00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 2 year old child is brought to the paediatric assessment unit by...

    Correct

    • A 2 year old child is brought to the paediatric assessment unit by their mother due to a fever, barking cough, and difficulty breathing at night. The child has been diagnosed with croup and you have been requested to review their condition. Upon conducting a thorough history and assessment, you determine that there is no presence of stridor or respiratory distress. What would be your next course of action in managing this case?

      Your Answer: Give oral dexamethasone

      Explanation:

      For mild croup, a single dose of oral dexamethasone (0.15 mg/kg) should be taken immediately, regardless of the severity. The severity of croup is determined by factors such as respiratory rate, respiratory distress, heart rate, O2 saturations, and exhaustion. Treatment for severe croup includes systemic dexamethasone and nebulized adrenaline (5ml of 1:1000), along with oxygen administration. Antibiotics should only be given if there is suspicion of an underlying bacterial infection. It is not recommended to perform an ENT exam due to the risk of an epiglottis diagnosis.

      Understanding Croup: A Respiratory Infection in Infants and Toddlers

      Croup is a type of upper respiratory tract infection that commonly affects infants and toddlers. It is characterized by a barking cough, fever, and coryzal symptoms, and is caused by a combination of laryngeal oedema and secretions. Parainfluenza viruses are the most common cause of croup. The condition typically peaks between 6 months and 3 years of age, and is more prevalent during the autumn season.

      The severity of croup can be graded based on the presence of symptoms such as stridor, cough, and respiratory distress. Mild cases may only have occasional barking cough and no audible stridor at rest, while severe cases may have frequent barking cough, prominent inspiratory stridor at rest, and marked sternal wall retractions. Children with moderate or severe croup, those under 6 months of age, or those with known upper airway abnormalities should be admitted to the hospital.

      Diagnosis of croup is usually made based on clinical presentation, but a chest x-ray may show subglottic narrowing, commonly referred to as the steeple sign. Treatment for croup typically involves a single dose of oral dexamethasone or prednisolone, regardless of severity. In emergency situations, high-flow oxygen and nebulized adrenaline may be necessary.

      Understanding croup is important for parents and healthcare providers alike, as prompt recognition and treatment can help prevent complications and improve outcomes for affected children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Amiodarone is known to cause which side effect? Choose ONE option from the...

    Incorrect

    • Amiodarone is known to cause which side effect? Choose ONE option from the list provided.

      Your Answer: COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease)

      Correct Answer: Hyperthyroidism

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Side Effects of Amiodarone: A Comprehensive Overview

      Amiodarone is a medication commonly used to treat cardiac arrhythmias. However, it is important to be aware of its potential side effects. Here is a breakdown of some of the most important things to know:

      Hyperthyroidism: Amiodarone can cause both hypo and hyperthyroidism. Patients taking this medication should have their thyroid function checked regularly.

      COPD: While amiodarone is not known to cause COPD, it can lead to pulmonary toxicity, including pneumonitis and fibrosis. Patients should have yearly chest x-rays.

      Drug-induced diabetes mellitus: There is no known association between amiodarone and the development of diabetes mellitus.

      Drug-induced pemphigus: Long-term use of amiodarone can cause phototoxicity and skin discoloration. Patients should protect their skin from light during treatment. However, it is not known to cause drug-induced pemphigus.

      Renal calculi: There is no known association between amiodarone and the development of kidney disease, including renal calculi.

      Other important side effects of amiodarone include hepatotoxicity, bradycardia, phototoxicity, and development of corneal deposits. If you are taking amiodarone, it is important to be aware of these potential side effects and to discuss any concerns with your healthcare provider.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      39.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which one of the following statements regarding endometrial cancer is false? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding endometrial cancer is false?

      Your Answer: Trans-vaginal ultrasound is the first-line investigation

      Correct Answer: Has a poor prognosis

      Explanation:

      The prognosis for endometrial cancer is generally favorable.

      Endometrial cancer is a type of cancer that is commonly found in women who have gone through menopause, but it can also occur in around 25% of cases before menopause. The prognosis for this type of cancer is usually good due to early detection. There are several risk factors associated with endometrial cancer, including obesity, nulliparity, early menarche, late menopause, unopposed estrogen, diabetes mellitus, tamoxifen, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma. Postmenopausal bleeding is the most common symptom of endometrial cancer, which is usually slight and intermittent initially before becoming more heavy. Pain is not common and typically signifies extensive disease, while vaginal discharge is unusual.

      When investigating endometrial cancer, women who are 55 years or older and present with postmenopausal bleeding should be referred using the suspected cancer pathway. The first-line investigation is trans-vaginal ultrasound, which has a high negative predictive value for a normal endometrial thickness (< 4 mm). Hysteroscopy with endometrial biopsy is also commonly used for investigation. The management of localized disease involves total abdominal hysterectomy with bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy, while patients with high-risk disease may have postoperative radiotherapy. Progestogen therapy is sometimes used in frail elderly women who are not considered suitable for surgery. It is important to note that the combined oral contraceptive pill and smoking are protective against endometrial cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      22.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 25-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 1-week history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with a 1-week history of an itchy rash in both his armpits and the flexor surfaces of his elbows on both sides. He states that this came on gradually and that he has had similar episodes in the past. However, none of them lasted more than one month.
      He states that according to his mother, the first episode occurred when he was around seven years old. He claims to only suffer from generally dry skin and asthma, which he controls with emollient creams and inhalers, respectively.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Select ONE option only

      Your Answer: Psoriasis

      Correct Answer: Atopic eczema

      Explanation:

      Dermatological Conditions: Characteristics and Differential Diagnosis

      Atopic Eczema: This condition is characterized by an itchy rash with a predominantly flexural distribution, along with a history of asthma and dry skin. It is episodic in nature and typically starts in childhood. Atopic eczema is a clinical diagnosis, but investigations may be helpful to exclude differential diagnoses.

      Irritant Eczema: This form of dermatitis is caused by exposure to irritants such as strong acids and alkalis. Symptoms and signs vary and may include stinging, burning, and chapping. Skin changes are usually restricted to the area in contact with the irritant. Avoidance of the causative agent usually leads to the resolution of symptoms within a few days.

      Lichen Planus: This skin disorder is of unknown aetiology and mainly involves an itchy, papular rash commonly on the palms, soles, genitalia, and flexor surfaces of arms. The rash is often polygonal in shape, with a ‘white lines’ pattern on the surface. Management typically involves topical steroids.

      Molluscum Contagiosum: This common skin infection is caused by the M. contagiosum virus and presents with characteristic pinkish or pearly white papules with a central umbilication. Lesions appear in clusters in areas anywhere on the body, except the palms of the hands and the soles of the feet.

      Psoriasis: This chronic skin disorder typically presents with erythematous plaques covered with a silvery-white scale, occurring typically on the extensor surfaces such as the elbows and knees, as well as on the scalp, trunk, buttocks, and periumbilical area. There usually is a clear delineation between normal and affected skin, and plaques typically range from 1 cm to 10 cm in size.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      19.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 55-year-old man is found to have an irregularly, irregular pulse during a...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man is found to have an irregularly, irregular pulse during a routine check-up. An ECG reveals absent P waves and irregular R-R intervals. The patient has moderate renal impairment. What is the most appropriate treatment option?

      Your Answer: Warfarin

      Correct Answer: No treatment

      Explanation:

      Understanding Anticoagulation Treatment for Atrial Fibrillation: A CHADS-VASc Scoring System Overview

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a common rhythm disturbance that can increase the risk of stroke. To determine the appropriate treatment for primary prevention of stroke, healthcare professionals use the CHADS-VASc scoring system. This system assigns points based on various risk factors, including age, sex, hypertension, diabetes, previous stroke or transient ischemic attack, and vascular disease.

      This score is based on a point system in which 2 points are assigned for a history of stroke or transient ischemic attack or age 75 years or more and 1 point each is assigned for age 65 to 74 years; a history of hypertension, diabetes, recent cardiac failure, vascular disease (myocardial infarction, complex aortic plaque, and peripheral arterial disease (PAD), including prior revascularization, amputation due to PAD, or angiographic evidence of PAD, etc.); and female gender, resulting in a maximum score of 9 points.

      Score Risk Anticoagulation Therapy
      0 (male) or 1 (female) Low No anticoagulant therapy
      1 (male) Moderate Oral anticoagulant should be considered
      2 or greater High Oral anticoagulant is recommended

      Aspirin is not recommended for primary prevention of stroke in patients with AF, but may be used for secondary prevention after a stroke. Clexane, a low-molecular-weight heparin, is not used for long-term treatment of AF. Dipyridamole may be used in combination with clopidogrel or aspirin for stroke treatment, but not for prevention in AF patients.

      It is important to accurately identify AF and assess the patient’s risk using the CHADS-VASc scoring system to determine the appropriate anticoagulation treatment. NOACs are only licensed for non-valvular AF, so patients with valvular AF should be treated with warfarin or seek advice from a specialist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      10.6
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 21-year-old woman begins taking Microgynon 30 on the 8th day of her...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old woman begins taking Microgynon 30 on the 8th day of her menstrual cycle. When will it become a dependable form of birth control?

      Your Answer: 7 days

      Explanation:

      Contraceptives – Time to become effective (if not used on the first day of period):
      Immediate: IUD
      2 days: Progestin-only pill (POP)
      7 days: Combined oral contraceptive (COC), injection, implant, intrauterine system (IUS)

      Counselling for Women Considering the Combined Oral Contraceptive Pill

      Women who are considering taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COC) should receive counselling on the potential harms and benefits of the pill. The COC is highly effective if taken correctly, with a success rate of over 99%. However, there is a small risk of blood clots, heart attacks, and strokes, as well as an increased risk of breast and cervical cancer.

      In addition to discussing the potential risks and benefits, women should also receive advice on how to take the pill. If the COC is started within the first 5 days of the menstrual cycle, there is no need for additional contraception. However, if it is started at any other point in the cycle, alternative contraception should be used for the first 7 days. Women should take the pill at the same time every day and should be aware that intercourse during the pill-free period is only safe if the next pack is started on time.

      There have been recent changes to the guidelines for taking the COC. While it was previously recommended to take the pill for 21 days and then stop for 7 days to mimic menstruation, it is now recommended to discuss tailored regimes with women. This is because there is no medical benefit to having a withdrawal bleed, and options include never having a pill-free interval or taking three 21-day packs back-to-back before having a 4 or 7 day break.

      Women should also be informed of situations where the efficacy of the pill may be reduced, such as vomiting within 2 hours of taking the pill, medication that induces diarrhoea or vomiting, or taking liver enzyme-inducing drugs. It is also important to discuss sexually transmitted infections and precautions that should be taken with enzyme-inducing antibiotics such as rifampicin.

      Overall, counselling for women considering the COC should cover a range of topics to ensure that they are fully informed and able to make an informed decision about their contraceptive options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      7.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 15-year-old student presents to his General Practitioner with symptoms of tingling and...

    Correct

    • A 15-year-old student presents to his General Practitioner with symptoms of tingling and irritation in his mouth and throat on two or three occasions in the past year. Most recently, he suffered from swelling of his throat and difficulty breathing after receiving a local anaesthetic for tooth extraction at the dentist. He reports that his father died of a suspected allergic reaction when he was 42 years old.
      Investigations reveal the following:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 129 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 6.8 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
      Platelets (PLT) 341 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 5 mm/hour 1–20 mm/hour
      Patch testing Mild reaction to grass pollens
      C4 Low
      C3 Normal
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Hereditary angio-oedema

      Explanation:

      The correct diagnosis for this patient is hereditary angio-oedema, also known as hereditary angioneurotic oedema. This is an autosomal dominant disorder caused by a congenital deficiency of the C1 inhibitor protein, which is mapped to chromosome 11. In some cases, C1 inhibitor levels are normal but have reduced function. Symptoms typically appear during adolescence and include recurrent attacks of pain, tingling, or itching, particularly around the mouth and pharynx, which may be triggered by increased circulating sex steroids or dental anaesthesia using lidocaine. Diagnosis is made by measuring complement levels, with C4 always low during attacks and often low in between, while C3 and C1q are always normal. Treatment involves using C1 inhibitor concentrate during acute attacks and danazol to increase C4 levels and reduce the frequency and severity of attacks. ACE inhibitors are contraindicated due to the risk of bradykinin accumulation. Acquired angio-oedema, which is caused by an acquired C1 inhibitor deficiency and is associated with lymphoproliferative disorders, is a different condition. Protein C deficiency is a genetic prothrombotic condition that does not explain this patient’s symptoms, and somatisation disorder is unlikely given the clear test abnormalities related to the patient’s symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
      2203.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to using combined oral contraceptive...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is an absolute contraindication to using combined oral contraceptive pills?

      Your Answer: 36-year-old woman smoking 20 cigarettes/day

      Explanation:

      The decision to prescribe the combined oral contraceptive pill is now based on the UK Medical Eligibility Criteria (UKMEC), which categorizes potential contraindications and cautions on a four-point scale. UKMEC 1 indicates no restrictions for use, while UKMEC 2 suggests that the benefits outweigh the risks. UKMEC 3 indicates that the disadvantages may outweigh the advantages, and UKMEC 4 represents an unacceptable health risk. Examples of UKMEC 3 conditions include controlled hypertension, a family history of thromboembolic disease in first-degree relatives under 45 years old, and current gallbladder disease. Examples of UKMEC 4 conditions include a history of thromboembolic disease or thrombogenic mutation, breast cancer, and uncontrolled hypertension. Diabetes mellitus diagnosed over 20 years ago is classified as UKMEC 3 or 4 depending on severity. In 2016, breast feeding between 6 weeks and 6 months postpartum was changed from UKMEC 3 to UKMEC 2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      22.4
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - An 81-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department after her smartwatch ECG recorder...

    Correct

    • An 81-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department after her smartwatch ECG recorder detected atrial fibrillation for the past three days. She has experienced mild shortness of breath during physical activity in the last 24 hours. Upon examination, her heart rate is irregular, with a rate of 98 bpm, and her blood pressure is stable at 130/72 mmHg. She has no history of atrial fibrillation and only takes amlodipine for her grade I hypertension. What is the most appropriate treatment plan?

      Your Answer: Discharge on bisoprolol and apixaban and arrange cardioversion in four weeks

      Explanation:

      In cases of sudden atrial fibrillation, if the duration is 48 hours or more, the first step is to control the heart rate. If long-term rhythm control is being considered, it is important to wait at least 3 weeks after starting therapeutic anticoagulation before attempting cardioversion.

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management to prevent complications. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend that patients presenting with AF should be assessed for haemodynamic instability, and if present, electrically cardioverted. For haemodynamically stable patients, the management depends on how acute the AF is. If the AF has been present for less than 48 hours, rate or rhythm control may be considered. However, if it has been present for 48 hours or more, or the onset is uncertain, rate control is recommended. If long-term rhythm control is being considered, cardioversion should be delayed until the patient has been maintained on therapeutic anticoagulation for at least 3 weeks.

      Rate control is the first-line treatment strategy for AF, except in certain cases. Medications such as beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, and digoxin can be used to control the heart rate. However, digoxin is no longer considered first-line as it is less effective at controlling the heart rate during exercise. Rhythm control agents such as beta-blockers, dronedarone, and amiodarone can be used to maintain sinus rhythm in patients with a history of AF. Catheter ablation is recommended for those who have not responded to or wish to avoid antiarrhythmic medication.

      The aim of catheter ablation is to ablate the faulty electrical pathways that are causing AF. The procedure is performed percutaneously, typically via the groin, and can use radiofrequency or cryotherapy to ablate the tissue. Anticoagulation should be used 4 weeks before and during the procedure. It is important to note that catheter ablation controls the rhythm but does not reduce the stroke risk, so patients still require anticoagulation as per their CHA2DS2-VASc score. Complications of catheter ablation can include cardiac tamponade, stroke, and pulmonary vein stenosis. The success rate of the procedure is around 50% for early recurrence within 3 months, and around 55% of patients who’ve had a single procedure remain in sinus rhythm after 3 years. Of patients who’ve undergone multiple procedures, around 80% are in sinus rhythm.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      38.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 56-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with a high stoma output...

    Correct

    • A 56-year-old man is admitted to the hospital with a high stoma output from his ileostomy. He had a colectomy 8 years ago due to severe ulcerative colitis. He complains of leg cramps and occasional palpitations, and feels weak. Upon examination, his abdomen is soft with slight tenderness throughout. His blood work reveals a sodium level of 138 mmol/l, potassium level of 2.2 mmol/l, urea level of 13.3 mmol/l, and creatinine level of 150 µmol/l. An ECG shows flattened T waves and U waves. He is admitted to the medical admission unit. How should his electrolyte imbalance be managed?

      Your Answer: Transfer to high care area with cardiac monitoring, 3 x 1litre bags of 0.9% saline with 40mmol KCL per bag over 24 hours.

      Explanation:

      Understanding Hypokalaemia and its Features

      Hypokalaemia is a medical condition characterized by low levels of potassium in the blood. It can lead to various symptoms, including muscle weakness and hypotonia. Patients with hypokalaemia who are also taking diuretics should be monitored closely for digoxin toxicity.

      One of the most significant concerns with hypokalaemia is its impact on the heart. ECG features associated with hypokalaemia include U waves, small or absent T waves, prolonged PR interval, and ST depression. These changes can increase the risk of arrhythmias and other cardiac complications.

      It is essential to recognize the signs and symptoms of hypokalaemia promptly. Treatment may involve potassium supplements or addressing the underlying cause of the condition. With proper management, patients with hypokalaemia can avoid complications and improve their overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      43.9
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Paediatrics (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology/Therapeutics (0/1) 0%
Reproductive Medicine (2/3) 67%
Dermatology (0/1) 0%
Cardiovascular (1/2) 50%
Immunology/Allergy (1/1) 100%
Renal Medicine/Urology (1/1) 100%
Passmed