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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a sudden onset of visual disturbance. He has a medical history of hypertension and takes amlodipine. He smokes 10 cigarettes daily.
During the eye examination, a field defect is observed in the right lower quadrant of both eyes. Apart from this, the examination is unremarkable.
What is the anatomical location of the lesion causing the vision problem?Your Answer: Left inferior optic radiation
Correct Answer: Left superior optic radiation
Explanation:Lesions in the parietal lobe affecting the superior optic radiations result in inferior homonymous quadrantanopias.
Understanding Visual Field Defects
Visual field defects can occur due to various reasons, including lesions in the optic tract, optic radiation, or occipital cortex. A left homonymous hemianopia indicates a visual field defect to the left, which is caused by a lesion in the right optic tract. On the other hand, homonymous quadrantanopias can be categorized into PITS (Parietal-Inferior, Temporal-Superior) and can be caused by lesions in the inferior or superior optic radiations in the temporal or parietal lobes.
When it comes to congruous and incongruous defects, the former refers to complete or symmetrical visual field loss, while the latter indicates incomplete or asymmetric visual field loss. Incongruous defects are caused by optic tract lesions, while congruous defects are caused by optic radiation or occipital cortex lesions. In cases where there is macula sparing, it is indicative of a lesion in the occipital cortex.
Bitemporal hemianopia, on the other hand, is caused by a lesion in the optic chiasm. The type of defect can indicate the location of the compression, with an upper quadrant defect being more common in inferior chiasmal compression, such as a pituitary tumor, and a lower quadrant defect being more common in superior chiasmal compression, such as a craniopharyngioma.
Understanding visual field defects is crucial in diagnosing and treating various neurological conditions. By identifying the type and location of the defect, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate interventions to improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Which of the following would be a common hypersensitivity response that results in tissue damage due to the accumulation of immune complexes?
Your Answer: Tongue and lip swelling following ingestion of shellfish
Correct Answer: Post-streptococcus glomerulonephritis
Explanation:Type 3 reactions involve immune complexes and can result in post-streptococcus glomerulonephritis. An example of a type 1 IgE-mediated anaphylactic reaction is tongue and lip swelling shortly after consuming shellfish. Goodpasture syndrome is an instance of a type 2 reaction that is mediated by IgG and IgM antibodies. Type 4 (delayed) reactions are caused by T lymphocytes and can lead to contact dermatitis and a positive Mantoux test. Contact dermatitis is frequently caused by nickel, which is commonly found in inexpensive jewelry like Christmas cracker rings.
Classification of Hypersensitivity Reactions
Hypersensitivity reactions are classified into four types according to the Gell and Coombs classification. Type I, also known as anaphylactic hypersensitivity, occurs when an antigen reacts with IgE bound to mast cells. This type of reaction is commonly seen in atopic conditions such as asthma, eczema, and hay fever. Type II hypersensitivity occurs when cell-bound IgG or IgM binds to an antigen on the cell surface, leading to autoimmune conditions such as autoimmune hemolytic anemia, ITP, and Goodpasture’s syndrome. Type III hypersensitivity occurs when free antigen and antibody (IgG, IgA) combine to form immune complexes, leading to conditions such as serum sickness, systemic lupus erythematosus, and post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis. Type IV hypersensitivity is T-cell mediated and includes conditions such as tuberculosis, graft versus host disease, and allergic contact dermatitis.
In recent times, a fifth category has been added to the classification of hypersensitivity reactions. Type V hypersensitivity occurs when antibodies recognize and bind to cell surface receptors, either stimulating them or blocking ligand binding. This type of reaction is seen in conditions such as Graves’ disease and myasthenia gravis. Understanding the classification of hypersensitivity reactions is important in the diagnosis and management of these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 3
Correct
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A 77-year-old man is admitted to a geriatric ward from his care home with new-onset confusion and agitation secondary to a urinary tract infection. His past medical history is significant for COPD, type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and systemic lupus erythematosus.
His regular medications include a combination inhaler, metformin, candesartan, and prednisolone.
As a result of a prescribing error, the medical team responsible for his admission fail to administer prednisolone during his hospital stay.
What potential adverse event does this prescribing error put the patient at risk of?Your Answer: Addisonian crisis
Explanation:Long-term use of systemic corticosteroids can suppress the body’s natural production of steroids. Therefore, sudden withdrawal of these steroids can lead to an Addisonian crisis, which is characterized by vomiting, hypotension, hyperkalemia, and hyponatremia. It is important to gradually taper off the steroids to avoid this crisis. Dyslipidemia, hyperkalemia, and immunosuppression are not consequences of abrupt withdrawal of steroids.
Corticosteroids are commonly prescribed medications that can be taken orally or intravenously, or applied topically. They mimic the effects of natural steroids in the body and can be used to replace or supplement them. However, the use of corticosteroids is limited by their numerous side effects, which are more common with prolonged and systemic use. These side effects can affect various systems in the body, including the endocrine, musculoskeletal, gastrointestinal, ophthalmic, and psychiatric systems. Some of the most common side effects include impaired glucose regulation, weight gain, osteoporosis, and increased susceptibility to infections. Patients on long-term corticosteroids should have their doses adjusted during intercurrent illness, and the medication should not be abruptly withdrawn to avoid an Addisonian crisis. Gradual withdrawal is recommended for patients who have received high doses or prolonged treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrine System
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Question 4
Incorrect
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As a junior doctor at a reproductive medicine clinic, a patient inquires about the presence of eggs in a woman's ovaries at birth. Can you provide a brief explanation of oogenesis? Additionally, at what point during oogenesis do cells develop in the uterus?
Your Answer: Metaphase II
Correct Answer: Prophase I
Explanation:Metaphase II is not the correct answer as it is the stage where secondary oocytes are arrested until fertilization occurs.
Metaphase I is not the correct answer as the cell cycle does not halt at this stage.
Prophase I is the correct answer as it is the stage during which primary oocytes develop in the uterus.
Prophase II is not the correct answer as the cell cycle does not pause at this stage, and it occurs during meiosis II, which takes place after puberty and not in the uterus.
Oogenesis: The Process of Egg Cell Formation
During the process of oogenesis, cells undergo two rounds of meiosis. The first round, known as meiosis I, occurs while the cells are still primary oocytes. Meiosis II occurs after the primary oocytes have developed into secondary oocytes.
Meiosis I begins before birth and is halted at prophase I, which lasts for many years. During each menstrual cycle, a few primary oocytes re-enter the cell cycle and continue to develop through meiosis I to become secondary oocytes. These secondary oocytes then begin meiosis II but are held in metaphase II until fertilization occurs.
Overall, oogenesis is a complex process that involves the development and maturation of egg cells. The two rounds of meiosis ensure that the resulting egg cells have the correct number of chromosomes and are ready for fertilization.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive System
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Question 5
Correct
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A 25-year-old male presents with a recent onset of vomiting and diarrhoea. Upon further inquiry, he reports consuming undercooked meat at a barbecue three days ago. What is the probable pathological mechanism responsible for his diarrhoea?
Your Answer: Endotoxins stimulating secretion of electrolytes into intestinal lumen
Explanation:Two Main Pathological Processes that Cause Diarrhoea
There are two main pathological processes that typically cause diarrhoea: secretory diarrhoea and osmotic diarrhoea. Secretory diarrhoea is often caused by bacteria such as E. coli and V. cholerae, which produce A-B type endotoxins that activate and increase cyclic AMP. This leads to an increase in the amounts of Na+, K+, bicarbonate, and nutrients into the apical side of the lumen, which in turn draws water into the lumen as well. On the other hand, osmotic diarrhoea occurs when osmotically active nutrients within the lumen pull water in through osmotic gradients. This is often seen in patients with pancreatic insufficiency or coeliac disease.
Laxatives work in the same manner as osmotic diarrhoea, as they increase the water content in the large bowel by exerting osmotic effects. However, in this case, laxative use is unlikely as it does not fit with the clinical history. It is important to note that diarrhoea is defined as 200 ml of water per daily excrement. the underlying pathological processes that cause diarrhoea can help in the diagnosis and treatment of this common condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 6
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman has been diagnosed with breast cancer and her oncologist has recommended starting her on tamoxifen. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?
Your Answer: Selective oestrogen receptor modulator
Explanation:Tamoxifen is a medication commonly used in the treatment of oestrogen-receptor positive breast cancer. It works by exhibiting anti-oestrogenic activity in breast tissue, which helps to prevent the progression of breast cancer. However, it also has oestrogenic activity in the uterus, which can increase the risk of endometrial cancers.
Ulipristal acetate is a selective progesterone receptor modulator that is often used as emergency contraception to prevent pregnancies up to 5 days after unprotected sex.
Anastrozole is an aromatase inhibitor that is used to treat breast cancer with positive progesterone receptors.
Trastuzumab is an example of an HER-2 antagonist that is used to treat breast cancer patients with positive HER-2 receptors. HER-2 is a receptor that plays a role in cell growth and differentiation, and overexpression of HER-2 can lead to uncontrolled cell division.
Doxorubicin is an anthracycline that works by stabilising the topoisomerase II enzyme, which prevents DNA replication by preventing coiling of DNA during transcription.
Tamoxifen and its Adverse Effects
Tamoxifen is a medication used in the treatment of breast cancer that is positive for oestrogen receptors. It is classified as a Selective oEstrogen Receptor Modulator (SERM) and works by acting as an antagonist and partial agonist of the oestrogen receptor. However, the use of tamoxifen can lead to several adverse effects. These include menstrual disturbances such as vaginal bleeding and amenorrhoea, as well as hot flushes which can cause 3% of patients to stop taking the medication due to climacteric side-effects. Additionally, tamoxifen increases the risk of venous thromboembolism and endometrial cancer.
To manage breast cancer, tamoxifen is typically prescribed for a period of 5 years following the removal of the tumour. However, due to the risk of endometrial cancer associated with tamoxifen, an alternative medication called raloxifene may be used. Raloxifene is a pure oestrogen receptor antagonist and carries a lower risk of endometrial cancer. It is important for patients to discuss the potential risks and benefits of tamoxifen and other medications with their healthcare provider before starting treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents with an unknown cause of jaundice. She noticed the yellowing of her skin and eyes in the mirror that morning. Upon examination, a palpable mass is found in the right upper quadrant of her abdomen. Her lab results show a total bilirubin level of 124 umol/L and high levels of conjugated bilirubin in her urine. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Ascending cholangitis
Correct Answer: Cholangiocarcinoma
Explanation:To correctly diagnose this patient, knowledge of Courvoisier’s sign is necessary. This sign indicates that a palpable gallbladder in the presence of painless jaundice is unlikely to be caused by gallstones. Therefore, biliary colic is an incorrect answer as it is a painful condition. Haemolytic anaemia is also an incorrect answer as the blood test results would differ from this patient’s results. The correct answer is cholangiocarcinoma, which is a cancer of the biliary tree that can cause painless obstructive jaundice. Gilbert’s syndrome is not the most appropriate answer as it only presents with a raised bilirubin and does not cause an increase in ALP.
Understanding Cholangiocarcinoma
Cholangiocarcinoma, also known as bile duct cancer, is a serious medical condition that can be caused by primary sclerosing cholangitis. This disease is characterized by persistent biliary colic symptoms, which can be accompanied by anorexia, jaundice, and weight loss. In some cases, a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant may be present, which is known as the Courvoisier sign. Additionally, periumbilical lymphadenopathy (Sister Mary Joseph nodes) and left supraclavicular adenopathy (Virchow node) may be seen.
One of the main risk factors for cholangiocarcinoma is primary sclerosing cholangitis. This condition can cause inflammation and scarring of the bile ducts, which can lead to the development of cancer over time. To detect cholangiocarcinoma in patients with primary sclerosing cholangitis, doctors often use a blood test to measure CA 19-9 levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old woman presents with varicose veins and has a saphenofemoral disconnection, long saphenous vein stripping to the ankle, and isolated hook phlebectomies. After the surgery, she experiences numbness above her ankle. What is the probable reason for this?
Your Answer: Sural nerve injury
Correct Answer: Saphenous nerve injury
Explanation:Full length stripping of the long saphenous vein below the knee is no longer recommended due to its relation to the saphenous nerve, while the short saphenous vein is related to the sural nerve.
The Anatomy of Saphenous Veins
The human body has two saphenous veins: the long saphenous vein and the short saphenous vein. The long saphenous vein is often used for bypass surgery or removed as a treatment for varicose veins. It originates at the first digit where the dorsal vein merges with the dorsal venous arch of the foot and runs up the medial side of the leg. At the knee, it runs over the posterior border of the medial epicondyle of the femur bone before passing laterally to lie on the anterior surface of the thigh. It then enters an opening in the fascia lata called the saphenous opening and joins with the femoral vein in the region of the femoral triangle at the saphenofemoral junction. The long saphenous vein has several tributaries, including the medial marginal, superficial epigastric, superficial iliac circumflex, and superficial external pudendal veins.
On the other hand, the short saphenous vein originates at the fifth digit where the dorsal vein merges with the dorsal venous arch of the foot, which attaches to the great saphenous vein. It passes around the lateral aspect of the foot and runs along the posterior aspect of the leg with the sural nerve. It then passes between the heads of the gastrocnemius muscle and drains into the popliteal vein, approximately at or above the level of the knee joint.
Understanding the anatomy of saphenous veins is crucial for medical professionals who perform surgeries or treatments involving these veins.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular System
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Question 9
Correct
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A woman presents with symptoms of agalactorrhoea, amenorrhoea, intolerance to cold, constipation, and weight loss six months after giving birth. She experienced postpartum bleeding during delivery and has now been diagnosed with hypopituitarism. What could be the possible reason for this condition?
Your Answer: Sheehan's syndrome
Explanation:Sheehan’s syndrome is a condition that arises from pituitary ischaemia, which is caused by blood loss during or after childbirth. The syndrome is characterized by symptoms that indicate global hypopituitarism, including agalactorrhoea (lack of prolactin), amenorrhoea (lack of FSH and LH), cold intolerance and constipation (lack of thyroid hormones), and weight loss (lack of steroid hormones).
Malignancy is an uncommon cause of hypopituitarism.
While pituitary adenoma is a frequent cause of hypopituitarism, it is unlikely to be the cause of this patient’s symptoms, given that they occurred after childbirth. Pituitary adenoma may also present with symptoms related to mass effect, such as headache and bilateral hemianopia.
Understanding Hypopituitarism: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Hypopituitarism is a medical condition that occurs when the pituitary gland fails to produce enough hormones. This can be caused by various factors such as compression of the gland by non-secretory pituitary macroadenoma, pituitary apoplexy, Sheehan’s syndrome, hypothalamic tumors, trauma, iatrogenic irradiation, and infiltrative diseases like hemochromatosis and sarcoidosis. The symptoms of hypopituitarism depend on which hormones are deficient. For instance, low ACTH can cause tiredness and postural hypotension, while low FSH/LH can lead to amenorrhea, infertility, and loss of libido. Low TSH can cause constipation and feeling cold, while low GH can result in short stature if it occurs during childhood. Low prolactin can cause problems with lactation.
To diagnose hypopituitarism, hormone profile testing and imaging are usually conducted. Treatment involves addressing the underlying cause, such as surgical removal of pituitary macroadenoma, and replacement of deficient hormones. It is important to manage hypopituitarism promptly to prevent complications and improve the patient’s quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman comes to the emergency department complaining of crushing chest pain. Her ECG shows no abnormalities. She has a medical history of rheumatoid arthritis managed with methotrexate, hypertension, and type II diabetes. Her BMI is 34 kg/m². As a healthcare provider, you initiate aspirin therapy.
What is the most significant risk this patient is facing?Your Answer: Hypertension
Correct Answer: Bone marrow toxicity
Explanation:Taking aspirin while on methotrexate treatment can be dangerous as it reduces the excretion of methotrexate, leading to an increased risk of toxicity and bone marrow problems. However, some studies suggest that methotrexate may be helpful in treating severe osteoarthritis and polymyositis. All other options are incorrect.
Methotrexate is an antimetabolite that hinders the activity of dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme that is crucial for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is a significant drug that can effectively control diseases, but its side-effects can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential. Methotrexate is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, especially rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. However, it can cause adverse effects such as mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis.
Women should avoid pregnancy for at least six months after stopping methotrexate treatment, and men using methotrexate should use effective contraception for at least six months after treatment. Prescribing methotrexate requires familiarity with guidelines relating to its use. It is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. Folic acid 5 mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after methotrexate dose. The starting dose of methotrexate is 7.5 mg weekly, and only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed.
It is important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia. High-dose aspirin also increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity due to reduced excretion. In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Overall, methotrexate is a potent drug that requires careful prescribing and monitoring to ensure its effectiveness and safety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Which statistical measure would be most helpful in order to reassure a 60-year-old patient who has received a negative test result?
Your Answer: Specificity
Correct Answer: Negative predictive value
Explanation:Precision refers to the consistency of a test in producing the same results when repeated multiple times. It is an important aspect of test reliability and can impact the accuracy of the results. In order to assess precision, multiple tests are performed on the same sample and the results are compared. A test with high precision will produce similar results each time it is performed, while a test with low precision will produce inconsistent results. It is important to consider precision when interpreting test results and making clinical decisions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman is admitted to the ICU with a multidrug-resistant urinary tract infection. She has a medical history of type 2 diabetes, hypertension, and a previous cerebrovascular accident. After three days, she experiences an altered sensorium and her urine output has been 100 ml over the past 12 hours. Her creatinine level has increased from 1 mg/dl to almost 5 mg/dl, and her blood pressure is currently 180/100 mmHg. The patient is currently taking amikacin, insulin, atorvastatin, atenolol, ramipril, and clopidogrel.
Which medication, other than ramipril, should be discontinued for this patient?Your Answer: Atenolol
Correct Answer: Amikacin
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms suggest that they may be experiencing acute kidney injury (AKI) as a result of a severe urinary tract infection and potential sepsis. It is important to note that ACE inhibitors such as ramipril should not be used in cases of AKI, and aminoglycosides like amikacin should also be discontinued. Beta-blockers like atenolol, on the other hand, are generally safe to use in AKI patients and may be preferred over ACE inhibitors and ARBs as antihypertensives. While statins like atorvastatin are generally safe in AKI, they can rarely cause rhabdomyolysis, which can worsen renal function and lead to renal failure. Therefore, patients who experience muscle pain should be evaluated further to rule out the possibility of rhabdomyolysis.
Acute kidney injury (AKI) is a condition where there is a reduction in renal function following an insult to the kidneys. It was previously known as acute renal failure and can result in long-term impaired kidney function or even death. AKI can be caused by prerenal, intrinsic, or postrenal factors. Patients with chronic kidney disease, other organ failure/chronic disease, a history of AKI, or who have used drugs with nephrotoxic potential are at an increased risk of developing AKI. To prevent AKI, patients at risk may be given IV fluids or have certain medications temporarily stopped.
The kidneys are responsible for maintaining fluid balance and homeostasis, so a reduced urine output or fluid overload may indicate AKI. Symptoms may not be present in early stages, but as renal failure progresses, patients may experience arrhythmias, pulmonary and peripheral edema, or features of uraemia. Blood tests such as urea and electrolytes can be used to detect AKI, and urinalysis and imaging may also be necessary.
Management of AKI is largely supportive, with careful fluid balance and medication review. Loop diuretics and low-dose dopamine are not recommended, but hyperkalaemia needs prompt treatment to avoid life-threatening arrhythmias. Renal replacement therapy may be necessary in severe cases. Patients with suspected AKI secondary to urinary obstruction require prompt review by a urologist, and specialist input from a nephrologist is required for cases where the cause is unknown or the AKI is severe.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 46-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of nosebleeds and bruising that started yesterday. He denies any recent injuries. The patient has a medical history of Crohn's disease and had a recent flare-up that required treatment. The doctor suspects that the patient may have a deficiency in vitamin K, which clotting factor is most likely to be affected?
Your Answer: Factor VIII
Correct Answer: Factor VII
Explanation:In cases of malabsorption, such as Crohn’s disease, a deficiency in fat soluble vitamins (A,D,E and K) may occur. This can lead to symptoms such as easy bruising and epistaxis. Among the vitamin K dependent factors (II, VII, IX and X), factor VII is the first to decrease in the event of a deficiency. With a half-life of only 6 hours, a deficiency in factor VII can occur quickly and is likely responsible for the patient’s symptoms.
Understanding Vitamin K
Vitamin K is a type of fat-soluble vitamin that plays a crucial role in the carboxylation of clotting factors such as II, VII, IX, and X. This vitamin acts as a cofactor in the process, which is essential for blood clotting. In clinical settings, vitamin K is used to reverse the effects of warfarinisation, a process that inhibits blood clotting. However, it may take up to four hours for the INR to change after administering vitamin K.
Vitamin K deficiency can occur in conditions that affect fat absorption since it is a fat-soluble vitamin. Additionally, prolonged use of broad-spectrum antibiotics can eliminate gut flora, leading to a deficiency in vitamin K. It is essential to maintain adequate levels of vitamin K to ensure proper blood clotting and prevent bleeding disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 14
Correct
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A 50-year-old obese woman presents with right upper quadrant abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting. She has a family history of gallstone disease. Upon physical examination, a positive Murphy's sign is observed. An abdominal ultrasound reveals gallstones in the thickened gallbladder. The surgeon opts for a laparoscopic cholecystectomy to remove the gallbladder. During the procedure, the surgeon identifies and dissects the hepatobiliary triangle to safely ligate and divide two structures.
What are the two structures being referred to in the above scenario?Your Answer: Cystic duct and cystic artery
Explanation:During laparoscopic cholecystectomy, the hepatobiliary triangle plays a crucial role in ensuring the safe ligation and division of the cystic duct and cystic artery. Surgeons must carefully dissect this area to identify these structures and avoid any potential biliary complications.
The hepatobiliary triangle is bordered by the common hepatic duct, which is formed by the union of the common bile duct and cystic duct. The cystic artery branches off from the right hepatic artery, while Lund’s node serves as the sentinel lymph node of the gallbladder.
The accessory duct is considered auxiliary to the biliary tree, and the left and right hepatic ducts merge into the common hepatic duct. The gastroduodenal artery arises from the common hepatic artery, and the cystic vein helps distinguish between the cystic and common hepatic ducts during surgery, but is not ligated.
The gallbladder is a sac made of fibromuscular tissue that can hold up to 50 ml of fluid. Its lining is made up of columnar epithelium. The gallbladder is located in close proximity to various organs, including the liver, transverse colon, and the first part of the duodenum. It is covered by peritoneum and is situated between the right lobe and quadrate lobe of the liver. The gallbladder receives its arterial supply from the cystic artery, which is a branch of the right hepatic artery. Its venous drainage is directly to the liver, and its lymphatic drainage is through Lund’s node. The gallbladder is innervated by both sympathetic and parasympathetic nerves. The common bile duct originates from the confluence of the cystic and common hepatic ducts and is located in the hepatobiliary triangle, which is bordered by the common hepatic duct, cystic duct, and the inferior edge of the liver. The cystic artery is also found within this triangle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Which organ is in direct contact with the left kidney's anterior surface without being separated by peritoneum?
Your Answer: Spleen
Correct Answer: Pancreas
Explanation:Retroperitoneal Structures in Proximity to the Left Kidney
The retroperitoneal structures that are in direct contact with the anterior surface of the left kidney include the pancreas, adrenal gland, and colon. While the pancreas is the only structure commonly listed as retroperitoneal, it is important to note that the adrenal gland and colon also share this classification and are located in close proximity to the left kidney.
According to Gray’s Anatomy of the Human Body, which focuses on the urinary organs, the location and relationship of these structures is important for medical professionals. By knowing the retroperitoneal structures in proximity to the left kidney, doctors can better diagnose and treat conditions that may affect these organs.
In summary, while the pancreas is commonly listed as the only retroperitoneal structure in contact with the left kidney, it is important to also consider the adrenal gland and colon in this classification. the location and relationship of these structures is crucial for medical professionals in providing effective care for their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old female arrives at the emergency department complaining of pleuritic chest pain, haemoptysis, and sudden-onset shortness of breath. Upon diagnosis, she is found to have a pulmonary embolism and is later discovered to have Factor V Leiden. What is the underlying mechanism that causes this condition to lead to blood clots?
Your Answer: Low levels of protein C in the blood
Correct Answer: Activated protein C resistance
Explanation:The Factor V Leiden mutation causes activated protein C resistance, resulting in excess clotting due to inefficient inactivation of factor V. This is the correct answer.
Antiphospholipid antibodies binding to plasma membranes is not the correct answer as it is a mechanism of blood clot formation in antiphospholipid syndrome (APS).
High levels of platelets in the blood is also not the correct answer as it is not implicated in Factor V Leiden. Thrombocytosis, or high levels of platelets, can lead to clots but is not related to this mutation.
Low levels of factor V in the blood is also not the correct answer as factor V deficiency is a rare inherited bleeding disorder, not a clotting disorder. It is a form of haemophilia.
Understanding Factor V Leiden
Factor V Leiden is a common inherited thrombophilia, affecting around 5% of the UK population. It is caused by a mutation in the Factor V Leiden protein, resulting in activated factor V being inactivated 10 times more slowly by activated protein C than normal. This leads to activated protein C resistance, which increases the risk of venous thrombosis. Heterozygotes have a 4-5 fold risk of venous thrombosis, while homozygotes have a 10 fold risk, although the prevalence of homozygotes is much lower at 0.05%.
Despite its prevalence, screening for Factor V Leiden is not recommended, even after a venous thromboembolism. This is because a previous thromboembolism itself is a risk factor for further events, and specific management should be based on this rather than the particular thrombophilia identified.
Other inherited thrombophilias include Prothrombin gene mutation, Protein C deficiency, Protein S deficiency, and Antithrombin III deficiency. The table below shows the prevalence and relative risk of venous thromboembolism for each of these conditions.
Overall, understanding Factor V Leiden and other inherited thrombophilias can help healthcare professionals identify individuals at higher risk of venous thrombosis and provide appropriate management to prevent future events.
Condition | Prevalence | Relative risk of VTE
— | — | —
Factor V Leiden (heterozygous) | 5% | 4
Factor V Leiden (homozygous) | 0.05% | 10
Prothrombin gene mutation (heterozygous) | 1.5% | 3
Protein C deficiency | 0.3% | 10
Protein S deficiency | 0.1% | 5-10
Antithrombin III deficiency | 0.02% | 10-20 -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old patient visits their GP complaining of non-specific malaise. The patient has a medical history of recurrent haematuria during childhood with infections and fever, as well as bilateral mild sensorineural hearing loss. Due to frequent moves between countries, the patient has never had continuous medical care. Further investigations reveal proteinuria and haematuria, leading to a referral to secondary care and a subsequent renal biopsy. The biopsy results show splitting of the lamina densa on electron microscopy.
What is the most common mode of inheritance for this likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Autosomal dominant
Correct Answer: X-linked dominant
Explanation:Alport’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that is typically inherited in an X-linked dominant pattern. It is caused by a defect in the gene responsible for producing type IV collagen, which leads to an abnormal glomerular-basement membrane (GBM). The disease is more severe in males, with females rarely developing renal failure. Symptoms usually present in childhood and may include microscopic haematuria, progressive renal failure, bilateral sensorineural deafness, lenticonus, retinitis pigmentosa, and splitting of the lamina densa seen on electron microscopy. In some cases, an Alport’s patient with a failing renal transplant may have anti-GBM antibodies, leading to a Goodpasture’s syndrome-like picture. Diagnosis can be made through molecular genetic testing, renal biopsy, or electron microscopy. In around 85% of cases, the syndrome is inherited in an X-linked dominant pattern, while 10-15% of cases are inherited in an autosomal recessive fashion, with rare autosomal dominant variants existing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal System
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Question 18
Correct
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During a placement in general practice, a 56-year-old woman comes in with new nipple discharge and skin dimpling over her breast. The GP conducts a breast examination, including the lymph nodes surrounding the area. Which lymph nodes receive the most breast lymph?
Your Answer: Axilliary lymph nodes
Explanation:The lymphatic system of the breast is responsible for draining excess fluid and waste products. Lymph from the upper outer quadrant of the breast drains to the axillary lymph nodes, while lymph from the inner quadrants drains to the parasternal lymph nodes. Additionally, some lymph from the lower quadrants drains to the inferior phrenic lymph nodes.
Lymphatic drainage is the process by which lymphatic vessels carry lymph, a clear fluid containing white blood cells, away from tissues and organs and towards lymph nodes. The lymphatic vessels that drain the skin and follow venous drainage are called superficial lymphatic vessels, while those that drain internal organs and structures follow the arteries and are called deep lymphatic vessels. These vessels eventually lead to lymph nodes, which filter and remove harmful substances from the lymph before it is returned to the bloodstream.
The lymphatic system is divided into two main ducts: the right lymphatic duct and the thoracic duct. The right lymphatic duct drains the right side of the head and right arm, while the thoracic duct drains everything else. Both ducts eventually drain into the venous system.
Different areas of the body have specific primary lymph node drainage sites. For example, the superficial inguinal lymph nodes drain the anal canal below the pectinate line, perineum, skin of the thigh, penis, scrotum, and vagina. The deep inguinal lymph nodes drain the glans penis, while the para-aortic lymph nodes drain the testes, ovaries, kidney, and adrenal gland. The axillary lymph nodes drain the lateral breast and upper limb, while the internal iliac lymph nodes drain the anal canal above the pectinate line, lower part of the rectum, and pelvic structures including the cervix and inferior part of the uterus. The superior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the duodenum and jejunum, while the inferior mesenteric lymph nodes drain the descending colon, sigmoid colon, and upper part of the rectum. Finally, the coeliac lymph nodes drain the stomach.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology And Oncology
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Question 19
Correct
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A 36-year-old male patient visits the surgical clinic with a suspected direct inguinal hernia that is likely to pass through Hesselbach's triangle. What structure forms the medial edge of this triangle?
Your Answer: Rectus abdominis muscle
Explanation:Although of minimal clinical significance, Hesselbach’s triangle is the pathway for direct inguinal hernias, with the rectus muscle serving as its medial boundary.
Hesselbach’s Triangle and Direct Hernias
Hesselbach’s triangle is an anatomical region located in the lower abdomen. It is bordered by the epigastric vessels on the superolateral side, the lateral edge of the rectus muscle medially, and the inguinal ligament inferiorly. This triangle is important in the diagnosis and treatment of direct hernias, which pass through this region.
To better understand the location of direct hernias, it is essential to know the boundaries of Hesselbach’s triangle. The epigastric vessels are located on the upper and outer side of the triangle, while the lateral edge of the rectus muscle is on the inner side. The inguinal ligament forms the lower boundary of the triangle.
In medical exams, it is common to test the knowledge of Hesselbach’s triangle and its boundaries. Understanding this region is crucial for identifying and treating direct hernias, which can cause discomfort and other complications. By knowing the location of Hesselbach’s triangle, medical professionals can better diagnose and treat patients with direct hernias.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which one of the following drugs exhibits saturation pharmacokinetics?
Your Answer: Bendrofluazide
Correct Answer: Phenytoin
Explanation:Phenytoin exhibits zero-order kinetics.
Understanding Drug Metabolism: Phase I and Phase II Reactions
Drug metabolism involves two types of biochemical reactions, namely phase I and phase II reactions. Phase I reactions include oxidation, reduction, and hydrolysis, which are mainly performed by P450 enzymes. However, some drugs are metabolized by specific enzymes such as alcohol dehydrogenase and xanthine oxidase. The products of phase I reactions are typically more active and potentially toxic. On the other hand, phase II reactions involve conjugation, where glucuronyl, acetyl, methyl, sulphate, and other groups are typically involved. The products of phase II reactions are typically inactive and excreted in urine or bile. The majority of phase I and phase II reactions take place in the liver.
First-Pass Metabolism and Drugs Affected by Zero-Order Kinetics and Acetylator Status
First-pass metabolism is a phenomenon where the concentration of a drug is greatly reduced before it reaches the systemic circulation due to hepatic metabolism. This effect is seen in many drugs, including aspirin, isosorbide dinitrate, glyceryl trinitrate, lignocaine, propranolol, verapamil, isoprenaline, testosterone, and hydrocortisone.
Zero-order kinetics describe metabolism that is independent of the concentration of the reactant. This is due to metabolic pathways becoming saturated, resulting in a constant amount of drug being eliminated per unit time. Drugs exhibiting zero-order kinetics include phenytoin, salicylates (e.g. high-dose aspirin), heparin, and ethanol.
Acetylator status is also an important consideration in drug metabolism. Approximately 50% of the UK population are deficient in hepatic N-acetyltransferase. Drugs affected by acetylator status include isoniazid, procainamide, hydralazine, dapsone, and sulfasalazine. Understanding these concepts is important in predicting drug efficacy and toxicity, as well as in optimizing drug dosing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 21
Correct
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A 77-year-old woman is scheduled for a wide local excision with sentinel lymph node biopsy after being diagnosed with breast cancer on the right side. During examination, a hard irregular mass was found in the upper inner quadrant of the right breast, along with nipple inversion. Which group of lymph nodes is most likely to be affected by metastasis from this tumor?
Your Answer: Ipsilateral axillary nodes
Explanation:The axillary nodes are responsible for draining the majority of lymphatic fluid from breast tissue. These nodes are located under the arms and are often affected by tumour invasion. If lymphatic spread is confirmed, a surgical procedure called axillary lymph node dissection may be performed to remove the affected nodes. The contralateral axillary nodes are not involved in the drainage of the affected breast. The infraclavicular nodes primarily drain the forearm and hand, and are not commonly affected by breast tumour metastasis. The parasternal nodes are a potential site of metastasis from all quadrants of the breast, but do not play a major role in breast tissue lymphatic drainage.
The breast is situated on a layer of pectoral fascia and is surrounded by the pectoralis major, serratus anterior, and external oblique muscles. The nerve supply to the breast comes from branches of intercostal nerves from T4-T6, while the arterial supply comes from the internal mammary (thoracic) artery, external mammary artery (laterally), anterior intercostal arteries, and thoraco-acromial artery. The breast’s venous drainage is through a superficial venous plexus to subclavian, axillary, and intercostal veins. Lymphatic drainage occurs through the axillary nodes, internal mammary chain, and other lymphatic sites such as deep cervical and supraclavicular fossa (later in disease).
The preparation for lactation involves the hormones oestrogen, progesterone, and human placental lactogen. Oestrogen promotes duct development in high concentrations, while high levels of progesterone stimulate the formation of lobules. Human placental lactogen prepares the mammary glands for lactation. The two hormones involved in stimulating lactation are prolactin and oxytocin. Prolactin causes milk secretion, while oxytocin causes contraction of the myoepithelial cells surrounding the mammary alveoli to result in milk ejection from the breast. Suckling of the baby stimulates the mechanoreceptors in the nipple, resulting in the release of both prolactin and oxytocin from the pituitary gland (anterior and posterior parts respectively).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive System
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man is scheduled for a day surgery to remove a sebaceous cyst. However, he has a fear of needles and starts to hyperventilate as the surgeon approaches him with the needle. As a result, he experiences muscular twitching and circumoral paresthesia. What is the most probable reason for this occurrence?
Your Answer: Rise in serum PTH levels
Correct Answer: Reduction in ionised calcium levels
Explanation:Maintaining Calcium Balance in the Body
Calcium ions are essential for various physiological processes in the body, and the largest store of calcium is found in the skeleton. The levels of calcium in the body are regulated by three hormones: parathyroid hormone (PTH), vitamin D, and calcitonin.
PTH increases calcium levels and decreases phosphate levels by increasing bone resorption and activating osteoclasts. It also stimulates osteoblasts to produce a protein signaling molecule that activates osteoclasts, leading to bone resorption. PTH increases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium and the synthesis of 1,25(OH)2D (active form of vitamin D) in the kidney, which increases bowel absorption of calcium. Additionally, PTH decreases renal phosphate reabsorption.
Vitamin D, specifically the active form 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol, increases plasma calcium and plasma phosphate levels. It increases renal tubular reabsorption and gut absorption of calcium, as well as osteoclastic activity. Vitamin D also increases renal phosphate reabsorption in the proximal tubule.
Calcitonin, secreted by C cells of the thyroid, inhibits osteoclast activity and renal tubular absorption of calcium.
Although growth hormone and thyroxine play a small role in calcium metabolism, the primary regulation of calcium levels in the body is through PTH, vitamin D, and calcitonin. Maintaining proper calcium balance is crucial for overall health and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 23
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old falls in the garden. She arrives at the emergency department with left leg pain and is unable to bear weight. Upon examination, her left leg is shortened and externally rotated. An x-ray is conducted in the emergency department, revealing an intracapsular fracture of the left neck of femur. The medical team reviews the imaging and expresses concern about osteonecrosis of the femoral head.
Which artery's damage is the most concerning in this case?Your Answer: Lateral circumflex femoral artery
Correct Answer: Medial circumflex femoral artery
Explanation:The medial femoral circumflex artery is the primary supplier of blood to the femoral head. This artery wraps around the back of the femur to provide blood to the neck and head of the femur. In cases of femoral neck fractures, damage to this artery can occur, leading to a disruption of blood supply and resulting in osteonecrosis of the femoral head.
The deep femoral artery, also known as the profunda femoris, is a branch of the femoral artery that supplies the deep tissues of the thigh. It branches into the lateral and medial femoral circumflex arteries and the perforating arteries, but it does not directly supply the femoral head. It is not typically affected in cases of femoral neck fractures and is therefore not the correct answer.
The femoral artery is responsible for providing blood supply to the lower limb, but it does not directly supply the femoral head. It is not typically affected in cases of femoral neck fractures and is therefore not the correct answer.
The lateral femoral circumflex artery wraps around the front and side of the femur to supply the femoral neck and musculature on the lateral aspect of the thigh. While it does provide some blood supply to the femoral head, it is not the primary supplier and is therefore not the correct answer.
The popliteal artery is a continuation of the femoral artery at the adductor hiatus and supplies the knee, lower leg, and foot. It is not directly involved in the blood supply to the femoral head and is therefore not the correct answer.
Anatomy of the Femur: Structure and Blood Supply
The femur is the longest and strongest bone in the human body, extending from the hip joint to the knee joint. It consists of a rounded head that articulates with the acetabulum and two large condyles at its inferior aspect that articulate with the tibia. The superior aspect of the femur comprises a head and neck that pass inferolaterally to the body and the two trochanters. The neck meets the body of the femur at an angle of 125o and is demarcated from it by a wide rough intertrochanteric crest. The greater trochanter has discernible surfaces that form the site of attachment of the gluteal muscles, while the linea aspera forms part of the origin of the attachments of the thigh adductors.
The femur has a rich blood supply, with numerous vascular foramina existing throughout its length. The blood supply to the femoral head is clinically important and is provided by the medial circumflex femoral and lateral circumflex femoral arteries, which are branches of the profunda femoris. The inferior gluteal artery also contributes to the blood supply. These arteries form an anastomosis and travel up the femoral neck to supply the head. It is important to note that the neck is covered by synovial membrane up to the intertrochanteric line, and the posterior aspect of the neck is demarcated from the shaft by the intertrochanteric crest. Understanding the anatomy of the femur, including its structure and blood supply, is crucial for medical professionals in diagnosing and treating injuries and conditions related to this bone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 24
Incorrect
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As a busy surgical trainee on the colorectal unit, you have been tasked with reviewing the histopathology results for colonic polyps. Which type of polyp described below poses the highest risk of malignant transformation? Please note that this question is specifically for a trainee who is slightly older and more experienced.
Your Answer: Hyperplastic polyp
Correct Answer: Villous adenoma
Explanation:The risk of malignant transformation is highest in villous adenomas, while hyperplastic polyps pose little risk. Hamartomatous polyp syndromes may increase the risk of malignancy in patients, but the polyps themselves have low malignant potential.
Understanding Colonic Polyps and Follow-Up Procedures
Colonic polyps can occur in isolation or as part of polyposis syndromes, with greater than 100 polyps typically present in FAP. The risk of malignancy is related to size, with a 10% risk in a 1 cm adenoma. While isolated adenomas seldom cause symptoms, distally sited villous lesions may produce mucous and electrolyte disturbances if very large.
Follow-up procedures for colonic polyps depend on the number and size of the polyps. Low-risk cases with 1 or 2 adenomas less than 1 cm require no follow-up or re-colonoscopy for 5 years. Moderate-risk cases with 3 or 4 small adenomas or 1 adenoma greater than 1 cm require a re-scope at 3 years. High-risk cases with more than 5 small adenomas or more than 3 with 1 of them greater than 1 cm require a re-scope at 1 year.
Segmental resection or complete colectomy may be necessary in cases of incomplete excision of malignant polyps, malignant sessile polyps, malignant pedunculated polyps with submucosal invasion, polyps with poorly differentiated carcinoma, or familial polyposis coli. Screening from teenager up to 40 years by 2 yearly sigmoidoscopy/colonoscopy is recommended. Rectal polypoidal lesions may be treated with trans anal endoscopic microsurgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 25
Incorrect
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You are requested by your practice manager to inform patients with persistent pain about a minor study that is examining the effectiveness of a new painkiller. What clinical trial phase is probable for this?
Your Answer: Phase 4
Correct Answer: Phase 2
Explanation:The objective of phase 2 studies is to evaluate the effectiveness of drugs or devices in treating a specific disease. These trials involve testing the treatment on a group of patients with the condition of interest. In recent years, phase 0 trials have been introduced to accelerate drug development by allowing researchers to study how the drug behaves in humans. These trials involve administering microdoses of the drug, which do not produce any therapeutic effects and cannot provide data on safety or efficacy. Phase 1 trials are conducted on a small number of healthy volunteers to determine the appropriate dosage and potential side effects of the drug, as well as its pharmacodynamics and pharmacokinetics. Phase 3 trials also evaluate treatment efficacy, but on a much larger scale, involving a significant portion of the population.
Phases of Clinical Trials
Clinical trials are conducted to determine the safety and efficacy of new treatments or drugs. These trials are commonly classified into four phases. The first phase involves determining the pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics of the drug, as well as any potential side effects. This phase is conducted on healthy volunteers.
The second phase assesses the efficacy and dosage of the drug. It involves a small number of patients affected by a particular disease. This phase may be further subdivided into IIa, which assesses optimal dosing, and IIb, which assesses efficacy.
The third phase involves assessing the effectiveness of the drug. This phase typically involves a larger number of people, often as part of a randomized controlled trial, comparing the new treatment with established treatments.
The fourth and final phase is postmarketing surveillance. This phase monitors the long-term effectiveness and side effects of the drug after it has been approved and is on the market.
Overall, the phases of clinical trials are crucial in determining the safety and efficacy of new treatments and drugs. They provide valuable information that can help improve patient outcomes and advance medical research.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 26
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man undergoes a wide local excision for ductal carcinoma and is being evaluated for treatment based on the genetic profile of the tumour. What test is typically used to detect a mutated oncogene in this scenario?
Your Answer: Enzyme linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
Correct Answer: Polymerase chain reaction
Explanation:Reverse Transcriptase PCR
Reverse transcriptase PCR (RT-PCR) is a molecular genetic technique used to amplify RNA. This technique is useful for analyzing gene expression in the form of mRNA. The process involves converting RNA to DNA using reverse transcriptase. The resulting DNA can then be amplified using PCR.
To begin the process, a sample of RNA is added to a test tube along with two DNA primers and a thermostable DNA polymerase (Taq). The mixture is then heated to almost boiling point, causing denaturing or uncoiling of the RNA. The mixture is then allowed to cool, and the complimentary strands of DNA pair up. As there is an excess of the primer sequences, they preferentially pair with the DNA.
The above cycle is then repeated, with the amount of DNA doubling each time. This process allows for the amplification of the RNA, making it easier to analyze gene expression. RT-PCR is a valuable tool in molecular biology and has many applications in research, including the study of diseases and the development of new treatments.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 27
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman with a history of Crohn's disease is being seen at the gastroenterology clinic after experiencing a recent flare-up of her condition.
Due to her frequent exacerbations, the medical team suggests monoclonal antibody therapy to enhance disease management. The patient is informed that monoclonal antibody treatments are produced using foreign cells, which are frequently obtained from animals. The human body would typically generate antibodies against these cells, necessitating a procedure to prevent this from happening.
What is the name of this procedure?Your Answer: Humanising
Explanation:Humanising is a crucial step in reducing the immunogenicity of monoclonal antibodies that are derived from non-human sources. These antibodies are increasingly being used to treat various conditions by targeting specific molecules, inducing apoptosis, or modulating signal pathways. However, as they contain foreign cells, they can trigger an immune response in patients, leading to the production of antibodies against the antibodies. To prevent this, the process of humanising is performed, which involves combining the variable regions of mouse antibodies with a constant region from a human antibody.
Cloning, on the other hand, is a process of replicating cells or organisms with identical DNA. In monoclonal antibody production, a unique white blood cell is cloned to increase the production of antibodies. However, this process does not address the issue of immunogenicity.
Cell fusion or hybridisation is the technique of combining cells from different tissues or species. In the case of monoclonal antibodies, myeloma cells are fused with mouse spleen cells. This process of combining human and non-human cells can lead to immunogenic reactions.
Purification is the process of removing unwanted components from an agent. In monoclonal antibody production, it is used to remove cell culture media components once the antibodies have been produced. However, it does not prevent immunogenic reactions from occurring.
Monoclonal antibodies are becoming increasingly important in the field of medicine. They are created using a technique called somatic cell hybridization, which involves fusing myeloma cells with spleen cells from an immunized mouse to produce a hybridoma. This hybridoma acts as a factory for producing monoclonal antibodies.
However, a major limitation of this technique is that mouse antibodies can be immunogenic, leading to the formation of human anti-mouse antibodies. To overcome this problem, a process called humanizing is used. This involves combining the variable region from the mouse body with the constant region from a human antibody.
There are several clinical examples of monoclonal antibodies, including infliximab for rheumatoid arthritis and Crohn’s, rituximab for non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma and rheumatoid arthritis, and cetuximab for metastatic colorectal cancer and head and neck cancer. Monoclonal antibodies are also used for medical imaging when combined with a radioisotope, identifying cell surface markers in biopsied tissue, and diagnosing viral infections.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 10-year-old boy comes to the clinic complaining of an itchy right ear that has been bothering him for the past five days. During the examination, he winces in pain when the outer ear is touched. Can you identify which part of the ear is considered the outer ear?
Your Answer: Eustachian tube
Correct Answer: Pinna
Explanation:Earache: Types and Anatomy of the Ear
Earache can be categorized into two types: otitis media and otitis externa. Otitis media refers to the inflammation of the middle ear, while otitis externa is the inflammation of the outer ear and/or canal. Pain on touch or gentle pulling of the outer ear is commonly associated with otitis externa.
The outer ear is composed of the visible part of the ear, called the pinna, and the external auditory meatus near the tragus. The external auditory meatus extends from the pinna around 26 mm to the tympanic membrane. On the other hand, the middle ear reaches from the tympanic membrane to the oval window of the cochlea. This space contains three ossicles, namely the malleus, incus, and stapes, which transmit sound waves to the inner ear.
The inner ear is made up of the cochlea, which is responsible for hearing, and the vestibular apparatus, which helps maintain balance. The vestibular apparatus consists of three semicircular canals and the vestibule.
the anatomy of the ear and the different types of earache can help in identifying and treating ear problems. It is important to seek medical attention if experiencing ear pain or discomfort.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Sciences
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 44-year-old man presents to the emergency department with haematemesis and is referred for urgent endoscopy, which reveals a 1.5cm ulcer in the first portion of the duodenum. He has a history of generalised anxiety disorder, but takes no prescription or over the counter medications and has no known drug allergies. Lately, he has been experiencing increased fatigue and bloating. On examination, his abdomen is soft and non-tender, and he has no fever. What is the most probable cause of this man's ulcer?
Your Answer: Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
Correct Answer: Helicobacter pylori
Explanation:Duodenal ulceration can be caused by various factors, including Helicobacter pylori infection, regular use of NSAIDs, and Crohn’s disease. However, in this particular case, the most likely cause of the patient’s duodenal ulcer is Helicobacter pylori infection. This bacterium produces enzymes that neutralize stomach acid, allowing it to survive in the stomach and weaken the protective barrier of the stomach and duodenum. Contrary to popular belief, a high-stress job or spicy foods are not the cause of peptic ulcer disease, although they may exacerbate the symptoms. Regular use of NSAIDs is a strong risk factor for peptic ulcer disease, but the patient does not have any of the risk factors for NSAID-induced peptic ulcer disease. Crohn’s disease may affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract, but it is less likely to be the cause of this man’s duodenal ulcer. Diagnosis of duodenal ulceration can be done through serology, microbiology, histology, or CLO testing.
Helicobacter pylori: A Bacteria Associated with Gastrointestinal Problems
Helicobacter pylori is a type of Gram-negative bacteria that is commonly associated with various gastrointestinal problems, particularly peptic ulcer disease. This bacterium has two primary mechanisms that allow it to survive in the acidic environment of the stomach. Firstly, it uses its flagella to move away from low pH areas and burrow into the mucous lining to reach the epithelial cells underneath. Secondly, it secretes urease, which converts urea to NH3, leading to an alkalinization of the acidic environment and increased bacterial survival.
The pathogenesis mechanism of Helicobacter pylori involves the release of bacterial cytotoxins, such as the CagA toxin, which can disrupt the gastric mucosa. This bacterium is associated with several gastrointestinal problems, including peptic ulcer disease, gastric cancer, B cell lymphoma of MALT tissue, and atrophic gastritis. However, its role in gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) is unclear, and there is currently no role for the eradication of Helicobacter pylori in GORD.
The management of Helicobacter pylori infection involves a 7-day course of treatment with a proton pump inhibitor, amoxicillin, and either clarithromycin or metronidazole. For patients who are allergic to penicillin, a proton pump inhibitor, metronidazole, and clarithromycin are used instead.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastrointestinal System
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Which of the following muscles is not innervated by the ansa cervicalis?
Your Answer: Omohyoid
Correct Answer: Mylohyoid
Explanation:The muscles of the ansa cervicalis are: GenioHyoid, ThyroidHyoid, Superior Omohyoid, SternoThyroid, SternoHyoid, and Inferior Omohyoid. The mylohyoid muscle is innervated by the mylohyoid branch of the inferior alveolar nerve. A mnemonic to remember these muscles is GHost THought SOmeone Stupid Shot Irene.
The ansa cervicalis is a nerve that provides innervation to the sternohyoid, sternothyroid, and omohyoid muscles. It is composed of two roots: the superior root, which branches off from C1 and is located anterolateral to the carotid sheath, and the inferior root, which is derived from the C2 and C3 roots and passes posterolateral to the internal jugular vein. The inferior root enters the inferior aspect of the strap muscles, which are located in the neck, and should be divided in their upper half when exposing a large goitre. The ansa cervicalis is situated in front of the carotid sheath and is an important nerve for the proper functioning of the neck muscles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory System
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