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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man comes to the clinic with a rash that has spread all over his body. The rash is extremely itchy. The patient has a medical history of coeliac disease and asthma. Upon examination, the rash is symmetrical and present on the scalp, shoulders, elbows, and buttocks. It is made up of clusters of papules and vesicles on a red base, which seem to be somewhat scratched.
The blood tests reveal that the patient has anaemia caused by a lack of iron.
What is the most common association with this rash?Your Answer: HLA-B27
Correct Answer: HLA-DR3
Explanation:Dermatitis herpetiformis is commonly associated with HLA-DR3, as indicated by its appearance and its connection to coeliac disease. This condition is more prevalent in men than in women. While HLA-A3 is linked to haemochromatosis, it is not associated with dermatitis herpetiformis. Similarly, HLA-B27 is typically associated with ankylosing spondylitis and reactive arthritis, not dermatitis herpetiformis. HLA-B51 is linked to Behcet’s disease, but it is not commonly associated with dermatitis herpetiformis.
HLA Associations: Diseases and Antigens
HLA antigens are proteins encoded by genes on chromosome 6. There are two classes of HLA antigens: class I (HLA A, B, and C) and class II (HLA DP, DQ, and DR). Diseases can be strongly associated with certain HLA antigens. For example, HLA-A3 is associated with haemochromatosis, HLA-B51 with Behcet’s disease, and HLA-B27 with ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, and acute anterior uveitis. Coeliac disease is associated with HLA-DQ2/DQ8, while narcolepsy and Goodpasture’s are associated with HLA-DR2. Dermatitis herpetiformis, Sjogren’s syndrome, and primary biliary cirrhosis are associated with HLA-DR3. Finally, type 1 diabetes mellitus is associated with HLA-DR3 but more strongly associated with HLA-DR4, specifically the DRB1 gene (DRB1*04:01 and DRB1*04:04).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 2
Correct
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A 37-year-old woman presents with fatigue, weight gain and cold intolerance.
She has no past medical history and does not take any regular medications.
Her blood tests show the following:
Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) 15.0 mU/L (0.5 - 5.5)
Free thyroxine (T4) 7.5 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)
Thyroid peroxidase antibodies 120 IU/mL (<60)
Which type of receptor does the medication she agreed to start act on?Your Answer: Nuclear receptor
Explanation:Levothyroxine exerts its effects by binding to nuclear receptors, which leads to the regulation of gene transcription and translation. This process is slower compared to other signal transduction pathways but results in a more prolonged effect. In the case of primary hypothyroidism with raised anti-TPO antibodies, which is likely due to autoimmune thyroiditis (Hashimoto’s thyroiditis), levothyroxine is the standard treatment.
Other types of receptors include G-protein coupled receptors, such as opioid receptors and beta-adrenoceptors, which trigger a sequence of events leading to the production of secondary messengers and activation of further transduction pathways. Ligand-gated ion channel receptors, such as nicotinic acetylcholine receptors and GABA receptors, open channels upon activation, allowing specific ions to pass through the cell membrane.
Pharmacodynamics refers to the effects of drugs on the body, as opposed to pharmacokinetics which is concerned with how the body processes drugs. Drugs typically interact with a target, which can be a protein located either inside or outside of cells. There are four main types of cellular targets: ion channels, G-protein coupled receptors, tyrosine kinase receptors, and nuclear receptors. The type of target determines the mechanism of action of the drug. For example, drugs that work on ion channels cause the channel to open or close, while drugs that activate tyrosine kinase receptors lead to cell growth and differentiation.
It is also important to consider whether a drug has a positive or negative impact on the receptor. Agonists activate the receptor, while antagonists block the receptor preventing activation. Antagonists can be competitive or non-competitive, depending on whether they bind at the same site as the agonist or at a different site. The binding affinity of a drug refers to how readily it binds to a specific receptor, while efficacy measures how well an agonist produces a response once it has bound to the receptor. Potency is related to the concentration at which a drug is effective, while the therapeutic index is the ratio of the dose of a drug resulting in an undesired effect compared to that at which it produces the desired effect.
The relationship between the dose of a drug and the response it produces is rarely linear. Many drugs saturate the available receptors, meaning that further increased doses will not cause any more response. Some drugs do not have a significant impact below a certain dose and are considered sub-therapeutic. Dose-response graphs can be used to illustrate the relationship between dose and response, allowing for easy comparison of different drugs. However, it is important to remember that dose-response varies between individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man who is on tacrolimus, mycophenolate, and prednisolone for a previous kidney-transplant is planning to travel and seeks your advice on which vaccinations he can safely receive.
Which vaccine should be administered with caution to this patient?Your Answer: Intramuscular influenzae
Correct Answer: Yellow fever
Explanation:Yellow fever and intranasal influenzae vaccines are live attenuated, while hepatitis A and rabies vaccines are inactivated. Yellow fever vaccine should be used with caution in immune-deficient patients.
Vaccinations: Types and Precautions
Vaccinations are an important aspect of preventive healthcare. However, it is crucial to be aware of the different types of vaccines and their potential risks, especially for immunocompromised individuals. Live-attenuated vaccines, such as BCG, MMR, and oral polio, may pose a risk to these patients. In contrast, inactivated preparations, such as rabies and hepatitis A, and toxoid vaccines, such as tetanus and diphtheria, are safer options. Subunit and conjugate vaccines, which use only part of the pathogen or link bacterial polysaccharide outer coats to proteins, respectively, are also available for diseases like pneumococcus, haemophilus, meningococcus, hepatitis B, and human papillomavirus.
It is important to note that different types of influenzae vaccines are available, including whole inactivated virus, split virion, and sub-unit. Additionally, the cholera vaccine contains inactivated strains of Vibrio cholerae and the recombinant B-subunit of the cholera toxin. The hepatitis B vaccine is prepared from yeast cells using recombinant DNA technology and contains HBsAg adsorbed onto an aluminum hydroxide adjuvant.
In summary, vaccinations are an essential tool in preventing the spread of infectious diseases. However, it is crucial to understand the different types of vaccines and their potential risks to make informed decisions about vaccination.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 4
Correct
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A 25-year-old man has recently come back from travelling around South America, particularly Brazil. He reports experiencing fever and sweating every few days, along with a headache and joint pain. Upon further inquiry, he confesses to having multiple mosquito bites during his vacation. What is the probable pathogen responsible for his symptoms?
Your Answer: Plasmodium falciparum
Explanation:The patient is exhibiting symptoms that are characteristic of falciparum malaria, including fluctuating temperatures over a period of three days, arthralgia, headache, and sweating. The key piece of information in the patient’s history is their exposure to mosquito bites in an area where malaria is prevalent. Based on these factors, the likely causative organism is falciparum malaria.
Understanding Falciparum Malaria and its Complications
Falciparum malaria is the most common and severe type of malaria. It is characterized by schizonts on a blood film, parasitaemia greater than 2%, hypoglycaemia, acidosis, temperature above 39°C, severe anaemia, and various complications. Complications of falciparum malaria include cerebral malaria, acute renal failure, acute respiratory distress syndrome, hypoglycaemia, and disseminated intravascular coagulation.
In areas where strains resistant to chloroquine are prevalent, the 2010 WHO guidelines recommend artemisinin-based combination therapies (ACTs) as first-line therapy for uncomplicated falciparum malaria. Examples of ACTs include artemether plus lumefantrine, artesunate plus amodiaquine, artesunate plus mefloquine, artesunate plus sulfadoxine-pyrimethamine, and dihydroartemisinin plus piperaquine.
For severe falciparum malaria, a parasite count of more than 2% usually requires parenteral treatment regardless of clinical state. The WHO now recommends intravenous artesunate over intravenous quinine. If the parasite count is greater than 10%, exchange transfusion should be considered. Shock may indicate coexistent bacterial septicaemia, as malaria rarely causes haemodynamic collapse.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 5
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An 80-year-old man arrives at the emergency department after a fall at home resulting in a head injury. He has a medical history of atrial fibrillation and is taking warfarin for stroke prevention, with a target INR of 2.5. CT head reveals an acute subdural haemorrhage, and his INR is 5.5. As a healthcare provider, you opt to administer 5 mg of IV vitamin K. What is the mode of action of this medication?
Your Answer: Acts as a co-factor in the carboxylation of factors II, VII, IX and X
Explanation:To reverse the effects of warfarin and treat major bleeding, IV vitamin K should be administered as it acts as a cofactor in the carboxylation of clotting factors II, VII, IX, and X. Prothrombin complex concentrate or fresh frozen plasma may also be given. It is important to note that vitamin K is fat-soluble and its levels may decrease in conditions affecting fat absorption, such as obstructive jaundice. Additionally, it may take up to 4 hours for vitamin K to produce a reduction in INR when given to reverse the effects of warfarin. DOACs such as apixaban, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban directly inhibit factor Xa, while dabigatran works by directly inhibiting thrombin (factor IIa). Heparin, on the other hand, activates antithrombin III, which inactivates factor Xa and thrombin.
Understanding Vitamin K
Vitamin K is a type of fat-soluble vitamin that plays a crucial role in the carboxylation of clotting factors such as II, VII, IX, and X. This vitamin acts as a cofactor in the process, which is essential for blood clotting. In clinical settings, vitamin K is used to reverse the effects of warfarinisation, a process that inhibits blood clotting. However, it may take up to four hours for the INR to change after administering vitamin K.
Vitamin K deficiency can occur in conditions that affect fat absorption since it is a fat-soluble vitamin. Additionally, prolonged use of broad-spectrum antibiotics can eliminate gut flora, leading to a deficiency in vitamin K. It is essential to maintain adequate levels of vitamin K to ensure proper blood clotting and prevent bleeding disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 6
Incorrect
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An infant is born with exomphalos. What embryological structure is responsible for the development of this defective muscle layer in the abdominal wall?
Your Answer: Endoderm
Correct Answer: Mesoderm
Explanation:The mesoderm is responsible for the development of connective tissue and muscles.
Embryological Layers and Their Derivatives
Embryonic development involves the formation of three primary germ layers: ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm. Each layer gives rise to specific tissues and organs in the developing embryo. The ectoderm forms the surface ectoderm, which gives rise to the epidermis, mammary glands, and lens of the eye, as well as the neural tube, which gives rise to the central nervous system (CNS) and associated structures such as the posterior pituitary and retina. The neural crest, which arises from the neural tube, gives rise to a variety of structures including autonomic nerves, cranial nerves, facial and skull bones, and adrenal cortex. The mesoderm gives rise to connective tissue, muscle, bones (except facial and skull), and organs such as the kidneys, ureters, gonads, and spleen. The endoderm gives rise to the epithelial lining of the gastrointestinal tract, liver, pancreas, thyroid, parathyroid, and thymus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 7
Incorrect
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The school you teach at is on high alert after a suspected gas leak in the chemistry lab. Twenty five students have been evacuated from the building. The students are experiencing severe symptoms such as coughing, wheezing, and shortness of breath.
You are informed by the school administration that the most probable gas involved is chlorine gas.
What is the mode of action of chlorine gas?Your Answer: Sympathomimetic
Correct Answer: Inhibition of acetylcholinesterase
Explanation:The inhibition of acetylcholinesterase by sarin gas, a highly toxic synthetic organophosphorus compound, leads to an increase in acetylcholine (ACh) levels. This can cause various symptoms, which can be remembered using the acronym DUMBELLS: Diarrhoea, Urination, Miosis/muscle weakness, Bronchorrhea/Bradycardia, Emesis, Lacrimation, and Salivation/sweating. The treatment for organophosphate poisoning involves the use of the antimuscarinic drug atropine.
Understanding Organophosphate Insecticide Poisoning
Organophosphate insecticide poisoning is a condition that occurs when an individual is exposed to insecticides containing organophosphates. This type of poisoning inhibits acetylcholinesterase, leading to an increase in nicotinic and muscarinic cholinergic neurotransmission. In warfare, sarin gas is a highly toxic synthetic organophosphorus compound that has similar effects.
The symptoms of organophosphate poisoning can be predicted by the accumulation of acetylcholine, which can be remembered using the mnemonic SLUD. These symptoms include salivation, lacrimation, urination, defecation/diarrhea, cardiovascular issues such as hypotension and bradycardia, small pupils, and muscle fasciculation.
The management of organophosphate poisoning involves the use of atropine to counteract the effects of acetylcholine accumulation. The role of pralidoxime in treating this condition is still unclear, as meta-analyses to date have failed to show any clear benefit.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 8
Incorrect
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To investigate the correlation between different genetic loci and ankylosing spondylitis (AS), a genome-wide association study was conducted. The study recruited 2100 individuals diagnosed with AS and 5050 controls.
Out of the participants, 150 were found to have a particular single nuclear polymorphism (SNP) in the IL23R gene, with 100 of them having AS.
What is the odds ratio of individuals with the IL23R SNP developing AS compared to those without?Your Answer: 0.66
Correct Answer: 5
Explanation:Understanding Odds and Odds Ratio
When analyzing data, it is important to understand the difference between odds and probability. Odds are a ratio of the number of people who experience a particular outcome to those who do not. On the other hand, probability is the fraction of times an event is expected to occur in many trials. While probability is always between 0 and 1, odds can be any positive number.
In case-control studies, odds ratios are the usual reported measure. This ratio compares the odds of a particular outcome with experimental treatment to that of a control group. It is important to note that odds ratios approximate to relative risk if the outcome of interest is rare.
For example, in a trial comparing the use of paracetamol for dysmenorrhoea compared to placebo, the odds of achieving significant pain relief with paracetamol were 2, while the odds of achieving significant pain relief with placebo were 0.5. Therefore, the odds ratio was 4.
Understanding odds and odds ratio is crucial in interpreting data and making informed decisions. By knowing the difference between odds and probability and how to calculate odds ratios, researchers can accurately analyze and report their findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 9
Correct
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Phenytoin is a medication that can be administered intravenously to control seizures in status epilepticus. Additionally, phenytoin follows zero-order kinetics. If the rate of infusion is increased to the extent that the drug's plasma concentration triples, what effect would it have on the drug's elimination rate in a patient who is 65 years old?
Your Answer: Rate of excretion would remain unchanged
Explanation:Drugs that follow zero-order kinetics are excreted at a constant rate regardless of their concentration in the body. Therefore, increasing the concentration of the drug would not affect its excretion rate. For instance, the excretion rate of phenytoin would remain constant. It is important to note that increasing the excretion rate by three times would not be applicable as it pertains to first-order drug metabolism.
Pharmacokinetics of Excretion
Pharmacokinetics refers to the study of how drugs are absorbed, distributed, metabolized, and eliminated by the body. One important aspect of pharmacokinetics is excretion, which is the process by which drugs are removed from the body. The rate of drug elimination is typically proportional to drug concentration, a phenomenon known as first-order elimination kinetics. However, some drugs exhibit zero-order kinetics, where the rate of excretion remains constant regardless of changes in plasma concentration. This occurs when the metabolic process responsible for drug elimination becomes saturated. Examples of drugs that exhibit zero-order kinetics include phenytoin and salicylates. Understanding the pharmacokinetics of excretion is important for determining appropriate dosing regimens and avoiding toxicity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 10
Correct
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A 10-year-old girl with a peanut allergy ingests a candy bar containing nuts and experiences difficulty breathing. Her mother quickly administers an IM injection to her lateral thigh, resulting in rapid improvement. What is the mechanism of action of the drug used in the injection?
Your Answer: Via G protein-coupled receptors
Explanation:Adrenaline exerts its effects by binding to a G protein-coupled receptor located on the cell membrane. Other types of membrane receptors include ligand-gated ion channels and tyrosine kinase receptors. In contrast, steroid hormones bind to intranuclear receptors and modulate DNA transcription. Second messengers such as inositol triphosphate (IP3) bind to cytoplasmic or intracellular receptors.
Membrane receptors are proteins located on the surface of cells that receive signals from outside the cell and transmit them inside. There are four main types of membrane receptors: ligand-gated ion channel receptors, tyrosine kinase receptors, guanylate cyclase receptors, and G protein-coupled receptors. Ligand-gated ion channel receptors mediate fast responses and include nicotinic acetylcholine, GABA-A & GABA-C, and glutamate receptors. Tyrosine kinase receptors include receptor tyrosine kinase such as insulin, insulin-like growth factor (IGF), and epidermal growth factor (EGF), and non-receptor tyrosine kinase such as PIGG(L)ET, which stands for Prolactin, Immunomodulators (cytokines IL-2, Il-6, IFN), GH, G-CSF, Erythropoietin, and Thrombopoietin.
Guanylate cyclase receptors contain intrinsic enzyme activity and include atrial natriuretic factor and brain natriuretic peptide. G protein-coupled receptors generally mediate slow transmission and affect metabolic processes. They are activated by a wide variety of extracellular signals such as peptide hormones, biogenic amines (e.g. adrenaline), lipophilic hormones, and light. These receptors have 7-helix membrane-spanning domains and consist of 3 main subunits: alpha, beta, and gamma. The alpha subunit is linked to GDP. Ligand binding causes conformational changes to the receptor, GDP is phosphorylated to GTP, and the alpha subunit is activated. G proteins are named according to the alpha subunit (Gs, Gi, Gq).
The mechanism of G protein-coupled receptors varies depending on the type of G protein involved. Gs stimulates adenylate cyclase, which increases cAMP and activates protein kinase A. Gi inhibits adenylate cyclase, which decreases cAMP and inhibits protein kinase A. Gq activates phospholipase C, which splits PIP2 to IP3 and DAG and activates protein kinase C. Examples of G protein-coupled receptors include beta-1 receptors (epinephrine, norepinephrine, dobutamine), beta-2 receptors (epinephrine, salbuterol), H2 receptors (histamine), D1 receptors (dopamine), V2 receptors (vas
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 11
Incorrect
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Olivia is a 19-year-old female who has recently started college. She attends a party and has many alcoholic drinks and wakes the next morning with a severe headache. She puts this down to being hungover, however, by the next day the headache is worse and she has a widespread non-blanching purpuric rash. She attends the emergency department who suspect meningitis and would like to perform a lumbar puncture to obtain a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) sample. The doctor would like to take the sample from the cauda equina to avoid spinal cord injury, at which level does the spinal cord terminate?
Your Answer: T6/T7
Correct Answer: L1/L2
Explanation:CSF Analysis for Meningitis
Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis is an important diagnostic tool for meningitis. The appearance, glucose level, protein level, and white cell count in the CSF can provide clues to the type of meningitis present. Bacterial meningitis typically results in cloudy CSF with low glucose levels and high protein levels, along with a high number of polymorphs. Viral meningitis, on the other hand, usually results in clear or slightly cloudy CSF with normal or slightly raised protein levels and a high number of lymphocytes. Tuberculous meningitis may result in slightly cloudy CSF with a fibrin web and a high number of lymphocytes, along with low glucose and high protein levels. Fungal meningitis typically results in cloudy CSF with high protein levels and a high number of lymphocytes. In cases of suspected tuberculous meningitis, PCR may be used in addition to the Ziehl-Neelsen stain, which has low sensitivity. It is important to note that mumps and herpes encephalitis may also result in low glucose levels in the CSF.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 12
Correct
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An anaesthetist trainee administers neostigmine to a 60-year-old patient at the end of a brief surgical procedure to reverse the effect of a muscle relaxant. However, no effect is observed. Which of the following skeletal muscle relaxants may have been used during induction of anaesthesia?
Your Answer: Suxamethonium
Explanation:Suxamethonium is a type of skeletal muscle relaxant that causes depolarization. Unlike non-depolarizing agents such as tubocurarine, pancuronium, vecuronium, and rocuronium, it cannot be reversed by anticholinesterases because it is broken down by butyrylcholinesterase. Neostigmine, an anticholinesterase, prolongs the effects of acetylcholine by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase in the synaptic cleft, but it cannot reverse the effects of suxamethonium since it is not metabolized by acetylcholinesterase.
Cholinergic receptors are proteins found in the body that are activated by the neurotransmitter acetylcholine. They are present in both the central and peripheral nervous systems and can be divided into two groups: nicotinic and muscarinic receptors. Nicotinic receptors are ligand-gated ion channels that allow the movement of sodium into the cell and potassium out, resulting in an inward flow of positive ions. Muscarinic receptors, on the other hand, are G-protein coupled receptors that exert their downstream effect by linking with different G-proteins.
Nicotinic receptors are named after their binding capacity for nicotine, but they respond to acetylcholine. They are found in preganglionic neurons of the autonomic nervous system and at neuromuscular junctions. At preganglionic neurons, they create a local membrane depolarization through the movement of sodium into the cell, while at neuromuscular junctions, they initiate a wave of depolarization across the muscle cell. Muscarinic receptors are found in effector organs of the parasympathetic autonomic nervous system and are divided into five classes. They mediate various effects through different G-protein systems.
Cholinergic receptors can be targeted pharmacologically using agonists and antagonists. For example, muscarinic antagonist ipratropium can be used to induce bronchodilation in asthma or chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. In myasthenia gravis, an autoimmune disease, antibodies are directed against the nicotinic receptor on the neuromuscular junction, resulting in skeletal muscle weakness. Understanding the effects associated with each type of cholinergic receptor is important in understanding physiological responses to drugs and disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman injures her sympathetic trunk and experiences Horner's syndrome. When sympathetic pathways are damaged, Horner's syndrome can occur. Which receptors are associated with her symptoms?
Your Answer: Muscarinic acetylcholine receptors to the eye
Correct Answer: Muscarinic acetylcholine receptors of sudomotor neurons to the sweat gland
Explanation:Acetylcholine is exclusively present in the postganglionic sympathetic fibers that lead to sweat glands.
Although muscarinic receptors can be activated by the vagus nerve to the heart, this is a component of the parasympathetic nervous system.
Muscarinic acetylcholine receptors in the salivary glands and the eye are both instances of muscarinic acetylcholine receptors in the parasympathetic nervous system.
The neuromuscular junction employs nicotinic acetylcholine receptors, but this is not a part of the sympathetic nervous system.
Acetylcholine (ACh) is a crucial neurotransmitter in the somatic nervous system and plays a significant role in the autonomic nervous system. It is the primary neurotransmitter in all pre- and postganglionic parasympathetic neurons, all preganglionic sympathetic neurons, and postganglionic sympathetic fibers, including sudomotor neurons that regulate sweat glands. Acetylcholinesterase is an enzyme that breaks down acetylcholine. In conditions such as myasthenia gravis, where there is a deficiency of functioning acetylcholine receptors, acetylcholinesterase inhibitors are used.
In the central nervous system, acetylcholine is synthesized in the basal nucleus of Meynert. Alzheimer’s disease is associated with decreased levels of acetylcholine in the basal nucleus of Meynert. Therefore, acetylcholine plays a crucial role in the functioning of the nervous system, and its deficiency can lead to various neurological disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 14
Incorrect
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In a research facility, the replication of a heat-sensitive strain of Streptococcus pyogenes is being investigated. An inhibitor was introduced during gel electrophoresis to target an enzyme involved in DNA replication on the lagging strand. The results showed that replication on the leading strand proceeded without interruption, while replication on the lagging strand was fragmented.
What enzyme inhibitor was utilized in this study?Your Answer: Topoisomerase
Correct Answer: Ligase
Explanation:Ligase is responsible for connecting Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand to create a continuous strand during DNA replication. While the leading strand undergoes continuous replication, the lagging strand is replicated in fragments known as Okazaki fragments. DNA ligase is an enzyme that joins these fragments together to form a complete section of DNA on the lagging strand.
Helicase is a type of enzyme found in eukaryotes that unwinds double-stranded DNA during replication.
Primase is an RNA polymerase that creates RNA primers, which are necessary for DNA replication to begin.
RNase H is an enzyme that breaks down RNA primers during DNA replication.
DNA Replication in Prokaryotes vs Eukaryotes
DNA replication is the process by which genetic information is copied and passed on to the next generation of cells. In prokaryotes, DNA replication occurs in the cytoplasm, while in eukaryotes, it occurs in the nucleus. Additionally, prokaryotes have a single origin of replication, while eukaryotes have multiple origins.
During DNA replication, the double helix is unzipped by DNA helicase, creating a replication fork. Single-stranded binding proteins prevent the DNA from reannealing. DNA polymerase III elongates the leading strand in a 5′-3′ direction, while DNA polymerase I removes RNA primers and replaces them with DNA. DNA ligase seals up the fragments.
While the basic mechanisms of DNA replication are similar in prokaryotes and eukaryotes, there are some differences in the process. Understanding these differences can help researchers better understand the genetic processes of different organisms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 15
Correct
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A 19-year-old male has been diagnosed with tuberculosis. Which cells are accountable for engulfing the mycobacteria in the lung alveoli?
Your Answer: Macrophages
Explanation:Mycobacterium tuberculosis is transmitted through the air as aerosol particles. When inhaled, the bacteria enter the pulmonary alveoli where they are taken up by alveolar macrophages and begin to multiply. The infected macrophages then transport the bacteria to the hilar lymph nodes in an attempt to contain the infection.
Other types of cells do not take up the bacteria.
Understanding Tuberculosis: The Pathophysiology and Risk Factors
Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection caused by Mycobacterium tuberculosis. The pathophysiology of tuberculosis involves the migration of macrophages to regional lymph nodes, forming a Ghon complex. This complex leads to the formation of a granuloma, which is a collection of epithelioid histiocytes with caseous necrosis in the center. The inflammatory response is mediated by a type 4 hypersensitivity reaction. While healthy individuals can contain the disease, immunocompromised individuals are at risk of developing disseminated (miliary) TB.
Several risk factors increase the likelihood of developing tuberculosis. These include having lived in Asia, Latin America, Eastern Europe, or Africa for years, exposure to an infectious TB case, and being infected with HIV. Immunocompromised individuals, such as diabetics, patients on immunosuppressive therapy, malnourished individuals, or those with haematological malignancies, are also at risk. Additionally, silicosis and apical fibrosis increase the likelihood of developing tuberculosis. Understanding the pathophysiology and risk factors of tuberculosis is crucial in preventing and treating this infectious disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 3-year-old child presents to their pediatrician with severe perianal itching that is particularly worse at night. The child has no known medical conditions and has been healthy up until this point. The birth history was unremarkable, and the child is up to date with their vaccinations. There have been no developmental concerns.
After taking a thorough history, including asking about symptoms in other family members, the pediatrician uses the 'tape test' to make a diagnosis and prescribes appropriate treatment.
What is the most probable cause of the child's pruritus in this scenario?Your Answer: Echinococcus granulosus infection
Correct Answer: Enterobius vermicularis infection
Explanation:The most likely diagnosis for a 2-year-old child with perianal itching, especially at night, is Enterobius vermicularis infection, commonly known as pinworms. This is a common condition in young children and can cause discomfort and restlessness due to the itching around the anus.
The diagnosis can be confirmed through the tape test, where adhesive tape is applied around the anus of the child upon waking and then examined under a microscope for the presence of worms or their eggs. While haemorrhoids can also cause peri-anal itching, they are not the most probable diagnosis in this case, especially given the age of the child.
Echinococcus granulosus infection, which causes hydatid disease and cysts, is not a likely diagnosis for perianal itching. Perianal eczema is another possibility, but it would typically present with visible signs upon inspection, and the tape test would not be used for diagnosis.
Helminths are a group of parasitic worms that can infect humans and cause various diseases. Nematodes, also known as roundworms, are one type of helminth. Strongyloides stercoralis is a type of roundworm that enters the body through the skin and can cause symptoms such as diarrhea, abdominal pain, and skin lesions. Treatment for this infection typically involves the use of ivermectin or benzimidazoles. Enterobius vermicularis, also known as pinworm, is another type of roundworm that can cause perianal itching and other symptoms. Diagnosis is made by examining sticky tape applied to the perianal area. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.
Hookworms, such as Ancylostoma duodenale and Necator americanus, are another type of roundworm that can cause gastrointestinal infections and anemia. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles. Loa loa is a type of roundworm that is transmitted by deer fly and mango fly and can cause red, itchy swellings called Calabar swellings. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Trichinella spiralis is a type of roundworm that can develop after eating raw pork and can cause fever, periorbital edema, and myositis. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.
Onchocerca volvulus is a type of roundworm that causes river blindness and is spread by female blackflies. Treatment involves the use of ivermectin. Wuchereria bancrofti is another type of roundworm that is transmitted by female mosquitoes and can cause blockage of lymphatics and elephantiasis. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Toxocara canis, also known as dog roundworm, is transmitted through ingestion of infective eggs and can cause visceral larva migrans and retinal granulomas. Treatment involves the use of diethylcarbamazine. Ascaris lumbricoides, also known as giant roundworm, can cause intestinal obstruction and occasionally migrate to the lung. Treatment typically involves benzimidazoles.
Cestodes, also known as tapeworms, are another type of helminth. Echinococcus granulosus is a tapeworm that is transmitted through ingestion of eggs in dog feces and can cause liver cysts and anaphylaxis if the cyst ruptures
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 17
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After attending a picnic, Sarah experiences significant diarrhoea. It is suspected that her symptoms may be due to an Escherichia coli (E. coli) infection from undercooked food.
What is the suspected bacterium causing Sarah's symptoms?Your Answer: Gram-negative rod
Explanation:E. coli is a type of rod-shaped bacteria that is classified as a gram-negative facultative anaerobe. It has a thin layer of peptidoglycan and an outer layer of lipopolysaccharides. Pathogenic strains of E. coli can cause various infections in humans, including urinary tract infections, meningitis, and gastroenteritis.
Moraxella catarrhalis is an example of gram-negative cocci, which can be identified by its pink color after gram staining.
Campylobacter jejuni is a type of spiral-shaped gram-negative bacteria that can cause diarrhea and potentially lead to Guillain-Barré syndrome.
Staphylococcus aureus is an example of gram-positive cocci, which is a common cause of skin infections like impetigo.
Listeria monocytogenes is a type of gram-positive rod-shaped bacteria that can be found in unpasteurized dairy products and should be avoided by pregnant women.
Classification of Bacteria Made Easy
Bacteria are classified based on their shape, staining properties, and other characteristics. One way to simplify the classification process is to remember that Gram-positive cocci include staphylococci and streptococci, while Gram-negative cocci include Neisseria meningitidis, Neisseria gonorrhoeae, and Moraxella catarrhalis. To categorize all bacteria, only a few Gram-positive rods or bacilli need to be memorized, which can be remembered using the mnemonic ABCD L: Actinomyces, Bacillus anthracis (anthrax), Clostridium, Diphtheria (Corynebacterium diphtheriae), and Listeria monocytogenes.
The remaining organisms are Gram-negative rods, such as Escherichia coli, Haemophilus influenzae, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Salmonella sp., Shigella sp., and Campylobacter jejuni. By keeping these classifications in mind, it becomes easier to identify and differentiate between different types of bacteria.
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old female arrives at the emergency department with symptoms of fever, chills, headache, muscle aches, and difficulty breathing for the past 24 hours. During the medical interview, she recalls leaving her tampon in for approximately 48 hours after her last menstrual cycle. The medical team suspects staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome as the underlying cause of her symptoms.
What is the potential reason for her symptoms if this diagnosis is accurate?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: TSST-1 superantigen toxin
Explanation:Understanding Staphylococcal Toxic Shock Syndrome
Staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome is a severe reaction to staphylococcal exotoxins, specifically the TSST-1 superantigen toxin. It gained attention in the 1980s due to cases related to infected tampons. The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention have established diagnostic criteria for this syndrome, which includes fever, hypotension, a diffuse erythematous rash, desquamation of the rash (especially on the palms and soles), and involvement of three or more organ systems. These organ systems may include the gastrointestinal system, mucous membranes, kidneys, liver, blood platelets, and the central nervous system.
The management of staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome involves removing the source of infection, such as a retained tampon, and administering intravenous fluids and antibiotics. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if any of the symptoms of this syndrome are present.
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- General Principles
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man was admitted to the surgical team for an elective repair of an inguinal hernia. Before his surgery, he was prescribed subcutaneous enoxaparin injections for the prevention of venous thromboembolism. What is the mode of action of enoxaparin?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Binds to antithrombin III and inactivates Factor Xa
Explanation:Enoxaparin, a subcutaneously administered LMWH, activates antithrombin III to mainly inhibit Factor Xa. In contrast, unfractionated heparin activates antithrombin III to inhibit both Factors Xa and IIa. Warfarin works by inhibiting vitamin K, while aspirin inhibits the production of thromboxane A2.
Heparin is a type of anticoagulant medication that comes in two main forms: unfractionated heparin and low molecular weight heparin (LMWH). Both types work by activating antithrombin III, but unfractionated heparin forms a complex that inhibits thrombin, factors Xa, IXa, XIa, and XIIa, while LMWH only increases the action of antithrombin III on factor Xa. Adverse effects of heparins include bleeding, thrombocytopenia, osteoporosis, and hyperkalemia. LMWH has a lower risk of causing heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT) and osteoporosis compared to unfractionated heparin. HIT is an immune-mediated condition where antibodies form against complexes of platelet factor 4 (PF4) and heparin, leading to platelet activation and a prothrombotic state. Treatment for HIT includes direct thrombin inhibitors or danaparoid. Heparin overdose can be partially reversed by protamine sulfate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 20
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not a characteristic of Campylobacter jejuni infection?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pyrexia is unusual
Explanation:Before the onset of abdominal pain (which can resemble appendicitis) and diarrhea, there is a preliminary phase of fever and overall discomfort.
Campylobacter is a type of bacteria that is responsible for causing the majority of cases of infectious intestinal disease in the UK. It is a Gram-negative bacillus that is spread through the faecal-oral route and has an incubation period of 1-6 days. Symptoms of Campylobacter infection include a prodrome of headache and malaise, as well as diarrhoea that is often bloody and abdominal pain that may mimic appendicitis.
In most cases, Campylobacter infection is self-limiting and does not require treatment. However, the British National Formulary (BNF) recommends treatment with antibiotics if the symptoms are severe or if the patient is immunocompromised. Clinical Knowledge summaries also suggest antibiotics if the symptoms are severe, such as high fever, bloody diarrhoea, or more than eight stools per day, or if the symptoms have lasted for more than one week. The first-line antibiotic for Campylobacter infection is clarithromycin, although ciprofloxacin is an alternative. However, the BNF notes that strains with decreased sensitivity to ciprofloxacin are frequently isolated.
Complications of Campylobacter infection can include Guillain-Barre syndrome, reactive arthritis, septicaemia, endocarditis, and arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Which interleukin is accountable for the growth of B cells?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: IL-4
Explanation:The proliferation and differentiation of B cells is attributed to IL-4. Macrophages produce IL-1, an acute inflammatory protein. T cell proliferation is encouraged by IL-2. Myeloid cells undergo proliferation and differentiation due to IL-3.
Overview of Cytokines and Their Functions
Cytokines are signaling molecules that play a crucial role in the immune system. Interleukins are a type of cytokine that are produced by various immune cells and have specific functions. IL-1, produced by macrophages, induces acute inflammation and fever. IL-2, produced by Th1 cells, stimulates the growth and differentiation of T cell responses. IL-3, produced by activated T helper cells, stimulates the differentiation and proliferation of myeloid progenitor cells. IL-4, produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the proliferation and differentiation of B cells. IL-5, also produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the production of eosinophils. IL-6, produced by macrophages and Th2 cells, stimulates the differentiation of B cells and induces fever. IL-8, produced by macrophages, promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. IL-10, produced by Th2 cells, inhibits Th1 cytokine production and is known as an anti-inflammatory cytokine. IL-12, produced by dendritic cells, macrophages, and B cells, activates NK cells and stimulates the differentiation of naive T cells into Th1 cells.
In addition to interleukins, there are other cytokines with specific functions. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha, produced by macrophages, induces fever and promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. Interferon-gamma, produced by Th1 cells, activates macrophages. Understanding the functions of cytokines is important in developing treatments for various immune-related diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 22
Incorrect
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What is the most frequent chromosomal abnormality seen in individuals with Down's syndrome, and how does it occur?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nondisjunction
Explanation:Down’s Syndrome: Epidemiology and Genetics
Down’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that is caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21. The risk of having a child with Down’s syndrome increases with maternal age, with a 1 in 1,500 chance at age 20 and a 1 in 50 or greater chance at age 45. This can be remembered by dividing the denominator by 3 for every extra 5 years of age starting at 1/1,000 at age 30.
There are three main types of Down’s syndrome: nondisjunction, Robertsonian translocation, and mosaicism. Nondisjunction accounts for 94% of cases and occurs when the chromosomes fail to separate properly during cell division. Robertsonian translocation, which usually involves chromosome 14, accounts for 5% of cases and occurs when a piece of chromosome 21 attaches to another chromosome. Mosaicism, which accounts for 1% of cases, occurs when there are two genetically different populations of cells in the body.
The risk of recurrence for Down’s syndrome varies depending on the type of genetic abnormality. If the trisomy 21 is a result of nondisjunction, the chance of having another child with Down’s syndrome is approximately 1 in 100 if the mother is less than 35 years old. If the trisomy 21 is a result of Robertsonian translocation, the risk is much higher, with a 10-15% chance if the mother is a carrier and a 2.5% chance if the father is a carrier.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of feeling tired, gaining weight, and constantly feeling cold despite having the central heating on. She also reports feeling low. She has no significant medical history. After performing some blood tests, the doctor diagnoses her with a certain condition and starts her on the standard treatment. What is the target of this drug?
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) 11.6 mU/L (0.5-5.5)
Free thyroxine (T4) 5.4 pmol/L (9.0 - 18)Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nuclear receptors
Explanation:Levothyroxine exerts its effects by binding to nuclear receptors located within the nucleus of the cell. This requires the drug to be able to penetrate both the cell membrane and nuclear membrane. Once bound, levothyroxine can influence gene transcription.
G-protein coupled receptors (GPCRs) are not involved in levothyroxine mechanism of action. GPCRs are transmembrane receptors that activate secondary messenger pathways within the cell upon ligand binding. Examples of GPCRs include the adrenoreceptor family.
Ligand-gated ion channels are also not involved in levothyroxine mechanism of action. These receptors span the cell membrane and allow for the flow of ions when a ligand binds to them. The nicotinic acetylcholine receptor is an example of a ligand-gated ion channel.
Similarly, tyrosine kinase receptors are not involved in levothyroxine mechanism of action. These receptors lead to phosphorylation of targets within the cell and are exemplified by the insulin receptor.
Pharmacodynamics refers to the effects of drugs on the body, as opposed to pharmacokinetics which is concerned with how the body processes drugs. Drugs typically interact with a target, which can be a protein located either inside or outside of cells. There are four main types of cellular targets: ion channels, G-protein coupled receptors, tyrosine kinase receptors, and nuclear receptors. The type of target determines the mechanism of action of the drug. For example, drugs that work on ion channels cause the channel to open or close, while drugs that activate tyrosine kinase receptors lead to cell growth and differentiation.
It is also important to consider whether a drug has a positive or negative impact on the receptor. Agonists activate the receptor, while antagonists block the receptor preventing activation. Antagonists can be competitive or non-competitive, depending on whether they bind at the same site as the agonist or at a different site. The binding affinity of a drug refers to how readily it binds to a specific receptor, while efficacy measures how well an agonist produces a response once it has bound to the receptor. Potency is related to the concentration at which a drug is effective, while the therapeutic index is the ratio of the dose of a drug resulting in an undesired effect compared to that at which it produces the desired effect.
The relationship between the dose of a drug and the response it produces is rarely linear. Many drugs saturate the available receptors, meaning that further increased doses will not cause any more response. Some drugs do not have a significant impact below a certain dose and are considered sub-therapeutic. Dose-response graphs can be used to illustrate the relationship between dose and response, allowing for easy comparison of different drugs. However, it is important to remember that dose-response varies between individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 24
Incorrect
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As a medical student working in a general practice, a 63-year-old woman comes in with swelling in both legs. Which medication is the most probable cause of this symptom?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amlodipine
Explanation:Peripheral oedema is not a known side effect of aspirin, atorvastatin, or clopidogrel. Furosemide is a suitable treatment for peripheral oedema. On the other hand, amlodipine is frequently linked to peripheral oedema as a side effect.
Calcium channel blockers are a class of drugs commonly used to treat cardiovascular disease. These drugs target voltage-gated calcium channels found in myocardial cells, cells of the conduction system, and vascular smooth muscle. The different types of calcium channel blockers have varying effects on these areas, making it important to differentiate their uses and actions.
Verapamil is used to treat angina, hypertension, and arrhythmias. It is highly negatively inotropic and should not be given with beta-blockers as it may cause heart block. Side effects include heart failure, constipation, hypotension, bradycardia, and flushing.
Diltiazem is used to treat angina and hypertension. It is less negatively inotropic than verapamil, but caution should still be exercised when patients have heart failure or are taking beta-blockers. Side effects include hypotension, bradycardia, heart failure, and ankle swelling.
Nifedipine, amlodipine, and felodipine are dihydropyridines used to treat hypertension, angina, and Raynaud’s. They affect peripheral vascular smooth muscle more than the myocardium, which means they do not worsen heart failure but may cause ankle swelling. Shorter acting dihydropyridines like nifedipine may cause peripheral vasodilation, resulting in reflex tachycardia. Side effects include flushing, headache, and ankle swelling.
According to current NICE guidelines, the management of hypertension involves a flow chart that takes into account various factors such as age, ethnicity, and comorbidities. Calcium channel blockers may be used as part of the treatment plan depending on the individual patient’s needs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 25
Incorrect
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You are the foundation year one doctor who has been asked to clerk a 70 year old male patient presenting to the medical admissions unit. He has been referred to you from the emergency department following triage. He presented with worsening shortness of breath and lethargy. On questioning you find that four weeks ago he could walk one mile on the flat without becoming breathless. He is now breathless at rest. He has no significant past medical history.
You review the chart and find the patient to be tachycardic (110 beats per minute - irregular), hypotensive (90/52 mmHg) with a Himalayan appearance to his temperature chart. He has spiked three temperatures above 38ºC since admission. He has no peripheral stigmata of disease with a normal JVP. Upon auscultation you note the patient to have evidence of a 3/6 pan systolic murmur. There is also evidence of bibasal crackles.
You commence oxygen and fluids, insert a urinary catheter and conduct an arterial blood gas (ABG). What other feature of the sepsis six should be commenced before prescribing antibiotics?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blood cultures
Explanation:1. Intravenous fluids (such as normal saline)
2. Placement of a urinary catheter
3. Administration of oxygen
4. Measurement of lactate levels (through venous or arterial blood gas analysis)
5. Prescription of antibioticsUnderstanding Sepsis: Classification and Management
Sepsis is a life-threatening condition caused by a dysregulated host response to an infection. In recent years, the classification of sepsis has changed, with the old category of severe sepsis no longer in use. The Surviving Sepsis Guidelines now recognise sepsis as life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by a dysregulated host response to infection, while septic shock is a more severe form of sepsis. The term ‘systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)’ has also fallen out of favour, with quick SOFA (qSOFA) score being used to identify adult patients outside of ICU with suspected infection who are at heightened risk of mortality.
Management of sepsis involves identifying and treating the underlying cause of the patient’s condition, as well as providing support regardless of the cause or severity. NICE guidelines recommend using red flag and amber flag criteria for risk stratification. If any of the red flags are present, the ‘sepsis six’ should be started straight away, which includes administering oxygen, taking blood cultures, giving broad-spectrum antibiotics, giving intravenous fluid challenges, measuring serum lactate, and measuring accurate hourly urine output.
To help identify and categorise patients, the Sequential (Sepsis-Related) Organ Failure Assessment Score (SOFA) is increasingly used. The score grades abnormality by organ system and accounts for clinical interventions. A SOFA score of 2 or more reflects an overall mortality risk of approximately 10% in a general hospital population with suspected infection. Even patients presenting with modest dysfunction can deteriorate further, emphasising the seriousness of this condition and the need for prompt and appropriate intervention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl is taken to the pediatrician. Her father reports that she experiences wheezing and difficulty breathing when she is around their dog. Besides IgE, which complement proteins can trigger mast cells and basophils to produce allergic reactions?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: C3a and C5a
Explanation:Mast cells and basophils can be activated by various factors, including IgE, C3a and C5a, substance P released by local sensory nerves, and direct contact with pathogens.
Overview of Complement Pathways
Complement pathways are a group of proteins that play a crucial role in the body’s immune and inflammatory response. These proteins are involved in various processes such as chemotaxis, cell lysis, and opsonisation. There are two main complement pathways: classical and alternative.
The classical pathway is initiated by antigen-antibody complexes, specifically IgM and IgG. The proteins involved in this pathway include C1qrs, C2, and C4. On the other hand, the alternative pathway is initiated by polysaccharides found in Gram-negative bacteria and IgA. The proteins involved in this pathway are C3, factor B, and properdin.
Understanding the complement pathways is important in the diagnosis and treatment of various diseases. Dysregulation of these pathways can lead to autoimmune disorders, infections, and other inflammatory conditions. By identifying the specific complement pathway involved in a disease, targeted therapies can be developed to effectively treat the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man visits his doctor with complaints of dyspepsia. He is currently using NSAID medication to manage his acute migraine episodes. The doctor suggests switching to paracetamol for treating his acute migraine attacks.
What advantages would the patient experience by changing his acute migraine treatment?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Increases PGE2 (prostaglandin)
Explanation:The use of NSAIDs can lead to an increase in gastric acid secretion, which can contribute to dyspepsia. This is because NSAIDs reduce the production of PGE2, which normally helps to decrease gastric acid secretion. NSAIDs work by inhibiting the COX enzymes, which are responsible for converting arachidonic acid into endoperoxides, which then form PGE2. Therefore, stopping the use of NSAIDs can increase PGE2 production and decrease gastric acid secretion.
It is important to note that PGI2 is also a product of endoperoxides, but it does not impact gastric acid production. Instead, it causes vasodilation, reduces platelet aggregation, and decreases uterine tone. On the other hand, thromboxane A2 is another product of endoperoxides, but it causes vasoconstriction and increases platelet aggregation, without affecting gastric acid production.
It is incorrect to assume that inhibiting COX enzymes would cause a deficiency of arachidonic acid, as it is a precursor for prostaglandins and can be converted to endoperoxides by other enzymes. Additionally, NSAID use does not affect leukotriene production, as it is independent of the COX enzymes and causes bronchoconstriction, without impacting gastric acid production.
Arachidonic Acid Metabolism: The Role of Leukotrienes and Endoperoxides
Arachidonic acid is a fatty acid that plays a crucial role in the body’s inflammatory response. The metabolism of arachidonic acid involves the production of various compounds, including leukotrienes and endoperoxides. Leukotrienes are produced by leukocytes and can cause constriction of the lungs. LTB4 is produced before leukocytes arrive, while the rest of the leukotrienes (A, C, D, and E) cause lung constriction.
Endoperoxides, on the other hand, are produced by the cyclooxygenase enzyme and can lead to the formation of thromboxane and prostacyclin. Thromboxane is associated with platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction, which can lead to thrombosis. Prostacyclin, on the other hand, has the opposite effect and can cause vasodilation and inhibit platelet aggregation.
Understanding the metabolism of arachidonic acid and the role of these compounds can help in the development of treatments for inflammatory conditions and cardiovascular diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 9-year-old girl is taken to her doctor by her father with intense throat discomfort and is diagnosed with a probable bacterial throat infection. The doctor prescribes an antibiotic that specifically targets bacterial protein synthesis.
What is the name of the prescribed antibiotic?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Erythromycin
Explanation:Bacterial protein synthesis is the target of erythromycin.
Bacterial division is inhibited by ciprofloxacin through targeting DNA gyrase.
The production of bacterial cell wall is inhibited by penicillin through targeting the beta-lactam ring.
The activation of folic acid in susceptible organisms is inhibited by trimethoprim.
The mechanism of action of antibiotics can be categorized into inhibiting cell wall formation, protein synthesis, DNA synthesis, and RNA synthesis. Beta-lactams such as penicillins and cephalosporins inhibit cell wall formation by blocking cross-linking of peptidoglycan cell walls. Antibiotics that inhibit protein synthesis include aminoglycosides, chloramphenicol, macrolides, tetracyclines, and fusidic acid. Quinolones, metronidazole, sulphonamides, and trimethoprim inhibit DNA synthesis, while rifampicin inhibits RNA synthesis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old male comes to the clinic complaining of toothache that has been bothering him for two days. He is prescribed a new anti-inflammatory medication that works by preventing the conversion of arachidonic acid to endoperoxides.
What specific enzyme is likely being inhibited by this drug?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cyclooxygenase
Explanation:The metabolism of arachidonic acid involves several steps, with cyclooxygenase playing a key role in converting it to endoperoxides. Additionally, lipoxygenase is responsible for the conversion of arachidonic acid to hydroperoxyeicosatetraenoic acid (HPETEs), while phospholipase A breaks down phospholipids to release arachidonic acid. The end products of arachidonic acid metabolism include leukotrienes A4, B4, C4, D4, and E4.
Arachidonic Acid Metabolism: The Role of Leukotrienes and Endoperoxides
Arachidonic acid is a fatty acid that plays a crucial role in the body’s inflammatory response. The metabolism of arachidonic acid involves the production of various compounds, including leukotrienes and endoperoxides. Leukotrienes are produced by leukocytes and can cause constriction of the lungs. LTB4 is produced before leukocytes arrive, while the rest of the leukotrienes (A, C, D, and E) cause lung constriction.
Endoperoxides, on the other hand, are produced by the cyclooxygenase enzyme and can lead to the formation of thromboxane and prostacyclin. Thromboxane is associated with platelet aggregation and vasoconstriction, which can lead to thrombosis. Prostacyclin, on the other hand, has the opposite effect and can cause vasodilation and inhibit platelet aggregation.
Understanding the metabolism of arachidonic acid and the role of these compounds can help in the development of treatments for inflammatory conditions and cardiovascular diseases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- General Principles
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old man is seen in the emergency department by an emergency doctor and a medical student. The patient is HIV positive. The doctor tells the patient that his chest x-ray and blood results show that he has aspergillosis. He prescribes a course of amphotericin
The emergency doctor then asks you to explain the medication to the patient and answer any questions they may have.
Which one of the following pieces of information must you tell the patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amphotericin is a nephrotoxic drug
Explanation:Amphotericin is known to cause nephrotoxicity, which is an adverse effect. Additionally, hypokalaemia, hypomagnesaemia, and flu-like symptoms are other potential adverse effects. It should be noted that among antifungal agents, azoles are known to be toxic to the liver, while amphotericin is specifically associated with nephrotoxicity.
Antifungal agents are drugs used to treat fungal infections. There are several types of antifungal agents, each with a unique mechanism of action and potential adverse effects. Azoles work by inhibiting 14α-demethylase, an enzyme that produces ergosterol, a component of fungal cell membranes. However, they can also inhibit the P450 system in the liver, leading to potential liver toxicity. Amphotericin B binds with ergosterol to form a transmembrane channel that causes leakage of monovalent ions, but it can also cause nephrotoxicity and flu-like symptoms. Terbinafine inhibits squalene epoxidase, while griseofulvin interacts with microtubules to disrupt mitotic spindle. However, griseofulvin can induce the P450 system and is teratogenic. Flucytosine is converted by cytosine deaminase to 5-fluorouracil, which inhibits thymidylate synthase and disrupts fungal protein synthesis, but it can cause vomiting. Caspofungin inhibits the synthesis of beta-glucan, a major fungal cell wall component, and can cause flushing. Nystatin binds with ergosterol to form a transmembrane channel that causes leakage of monovalent ions, but it is very toxic and can only be used topically, such as for oral thrush.
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- General Principles
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