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Question 1
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A 26 year old lady comes to see you in the antenatal clinic. She is 8 weeks pregnant and is concerned as she has a new cat and her friend told her she shouldn't be changing cat litter when pregnant. You send bloods which show high IgM for toxoplasmosis gondii. Which of the following is an appropriate treatment option?
Your Answer: Spiramycin
Explanation:There are 2 treatment options: Spiramycin ASAP if foetus not infected or status of the foetus not known. This reduces risk of transplacental infection. This is continued until term, or until fetal infection is documented. Pyrimethamine, sulfadiazine and folic acid where fetal infection is known e.g. positive amniotic fluid PCR. Monitoring for haemotoxicity required. Pyrimethamine should be avoided in the 1st trimester as teratogenic
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Microbiology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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Question 3
Correct
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Regarding lymph drainage of the lower vagina where does the majority of lymph drain to?
Your Answer: Inguinal nodes
Explanation:The lower vagina drains to the inguinal nodes where as the upper vagina drains to the internal and external iliacs
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 4
Correct
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A 28-year-old woman had a C-section due to pre-eclampsia. She now complains of right upper quadrant pain unrelated to the surgical wound. Which of the following investigations should be done immediately?
Your Answer: LFT
Explanation:There is a high risk of developing HELLP syndrome in pre-eclamptic patients. Considering that she is complaining of right upper quadrant pain, a LFT should be done immediately.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 5
Correct
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All of the following factors are associated with umbilical cord prolapse, except?
Your Answer: Anencephaly
Explanation:Anencephaly means the missing of a particular portion of the scalp and brain tissue. The other factors listed are associated with umbilical cord prolapse like multiparity, twin birth, polyhydramnios, premature delivery, long umbilical cord or breech presentation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 26 year old patient with PCOS has been trying to conceive for 2 years. Her BMI is 26 kg/m2. She is a non-smoker. Which of the following is the most appropriate first line treatment?
Your Answer: Gonadotrophin therapy
Correct Answer: Clomiphene
Explanation:Firstline medical management of PCOS is with clomiphene.
Ovulation Disorders
WHO Group I : Hypothalamic pituitary failure (Stress, anorexia, exercise induced)
Management:
Increase BMI if <19 kg/m2
Reduce exercise if high levels
Pulsatile GnRH or Gonadotrophins with LH activity to induce ovulationWHO Group II : Hypothalamic-pituitary-ovarian dysfunction (PCOS)
Management:
Weight reduction if BMI >30
Clomiphene/Clomiphene (1st line)
Metformin (1st line)
Clomiphene & Metformin (1st/2nd line)
Laparoscopic drilling (2nd line)
Gonadotrophins (2nd line)WHO Group III : Ovarian failure
Management:
Consider IVF with donor eggs -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 7
Correct
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A 25-year-old primigravida presents to your office for a routine OB visit at 34 weeks of gestational age. She voices concern as she has noticed an increasing number of spidery veins appearing on her face, upper chest and arms and is upset with the unsightly appearance of these veins. She wants to know what you recommend to get rid of them. Which of the following is the best advice you can give to this patient?
Your Answer: Tell her that the appearance of these blood vessels is a normal occurrence with pregnancy
Explanation:Vascular spiders or angiomas, are of no clinical significance during pregnancy as these are common findings and are form as a result of hyperestrogenemia associated with normal pregnancies. These angiomas, as they will resolve spontaneously after delivery, does not require any additional workup or treatment.
Reassurance to the patient is all that is required in this case. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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Which of the following increases during pregnancy?
Your Answer: Vital Capacity
Correct Answer: Tidal Volume
Explanation:Ventilation begins to increase significantly at around 8 weeks of gestation, most likely in response to progesterone-related sensitization of the respiratory centre to carbon dioxide and the increased metabolic rate. Significant alterations occur in the mechanical aspects of ventilation during pregnancy. Minute ventilation (or the amount of air moved in and out of the lungs in 1 minute) is the product of tidal volume and respiratory rate and increases by approximately 30–50 per cent with pregnancy. The increase is primarily a result of tidal volume, which increases by 40 per cent (from 500 to 700 mL), because the respiratory rate remains unchanged. The increase in minute ventilation is perceived by the pregnant woman as shortness of breath, which affects 60–70 per cent of women. This physiological dyspnoea is usually mild and affects 50 per cent of women before 20 weeks gestation, but resolves immediately postpartum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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You are asked to review the early pregnancy ultrasound scan of a 27 year old lady. The transvaginal ultrasound results show a gestational sac of 26mm with no fetal pole and no fetal heartbeat. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Molar Pregnancy
Correct Answer: Miscarriage
Explanation:Ultrasound findings in early pregnancy can help determine the viability of an intrauterine pregnancy. In the absence of a fetal heartbeat and no visible fetal pole, the mean gestational sac diameter should be measured. A sac diameter of less than 25mm on a transvaginal ultrasound scan is likely an indication of a miscarriage. In the presence of a fetal heartbeat, the crown-rump length should be less than 7mm according to NICE guidelines. Further scans are indicated 14 days later to confirm the diagnosis. The diagnosis of ‘pregnancy of uncertain viability’ is given in situations where there is inadequate ultrasound evidence to diagnose a miscarriage, such as a developing sac but no visualisation of a foetus with a heartbeat.
Ultrasound findings for partial molar pregnancy are an enlarged placenta with multiple diffuse anechogenic patches, while findings in a complete molar pregnancy include an enlarged uterus with multiple small anechogenic spaces (snowstorm appearance), or the bunch of grapes sign representing hydropic trophoblastic villi. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Data Interpretation
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old female presents with 3 months of irregular vaginal bleeding. Prior to this her menstrual periods were normal. Which one of the following is the most appropriate initial laboratory test for this patient?
Your Answer: LH and FSH
Correct Answer: hCG
Explanation:In women of childbearing age, the most likely cause of abnormal vaginal bleeding is pregnancy; thus, the most appropriate initial test would be an hCG level. Once pregnancy has been excluded, patient history would guide further testing. Iatrogenic causes, usually resulting from certain medicines or supplements, are the next most common cause in this age group, followed by systemic disorders. Haemoglobin and haematocrit would be appropriate only if the patient seemed acutely anaemic due to the abnormal bleeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 11
Correct
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Which of the following will require Anti-D administration post partum?
Your Answer: Rhesus negative mother, non-sensitised, fetal cord blood Rh positive
Explanation:Rhesus positive mothers should not get anti-D. They have Rhesus antigens and the anti-D would result in maternal blood being bound and removed from her circulation. The danger is to children born to mothers who are rhesus negative. As the mother may develop antibodies against Rhesus positive fetal blood. Therefore if the baby is Rhesus negative then there is no risk of alloimmunisation (sensitisation)
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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Regarding Turner syndrome which of the following statements is true?
Your Answer: Complete monosomy is rare accounting for <10% of cases of Turners
Correct Answer: Only 1% of affected foetuses will survive to term
Explanation:The incidence of 45,XO turner syndrome is around 1 in 8000 live births. Approximately 1% of monosomy X female embryos survive. Phenotypically they are females and 90% do not develop secondary sexual characteristics and hormone replacement is required.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 13
Correct
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What is the most common cause of hypercalcaemia?
Your Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism
Explanation:Primary hyperparathyroidism is the most common cause of hypercalcaemia with incidence rates in the UK approximately 30 per 100,000 The majority of patients are postmenopausal women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Physiology
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Question 14
Correct
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Question 15
Correct
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A women in her 21-weeks of pregnancy, complaints of palpitations, sweating of palms, and increased nervousness. Along with TSH what other investigations should be done for this patient?
Your Answer: Free T4
Explanation:Patient mentioned in the case has developed thyrotoxicosis during pregnancy. TSH level should be tested, and if the result shows any suppressed or elevated TSH level, then it is mandatory to check for free T4 level.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 16
Correct
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Question 17
Correct
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Which of the following is not caused by HPV?
Your Answer: Oesophageal cancer
Explanation:HPV infects the squamous cells that line the inner surfaces of these organs. For this reason, most HPV-related cancers are a type of cancer called squamous cell carcinoma. Some cervical cancers come from HPV infection of gland cells in the cervix and are called adenocarcinomas.
HPV-related cancers include:
Cervical cancer: Virtually all cervical cancers are caused by HPV. Routine screening can prevent most cervical cancers by allowing health care providers to find and remove precancerous cells before they develop into cancer. As a result, cervical cancer incidence rates in the United States are decreasing.
Oropharyngeal cancers: Most of these cancers, which develop in the throat (usually the tonsils or the back of the tongue), are caused by HPV (70% of those in the United States). The number of new cases is increasing each year, and oropharyngeal cancers are now the most common HPV-related cancer in the United States.
Anal cancer: Over 90% of anal cancers are caused by HPV. The number of new cases and deaths from anal cancer are increasing each year. Anal cancer is nearly twice as common in women as in men. Learn more about anal cancer statistics.
Penile cancer: Most penile cancers (over 60%) are caused by HPV.
Vaginal cancer: Most vaginal cancers (75%) are caused by HPV. Learn about symptoms of, and treatment for, vaginal cancer, a rare type of cancer.Vulvar cancer: Most vulvar cancers (70%) are caused by HPV.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 18
Correct
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Regarding the uterine artery which of the following statements are TRUE?
Your Answer: It arises from the internal iliac artery
Explanation:The uterine artery arises from the internal iliac artery, in particular the anterior division of the internal iliac artery. Some older texts refer to the internal iliac as the hypogastric artery. The vaginal artery typically arises as its own branch of the internal iliac artery. The ovarian arteries are branches of the aorta
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 19
Correct
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A 19-year-old female patient with secondary amenorrhea visits your office. A urine pregnancy test is negative. As part of your work-up, you order a pelvic ultrasound, which reveals a fluid filled, thin walled cyst measuring 1.8 x 1.3 x 1 cm. She doesn't complain of pain or tenderness. What is the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer: Do nothing
Explanation:An ovarian cyst is a sac filled with liquid or semiliquid material that arises in an ovary. Although the discovery of an ovarian cyst causes considerable anxiety in women owing to fears of malignancy, the vast majority of these lesions are benign.
Many patients with simple ovarian cysts based on ultrasonographic findings do not require treatment.
In a postmenopausal patient, a persistent simple cyst smaller than 10cm in dimension in the presence of a normal CA125 value may be monitored with serial ultrasonographic examinations.However, meta-analyses have since shown that there is no difference between OCP use and placebo in terms of treatment outcomes in ovarian cysts and that these masses should be monitored expectantly for several menstrual cycles.
If a cystic mass does not resolve after this timeframe, it is unlikely to be a functional cyst, and further workup may be indicated.
Other methods of management maybe revisited if cyst increases in size or becomes complex upon follow up.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old woman presented with abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding of around 600 ml at 40 weeks of gestation. On examination, her vital signs were found to be stable, with a tender abdomen and there were no fetal heart sounds heard on auscultation. Which among the following is considered the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer: Augment the labour
Correct Answer: Amniotomy
Explanation:Placental abruption is commonly defined as the premature separation of the placenta, which complicates approximately 1% of births. During the second half of pregnancy abruption is considered an important cause for vaginal bleeding and is mostly associated with significant perinatal mortality and morbidity.
Clinical presentation of abruption varies from asymptomatic cases to those complicated with fetal death and severe maternal morbidity. Classical symptoms of placental abruption are vaginal bleeding and abdominal pain, but at times severe cases might occur with neither or just of one of these signs. In some cases the amount of vaginal bleeding may not correlates with the degree of abruption, this is because the severity of symptoms is always depend on the location of abruption, whether it is revealed or concealed and the degree of abruption.
Diagnosis of abruption is clinical and the condition should be suspected in every women who presents with vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain or both, with a history of trauma, and in those women who present with an unexplained preterm labor. All causes of abdominal pain and bleeding, like placenta previa, appendicitis, urinary tract infections, preterm labor, fibroid degeneration, ovarian pathology and muscular pain are considered as differential diagnosis of abruption.In the given case patient has developed signs and symptoms of placental abruption, like severe vaginal bleeding with abdominal pain, whose management depends on its presentation, gestational age and the degree of maternal and fetal compromise. As the presentation is widely variable, it is important to individualize the management on a case-by-case basis. More aggressive management is desirable in cases of severe abruption, which is not appropriate in milder cases of abruption. In cases of severe abruption with fetal death, as seen in the given case, it is reasonable to allow the patient to have a vaginal delivery,regardless of gestational age, as long as the mother is stable and there are no other contraindications.
The uterus is contracting vigorously, and labor occurs rapidly and progresses, so amniotomy is mostly sufficient to speed up delivery. There is a significant risk for coagulopathy and hypovolemic shock so intravenous access should be established with aggressive replacement of blood and coagulation factors. Meticulous attention should be paid to the amount of blood loss; general investigations like complete blood count, coagulation studies and type and crossmatch should be done and the blood bank should be informed of the potential for coagulopathy. A Foley catheter should be placed and an hourly urine output should be monitored.
It is prudent to involve an anesthesiologist in the patient’s care, because if labor does not progress rapidly as in cases like feto-pelvic disproportion, fetal malpresentation, or a prior classical cesarean delivery, it will be necessary to conduct a cesarean delivery to avoid worsening of the coagulopathy.
Bleeding from surgical incisions in the presence of DIC may be difficult to control, and it is equally important to stabilize the patient and to correct any coagulation derangement occuring during surgery. The patient should be monitored closely after delivery, with particular attention paid to her vital signs, amount of blood loss, and urine output. In addition, the uterus should be observed closely to ensure that it remains contracted and is not increasing in size.
Immediate delivery is indicated in cases of abruption at term or near term with a live fetus. In such cases the main question is whether vaginal delivery can be achieved without fetal or maternal death or severe morbidity. In cases where there is evidence of fetal compromise, delivery is not imminent and cesarean delivery should be performed promptly, because total placental detachment could occur without warning. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 21
Incorrect
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During vertex presentation, the position is determined by relationship of which part of the fetal vertex to the mother's pelvis?
Your Answer: Sacrum
Correct Answer: Occiput
Explanation:A cephalic presentation is the one where head of the foetus enters the pelvic cavity at the time of delivery. The commonest form of cephalic presentation is the vertex presentation in which the occiput of the foetus enters the birth canal.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 22
Correct
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During the filling phase of micturition. At what bladder volume is the first urge to void felt?
Your Answer: 150ml
Explanation:The normal functional bladder capacity is around 400-600ml. First urge to void is typically felt when the bladder is approximately 150ml full.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Anatomy
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 16 year old girl has been referred as she has amenorrhoea. She reports never having periods. Her mother and 2 sisters menarche was at age 12. On examination you note the patient is 152cm tall and BMI 29.0 and secondary sexual characteristics are not developed. Her FSH is elevated. Prolactin is normal. What is the suspected diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Turner Syndrome
Explanation:Turner syndrome is the most common chromosomal abnormality in females occurring in 1 in 2500 live births. It is characterised by short stature, webbed neck and wide carrying angle. It is also associated with renal, endocrine and CVS abnormalities. In this condition the ovaries do not completely develop and do not produce oestrogen or oocytes, thus no secondary sexual characteristic develop and neither does the girl starts menstruating.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 24
Incorrect
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Hysterosalpingogram (HSG) is contraindicated in the following EXCEPT:
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Congenital malformations of the uterus
Explanation:Anomalies of the cervico-uterus are widely diagnosed by HSG. The diagnostic value of HSG in the detection of anomalies varies, depending on the type of malformation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A pregnant woman with a history of osteoarthritis presents to her antenatal clinic. She is complaining of restricted joint movement and severe pain in her joints. Choose the most appropriate medication for her from the list below.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Paracetamol
Explanation:Paracetamol is safe to take during pregnancy and has shown no harm to unborn children during studies. It is the treatment of choice for mild to moderate pain during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Obstetrics
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Question 26
Incorrect
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Following parturition uterine contractions called Afterpains may typically continue for how long?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2-3 days
Explanation:Oxytocin can also stimulate after pains that occur 2-3 following delivery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 27
Incorrect
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Which species of candida is the most common cause of genital candida infection in pregnancy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Candida albicans
Explanation:Vulvovaginal candidiasis is the most common genital infection and it is caused by candida albicans in 80-92% of the cases. Other non albicans species include C.tropicalis, C.glabrata, C.krusei and C.parapsilosis. 20% of women of childbearing age are asymptotic colonisers of Candida species as part of their normal vaginal flora. This increases to 40% in pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 55 year old patient with a who has tried unsuccessful conservative measures for her overactive bladder, would like to consider Oxybutynin. She wants to know how common dry mouth is as a side effect, as her sister suffered from it on while on the same drug.
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: approximately 1 in 10 patients
Explanation:Urinary incontinence can be divided into two main aetiologies, stress incontinence, or overactive bladder. Conservative management include lifestyle interventions, controlling fluid intake, or bladder exercises. If conservative management is no longer efficient, then medications may be indicated. Oxybutynin is an anticholinergic drug used in the treatment of urinary incontinence. As with other anticholinergic drugs, side effects include dry mouth, dry eyes, blurry vision and constipation. About 1 in 10 patients taking Oxybutynin will experience some of these side effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman presents to the gynaecologic clinic with a complaint of headache, irritability, insomnia, abdominal bloating, anxiety, and breast tenderness around 4 to 5 days before menstruation for the last 8 months. There's also a limitation on daily activities and she has to take a week off from work. The patient's symptoms are relieved with the onset of menstruation. She does not smoke or drink alcohol. There is no other significant past medical history. Which of the following is the best treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fluoxetine
Explanation:The signs and symptoms of premenstrual dysmorphic disorder are well-known in this patient. Fluoxetine is the greatest therapeutic option among the available options.
For severe symptoms, clomipramine and danazol can be used interchangeably.
Bromocriptine, like oral contraceptives and evening primrose, has no scientific evidence to support its use in this syndrome.
NSAIDs are helpful for painful symptoms, but they only address a limited number of them. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gynaecology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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Ulipristal is thought to prevent pregnancy by what primary mechanism?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Inhibition of ovulation
Explanation:Ulipristal is a progesterone receptor modulator that is used up to 120 hours following unprotected intercourse. It inhibits ovulation. The dose is 30 mg.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Management
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