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  • Question 1 - A 30-year-old woman with a history of blood clots who takes warfarin has...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old woman with a history of blood clots who takes warfarin has just missed a period and has a positive pregnancy test. She is concerned about the potential harm to the developing fetus.
      Which fetal anomaly is linked to the administration of this medication while pregnant?

      Your Answer: Nasal hypoplasia

      Explanation:

      The Risks of Warfarin Use During Pregnancy

      Warfarin, a commonly used anticoagulant, is contraindicated during pregnancy due to its ability to cross the placental barrier and cause bleeding in the fetus. Its use during the first trimester, particularly between the sixth and ninth weeks, can lead to skeletal abnormalities such as nasal hypoplasia, limb abnormalities, and calcification of the vertebral column, femur, and heel bone. Other potential complications include low birthweight, developmental disabilities, and an increased risk of spontaneous abortion, stillbirth, neonatal death, and preterm birth. However, unfractionated heparin or low-molecular-weight heparin can be used as safer alternatives. While warfarin is not known to cause neural tube defects or cleft lip and palate, it is important to be aware of the potential risks associated with its use during pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
      28.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 57-year-old insulin-treated diabetic complains of severe burning pain in his feet, particularly...

    Correct

    • A 57-year-old insulin-treated diabetic complains of severe burning pain in his feet, particularly at night, pins and needles, and hyperaesthesia for several months. On examination his feet have normal pulses, sensation and reflexes.
      Select the single correct statement regarding his management.

      Your Answer: Duloxetine should be prescribed

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Painful Diabetic Neuropathy

      Painful diabetic neuropathy is a common complication of diabetes that can significantly impact a person’s quality of life. While there is no cure for neuropathy, there are several treatment options available to manage the symptoms.

      Improved diabetic control is the first line of defense in preventing the progression of neuropathy. However, it is important to note that good control doesn’t reverse neuropathy. In cases where diabetic control alone is not enough, medications such as duloxetine, amitriptyline, gabapentin, or pregabalin may be prescribed. These drugs are suggested by NICE as options for managing neuropathic pain.

      For localized neuropathy, capsaicin 0.0075% cream can be used. Tramadol may also be prescribed on a short-term basis while a patient awaits an appointment with a specialized pain service.

      In cases of Raynaud’s phenomenon, calcium antagonists are used. Epidural injections of local anesthetic and steroid may be used for acute sciatica. However, fluoxetine is not recommended as a treatment option.

      Overall, there are several treatment options available for managing painful diabetic neuropathy. It is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of action for each individual case.

      Managing Painful Diabetic Neuropathy: Treatment Options

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      24
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 63-year-old man with newly diagnosed chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) comes in...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man with newly diagnosed chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) comes in for a follow-up appointment. His FEV1 is 60% of the predicted value. He has successfully quit smoking and has been using a salbutamol inhaler as needed. However, he still experiences wheezing and difficulty breathing. There is no indication of asthma, eosinophilia, or FEV1 fluctuations.

      What would be the best course of action at this point?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Add a combined long-acting beta2-agonist and long-acting muscarinic antagonist inhaler

      Explanation:

      If a patient with COPD is still experiencing breathlessness despite using SABA/SAMA and doesn’t exhibit any features that suggest responsiveness to steroids or asthma, the recommended course of action according to the 2018 NICE guidelines is to introduce a combination of a long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA) and a long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA).

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated its guidelines on the management of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) in 2018. The guidelines recommend general management strategies such as smoking cessation advice, annual influenza vaccination, and one-off pneumococcal vaccination. Pulmonary rehabilitation is also recommended for patients who view themselves as functionally disabled by COPD.

      Bronchodilator therapy is the first-line treatment for patients who remain breathless or have exacerbations despite using short-acting bronchodilators. The next step is determined by whether the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness. NICE suggests several criteria to determine this, including a previous diagnosis of asthma or atopy, a higher blood eosinophil count, substantial variation in FEV1 over time, and substantial diurnal variation in peak expiratory flow.

      If the patient doesn’t have asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA) and long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA) should be added. If the patient is already taking a short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA), it should be discontinued and switched to a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA). If the patient has asthmatic features or features suggesting steroid responsiveness, a LABA and inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) should be added. If the patient remains breathless or has exacerbations, triple therapy (LAMA + LABA + ICS) should be offered.

      NICE only recommends theophylline after trials of short and long-acting bronchodilators or to people who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients who have optimised standard treatments and continue to have exacerbations. Mucolytics should be considered in patients with a chronic productive cough and continued if symptoms improve.

      Cor pulmonale features include peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, systolic parasternal heave, and loud P2. Loop diuretics should be used for oedema, and long-term oxygen therapy should be considered. Smoking cessation, long-term oxygen therapy in eligible patients, and lung volume reduction surgery in selected patients may improve survival in patients with stable COPD. NICE doesn’t recommend the use of ACE-inhibitors, calcium channel blockers, or alpha blockers

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 4 - A 45-year-old man underwent a right hemicolectomy for a Dukes' B colorectal carcinoma....

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man underwent a right hemicolectomy for a Dukes' B colorectal carcinoma. What is the most suitable tumour marker to be monitored during his regular check-ups?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CEA

      Explanation:

      Tumor Markers: Identifying Cancer through Blood Tests

      Tumor markers are substances produced by cancer cells or normal cells in response to cancer. These markers can be detected in blood, urine, or tissue samples and can help in the diagnosis, monitoring, and treatment of cancer. Here are some commonly used tumor markers and their significance:

      Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) is a glycoprotein involved in cell adhesion. It is usually present only at very low levels in the blood of healthy adults but is raised in some cancers, including colorectal, stomach, pancreatic, lung, breast, and medullary thyroid cancers. While it lacks specificity and sensitivity to establish a diagnosis of colorectal cancer, it is used to help identify recurrences after surgical resection.

      CA 19-9 (carbohydrate antigen 19-9) is secreted by some pancreatic tumors and is also elevated in gastric and hepato-biliary cancer. Its levels should fall when the tumor is treated, and rise again if the disease recurs.

      PSA (prostate-specific antigen) is a marker for prostate cancer, while urinary 5HIAA (5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid) is elevated in carcinoid tumors and AFP (alpha-fetoprotein) is elevated in non-seminomatous germ cell tumors and hepatocellular cancer.

      In conclusion, tumor markers play a crucial role in the diagnosis and management of cancer. However, it is important to note that elevated levels of these markers do not always indicate the presence of cancer and further testing is often required for confirmation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 5 - A 32-year-old patient is newly registered at a General Practice Surgery. The General...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old patient is newly registered at a General Practice Surgery. The General Practitioner notes that the patient has previously been under the care of a Community Team but has not had a health check for three years. Her father states that she had been experiencing some vomiting for one month, but this is currently being managed symptomatically with cyclizine, as a change in location causes her distress and disorientation.
      Which of the following is the best management option for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Encourage annual health checks to identify serious conditions

      Explanation:

      Improving Healthcare for People with Learning Disabilities

      People with learning disabilities often face barriers when accessing mainstream healthcare services. However, introducing health checks specifically for this group has led to the identification of previously undetected health conditions, including serious and life-threatening ones such as cancer, heart disease, and dementia. It is important to assess both physical and mental health, and medication should only be given with the patient’s consent or following a best interest decision. Medication should not be used as the sole treatment for challenging behavior without a proper assessment and clear reason for its use. Doctors should provide the same level of care to all patients, without making assumptions about quality of life or the appropriateness of medical and social care interventions. However, patients with learning disabilities may be exempt from national screening programs due to low uptake. Referral to a Community Learning Disability Team can also facilitate access to mainstream services and provide specialist assessment and intervention for issues such as challenging behavior and mental health problems.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurodevelopmental Disorders, Intellectual And Social Disability
      0
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  • Question 6 - A 67-year-old female has been experiencing fatigue, itching, and yellowing of her skin....

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old female has been experiencing fatigue, itching, and yellowing of her skin. She denies any rashes and doesn't feel feverish or unwell. Her medical history includes well-controlled type 2 diabetes, hypertension, rheumatoid arthritis, and diverticulosis. On examination, she has scleral icterus, a clear chest, normal heart sounds, a soft and non-tender abdomen, and no peripheral edema. Which medication is the most probable culprit for her current symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Gliclazide

      Explanation:

      Cholestasis is a known side effect of sulfonylureas, but not of ibuprofen, amlodipine, or senna.

      Side-Effects of Sulfonylureas

      Sulfonylureas are a class of medications used to treat type 2 diabetes by stimulating insulin secretion from the pancreas. However, like any medication, they can cause side-effects. The most common adverse effects of sulfonylureas are hypoglycaemic episodes, which are more common with long-acting preparations such as chlorpropamide. Another common side-effect is weight gain.

      In addition to these common side-effects, there are rarer adverse effects that can occur with sulfonylureas. One such effect is the syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion, which can lead to low sodium levels in the blood. Another rare side-effect is bone marrow suppression, which can cause a decrease in the production of blood cells. Sulfonylureas can also cause liver damage, specifically cholestatic liver injury. Finally, peripheral neuropathy, which is damage to the nerves that control movement and sensation in the limbs, can occur as a side-effect of sulfonylureas.

      It is important to note that not everyone who takes sulfonylureas will experience these side-effects, and some people may experience different side-effects than those listed here.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
      0
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  • Question 7 - A small study examines the age of patients diagnosed with hypertension. A total...

    Incorrect

    • A small study examines the age of patients diagnosed with hypertension. A total of 64 patients were analyzed. The average age was 55 years, with a standard deviation of 8 years. What is the standard error of the mean?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1.5

      Explanation:

      The formula to calculate the standard error of the mean is to divide the standard deviation by the square root of the number of patients. For example, if the standard deviation is 12 and there are 64 patients, the standard error of the mean would be 12 divided by the square root of 64, which equals 1.5.

      Understanding Confidence Interval and Standard Error of the Mean

      The confidence interval is a widely used concept in medical statistics, but it can be confusing to understand. In simple terms, it is a range of values that is likely to contain the true effect of an intervention. The likelihood of the true effect lying within the confidence interval is determined by the confidence level, which is the specified probability of including the true value of the variable. For instance, a 95% confidence interval means that the range of values should contain the true effect of intervention 95% of the time.

      To calculate the confidence interval, we use the standard error of the mean (SEM), which measures the spread expected for the mean of the observations. The SEM is calculated by dividing the standard deviation (SD) by the square root of the sample size (n). As the sample size increases, the SEM gets smaller, indicating a more accurate sample mean from the true population mean.

      A 95% confidence interval is calculated by subtracting and adding 1.96 times the SEM from the mean value. However, if the sample size is small (n < 100), a 'Student's T critical value' look-up table should be used instead of 1.96. Similarly, if a different confidence level is required, such as 90%, the value used in the formula should be adjusted accordingly. In summary, the confidence interval is a range of values that is likely to contain the true effect of an intervention, and its calculation involves using the standard error of the mean. Understanding these concepts is crucial in interpreting statistical results in medical research.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Evidence Based Practice, Research And Sharing Knowledge
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  • Question 8 - The mother of a 10-year-old boy with Down's syndrome wanted advice about what...

    Incorrect

    • The mother of a 10-year-old boy with Down's syndrome wanted advice about what sporting activities were safe for her child as she heard his neck is not as stable as other children's.

      Which is the SINGLE MOST appropriate piece of advice to be given?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He can play most sports, but specialised sports such as gymnastics require screening

      Explanation:

      Cervical Spine Injury in Sports

      Playing sports doesn’t increase the risk of cervical spine injury any more than the general population. In fact, specialised sports like gymnastics have protocols to screen for craniovertebral instability. There is no evidence to support the use of a neck brace for sports-related cervical spine injuries.

      However, individuals with Down’s syndrome may be at a higher risk of craniovertebral instability or myelopathy. Warning signs include neck pain, abnormal head posture, reduced neck movements, deterioration of gait, increased frequency of falls, increasing fatigability on walking, or deterioration of manipulative skills. If someone with Down’s syndrome presents with these symptoms, they should immediately stop participating in sports and seek urgent assessment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal Health
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  • Question 9 - What is an accurate epidemiological statement about prostate cancer? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is an accurate epidemiological statement about prostate cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lifetime risk of a prostate cancer diagnosis in the UK is 1 in 250 men

      Explanation:

      Prostate Cancer in England and Wales

      Approximately 10,000 men die of prostate cancer each year in England and Wales, making it the second leading cause of cancer deaths in men after lung cancer. The lifetime risk of a prostate cancer diagnosis in the UK is 1 in 14 men. However, one of the difficulties with investigating and diagnosing prostate cancer in older men is that as we age, most men have detectable prostate cancer. But, three-quarters of them will grow older and die of something else, and the prostate cancer itself will not impact their life expectancy.

      The five-year survival rate from prostate cancer in the UK is 81%, which is relatively high compared to other types of cancer. However, early detection and treatment are crucial for improving survival rates. Therefore, it is important for men to be aware of the symptoms of prostate cancer and to undergo regular screenings, especially if they are at higher risk due to factors such as age, family history, or ethnicity. By detecting prostate cancer early, men can receive timely treatment and improve their chances of survival.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
      0
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  • Question 10 - A 22-year-old woman comes to see you following the death of her mother...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman comes to see you following the death of her mother from cancer of the colon. She is anxious to know the risks of familial tendency, and would like access to her mother's records.

      You know this young woman was fathered by someone else (not her mother's husband) who still lives in the village, but this fact is unknown to her. Her mother stipulated before death that her records should be confidential.

      In accordance with the access to medical records act of 1990, which one of the following is correct?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: You may not charge a fee for access

      Explanation:

      Confidentiality of Deceased Person’s Information

      When dealing with the records of a deceased person, it is important to respect their wishes regarding the disclosure of information. If the deceased person had explicitly stated that certain information should remain confidential, or if the record contains sensitive information that the deceased person expected to remain private, then it must be kept confidential.

      However, if the mother of the deceased person requests that certain information be kept confidential, then the rest of the records can be released. It is up to the record holder to make a judgement call on whether the information could be harmful to the applicant or if it would identify a third party. In any case, it is crucial to handle the information with care and respect the wishes of the deceased person and their family.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Consulting In General Practice
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  • Question 11 - A 55-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner complaining that he has woken...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner complaining that he has woken up with a ‘wonky’ smile. On examination, the right side of his mouth is drooping; there is right-sided facial weakness and he cannot lift his eyebrow on the right. He has no vesicles in his ears or on his face and is otherwise well, with no other neurological findings.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Idiopathic Bell’s palsy

      Explanation:

      Facial Paralysis: Understanding the Causes and Symptoms

      Facial paralysis can be caused by a variety of factors, including stroke, brain tumours, and viral infections. The most common type of facial paralysis is Bell’s palsy, which is often idiopathic in nature. In Bell’s palsy, the brow is paralyzed due to a lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy. While the underlying cause is often unknown, viruses such as herpes simplex type 1 have been implicated. Other potential causes include mononeuropathy in diabetes or sarcoid, Lyme disease, and posterior fossa tumours.

      Fortunately, the majority of patients with Bell’s palsy recover significantly within six weeks to three months, with around 70% making a full recovery. Treatment typically involves prednisolone and vigilant eye care.

      It’s important to differentiate Bell’s palsy from other potential causes of facial paralysis, such as stroke or brain tumours. In a stroke, the brow would not be paralyzed due to an upper motor neuron lesion. While a posterior fossa tumour can cause facial palsy, it is less common than Bell’s palsy. Paralysis is a nonspecific diagnosis and not the best answer, while Ramsay Hunt syndrome is associated with the varicella-zoster virus and typically presents with concomitant shingles, which is not present in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
      0
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  • Question 12 - Which mental health disorder has the strongest and most established association with family...

    Incorrect

    • Which mental health disorder has the strongest and most established association with family history as a risk factor in the index case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Schizophrenia

      Explanation:

      Strongest and Most Established Link in Mental Health Disorders

      A family history is particularly associated with depressive disorder and schizophrenia. For schizophrenia, the average lifetime risk is about 5-10% among first-degree relatives of schizophrenics. However, monozygotic twin studies do not show 100% concordance, suggesting that environmental factors also play a part, although the nature of these is not clear.

      The cause of Asperger’s syndrome is unclear, and there is no known heredity involved. Similarly in OCD there is no clear familial link, although some studies have noted higher frequency of OCD in the first-degree relatives of children and adults with OCD.

      Borderline personality disorder is not inherited, although may be associated with traumatic early life experiences, particularly physical and sexual abuse in childhood.

      MRCGP questions may include options that are plausible but less appropriate than the correct answer. There may be genetic factors involved in OCD and Tourette’s, but the associations are complex and less clear cut than with schizophrenia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genomic Medicine
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  • Question 13 - Samantha is a 50-year-old woman with a history of breast cancer who had...

    Incorrect

    • Samantha is a 50-year-old woman with a history of breast cancer who had a mastectomy 3 months ago. You have been requested to conduct a routine surveillance mammogram after 3 months. The mammogram shows a small area of calcification. How would you manage this finding?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent referral to oncology

      Explanation:

      After a prostatectomy, the PSA level should be undetectable, meaning it should be less than 0.2ng/ml. If the PSA level is 2 after 3 months (even though it falls within the normal range for untreated patients), it is still considered significantly high and requires immediate referral to oncology for further examination.

      PSA Testing for Prostate Cancer

      Prostate specific antigen (PSA) is an enzyme produced by the prostate gland, and it is used as a tumour marker for prostate cancer. However, there is still much debate about its usefulness as a screening tool. The NHS Prostate Cancer Risk Management Programme (PCRMP) has published guidelines on how to handle requests for PSA testing in asymptomatic men. The National Screening Committee has decided not to introduce a prostate cancer screening programme yet, but rather allow men to make an informed choice.

      The PCRMP has recommended age-adjusted upper limits for PSA, while NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries suggest a lower threshold for referral. However, PSA levels may also be raised by other conditions such as benign prostatic hyperplasia, prostatitis, urinary tract infection, ejaculation, vigorous exercise, urinary retention, and instrumentation of the urinary tract.

      PSA testing has poor specificity and sensitivity, and various methods are used to try and add greater meaning to a PSA level, including age-adjusted upper limits and monitoring change in PSA level with time. It is important to note that digital rectal examination may or may not cause a rise in PSA levels, which is a matter of debate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Kidney And Urology
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  • Question 14 - An 80-year-old man presents for follow up of his hoarse voice, which he...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man presents for follow up of his hoarse voice, which he first noticed after attending a family gathering a month ago. Initially, a viral infection was suspected and he was given symptomatic advice. However, he reports that there has been no improvement in his symptoms and his voice remains hoarse. He quit smoking over 30 years ago and only drinks occasionally. He denies any cough or recent illness. His weight is stable and he has not experienced any hemoptysis. On examination, his ears, nose, and throat appear normal, as does his chest. What is the most appropriate management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer urgently to an ear, nose and throat specialist

      Explanation:

      Management of Persistent Hoarse Voice

      A persistent hoarse voice for over three weeks is a ‘red flag’ presentation and should prompt urgent action to investigate for a suspected cancer, such as laryngeal or lung cancer. Risk factors such as smoking history and alcohol history are important to consider but would not alter your management plan.

      NICE guidance on this changed slightly with the release of NG12. NICE advises that you should consider a suspected cancer pathway referral (for an appointment within 2 weeks) for laryngeal cancer in people aged 45 and over with persistent unexplained hoarseness.

      It is important to note that a normal basic examination is not sufficient to rule out a sinister underlying cause. Hoarseness can also be caused by pulmonary pathology, and if you have any suspicions that this may be the case, you should arrange an urgent chest x-ray.

      In summary, a persistent hoarse voice should be taken seriously and investigated promptly to rule out any potential underlying cancer or pulmonary pathology.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 15 - What is the most probable characteristic of asthma in children? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most probable characteristic of asthma in children?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Finger clubbing

      Explanation:

      Common Pediatric Respiratory Issues and Diagnostic Considerations

      Abnormal cry and stridor are indicative of potential laryngeal issues in children. When assessing for asthma, it is important to note that it is predominantly extrinsic in nature. During acute asthma episodes, relying on peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) may be unreliable due to poor technique. It is important to consider alternative diagnoses when a child presents with failure to thrive and clubbing, as these symptoms may suggest underlying health issues beyond respiratory concerns. By keeping these diagnostic considerations in mind, healthcare providers can more effectively identify and treat common pediatric respiratory issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Health
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  • Question 16 - A 27-year-old man presents with a persistent cough for the past 20 days...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man presents with a persistent cough for the past 20 days which initially started with a few days of cold symptoms. He describes it as ‘the worst cough I've ever had’. He has bouts of coughing followed by an inspiratory gasp. This is usually worse at night and can be so severe that he sometimes vomits. He is otherwise fit and well and confirms he completed all his childhood immunisations. Examination of his chest is unremarkable.

      What is the most suitable initial management for this likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Start a course of oral clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      If a patient presents with symptoms consistent with whooping cough within 21 days of onset, the recommended first-line treatment is a macrolide antibiotic such as clarithromycin or azithromycin. Starting treatment within this timeframe can reduce the risk of spread. It is not recommended to delay treatment or offer a booster vaccination as initial management. Doxycycline is not the first-line antibiotic for whooping cough.

      A vaccination programme for pregnant women was introduced in 2012 to combat an outbreak of whooping cough that resulted in the death of 14 newborn children. The vaccine is over 90% effective in preventing newborns from developing whooping cough. The programme was extended in 2014 due to uncertainty about future outbreaks. Pregnant women between 16-32 weeks are offered the vaccine.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 17 - A 65-year-old man with a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man with a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and benign prostatic hypertrophy complains of a burning pain in his feet that has been progressively worsening over the past few months. Despite taking duloxetine, he has not experienced any relief. Upon clinical examination, the only notable finding is reduced sensitivity to fine touch on both soles. What is the most appropriate initial course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pregabalin

      Explanation:

      Although amitriptyline is typically the preferred option, it is advisable to steer clear of it in this case due to the patient’s history of benign prostatic hyperplasia, which increases the risk of urinary retention.

      Diabetes can cause peripheral neuropathy, which typically results in sensory loss rather than motor loss. This can lead to a glove and stocking distribution of symptoms, with the lower legs being affected first. Painful diabetic neuropathy is a common issue that can be managed with medications such as amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. If these drugs do not work, tramadol may be used as a rescue therapy for exacerbations of neuropathic pain. Topical capsaicin may also be used for localized neuropathic pain. Pain management clinics may be helpful for patients with resistant problems.

      Gastrointestinal autonomic neuropathy is another complication of diabetes that can cause symptoms such as gastroparesis, erratic blood glucose control, bloating, and vomiting. This can be managed with medications such as metoclopramide, domperidone, or erythromycin, which are prokinetic agents. Chronic diarrhea is another common issue that often occurs at night. Gastroesophageal reflux disease is also a complication of diabetes that is caused by decreased lower esophageal sphincter pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 18 - A 50-year-old man is being seen in the psychiatric clinic after being referred...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man is being seen in the psychiatric clinic after being referred by his GP who has been struggling to manage his depression. The patient has a medical history of hypertension, high cholesterol, and depression, as well as a previous acute coronary syndrome one year ago. He reports that his mood has deteriorated and he is experiencing persistent suicidal thoughts. He denies any cognitive impairment, difficulty concentrating, or sleep disturbances. What guidance should be provided regarding his ability to drive?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Must not drive and must inform the DVLA

      Explanation:

      He is not allowed to drive and must notify the DVLA due to his depression and ongoing suicidal ideation.

      The DVLA has specific rules regarding psychiatric disorders for those who wish to drive group 1 vehicles such as cars and motorcycles. Those with severe anxiety or depression accompanied by memory problems, concentration problems, agitation, behavioral disturbance, or suicidal thoughts must not drive and must inform the DVLA. Those with acute psychotic disorder, hypomania or mania, or schizophrenia must not drive during acute illness and must notify the DVLA. Those with pervasive developmental disorders and ADHD may be able to drive but must inform the DVLA. Those with mild cognitive impairment, dementia, or mild learning disability may be able to drive but must inform the DVLA. Those with severe disability must not drive and must notify the DVLA. Those with personality disorders may be able to drive but must inform the DVLA. The rules for group 2 vehicles such as buses and lorries are stricter.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 19 - A 72-year-old man presents to his GP clinic complaining of persistent diarrhoea. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents to his GP clinic complaining of persistent diarrhoea. He has a medical history of gastro-oesophageal reflux disease.

      He was recently hospitalized for pneumonia and received IV antibiotics. While in the hospital, he developed watery diarrhoea, nausea, and abdominal discomfort. After a stool sample, he was prescribed a 10-day course of oral vancomycin and discharged home. However, his diarrhoea has not improved.

      Upon examination, he appears alert, his vital signs are normal, and his abdomen is non-tender.

      What would be the next course of treatment to consider?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Fidaxomicin

      Explanation:

      If initial treatment with vancomycin is ineffective against Clostridium difficile, the next recommended option is oral fidaxomicin, unless the infection is life-threatening.

      Based on the patient’s symptoms and medical history, it is likely that he has contracted Clostridium difficile infection due to his recent antibiotic use and possible use of proton-pump inhibitors. Therefore, oral fidaxomicin would be the appropriate second-line treatment option.

      Continuing with vancomycin would not be the best course of action, as fidaxomicin is recommended as the next step if vancomycin is ineffective.

      Using loperamide for symptom relief is not recommended in cases of suspected Clostridium difficile infection, as it may slow down the clearance of toxins produced by the bacteria.

      Piperacillin-tazobactam is not a suitable treatment option for Clostridium difficile infection, as it is a broad-spectrum antibiotic that can increase the risk of developing the infection.

      Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.

      To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 20 - A 44-year-old man is being evaluated on the psychiatric ward due to a...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old man is being evaluated on the psychiatric ward due to a worsening of his mental health condition. Upon admission, the patient was diagnosed with a major depressive disorder accompanied by hallucinations.

      Lately, the patient has been persistently expressing the belief that he is deceased. Consequently, he has ceased eating and is exhibiting signs of self-neglect. The patient has no known medical conditions other than his mental health problems.

      What is the name of the syndrome that this patient is experiencing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cotard syndrome

      Explanation:

      Cotard syndrome is a psychiatric disorder that is characterized by a person’s belief that they are dead or do not exist. This rare condition is often associated with severe depression or psychotic disorders and can lead to self-neglect and withdrawal from others. Treatment options include medication and electroconvulsive therapy.

      Capgras syndrome is a delusion of misidentification where patients believe that a loved one has been replaced by an identical impostor. This condition is typically associated with schizophrenia, but it can also occur in patients with brain trauma or dementia.

      Charles Bonnet syndrome is a visual disorder that causes patients with significant vision loss to experience vivid visual hallucinations. These hallucinations can be simple or complex, but patients are aware that they are not real and do not experience other types of hallucinations or delusions.

      De Clérambault syndrome, also known as erotomania, is a rare delusional disorder where patients believe that someone is in love with them, even if that person is imaginary, deceased, or someone they have never met. Patients may perceive messages from their supposed admirer through everyday events, such as number plates or television messages.

      Understanding Cotard Syndrome

      Cotard syndrome is a mental illness that is characterized by the belief that one is either dead or doesn’t exist. This rare disorder is often associated with severe depression and psychotic disorders. Patients with Cotard syndrome may stop eating or drinking as they believe it is not necessary. This delusion can be challenging to treat and can result in significant problems for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 21 - A 65-year-old male on long-term warfarin for atrial fibrillation visits the anticoagulation clinic....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male on long-term warfarin for atrial fibrillation visits the anticoagulation clinic. Despite maintaining a stable INR for the past 3 years on the same dose of warfarin, his INR is found to be 5.4. What is the most probable cause of this sudden change?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cranberry juice

      Explanation:

      St John’s Wort induces the P450 enzyme system, which results in a decrease in the INR instead of an increase.

      Understanding Warfarin: Mechanism of Action, Indications, Monitoring, Factors, and Side-Effects

      Warfarin is an oral anticoagulant that has been widely used for many years to manage venous thromboembolism and reduce stroke risk in patients with atrial fibrillation. However, it has been largely replaced by direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) due to their ease of use and lack of need for monitoring. Warfarin works by inhibiting epoxide reductase, which prevents the reduction of vitamin K to its active hydroquinone form. This, in turn, affects the carboxylation of clotting factor II, VII, IX, and X, as well as protein C.

      Warfarin is indicated for patients with mechanical heart valves, with the target INR depending on the valve type and location. Mitral valves generally require a higher INR than aortic valves. It is also used as a second-line treatment after DOACs for venous thromboembolism and atrial fibrillation, with target INRs of 2.5 and 3.5 for recurrent cases. Patients taking warfarin are monitored using the INR, which may take several days to achieve a stable level. Loading regimens and computer software are often used to adjust the dose.

      Factors that may potentiate warfarin include liver disease, P450 enzyme inhibitors, cranberry juice, drugs that displace warfarin from plasma albumin, and NSAIDs that inhibit platelet function. Warfarin may cause side-effects such as haemorrhage, teratogenic effects, skin necrosis, temporary procoagulant state, thrombosis, and purple toes.

      In summary, understanding the mechanism of action, indications, monitoring, factors, and side-effects of warfarin is crucial for its safe and effective use in patients. While it has been largely replaced by DOACs, warfarin remains an important treatment option for certain patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular Health
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  • Question 22 - What is an accurate statement about Pertussis Infection in children? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is an accurate statement about Pertussis Infection in children?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is infectious for at least 2 months after the termination of the coughing

      Explanation:

      Pertussis: Diagnosis and Symptoms

      Pertussis, commonly known as whooping cough, is most contagious during the first 7-14 days of the illness, which is called the catarrhal phase. During this phase, there is an increase in lymphocytes in the blood. Diagnosis of pertussis can be made by taking blood for pertussis serology or by isolating the organism from nasal secretions. It is important to note that an inspiratory whoop may not always be present, but complete apnoeic episodes can occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 23 - A 58-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed as suffering from lentigo maligna on...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman has recently been diagnosed as suffering from lentigo maligna on her face.
      Which of the following factors is most important in determining her prognosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Thickness of the lesion

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lentigo Maligna: Early Stage Melanoma

      Lentigo maligna is a type of melanoma that is in its early stages and is confined to the epidermis. It is often referred to as ‘in situ’ melanoma. This type of melanoma typically appears as a flat, slowly growing, freckle-like lesion on the facial or sun-exposed skin of patients in their 60s or older. Over time, it can extend to several centimetres and eventually change into an invasive malignant melanoma.

      To identify lentigo maligna, the ABCDE rule can be used. This rule stands for Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Colour variation, large Diameter, and Evolving. If there is a change in size, outline, colour, surface, contour, or elevation of the lesion, malignant change should be suspected. Lentigo maligna spreads via the lymphatics, and satellite lesions are commonly seen.

      The prognosis of lentigo maligna is directly related to the thickness of the tumour assessed at histological examination. The thickness is measured using the Breslow thickness or Clark level of invasion. The site of the lesion also affects the prognosis. Patients with lesions on the trunk fare better than those with facial lesions but worse than those with lesions on the limbs.

      In conclusion, understanding lentigo maligna is crucial in identifying and treating early-stage melanoma. Regular skin checks and following the ABCDE rule can help detect any changes in the skin and prevent the progression of lentigo maligna into invasive malignant melanoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 24 - A 14-year-old patient is admitted to the Emergency Department with abdominal pain, polyuria...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old patient is admitted to the Emergency Department with abdominal pain, polyuria and polydipsia which have particularly worsened over 72 hours. His parents called an ambulance when he became confused and unwell. After an initial workup, he is given a new diagnosis of type I diabetes and is found to be in diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). His father tells the admitting doctor that the patient’s maternal grandparents both have diabetes.
      Which of the following most reliably suggests that a patient presenting with diabetes has the type 1 variety?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: History of recent weight loss

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Factors that Differentiate Type I and Type II Diabetes

      Type I diabetes is characterized by the autoimmune destruction of pancreatic beta cells, which produce insulin. This results in absolute insulin deficiency, leading to the use of fat and muscle for energy and rapid weight loss. On the other hand, type II diabetes is associated with insulin resistance, but some insulin is still being produced and is at least partially effective. Factors that differentiate the two types include the presence of diabetic retinopathy, family history of diabetes, hypertriglyceridaemia, and onset age. Recent weight loss is a better predictor of type I diabetes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology
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  • Question 25 - A 65 year-old man comes to you with complaints of nasal blockage on...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 year-old man comes to you with complaints of nasal blockage on the right side for the past two months. He reports that it is now affecting his sleep. He denies any episodes of bleeding but has been experiencing postnasal drip. Upon examination, you observe a polyp on the right side and inflamed mucosa on both sides. What would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refer to ENT

      Explanation:

      A unilateral nasal polyp is a concerning symptom that requires immediate attention. While bilateral polyps are typically associated with rhinosinusitis, a unilateral polyp may indicate the presence of malignancy. Therefore, it is crucial to refer the patient to an ENT specialist for further evaluation.

      In cases where small bilateral nasal polyps are present, primary care treatment may involve saline nasal douching and intranasal steroids. However, if the polyps are causing significant obstruction, referral to an ENT specialist is necessary.

      Understanding Nasal Polyps

      Nasal polyps are a relatively uncommon condition affecting around 1% of adults in the UK. They are more commonly seen in men and are not typically found in children or the elderly. There are several associations with nasal polyps, including asthma (particularly late-onset asthma), aspirin sensitivity, infective sinusitis, cystic fibrosis, Kartagener’s syndrome, and Churg-Strauss syndrome. When asthma, aspirin sensitivity, and nasal polyposis occur together, it is known as Samter’s triad.

      The most common features of nasal polyps include nasal obstruction, rhinorrhoea, sneezing, and a poor sense of taste and smell. However, if a patient experiences unilateral symptoms or bleeding, further investigation is always necessary.

      If a patient is suspected of having nasal polyps, they should be referred to an ear, nose, and throat (ENT) specialist for a full examination. Treatment typically involves the use of topical corticosteroids, which can shrink polyp size in around 80% of patients. With proper management, most patients with nasal polyps can experience relief from their symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ear, Nose And Throat, Speech And Hearing
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  • Question 26 - In a certain population, the occurrence of Rett syndrome is one per 10...

    Incorrect

    • In a certain population, the occurrence of Rett syndrome is one per 10 000. A diagnostic test is being created for use in infancy, with a sensitivity of 90% and a specificity of 99.99%. What is the anticipated positive predictive value (PPV)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The PPV is 47.9%; negative predictive value (NPV) is greater than 99.99%

      Explanation:

      Understanding Positive and Negative Predictive Values in Diagnostic Testing

      When interpreting the results of a diagnostic test, it is important to understand the concepts of positive predictive value (PPV) and negative predictive value (NPV). PPV refers to the proportion of true positives among all positive test results, while NPV refers to the proportion of true negatives among all negative test results.

      To illustrate this, let’s consider a hypothetical example of a test for Rett syndrome. Out of a population of 1 million, 100 individuals have Rett syndrome. If the test has a sensitivity of 90% and a specificity of 99.99%, we can calculate the expected numbers of true positives, false positives, true negatives, and false negatives.

      Based on these calculations, we can determine that the PPV is 47.9%, meaning that less than half of all positive test results will be true positives. On the other hand, the NPV is greater than 99.99%, indicating that almost all negative test results will be true negatives.

      It is important to note that sensitivity and specificity are not the same as PPV and NPV. While sensitivity and specificity describe the accuracy of the test itself, PPV and NPV take into account the prevalence of the condition in the population being tested.

      In summary, understanding PPV and NPV can help clinicians and patients interpret the results of diagnostic tests and make informed decisions about further testing or treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Population Health
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  • Question 27 - You receive a call from the Coroner's officer regarding the sudden death of...

    Incorrect

    • You receive a call from the Coroner's officer regarding the sudden death of a patient you were treating. Upon reviewing your written report on the patient's care, you are summoned to appear in person at the Coroner's court to provide evidence, along with other healthcare professionals who also treated the patient. What is the purpose of this procedure?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inquest

      Explanation:

      Understanding Inquests

      An inquest is a public investigation into the circumstances surrounding a person’s death. It is held at a Coroner’s Court and aims to determine the who, where, when, and how of the death. As a healthcare professional, you may be required to attend an inquest to provide evidence about your involvement in the care of a patient who has died. It is important to note that an inquest is a legal proceeding, but it is not a criminal one. This means that it cannot assign blame or responsibility to a person or organization. Instead, its purpose is to gather information and establish facts. During an inquest, you may be questioned by a lawyer representing the patient, and there may be a jury and members of the press present. It is essential to be prepared and understand the process to ensure that you can provide accurate and helpful information.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • End Of Life
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  • Question 28 - A parent inquires about the likelihood of their 3-year-old child experiencing another febrile...

    Incorrect

    • A parent inquires about the likelihood of their 3-year-old child experiencing another febrile convulsion after being admitted for one.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 30%

      Explanation:

      Febrile convulsions are seizures that occur in otherwise healthy children when they have a fever. They are most common in children between the ages of 6 months and 5 years, affecting around 3% of children. Febrile convulsions usually occur at the onset of a viral infection when the child’s temperature rises rapidly. The seizures are typically brief, lasting less than 5 minutes, and are usually tonic-clonic in nature.

      There are three types of febrile convulsions: simple, complex, and febrile status epilepticus. Simple febrile convulsions last less than 15 minutes and are generalised seizures. Complex febrile convulsions last between 15 and 30 minutes and may be focal seizures. Febrile status epilepticus lasts for more than 30 minutes. Children who have had their first seizure or any features of a complex seizure should be admitted to paediatrics.

      Following a seizure, parents should be advised to call an ambulance if the seizure lasts longer than 5 minutes. Regular antipyretics have not been shown to reduce the chance of a febrile seizure occurring. If recurrent febrile convulsions occur, benzodiazepine rescue medication may be considered, but this should only be started on the advice of a specialist, such as a paediatrician. Rectal diazepam or buccal midazolam may be used.

      The overall risk of further febrile convulsions is 1 in 3, but this varies depending on risk factors for further seizure. These risk factors include age of onset under 18 months, fever below 39ÂșC, shorter duration of fever before the seizure, and a family history of febrile convulsions. Children with no risk factors have a 2.5% risk of developing epilepsy, while those with all three risk factors have a much higher risk of developing epilepsy, up to 50%.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Children And Young People
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  • Question 29 - Which of the following is not a recognized benefit of breastfeeding for infants...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not a recognized benefit of breastfeeding for infants under six months of age?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Improved infant weight gain

      Explanation:

      Breastfeeding is not acknowledged to result in enhanced weight gain.

      Advantages and Disadvantages of Breastfeeding

      Breastfeeding has numerous advantages for both the mother and the baby. For the mother, it promotes bonding with the baby and helps with the involution of the uterus. It also provides protection against breast and ovarian cancer and is a cheap alternative to formula feeding as there is no need to sterilize bottles. However, it should not be relied upon as a contraceptive method as it is unreliable.

      Breast milk contains immunological components such as IgA, lysozyme, and lactoferrin that protect mucosal surfaces, have bacteriolytic properties, and ensure rapid absorption of iron so it is not available to bacteria. This reduces the incidence of ear, chest, and gastrointestinal infections, as well as eczema, asthma, and type 1 diabetes mellitus. Breastfeeding also reduces the incidence of sudden infant death syndrome.

      One of the advantages of breastfeeding is that the baby is in control of how much milk it takes. However, there are also disadvantages such as the transmission of drugs and infections such as HIV. Prolonged breastfeeding may also lead to nutrient inadequacies such as vitamin D and vitamin K deficiencies, as well as breast milk jaundice.

      In conclusion, while breastfeeding has numerous advantages, it is important to be aware of the potential disadvantages and to consult with a healthcare professional to ensure that both the mother and the baby are receiving adequate nutrition and care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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  • Question 30 - A 19-year-old female seeks guidance as she has missed taking her Microgynon 30...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old female seeks guidance as she has missed taking her Microgynon 30 pills during a weekend trip. She usually remembers to take her pill but has missed days 10, 11, and 12 of her packet, and it is now day 13. Despite taking the day 13 pill this morning, she is worried about the possibility of pregnancy as she had unprotected sex while away. What is the best course of action to take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: No action needed but use condoms for next 7 days

      Explanation:

      The patient is protected for the next 7 days as she had taken the pill for 7 days in a row previously. According to the FSRH guidelines, emergency contraception is not required after taking seven consecutive pills. However, the guidelines suggest using condoms for the next 7 days in this scenario. Please refer to the provided link for more information.

      The Faculty of Sexual and Reproductive Healthcare (FSRH) has updated their advice for women taking a combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill containing 30-35 micrograms of ethinylestradiol. If one pill is missed at any time during the cycle, the woman should take the last pill, even if it means taking two pills in one day, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. No additional contraceptive protection is needed. However, if two or more pills are missed, the woman should take the last pill, leave any earlier missed pills, and then continue taking pills daily, one each day. She should use condoms or abstain from sex until she has taken pills for seven days in a row. If pills are missed in week one, emergency contraception should be considered if she had unprotected sex in the pill-free interval or in week one. If pills are missed in week two, after seven consecutive days of taking the COC, there is no need for emergency contraception. If pills are missed in week three, she should finish the pills in her current pack and start a new pack the next day, thus omitting the pill-free interval. Theoretically, women would be protected if they took the COC in a pattern of seven days on, seven days off.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Maternity And Reproductive Health
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Maternity And Reproductive Health (1/1) 100%
Metabolic Problems And Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
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