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Question 1
Incorrect
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As a third year medical student in an outpatient department with a dermatology consultant, you are evaluating a 27-year-old patient who is unresponsive to current hyperhidrosis treatment. The consultant suggests starting botox injections to prevent sweating. Can you explain the mechanism of action of botulinum toxin at the neuromuscular junction?
Your Answer: Antagonist to acetylcholine
Correct Answer: Inhibits vesicles containing acetylcholine binding to presynaptic membrane
Explanation:Botulinum Toxin and its Mechanism of Action
Botulinum toxin is becoming increasingly popular in the medical field for treating various conditions such as cervical dystonia and achalasia. The toxin works by binding to the presynaptic cleft on the neurotransmitter and forming a complex with the attached receptor. This complex then invaginates the plasma membrane of the presynaptic cleft around the attached toxin. Once inside the cell, the toxin cleaves an important cytoplasmic protein that is required for efficient binding of the vesicles containing acetylcholine to the presynaptic membrane. This prevents the release of acetylcholine across the neurotransmitter.
It is important to note that the blockage of Ca2+ channels on the presynaptic membrane occurs in Lambert-Eaton syndrome, which is associated with small cell carcinoma of the lung and is a paraneoplastic syndrome. However, this is not related to the mechanism of action of botulinum toxin.
The effects of botox typically last for two to six months. Once complete denervation has occurred, the synapse produces new axonal terminals which bind to the motor end plate in a process called neurofibrillary sprouting. This allows for interrupted release of acetylcholine. Overall, botulinum toxin is a powerful tool in the medical field for treating various conditions by preventing the release of acetylcholine across the neurotransmitter.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 22-year-old man is stabbed in the antecubital fossa and requires surgical exploration of the wound. During the operation, the surgeon dissects down onto the brachial artery and identifies a nerve medially. Which nerve is most likely to be identified?
Your Answer: Recurrent branch of median
Correct Answer: Median
Explanation:Anatomy and Function of the Median Nerve
The median nerve is a nerve that originates from the lateral and medial cords of the brachial plexus. It descends lateral to the brachial artery and passes deep to the bicipital aponeurosis and the median cubital vein at the elbow. The nerve then passes between the two heads of the pronator teres muscle and runs on the deep surface of flexor digitorum superficialis. Near the wrist, it becomes superficial between the tendons of flexor digitorum superficialis and flexor carpi radialis, passing deep to the flexor retinaculum to enter the palm.
The median nerve has several branches that supply the upper arm, forearm, and hand. These branches include the pronator teres, flexor carpi radialis, palmaris longus, flexor digitorum superficialis, flexor pollicis longus, and palmar cutaneous branch. The nerve also provides motor supply to the lateral two lumbricals, opponens pollicis, abductor pollicis brevis, and flexor pollicis brevis muscles, as well as sensory supply to the palmar aspect of the lateral 2 ½ fingers.
Damage to the median nerve can occur at the wrist or elbow, resulting in various symptoms such as paralysis and wasting of thenar eminence muscles, weakness of wrist flexion, and sensory loss to the palmar aspect of the fingers. Additionally, damage to the anterior interosseous nerve, a branch of the median nerve, can result in loss of pronation of the forearm and weakness of long flexors of the thumb and index finger. Understanding the anatomy and function of the median nerve is important in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect this nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 89-year-old man is brought to his primary care physician by his daughter who is worried about changes in his behavior following a stroke 10 weeks ago. The daughter reports that the man has gained 12 kg in the past 8 weeks and appears to be constantly putting household items in his mouth. He also struggles to identify familiar people and objects. During the appointment, the man mentions that his sex drive has significantly increased.
Which specific area of the brain has been affected by the lesion?Your Answer: Frontal lobe
Correct Answer: Amygdala
Explanation:Kluver-Bucy syndrome is often caused by bilateral lesions in the medial temporal lobe, including the amygdala. This can lead to symptoms such as hyperorality, hypersexuality, hyperphagia, and visual agnosia. Lesions in the cingulate gyrus can result in poor decision-making and emotional dysfunction, while frontal lobe lesions can cause changes in behavior, anosmia, aphasia, and motor impairment. Hippocampus lesions can lead to memory impairment, and thalamic lesions can result in sensory and motor dysfunction.
Brain lesions can be localized based on the neurological disorders or features that are present. The gross anatomy of the brain can provide clues to the location of the lesion. For example, lesions in the parietal lobe can result in sensory inattention, apraxias, astereognosis, inferior homonymous quadrantanopia, and Gerstmann’s syndrome. Lesions in the occipital lobe can cause homonymous hemianopia, cortical blindness, and visual agnosia. Temporal lobe lesions can result in Wernicke’s aphasia, superior homonymous quadrantanopia, auditory agnosia, and prosopagnosia. Lesions in the frontal lobes can cause expressive aphasia, disinhibition, perseveration, anosmia, and an inability to generate a list. Lesions in the cerebellum can result in gait and truncal ataxia, intention tremor, past pointing, dysdiadokinesis, and nystagmus.
In addition to the gross anatomy, specific areas of the brain can also provide clues to the location of a lesion. For example, lesions in the medial thalamus and mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus can result in Wernicke and Korsakoff syndrome. Lesions in the subthalamic nucleus of the basal ganglia can cause hemiballism, while lesions in the striatum (caudate nucleus) can result in Huntington chorea. Parkinson’s disease is associated with lesions in the substantia nigra of the basal ganglia, while lesions in the amygdala can cause Kluver-Bucy syndrome, which is characterized by hypersexuality, hyperorality, hyperphagia, and visual agnosia. By identifying these specific conditions, doctors can better localize brain lesions and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A young man presents with loss of fine-touch and vibration sensation on the right side of his body. He also shows a loss of proprioception on the same side. What anatomical structure is likely to have been damaged?
Your Answer: Right spinocerebellar tract
Correct Answer: Right dorsal column
Explanation:Spinal cord lesions can affect different tracts and result in various clinical symptoms. Motor lesions, such as amyotrophic lateral sclerosis and poliomyelitis, affect either upper or lower motor neurons, resulting in spastic paresis or lower motor neuron signs. Combined motor and sensory lesions, such as Brown-Sequard syndrome, subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord, Friedrich’s ataxia, anterior spinal artery occlusion, and syringomyelia, affect multiple tracts and result in a combination of spastic paresis, loss of proprioception and vibration sensation, limb ataxia, and loss of pain and temperature sensation. Multiple sclerosis can involve asymmetrical and varying spinal tracts and result in a combination of motor, sensory, and ataxia symptoms. Sensory lesions, such as neurosyphilis, affect the dorsal columns and result in loss of proprioception and vibration sensation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old male on the geriatric ward has been awakened by a headache. Later in the morning, he began to vomit. He has a history of prostate cancer, a stroke 3 years ago, and high blood pressure. During the examination, papilloedema was observed on fundoscopy.
What is the strongest association with this ophthalmic finding?Your Answer: Paraneoplastic syndrome
Correct Answer: Bilateral optic disc swelling
Explanation:Papilloedema is almost always present in both eyes.
Understanding Papilloedema
Papilloedema is a condition characterized by swelling of the optic disc due to increased pressure within the skull. This condition typically affects both eyes. During a fundoscopy, several signs may be observed, including venous engorgement, loss of venous pulsation, blurring of the optic disc margin, elevation of the optic disc, loss of the optic cup, and Paton’s lines.
There are several potential causes of papilloedema, including space-occupying lesions such as tumors or vascular abnormalities, malignant hypertension, idiopathic intracranial hypertension, hydrocephalus, and hypercapnia. In rare cases, papilloedema may be caused by hypoparathyroidism and hypocalcaemia or vitamin A toxicity.
It is important to diagnose and treat papilloedema promptly, as it can lead to permanent vision loss if left untreated. Treatment typically involves addressing the underlying cause of the increased intracranial pressure, such as surgery to remove a tumor or medication to manage hypertension.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 6
Correct
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A 6-year-old child has been in a car accident and has a fracture of the floor of the orbit. The surgeon you consulted is worried that one of the extra-ocular muscles may be trapped in the fracture site. Which muscle is most vulnerable?
Your Answer: Inferior rectus
Explanation:The correct muscle that is most at risk in a fracture of the floor of the orbit, also known as an orbital blowout fracture, is the inferior rectus muscle. This muscle is located above the thin plate of the maxillary bone that makes up the floor of the orbit, and is therefore more susceptible to being trapped in these types of fractures.
When the inferior rectus muscle becomes trapped in a blowout fracture, it can result in restricted eye movements and affect extra-orbital soft tissue. This type of fracture is known as a trapdoor fracture and is often associated with the oculocardiac reflex or Aschner phenomenon, which can cause symptoms such as bradycardia, nausea and vomiting, vertigo, and syncope.
It is important to note that the inferior oblique muscle is also commonly affected in these types of fractures, but it was not an option in this question. Additionally, levator palpebrae inferioris is not an actual muscle and is therefore a dummy answer. The muscle that raises the upper eyelid is actually called the levator palpebrae superioris.
Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.
In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with sudden onset left-sided weakness in his arm and leg, along with difficulty forming coherent sentences. The symptoms resolve after 40 minutes, and a diagnosis of transient ischaemic attack (TIA) is made. What investigation is most appropriate for identifying the source of the emboli responsible for the TIA?
Your Answer: CT Head
Correct Answer: Carotid artery doppler ultrasound
Explanation:A carotid artery doppler ultrasound is a recommended investigation for patients with a TIA to identify atherosclerosis in the carotid artery, which can be a source of emboli. This can be treated surgically with carotid endarterectomy. Brain MRI is useful for identifying areas of ischaemia in the brain, but cannot determine the source of emboli. CT Head is only recommended if an alternative diagnosis is suspected, and CT pulmonary angiogram is not useful for identifying arterial sources of emboli in ischaemic stroke.
A transient ischaemic attack (TIA) is a brief period of neurological deficit caused by a vascular issue, lasting less than an hour. The original definition of a TIA was based on time, but it is now recognized that even short periods of ischaemia can result in pathological changes to the brain. Therefore, a new ’tissue-based’ definition is now used. The clinical features of a TIA are similar to those of a stroke, but the symptoms resolve within an hour. Possible features include unilateral weakness or sensory loss, aphasia or dysarthria, ataxia, vertigo, or loss of balance, visual problems, sudden transient loss of vision in one eye (amaurosis fugax), diplopia, and homonymous hemianopia.
NICE recommends immediate antithrombotic therapy, giving aspirin 300 mg immediately unless the patient has a bleeding disorder or is taking an anticoagulant. If aspirin is contraindicated, management should be discussed urgently with the specialist team. Specialist review is necessary if the patient has had more than one TIA or has a suspected cardioembolic source or severe carotid stenosis. Urgent assessment within 24 hours by a specialist stroke physician is required if the patient has had a suspected TIA in the last 7 days. Referral for specialist assessment should be made as soon as possible within 7 days if the patient has had a suspected TIA more than a week previously. The person should be advised not to drive until they have been seen by a specialist.
Neuroimaging should be done on the same day as specialist assessment if possible. MRI is preferred to determine the territory of ischaemia or to detect haemorrhage or alternative pathologies. Carotid imaging is necessary as atherosclerosis in the carotid artery may be a source of emboli in some patients. All patients should have an urgent carotid doppler unless they are not a candidate for carotid endarterectomy.
Antithrombotic therapy is recommended, with clopidogrel being the first-line treatment. Aspirin + dipyridamole should be given to patients who cannot tolerate clopidogrel. Carotid artery endarterectomy should only be considered if the patient has suffered a stroke or TIA in the carotid territory and is not severely disabled. It should only be recommended if carotid stenosis is greater
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 8
Incorrect
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You have been summoned to attend to a patient on your ward due to concerns about his breathing and possible deterioration. The patient is 78 years old. He is only responsive to pain and his breathing rate is 6 breaths per minute. Upon examination, you observe that he has pinpoint pupils. The nerve responsible for innervating the muscle that causes pupil constriction, known as constrictor pupillae, is derived from which nerve?
Your Answer: Optic nerve
Correct Answer: Oculomotor nerve
Explanation:The correct answer is the oculomotor nerve, which is the third cranial nerve responsible for supplying motor innervation to four extra-orbital muscles and parasympathetic fibers to constrictor pupillae and ciliaris. The optic nerve is the second cranial nerve that carries visual information from the retina, while the trochlear nerve is the fourth cranial nerve that supplies the superior oblique extra-orbital muscle. The ophthalmic nerve is the first division of the trigeminal nerve that carries sensation from the orbit, upper eyelid, and forehead, and the abducens nerve is the sixth cranial nerve that supplies the lateral rectus extra-orbital muscle. The patient’s presentation is consistent with opioid overdose, which is characterized by reduced respiratory rate, altered conscious level, and pinpoint pupils. Intravenous naloxone can reverse opioid overdose.
Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.
In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 9
Correct
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A 35-year-old man presents with a gradual onset loss of feeling in his feet. His past medical history includes alcohol misuse.
Upper and lower limb motor examinations identify bilateral extensor plantar reflexes with absent knee jerks. Sensory examination identifies reduced sensation to vibration and proprioception distal to the elbows and knees, and reduced light touch sensation in a stocking distribution.
Blood tests:
Hb 118 g/L Male: (135-180)
Platelets 170 * 109/L (150 - 400)
MCV 112 fL (80 - 100)
Fasting blood glucose 4.5 mmol/L (3.9-5.6)
Serum vitamin B12 125 ng/L (190-950)
Serum folate 2.3 ng/ml (2.7-17.0)
Which affected areas of the nervous system are causing his symptoms?Your Answer: Lateral corticospinal tracts and dorsal columns
Explanation:The patient is suffering from subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord, which affects the dorsal columns and lateral corticospinal tracts. This condition is often caused by a vitamin B12 deficiency resulting from alcohol misuse. The patient’s examination reveals upper motor neuron signs, reduced proprioception, and vibration sense. The anterior corticospinal tract, anterior spinocerebellar tract, anterior spinothalamic pathway, and lateral spinothalamic pathway are all unaffected by this condition.
Subacute Combined Degeneration of Spinal Cord
Subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord is a condition that occurs due to a deficiency of vitamin B12. The dorsal columns and lateral corticospinal tracts are affected, leading to the loss of joint position and vibration sense. The first symptoms are usually distal paraesthesia, followed by the development of upper motor neuron signs in the legs, such as extensor plantars, brisk knee reflexes, and absent ankle jerks. If left untreated, stiffness and weakness may persist.
This condition is a serious concern and requires prompt medical attention. It is important to maintain a healthy diet that includes sufficient amounts of vitamin B12 to prevent the development of subacute combined degeneration of spinal cord.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a suspected heroin overdose. Her Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score is 9, with only eye opening to trapezial squeeze and incoherent speech with inappropriate words. During her evaluation, the physician orders an arterial blood gas test.
What are the expected arterial blood gas results in this situation?Your Answer: Partially compensated respiratory alkalosis
Correct Answer: Uncompensated respiratory acidosis
Explanation:Respiratory acidosis can occur as a result of opioid overdose due to the depression of the central nervous system, which leads to a reduction in respiratory rate. This causes an accumulation of carbon dioxide in the blood, resulting in the formation of carbonic acid and a subsequent decrease in blood pH.
It is unlikely that the respiratory acidosis in an acute opioid overdose would be compensated by the kidneys within the short time frame. Therefore, a normal arterial blood gas (ABG) result would be incorrect.
Partially compensated respiratory acidosis is also unlikely in this case, as the patient’s respiratory acidosis is unlikely to have been compensated at this stage.
However, partially compensated respiratory alkalosis may occur if the patient has an increased respiratory rate. This leads to a decrease in carbon dioxide levels in the blood, resulting in an alkalotic state. Over time, the bicarbonate levels in the blood will decrease to correct the pH.
Understanding Opioids: Types, Receptors, and Clinical Uses
Opioids are a class of chemical compounds that act upon opioid receptors located within the central nervous system (CNS). These receptors are G-protein coupled receptors that have numerous actions throughout the body. There are three clinically relevant groups of opioid receptors: mu (µ), kappa (κ), and delta (δ) receptors. Endogenous opioids, such as endorphins, dynorphins, and enkephalins, are produced by specific cells within the CNS and their actions depend on whether µ-receptors or δ-receptors and κ-receptors are their main target.
Drugs targeted at opioid receptors are the largest group of analgesic drugs and form the second and third steps of the WHO pain ladder of managing analgesia. The choice of which opioid drug to use depends on the patient’s needs and the clinical scenario. The first step of the pain ladder involves non-opioids such as paracetamol and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. The second step involves weak opioids such as codeine and tramadol, while the third step involves strong opioids such as morphine, oxycodone, methadone, and fentanyl.
The strength, routes of administration, common uses, and significant side effects of these opioid drugs vary. Weak opioids have moderate analgesic effects without exposing the patient to as many serious adverse effects associated with strong opioids. Strong opioids have powerful analgesic effects but are also more liable to cause opioid-related side effects such as sedation, respiratory depression, constipation, urinary retention, and addiction. The sedative effects of opioids are also useful in anesthesia with potent drugs used as part of induction of a general anesthetic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 11
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman visits her GP after observing alterations in her facial appearance. She realized that the left side of her face was sagging that morning, and she couldn't entirely shut her left eye, and her smile was uneven. She is healthy and not taking any other medications. During the examination of her facial nerve, you observe that the left facial nerve has a complete lower motor neuron paralysis. What is the probable reason for this?
Your Answer: Bell's palsy
Explanation:Bells palsy is believed to be caused by inflammation, which leads to swelling and compression of the facial nerve. This results in one-sided paralysis, with the most noticeable symptom being drooping of the mouth corner. The onset of symptoms occurs within 1-3 days and typically resolves within 1-3 months. It is more prevalent in individuals over the age of 40, and while most people recover, some may experience weakness.
Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It typically affects individuals between the ages of 20 and 40, and is more common in pregnant women. The condition is characterized by a lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy that affects the forehead, while sparing the upper face. Patients may also experience postauricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.
The management of Bell’s palsy has been a topic of debate, with various treatment options proposed in the past. However, there is now consensus that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, with some experts recommending it for severe cases. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients may need to use artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eye at bedtime, they should tape it closed using microporous tape.
Follow-up is essential for patients who show no improvement after three weeks, as they may require urgent referral to ENT. Those with more long-standing weakness may benefit from a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within three to four months. However, untreated cases can result in permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 12
Correct
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A 45-year-old man arrives at the emergency department after being hit by a car while crossing the road. According to the paramedics, he was conscious at the scene but his level of consciousness deteriorated during transport. He is currently only responsive to voice and answering in single words. After stabilizing him, a CT scan of the head is urgently requested, which reveals an extradural hemorrhage. One of the common causes of this type of hemorrhage is the rupture of the middle meningeal artery. This artery runs along the deep surface of the cranium, with its anterior division located near which point on the cranium?
Your Answer: Pterion
Explanation:The pterion is the correct answer, as all of the options are anatomical points on the cranium. The pterion is located in the temporal fossa and marks the junction of four cranial bones. It is a weak area of the skull and a fracture at this site can cause a haemorrhage due to the middle meningeal artery running deep to it. The asterion is where three cranial bones meet, while the lambda is where two cranial bones meet and is the site of the posterior fontanelle in newborns. The bregma is where two cranial bones meet and is the site of the anterior fontanelle during infancy. The nasion is where the nasion bones meet the frontal bones. Extradural haemorrhage is bleeding between the dura mater and the skull, often caused by rupture of the middle meningeal artery following head trauma. It typically presents in older patients with a lucid interval between the head injury and neurological deterioration.
The Middle Meningeal Artery: Anatomy and Clinical Significance
The middle meningeal artery is a branch of the maxillary artery, which is one of the two terminal branches of the external carotid artery. It is the largest of the three arteries that supply the meninges, the outermost layer of the brain. The artery runs through the foramen spinosum and supplies the dura mater. It is located beneath the pterion, where the skull is thin, making it vulnerable to injury. Rupture of the artery can lead to an Extradural hematoma.
In the dry cranium, the middle meningeal artery creates a deep indentation in the calvarium. It is intimately associated with the auriculotemporal nerve, which wraps around the artery. This makes the two structures easily identifiable in the dissection of human cadavers and also easily damaged in surgery.
Overall, understanding the anatomy and clinical significance of the middle meningeal artery is important for medical professionals, particularly those involved in neurosurgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 53-year-old man with long-standing diabetes presents to the ophthalmologist with a gradual painless decrease in central vision in his left eye.
During fundus examination, the ophthalmologist observes venous beading, cotton wool spots, and thin, disorganized blood vessels.
What is the most suitable course of treatment for this individual?Your Answer: Photodynamic therapy
Correct Answer: Panretinal laser photocoagulation
Explanation:The recommended treatment for proliferative retinopathy is panretinal laser photocoagulation, which involves using a laser to induce regression of new blood vessels in the retina. This treatment is effective because it reduces the release of vasoproliferative mediators that are released by hypoxic retinal vessels. Other treatments, such as vitrectomy, 360 selective laser trabeculoplasty, photodynamic therapy, and cataract surgery, are not appropriate for this condition.
Understanding Diabetic Retinopathy
Diabetic retinopathy is a leading cause of blindness in adults aged 35-65 years-old. The condition is caused by hyperglycaemia, which leads to abnormal metabolism in the retinal vessel walls, causing damage to endothelial cells and pericytes. This damage leads to increased vascular permeability, which causes exudates seen on fundoscopy. Pericyte dysfunction predisposes to the formation of microaneurysms, while neovascularization is caused by the production of growth factors in response to retinal ischaemia.
Patients with diabetic retinopathy are typically classified into those with non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR), proliferative retinopathy (PDR), and maculopathy. NPDR is further classified into mild, moderate, and severe, depending on the presence of microaneurysms, blot haemorrhages, hard exudates, cotton wool spots, venous beading/looping, and intraretinal microvascular abnormalities. PDR is characterized by retinal neovascularization, which may lead to vitreous haemorrhage, and fibrous tissue forming anterior to the retinal disc. Maculopathy is based on location rather than severity and is more common in Type II DM.
Management of diabetic retinopathy involves optimizing glycaemic control, blood pressure, and hyperlipidemia, as well as regular review by ophthalmology. For maculopathy, intravitreal vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) inhibitors are used if there is a change in visual acuity. Non-proliferative retinopathy is managed through regular observation, while severe/very severe cases may require panretinal laser photocoagulation. Proliferative retinopathy is treated with panretinal laser photocoagulation, intravitreal VEGF inhibitors, and vitreoretinal surgery in severe or vitreous haemorrhage cases. Examples of VEGF inhibitors include ranibizumab, which has a strong evidence base for slowing the progression of proliferative diabetic retinopathy and improving visual acuity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man with T2DM goes for his yearly diabetic retinopathy screening and is diagnosed with proliferative diabetic retinopathy. What retinal characteristics are indicative of this condition?
Your Answer: 'Cotton-wool' spots
Correct Answer: neovascularization
Explanation:Diabetic retinopathy is a progressive disease that affects the retina and is a complication of diabetes mellitus (DM). The condition is caused by persistent high blood sugar levels, which can damage the retinal vessels and potentially lead to vision loss. The damage is caused by retinal ischaemia, which occurs when the retinal vasculature becomes blocked.
There are various retinal findings that indicate the presence of diabetic retinopathy, which can be classified into two categories: non-proliferative and proliferative. Non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy is indicated by the presence of microaneurysms, ‘cotton-wool’ spots, ‘dot-blot’ haemorrhages, and venous beading at different stages. However, neovascularization, or the formation of new blood vessels, is the finding associated with more advanced, proliferative retinopathy.
Understanding Diabetic Retinopathy
Diabetic retinopathy is a leading cause of blindness in adults aged 35-65 years-old. The condition is caused by hyperglycaemia, which leads to abnormal metabolism in the retinal vessel walls, causing damage to endothelial cells and pericytes. This damage leads to increased vascular permeability, which causes exudates seen on fundoscopy. Pericyte dysfunction predisposes to the formation of microaneurysms, while neovascularization is caused by the production of growth factors in response to retinal ischaemia.
Patients with diabetic retinopathy are typically classified into those with non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR), proliferative retinopathy (PDR), and maculopathy. NPDR is further classified into mild, moderate, and severe, depending on the presence of microaneurysms, blot haemorrhages, hard exudates, cotton wool spots, venous beading/looping, and intraretinal microvascular abnormalities. PDR is characterized by retinal neovascularization, which may lead to vitreous haemorrhage, and fibrous tissue forming anterior to the retinal disc. Maculopathy is based on location rather than severity and is more common in Type II DM.
Management of diabetic retinopathy involves optimizing glycaemic control, blood pressure, and hyperlipidemia, as well as regular review by ophthalmology. For maculopathy, intravitreal vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) inhibitors are used if there is a change in visual acuity. Non-proliferative retinopathy is managed through regular observation, while severe/very severe cases may require panretinal laser photocoagulation. Proliferative retinopathy is treated with panretinal laser photocoagulation, intravitreal VEGF inhibitors, and vitreoretinal surgery in severe or vitreous haemorrhage cases. Examples of VEGF inhibitors include ranibizumab, which has a strong evidence base for slowing the progression of proliferative diabetic retinopathy and improving visual acuity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old male presents 7 months after being diagnosed with Parkinson's disease. During the examination, the patient exhibits rigidity, a Parkinsonian gait, bradykinesia, and a resting tremor on one side of the body. Additionally, the patient displays hypomimia. Currently, the patient is taking levodopa and benserazide, and the neurologist has prescribed pramipexole to keep the levodopa dose low. What is a potential side effect of pramipexole that the patient should be warned about?
Your Answer: Blurred vision
Correct Answer: Compulsive gambling
Explanation:Dopamine agonists, which are commonly used in the treatment of Parkinson’s disease, carry a risk of causing impulse control or obsessive disorders, such as excessive gambling or hypersexuality. Patients should be informed of this potential side-effect before starting the medication, as it can have devastating financial consequences for both the patient and their family. Blurred vision is a side-effect of antimuscarinic medications, while peripheral neuropathy is a possible side-effect of several medications, including some antibiotics, cytotoxic drugs, amiodarone, and phenytoin. Weight gain is a common side-effect of certain medications, such as steroids.
Understanding the Mechanism of Action of Parkinson’s Drugs
Parkinson’s disease is a complex condition that requires specialized management. The first-line treatment for motor symptoms that affect a patient’s quality of life is levodopa, while dopamine agonists, levodopa, or monoamine oxidase B (MAO-B) inhibitors are recommended for those whose motor symptoms do not affect their quality of life. However, all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause a wide variety of side effects, and it is important to be aware of these when making treatment decisions.
Levodopa is nearly always combined with a decarboxylase inhibitor to prevent the peripheral metabolism of levodopa to dopamine outside of the brain and reduce side effects. Dopamine receptor agonists, such as bromocriptine, ropinirole, cabergoline, and apomorphine, are more likely than levodopa to cause hallucinations in older patients. MAO-B inhibitors, such as selegiline, inhibit the breakdown of dopamine secreted by the dopaminergic neurons. Amantadine’s mechanism is not fully understood, but it probably increases dopamine release and inhibits its uptake at dopaminergic synapses. COMT inhibitors, such as entacapone and tolcapone, are used in conjunction with levodopa in patients with established PD. Antimuscarinics, such as procyclidine, benzotropine, and trihexyphenidyl (benzhexol), block cholinergic receptors and are now used more to treat drug-induced parkinsonism rather than idiopathic Parkinson’s disease.
It is important to note that all drugs used to treat Parkinson’s can cause adverse effects, and clinicians must be aware of these when making treatment decisions. Patients should also be warned about the potential for dopamine receptor agonists to cause impulse control disorders and excessive daytime somnolence. Understanding the mechanism of action of Parkinson’s drugs is crucial in managing the condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A young man comes to the clinic with difficulty forming meaningful sentences following treatment for a right middle cerebral artery infarction. He struggles to complete his sentences and frequently pauses while speaking. However, his comprehension of spoken language remains intact. The physician suspects a neurological origin. Which area of his brain is likely affected?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Broca's area
Explanation:The individual in question is experiencing Broca’s aphasia, which results in impaired language production but preserved comprehension. Wernicke’s aphasia, on the other hand, would result in impaired comprehension but preserved language production. Both Broca’s and Wernicke’s aphasia are typically caused by a stroke and affect areas in the left hemisphere, not involving the occipital lobe. Therefore, the options that suggest specific anatomical landmarks are incorrect.
Types of Aphasia: Understanding the Different Forms of Language Impairment
Aphasia is a language disorder that affects a person’s ability to communicate effectively. There are different types of aphasia, each with its own set of symptoms and underlying causes. Wernicke’s aphasia, also known as receptive aphasia, is caused by a lesion in the superior temporal gyrus. This area is responsible for forming speech before sending it to Broca’s area. People with Wernicke’s aphasia may speak fluently, but their sentences often make no sense, and they may use word substitutions and neologisms. Comprehension is impaired.
Broca’s aphasia, also known as expressive aphasia, is caused by a lesion in the inferior frontal gyrus. This area is responsible for speech production. People with Broca’s aphasia may speak in a non-fluent, labored, and halting manner. Repetition is impaired, but comprehension is normal.
Conduction aphasia is caused by a stroke affecting the arcuate fasciculus, the connection between Wernicke’s and Broca’s area. People with conduction aphasia may speak fluently, but their repetition is poor. They are aware of the errors they are making, but comprehension is normal.
Global aphasia is caused by a large lesion affecting all three areas mentioned above, resulting in severe expressive and receptive aphasia. People with global aphasia may still be able to communicate using gestures. Understanding the different types of aphasia is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man is struck with a hammer on the right side of his head. He passes away upon arrival at the emergency department. What is the most probable finding during the post mortem examination?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Laceration of the middle meningeal artery
Explanation:The given scenario involves a short delay before death, which is not likely to result in a supratentorial herniation. The other options are also less severe.
Patients with head injuries should be managed according to ATLS principles and extracranial injuries should be managed alongside cranial trauma. Different types of traumatic brain injury include extradural hematoma, subdural hematoma, and subarachnoid hemorrhage. Primary brain injury may be focal or diffuse, while secondary brain injury occurs when cerebral edema, ischemia, infection, tonsillar or tentorial herniation exacerbates the original injury. Management may include IV mannitol/furosemide, decompressive craniotomy, and ICP monitoring. Pupillary findings can provide information on the location and severity of the injury.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 18
Incorrect
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Which of the following nerves passes through the greater sciatic foramen and provides innervation to the perineum?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pudendal
Explanation:The pudendal nerve is divided into three branches: the rectal nerve, perineal nerve, and dorsal nerve of the penis/clitoris. All three branches pass through the greater sciatic foramen. The pudendal nerve provides innervation to the perineum and travels between the piriformis and coccygeus muscles, medial to the sciatic nerve.
The gluteal region is composed of various muscles and nerves that play a crucial role in hip movement and stability. The gluteal muscles, including the gluteus maximus, medius, and minimis, extend and abduct the hip joint. Meanwhile, the deep lateral hip rotators, such as the piriformis, gemelli, obturator internus, and quadratus femoris, rotate the hip joint externally.
The nerves that innervate the gluteal muscles are the superior and inferior gluteal nerves. The superior gluteal nerve controls the gluteus medius, gluteus minimis, and tensor fascia lata muscles, while the inferior gluteal nerve controls the gluteus maximus muscle.
If the superior gluteal nerve is damaged, it can result in a Trendelenburg gait, where the patient is unable to abduct the thigh at the hip joint. This weakness causes the pelvis to tilt down on the opposite side during the stance phase, leading to compensatory movements such as trunk lurching to maintain a level pelvis throughout the gait cycle. As a result, the pelvis sags on the opposite side of the lesioned superior gluteal nerve.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man with multiple sclerosis is prescribed baclofen by your consultant to treat muscle spasms.
What is the mechanism of action of baclofen?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: GABA receptor agonist
Explanation:Baclofen is a medication that is commonly prescribed to alleviate muscle spasticity in individuals with conditions like multiple sclerosis, cerebral palsy, and spinal cord injuries. It works by acting as an agonist of GABA receptors in the central nervous system, which includes both the brain and spinal cord. Essentially, this means that baclofen helps to enhance the effects of a neurotransmitter called GABA, which can help to reduce the activity of certain neurons and ultimately lead to a reduction in muscle spasticity. Overall, baclofen is an important medication for individuals with these conditions, as it can help to improve their quality of life and reduce the impact of muscle spasticity on their daily activities.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man visits his physician with a complaint of double vision. During the examination, the physician observes that the left eye is in a 'down and out' position and the pupil is dilated. The physician suspects a cranial nerve palsy.
What is the probable reason for his nerve palsy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Posterior communicating artery aneurysm
Explanation:Consider compression as the likely cause of surgical third nerve palsy.
When the dilation of the pupil is involved, it is referred to as surgical third nerve palsy. This condition is caused by a lesion that compresses the pupillary fibers located on the outer part of the third nerve. Unlike vascular causes of third nerve palsy, which only affect the nerve and not the pupillary fibers.
Out of the given options, only answer 4 is a compressive cause of third nerve palsy. The other options are risk factors for vascular causes.
Understanding Third Nerve Palsy: Causes and Features
Third nerve palsy is a neurological condition that affects the third cranial nerve, which controls the movement of the eye and eyelid. The condition is characterized by the eye being deviated ‘down and out’, ptosis, and a dilated pupil. In some cases, it may be referred to as a ‘surgical’ third nerve palsy due to the dilation of the pupil.
There are several possible causes of third nerve palsy, including diabetes mellitus, vasculitis (such as temporal arteritis or SLE), uncal herniation through tentorium if raised ICP, posterior communicating artery aneurysm, and cavernous sinus thrombosis. In some cases, it may also be a false localizing sign. Weber’s syndrome, which is characterized by an ipsilateral third nerve palsy with contralateral hemiplegia, is caused by midbrain strokes. Other possible causes include amyloid and multiple sclerosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 21
Incorrect
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Sarah is a 31-year-old woman presenting with diplopia. She has a history of type 1 diabetes and multiple sclerosis. Over the past 3 days, she has been experiencing double vision, particularly when looking to the right.
Sarah denies any associated double vision when looking vertically. She has not noticed any difficulty in moving her eyelids, increased sensitivity to light, or redness in her eye.
During examination, both eyelids display normal strength. With the left eye closed, the right eye displays a full range of movement. However, with the right eye closed, the left eye fails to adduct when looking towards the right. Nystagmus on the right eye is noted when the patient is asked to look to the right with both eyes. On convergence, both eyes can adduct towards the midline. The pupillary exam is normal with both pupils reacting appropriately to light.
What is the underlying pathology responsible for Sarah's diplopia?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lesion on the left paramedian area of the midbrain and pons
Explanation:The medial longitudinal fasciculus is located in the midbrain and pons and is responsible for conjugate gaze. Lesions in this area can cause internuclear ophthalmoplegia, which affects adduction but not convergence. A 3rd nerve palsy affects multiple muscles and can involve the pupil, while abducens nerve lesions affect abduction. Lesions in the midbrain and superior pons contain the centres of vision.
Understanding Internuclear Ophthalmoplegia
Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is a condition that affects the horizontal movement of the eyes. It is caused by a lesion in the medial longitudinal fasciculus (MLF), which is responsible for interconnecting the IIIrd, IVth, and VIth cranial nuclei. This area is located in the paramedian region of the midbrain and pons. The main feature of this condition is impaired adduction of the eye on the same side as the lesion, along with horizontal nystagmus of the abducting eye on the opposite side.
The most common causes of internuclear ophthalmoplegia are multiple sclerosis and vascular disease. It is important to note that this condition can also be a sign of other underlying neurological disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Samantha, a 65-year-old woman, was admitted to the hospital following a fall at home. After various tests, Samantha was diagnosed with a stroke and commenced on the appropriate medical treatment. Although some of her symptoms have improved, Samantha is experiencing difficulty with communication. She can speak, but her words do not make sense, and she cannot comprehend when others try to communicate with her. The specialist suspects Wernicke's aphasia.
Which area of the brain would be affected to cause this presentation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Temporal lobe
Explanation:Brain lesions can be localized based on the neurological disorders or features that are present. The gross anatomy of the brain can provide clues to the location of the lesion. For example, lesions in the parietal lobe can result in sensory inattention, apraxias, astereognosis, inferior homonymous quadrantanopia, and Gerstmann’s syndrome. Lesions in the occipital lobe can cause homonymous hemianopia, cortical blindness, and visual agnosia. Temporal lobe lesions can result in Wernicke’s aphasia, superior homonymous quadrantanopia, auditory agnosia, and prosopagnosia. Lesions in the frontal lobes can cause expressive aphasia, disinhibition, perseveration, anosmia, and an inability to generate a list. Lesions in the cerebellum can result in gait and truncal ataxia, intention tremor, past pointing, dysdiadokinesis, and nystagmus.
In addition to the gross anatomy, specific areas of the brain can also provide clues to the location of a lesion. For example, lesions in the medial thalamus and mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus can result in Wernicke and Korsakoff syndrome. Lesions in the subthalamic nucleus of the basal ganglia can cause hemiballism, while lesions in the striatum (caudate nucleus) can result in Huntington chorea. Parkinson’s disease is associated with lesions in the substantia nigra of the basal ganglia, while lesions in the amygdala can cause Kluver-Bucy syndrome, which is characterized by hypersexuality, hyperorality, hyperphagia, and visual agnosia. By identifying these specific conditions, doctors can better localize brain lesions and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old boy comes to the GP after experiencing unusual behavior. His mother accompanies him and reports that her son suddenly started smacking his lips together for a brief period. She adds that he then complained of smelling a foul odor that she couldn't detect. Given the family history of epilepsy, you suspect that he may have had a seizure. What type of seizure is typically associated with these symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Temporal lobe seizure
Explanation:Temporal lobe seizures can lead to hallucinations, including olfactory hallucinations, which is likely the cause of this patient’s presentation.
Flashes and floaters are a common symptom of occipital lobe seizures.
Juvenile myoclonic epilepsy can cause occasional generalized seizures and daytime absences.
Parietal lobe seizures can result in paraesthesia.
Localising Features of Focal Seizures in Epilepsy
Focal seizures in epilepsy can be localised based on the specific location of the brain where they occur. Temporal lobe seizures are common and may occur with or without impairment of consciousness or awareness. Most patients experience an aura, which is typically a rising epigastric sensation, along with psychic or experiential phenomena such as déjà vu or jamais vu. Less commonly, hallucinations may occur, such as auditory, gustatory, or olfactory hallucinations. These seizures typically last around one minute and are often accompanied by automatisms, such as lip smacking, grabbing, or plucking.
On the other hand, frontal lobe seizures are characterised by motor symptoms such as head or leg movements, posturing, postictal weakness, and Jacksonian march. Parietal lobe seizures, on the other hand, are sensory in nature and may cause paraesthesia. Finally, occipital lobe seizures may cause visual symptoms such as floaters or flashes. By identifying the specific location and type of seizure, doctors can better diagnose and treat epilepsy in patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old man is referred to the memory clinic for recent memory problems. His family is worried about his ability to take care of himself at home. After evaluation, he is diagnosed with Alzheimer's dementia. What is the pathophysiological process involving tau that occurs in this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyperphosphorylation of tau prevents it from binding normally to microtubules
Explanation:The binding of tau to microtubules is negatively regulated by phosphorylation. In a healthy adult brain, tau promotes the assembly of microtubules, but in Alzheimer’s disease, hyperphosphorylation of tau inhibits its ability to bind to microtubules normally. This leads to the formation of neurofibrillary tangles instead of promoting microtubule assembly. It is important to note that tau is not a product of Alzheimer’s disease pathology, but rather a physiological protein that becomes involved in the pathophysiological process. Additionally, amyloid beta and tau are not phosphorylated together to form a tangle, and tau does not become bound to microtubules by amyloid beta to form plaques. Lastly, in Alzheimer’s disease, tau is hyperphosphorylated, not inadequately phosphorylated.
Alzheimer’s disease is a type of dementia that gradually worsens over time and is caused by the degeneration of the brain. There are several risk factors associated with Alzheimer’s disease, including increasing age, family history, and certain genetic mutations. The disease is also more common in individuals of Caucasian ethnicity and those with Down’s syndrome.
The pathological changes associated with Alzheimer’s disease include widespread cerebral atrophy, particularly in the cortex and hippocampus. Microscopically, there are cortical plaques caused by the deposition of type A-Beta-amyloid protein and intraneuronal neurofibrillary tangles caused by abnormal aggregation of the tau protein. The hyperphosphorylation of the tau protein has been linked to Alzheimer’s disease. Additionally, there is a deficit of acetylcholine due to damage to an ascending forebrain projection.
Neurofibrillary tangles are a hallmark of Alzheimer’s disease and are partly made from a protein called tau. Tau is a protein that interacts with tubulin to stabilize microtubules and promote tubulin assembly into microtubules. In Alzheimer’s disease, tau proteins are excessively phosphorylated, impairing their function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis visits his primary care physician complaining of difficulty swallowing and regurgitation. During the examination, the patient's uvula is observed to deviate to the left side of the mouth. The tongue remains unaffected, and taste perception is normal. No other abnormalities are detected upon examination of the oral cavity. Based on these findings, where is the lesion most likely located?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Left vagus nerve
Explanation:The uvula deviating away from the side of the lesion indicates a problem with the left vagus nerve, as this nerve controls the muscles of the soft palate and can cause uvula deviation when damaged. In cases of vagus nerve lesions, the uvula deviates in the opposite direction of the lesion. As the patient’s uvula deviates towards the right, the underlying issue must be with the left vagus nerve.
The left hypoglossal nerve cannot be the cause of the uvula deviation, as this nerve only provides motor innervation to the tongue muscles and cannot affect the uvula.
Similarly, the right hypoglossal nerve and right trigeminal nerve cannot cause uvula deviation, as they do not have any control over the uvula. Trigeminal nerve lesions may cause different clinical signs depending on the location of the lesion, such as masseteric wasting in the case of mandibular nerve damage.
Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.
In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is not a feature of Wallerian Degeneration if the age is altered slightly?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The axon remains excitable throughout the whole process
Explanation:Once the process is established, the excitability of the axon is lost.
Understanding Wallerian Degeneration
Wallerian degeneration is a process that takes place when a nerve is either cut or crushed. This process involves the degeneration of the part of the axon that is separated from the neuron’s cell nucleus. It usually begins 24 hours after the neuronal injury, and the distal axon remains excitable up until this time. Following the degeneration of the axon, the myelin sheath breaks down, which occurs through the infiltration of the site with macrophages.
Regeneration of the nerve may eventually occur, although recovery will depend on the extent and manner of injury. Understanding Wallerian degeneration is crucial in the field of neurology, as it can help doctors and researchers develop treatments and therapies for patients who have suffered nerve injuries. By studying the process of Wallerian degeneration, medical professionals can gain a better understanding of how the nervous system works and how it can be repaired after damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 74-year-old man with oesophageal cancer undergoes a CT scan to evaluate cancer staging. The medical team is worried about the cancer's rapid growth. What is the level at which the oesophagus passes through the diaphragm?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: T10
Explanation:The diaphragmatic opening for the oesophagus is situated at the T10 level, while the T8 level corresponds to the opening for the inferior vena cava.
Anatomical Planes and Levels in the Human Body
The human body can be divided into different planes and levels to aid in anatomical study and medical procedures. One such plane is the transpyloric plane, which runs horizontally through the body of L1 and intersects with various organs such as the pylorus of the stomach, left kidney hilum, and duodenojejunal flexure. Another way to identify planes is by using common level landmarks, such as the inferior mesenteric artery at L3 or the formation of the IVC at L5.
In addition to planes and levels, there are also diaphragm apertures located at specific levels in the body. These include the vena cava at T8, the esophagus at T10, and the aortic hiatus at T12. By understanding these planes, levels, and apertures, medical professionals can better navigate the human body during procedures and accurately diagnose and treat various conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A man in his early fifties comes to the clinic with symptoms of progressive paralysis and difficulty in swallowing. Upon examination, it is found that he has spastic paralysis in his arms and reduced knee reflexes. The diagnosis is confirmed as amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). What type of cell death is responsible for the combination of upper and lower motor neuron lesions seen in ALS?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Motor cortex neuronal cells and anterior horn cells
Explanation:Upper motor lesion signs are caused by damage to neuronal cells in the motor cortex, while lower motor lesion signs are caused by damage to anterior horn cells. This is why ALS, which involves damage to both areas, presents with mixed signs. If only one of these areas were damaged, it would result in only one type of motor neuron lesion sign. Multiple sclerosis often involves multiple lesions in the brain.
Motor neuron disease is a neurological condition that is not yet fully understood. It can manifest with both upper and lower motor neuron signs and is rare before the age of 40. There are different patterns of the disease, including amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, progressive muscular atrophy, and bulbar palsy. Some of the clues that may indicate a diagnosis of motor neuron disease include fasciculations, the absence of sensory signs or symptoms, a combination of lower and upper motor neuron signs, and wasting of small hand muscles or tibialis anterior.
Other features of motor neuron disease include the fact that it does not affect external ocular muscles and there are no cerebellar signs. Abdominal reflexes are usually preserved, and sphincter dysfunction is a late feature if present. The diagnosis of motor neuron disease is made based on clinical presentation, but nerve conduction studies can help exclude a neuropathy. Electromyography may show a reduced number of action potentials with increased amplitude. MRI is often used to rule out cervical cord compression and myelopathy as differential diagnoses. It is important to note that while vague sensory symptoms may occur early in the disease, sensory signs are typically absent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man visits his doctor with worries of having spinal muscular atrophy, as his father has been diagnosed with the condition. He asks for a physical examination.
What physical exam finding is indicative of the characteristic pattern observed in this disorder?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduced reflexes
Explanation:Lower motor neuron lesions, such as spinal muscular atrophy, result in reduced reflexes and tone. Babinski’s sign is negative in these cases. Increased reflexes and tone are indicative of an upper motor neuron cause of symptoms, which may be seen in conditions such as stroke or Parkinson’s disease. Therefore, normal reflexes and tone are also incorrect findings in lower motor neuron lesions.
The spinal cord is a central structure located within the vertebral column that provides it with structural support. It extends rostrally to the medulla oblongata of the brain and tapers caudally at the L1-2 level, where it is anchored to the first coccygeal vertebrae by the filum terminale. The cord is characterised by cervico-lumbar enlargements that correspond to the brachial and lumbar plexuses. It is incompletely divided into two symmetrical halves by a dorsal median sulcus and ventral median fissure, with grey matter surrounding a central canal that is continuous with the ventricular system of the CNS. Afferent fibres entering through the dorsal roots usually terminate near their point of entry but may travel for varying distances in Lissauer’s tract. The key point to remember is that the anatomy of the cord will dictate the clinical presentation in cases of injury, which can be caused by trauma, neoplasia, inflammatory diseases, vascular issues, or infection.
One important condition to remember is Brown-Sequard syndrome, which is caused by hemisection of the cord and produces ipsilateral loss of proprioception and upper motor neuron signs, as well as contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. Lesions below L1 tend to present with lower motor neuron signs. It is important to keep a clinical perspective in mind when revising CNS anatomy and to understand the ways in which the spinal cord can become injured, as this will help in diagnosing and treating patients with spinal cord injuries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old patient with Down syndrome is exhibiting personality and behavioral changes, including irritability, uncooperativeness, and a decline in memory and concentration. After diagnosis, it is determined that he has early onset Alzheimer's disease. Which gene is most commonly linked to this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amyloid precursor protein
Explanation:Mutations in the amyloid precursor protein gene (APP), presenilin 1 gene (PSEN1) or presenilin 2 gene (PSEN2) are responsible for early onset familial Alzheimer’s disease. The gene for amyloid precursor protein is situated on chromosome 21, which is also linked to Down’s syndrome.
Alzheimer’s disease is a type of dementia that gradually worsens over time and is caused by the degeneration of the brain. There are several risk factors associated with Alzheimer’s disease, including increasing age, family history, and certain genetic mutations. The disease is also more common in individuals of Caucasian ethnicity and those with Down’s syndrome.
The pathological changes associated with Alzheimer’s disease include widespread cerebral atrophy, particularly in the cortex and hippocampus. Microscopically, there are cortical plaques caused by the deposition of type A-Beta-amyloid protein and intraneuronal neurofibrillary tangles caused by abnormal aggregation of the tau protein. The hyperphosphorylation of the tau protein has been linked to Alzheimer’s disease. Additionally, there is a deficit of acetylcholine due to damage to an ascending forebrain projection.
Neurofibrillary tangles are a hallmark of Alzheimer’s disease and are partly made from a protein called tau. Tau is a protein that interacts with tubulin to stabilize microtubules and promote tubulin assembly into microtubules. In Alzheimer’s disease, tau proteins are excessively phosphorylated, impairing their function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurological System
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