnosed with fibroids and has been attempting to conceive for 2 years. She has been undergoing evaluation at the sub-fertility clinic and all tests have come back normal except for the presence of three uterine fibroids, which are asymptomatic. Her partner's semen analysis showed no abnormalities.
What are the most suitable treatment options in this scenario?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Myomectomy
Explanation:If a woman with large fibroids is experiencing fertility issues, the most effective treatment option that also preserves her ability to conceive in the future is myomectomy. However, depending on the specifics of the procedure, the woman may need to consider delivery options, such as a caesarean section, due to the risk of uterine rupture.
While GnRH agonists can shrink fibroids and make them easier to remove surgically, they also temporarily turn off the ovaries, inhibiting ovulation and making pregnancy impossible during treatment. Additionally, fibroids tend to regrow after treatment is stopped. However, when combined with myomectomy, GnRH agonists can be a suitable treatment option.
Endometrial ablation, on the other hand, destroys the endometrial lining, making it impossible for an embryo to implant. Uterine artery embolisation is also not recommended for women trying to conceive, as it significantly reduces blood supply to the uterus, making it impossible for a fetus to implant and grow.
Understanding Uterine Fibroids
Uterine fibroids are non-cancerous growths that develop in the uterus. They are more common in black women and are thought to occur in around 20% of white women in their later reproductive years. Fibroids are usually asymptomatic, but they can cause menorrhagia, which can lead to iron-deficiency anaemia. Other symptoms include lower abdominal pain, bloating, and urinary symptoms. Fibroids may also cause subfertility.
Diagnosis is usually made through transvaginal ultrasound. Asymptomatic fibroids do not require treatment, but periodic monitoring is recommended. Menorrhagia secondary to fibroids can be managed with various treatments, including the levonorgestrel intrauterine system, NSAIDs, tranexamic acid, and hormonal therapies.
Medical treatment to shrink or remove fibroids may include GnRH agonists or ulipristal acetate, although the latter is not currently recommended due to concerns about liver toxicity. Surgical options include myomectomy, hysteroscopic endometrial ablation, hysterectomy, and uterine artery embolization.
Fibroids generally regress after menopause, but complications such as subfertility and iron-deficiency anaemia can occur. Red degeneration, which is haemorrhage into the tumour, is a common complication during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 191
Incorrect
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A 15-year-old boy presents to his General Practitioner as he has been suffering from recurrent infections for the last few months. He has also been losing weight. He has taken four courses of antibiotics in the last six months for various respiratory tract infections. He also experienced an episode of shingles that took a few years to clear after becoming secondarily infected.
On examination, he is pale and underweight, with a body mass index (BMI) of 17.5 kg/m2. He has fine, downy hair on his back, abdomen and forearms. His temperature is 35.9 °C. His blood pressure is 90/45 mmHg while his pulse is 52 bpm.
What is the most likely cause of this patient’s immunodeficiency?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Malnutrition
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of immunodeficiency in an adolescent with weight loss and recurrent infection
Malnutrition, primary immunodeficiency, cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection, human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection, and diabetes mellitus are among the possible causes of immunodeficiency in an adolescent with weight loss and recurrent infection. Malnutrition can suppress the immune system and is often associated with anorexia nervosa, which can be characterized by a very low body mass index (BMI), lanugo hair growth, hypothermia, bradycardia, and hypotension. Primary immunodeficiency syndromes, which are usually inherited as single-gene disorders, tend to present in infancy or early childhood with poor growth and weight gain and recurrent, prolonged, severe, or atypical infections. Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is a herpes virus that can cause serious complications in immunocompromised individuals or congenital cases, but is usually asymptomatic in immunocompetent individuals. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection can result in immunodeficiency by infecting and destroying CD4 cells, and should be suspected in individuals with prolonged, severe, or recurrent infections, particularly if they are a member of a high-risk group. Diabetes mellitus, especially type I, can also cause dysfunction of the immune system and increase the risk of infection. However, in an adolescent with a low BMI, type II diabetes would be very unlikely.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 192
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old woman is prescribed amlodipine by her doctor for stage 2 hypertension. She is worried about the possible side-effects as she is already taking three other medications.
What is a common side-effect of amlodipine?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Headache
Explanation:Headache is a frequent side-effect of calcium-channel blockers like amlodipine. Bradycardia, cough, and hyperhidrosis are not side-effects of calcium-channel blockers, but rather of beta-blockers, ACE inhibitors, and calcium-channel blockers, respectively.
Understanding Calcium Channel Blockers
Calcium channel blockers are medications primarily used to manage cardiovascular diseases. These blockers target voltage-gated calcium channels present in myocardial cells, cells of the conduction system, and vascular smooth muscle cells. The different types of calcium channel blockers have varying effects on these three areas, making it crucial to differentiate their uses and actions.
Verapamil is an example of a calcium channel blocker used to manage angina, hypertension, and arrhythmias. However, it is highly negatively inotropic and should not be given with beta-blockers as it may cause heart block. Verapamil may also cause side effects such as heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, and flushing.
Diltiazem is another calcium channel blocker used to manage angina and hypertension. It is less negatively inotropic than verapamil, but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers. Diltiazem may cause side effects such as hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, and ankle swelling.
On the other hand, dihydropyridines such as nifedipine, amlodipine, and felodipine are calcium channel blockers used to manage hypertension, angina, and Raynaud’s. These blockers affect the peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium, resulting in no worsening of heart failure but may cause ankle swelling. Shorter-acting dihydropyridines such as nifedipine may cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in reflex tachycardia and side effects such as flushing, headache, and ankle swelling.
In summary, understanding the different types of calcium channel blockers and their effects on the body is crucial in managing cardiovascular diseases. It is also important to note the potential side effects and cautions when prescribing these medications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 193
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old man is found to have a blood pressure of 180/110 mmHg on multiple readings. He undergoes investigation for secondary hypertension. Computed tomography (CT) imaging shows a 4.3 cm right-sided adrenal lesion. Below are his blood results. He is listed for elective adrenalectomy.
Investigation Result Normal reference range
Plasma free metanephrines 3000 pmol/l 80-510 pmol/l
Which of the following treatments should be started to commence preparation of this patient for surgery for removal of adrenal phaeochromocytoma?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Alpha-adrenergic receptor blockers
Explanation:Management of Phaeochromocytoma: Medications and Interventions
Phaeochromocytoma is a neuroendocrine tumor that secretes adrenaline and noradrenaline, leading to sympathetic stimulation and clinical symptoms such as tachycardia, hypertension, anxiety, diaphoresis, and weight loss. Diagnosis is made through the measurement of catecholamines and metanephrines in plasma or urine. Surgery is required, but patients are at high risk due to potential life-threatening tachycardia and hypertension. The following medications and interventions are used in the management of phaeochromocytoma:
Alpha-adrenergic receptor blockers: Phenoxybenzamine or doxazosin are used to dampen sympathetic stimulation by blocking alpha-adrenoceptors.
Beta-adrenergic receptor blockers: Beta-blockers are used after alpha-blockers to avoid unopposed alpha-receptor stimulation, which can cause a hypertensive crisis.
Calcium channel blockers: These are not commonly used in phaeochromocytoma management but may be used as an antihypertensive in certain populations or as an anti-anginal drug.
Intravenous fluids: IV fluids should be readily available for all surgeries to address potential blood loss and hypotension following surgery.
Low-salt diet and low fluid intake: These interventions are not typically used in phaeochromocytoma management but may be used for chronic hypertension or fluid overload.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 194
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male presents for a routine check-up and his blood pressure is found to be 170/100 mmHg (and high blood pressure is confirmed during home blood pressure readings.) He is investigated for secondary causes, none are found, and a diagnosis of primary hypertension is made. His GP starts him on 5mg lisinopril. Two weeks later, his kidney function results show:
Na+ 140 mmol/L (135 - 145)
K+ 4.5 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
Bicarbonate 28 mmol/L (22 - 29)
Urea 7 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
Creatinine 200 µmol/L (55 - 120)
Which of the following is the most likely explanation for the improvement in his renal function?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Renal artery stenosis
Explanation:Undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis can lead to significant renal impairment after starting an ACE inhibitor. This condition is commonly caused by atherosclerosis, but young females may also develop it due to fibromuscular dysplasia. As it often lacks symptoms, it can go unnoticed. While ACE inhibitors may cause a slight rise in serum creatinine, they usually only mildly affect renal function. Therefore, it is crucial to monitor renal function two weeks after initiating ramipril and other ACE inhibitors. Glomerulonephritis, which refers to inflammation of the glomeruli, has multiple causes and typically results in gradual renal function decline, not rapid worsening after ACE inhibitor initiation. Although renal calculi and renal artery thrombosis can cause acute kidney injury, the patient in this question lacks pain and thrombosis risk factors. Chronic, untreated hypertension can also affect renal function, but it progresses slowly over years, and the patient’s renal function was normal before starting ramipril.
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. These inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and for secondary prevention of ischaemic heart disease. The mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors is to inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. They are metabolized in the liver through phase 1 metabolism.
ACE inhibitors may cause side effects such as cough, which occurs in around 15% of patients and may occur up to a year after starting treatment. This is thought to be due to increased bradykinin levels. Angioedema may also occur up to a year after starting treatment. Hyperkalaemia and first-dose hypotension are other potential side effects, especially in patients taking diuretics. ACE inhibitors should be avoided during pregnancy and breastfeeding, and caution should be exercised in patients with renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema.
Patients receiving high-dose diuretic therapy (more than 80 mg of furosemide a day) are at an increased risk of hypotension when taking ACE inhibitors. Before initiating treatment, urea and electrolytes should be checked, and after increasing the dose, a rise in creatinine and potassium may be expected. Acceptable changes include an increase in serum creatinine up to 30% from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment. The current NICE guidelines provide a flow chart for the management of hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 195
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old Caucasian man presents with blood pressure readings of 150/100 mmHg, 148/95mmHg and 160/95mmHg during three consecutive visits to his GP surgery. He refuses ambulatory blood pressure monitoring due to its interference with his job as a construction worker. His home blood pressure readings are consistently above 150/95mmHg. What is the most appropriate initial approach to manage his condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ramipril
Explanation:For a newly diagnosed patient with hypertension who is under 55 years old and has stage 2 hypertension, it is recommended to add either an ACE inhibitor or an angiotensin receptor blocker. This is in accordance with the NICE guidelines, which suggest that antihypertensive drug treatments should be offered to individuals of any age with stage 2 hypertension. If the patient is 55 years or older, a calcium channel blocker like amlodipine is recommended instead.
NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.
The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.
NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.
New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 196
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old male presents to the low-risk chest pain clinic with intermittent substernal chest pains. The pain typically comes on with exertion and improves with rest. A trial of GTN has been given by his GP which helps with his pain. He is a known ex-smoker of 35 pack-years. He has no diabetes, hyperlipidaemia, hypertension, and no family history of coronary artery disease.
During examination, his observations are stable. On auscultations of his chest, his first and second heart sounds are audible with no added sounds and his lungs are clear.
What investigation should be prioritized given his risk for coronary artery disease?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Contrast-enhanced coronary CT angiography
Explanation:The preferred initial diagnostic test for individuals with stable chest pain suspected to be caused by coronary artery disease is a CT coronary angiogram with contrast enhancement.
Assessment of Patients with Suspected Cardiac Chest Pain
When it comes to assessing patients with suspected cardiac chest pain, NICE has updated its guidelines in 2016. For patients presenting with acute chest pain, immediate management of suspected acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is crucial. This includes administering glyceryl trinitrate and aspirin 300 mg, but not other antiplatelet agents like Clopidogrel outside of the hospital. Oxygen therapy should not be routinely given, but only if sats are less than 94%. Referral depends on the timing of chest pain and ECG results. For patients presenting with stable chest pain, NICE defines anginal pain as constricting discomfort in the front of the chest, neck, shoulders, jaw, or arms, precipitated by physical exertion, and relieved by rest or GTN in about 5 minutes. Non-invasive functional imaging is recommended for patients in whom stable angina cannot be excluded by clinical assessment alone. Examples of non-invasive functional imaging include myocardial perfusion scintigraphy with single photon emission computed tomography (MPS with SPECT), stress echocardiography, first-pass contrast-enhanced magnetic resonance (MR) perfusion, or MR imaging for stress-induced wall motion abnormalities.
In summary, assessing patients with suspected cardiac chest pain requires immediate management for acute chest pain and referral based on timing and ECG results. For stable chest pain, NICE defines anginal pain and recommends non-invasive functional imaging for patients in whom stable angina cannot be excluded by clinical assessment alone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 197
Incorrect
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You are a foundation year 2 doctor on your GP placement. You see 8-year-old Lily whose mother has brought her to see you as she feels Lily is snoring very loudly and wonders whether this is affecting her quality of sleep. Lily is overweight and has a background of childhood asthma.
What is a frequent cause of snoring in childhood?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Obesity
Explanation:Snoring in Children: Possible Causes
Snoring in children can be caused by various factors. One of the common causes is obesity, which can lead to the narrowing of the airways and difficulty in breathing during sleep. Another possible cause is nasal problems such as polyps, deviated septum, and hypertrophic nasal turbinates, which can also obstruct the airways and cause snoring. Recurrent tonsillitis can also contribute to snoring, as the inflamed tonsils can block the air passages.
In some cases, snoring in children may be associated with certain medical conditions such as Down’s syndrome and hypothyroidism. These conditions can affect the structure and function of the respiratory system, leading to snoring and other breathing difficulties.
It is important to identify the underlying cause of snoring in children and seek appropriate treatment to prevent potential health complications. Parents should consult a healthcare professional if their child snores regularly or experiences other symptoms such as daytime sleepiness, difficulty concentrating, or behavioral problems.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 198
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old man was prescribed medication for shooting pains on the side of his face. He has been taking the medication without any issues for a few weeks but suddenly complains of a sore throat and bruising.
Which of the following medications is the most probable cause of these symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Carbamazepine
Explanation:Understanding Antiepileptic Drug Side Effects: A Case Study on Trigeminal Neuralgia
Trigeminal neuralgia is a condition that can be treated with antiepileptic drugs, such as carbamazepine. However, these drugs can also have side effects, including blood disorders. In this case study, we explore the potential side effects of various antiepileptic drugs and how to manage them.
Carbamazepine is a valid choice for treating trigeminal neuralgia, but it is commonly associated with blood disorders. Patients should be aware of the signs of these disorders and seek medical attention if symptoms develop. Leukopenia that is severe, progressive, or associated with clinical symptoms requires withdrawal.
Lamotrigine, levetiracetam, phenytoin, and sodium valproate can also cause blood disorders, but they are not used in the treatment of trigeminal neuralgia. It is important to remember that carbamazepine is the first-line agent for this condition, and specialist advice should be sought if it is contraindicated, ineffective, or not tolerated.
In addition to blood disorders, antiepileptic drugs can have a range of side effects, including parasthesia, weight gain, and skin rash. Patients should be informed of these potential side effects and monitored for any symptoms. By understanding the side effects of antiepileptic drugs, healthcare professionals can provide better care for patients with trigeminal neuralgia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 199
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man presents to his GP with persistent itch that has been bothering him for several months. The itch is widespread, affecting his torso and back, and he has not noticed any changes in his skin or overall health. Despite having an extensive medical history, there have been no recent changes to his medications. Upon examination, there are no focal skin changes other than widespread excoriation marks. The GP suspects that a systemic condition may be the underlying cause of the patient's itch. Based on his medical history, which of the following conditions is most likely to be responsible for his symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chronic kidney disease
Explanation:Pruritus is a symptom of chronic kidney disease, which can cause severe itching and distress for patients. Even in the early stages of the disease, hyperuricemia can lead to intense itchiness.
Causes of Pruritus and their Characteristics
Pruritus, commonly known as itching, can be caused by various underlying conditions. Liver disease, often associated with a history of alcohol excess, can present with stigmata of chronic liver disease such as spider naevi, bruising, palmar erythema, and gynaecomastia. Iron deficiency anaemia can cause pallor and other signs such as koilonychia, atrophic glossitis, post-cricoid webs, and angular stomatitis. Pruritus in polycythaemia is particularly noticeable after a warm bath and is accompanied by a ruddy complexion. Chronic kidney disease can present with lethargy, pallor, oedema, weight gain, hypertension, and fatigue. Lymphoma can cause night sweats, lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly, hepatomegaly, and fatigue. Other causes of pruritus include hyper- and hypothyroidism, diabetes, pregnancy, senile pruritus, urticaria, and skin disorders such as eczema, scabies, psoriasis, and pityriasis rosea. It is important to identify the underlying cause of pruritus to provide appropriate treatment and alleviate symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 200
Incorrect
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A child is admitted for assessment on the Infectious Diseases Ward and is identified to have a notifiable disease. The nurses suggest that you should inform the Consultant in Communicable Disease Control (CCDC).
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis (recognised as a notifiable disease)?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Malaria
Explanation:Notifiable Diseases in England
In England, Public Health England is responsible for detecting possible outbreaks of disease and epidemics as quickly as possible. The accuracy of diagnosis is not the primary concern, and since 1968, clinical suspicion of a notifiable infection is all that is required. Malaria, caused by various species of Plasmodium, is a notifiable disease. However, Mycoplasma pneumonia, HIV, necrotising fasciitis, and acute rheumatic fever are not notifiable diseases in England.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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