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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman visits the GUM clinic at 18 weeks gestation. Her partner has tested positive for Chlamydia and she needs treatment as a contact. The doctor prescribes a single dose of azithromycin 1g and screens her for infection. When is it appropriate to conduct a test of cure (TOC)?
Your Answer: TOC not required
Correct Answer: 6 weeks
Explanation:For symptomatic men with Chlamydia, it is recommended to notify all sexual partners from the 4 weeks prior to the onset of symptoms. As for women and asymptomatic men, all sexual partners from the last 6 months or the most recent partner should be notified. Pregnant women should undergo a test of cure (TOC) 6 weeks after infection, according to BASHH guidelines. Performing a TOC earlier than 6 weeks may result in a false positive due to the presence of nonviable Chlamydia DNA on the NAAT. However, uncomplicated Chlamydia infection in men and non-pregnant women does not require a routine TOC.
Chlamydia is a common sexually transmitted infection caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. It is prevalent in the UK, with approximately 1 in 10 young women affected. The incubation period is around 7-21 days, but many cases are asymptomatic. Symptoms in women include cervicitis, discharge, and bleeding, while men may experience urethral discharge and dysuria. Complications can include epididymitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, and infertility.
Traditional cell culture is no longer widely used for diagnosis, with nuclear acid amplification tests (NAATs) being the preferred method. Testing can be done using urine, vulvovaginal swab, or cervical swab. Screening is recommended for sexually active individuals aged 15-24 years, and opportunistic testing is common.
Doxycycline is the first-line treatment for Chlamydia, with azithromycin as an alternative if doxycycline is contraindicated or not tolerated. Pregnant women may be treated with azithromycin, erythromycin, or amoxicillin. Patients diagnosed with Chlamydia should be offered partner notification services, with all contacts since the onset of symptoms or within the last six months being notified and offered treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 2
Correct
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Which one of the following scenarios would not require immediate referral to the nearby breast service as per the guidelines of NICE?
Your Answer: 28-year-old female with a 8 week history of a new breast lump. Benign in nature on examination
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines, women who are 30 years or older should be referred urgently to the local breast services if they have an unexplained breast lump with or without pain. As the woman in question is 28 years old, she should be referred to the local breast services, but it is not urgent.
In 2015, NICE released guidelines for referring individuals suspected of having breast cancer. If a person is 30 years or older and has an unexplained breast lump with or without pain, or if they are 50 years or older and have discharge, retraction, or other concerning changes in one nipple only, they should be referred using a suspected cancer pathway referral for an appointment within two weeks. If a person has skin changes that suggest breast cancer or is 30 years or older with an unexplained lump in the axilla, a suspected cancer pathway referral should also be considered. For individuals under 30 years old with an unexplained breast lump with or without pain, non-urgent referral should be considered.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 27 year old pregnant woman is currently experiencing a prolonged second stage of labour due to cephalopelvic disproportion. The midwife is aware of the potential risks to both the mother and foetus and calls for an obstetrician. The obstetrician performs a perineal incision in a mediolateral direction. What is the name of this procedure?
Your Answer: Episiotomy
Explanation:The procedure being performed is called an episiotomy, which can be done using various techniques. In this case, the medio-lateral approach is being used, which involves making a cut at either the 7 o’clock or 5 o’clock positions. The main reasons for performing this procedure are twofold. Firstly, it helps to prevent the vagina from tearing during childbirth, particularly in cases where the baby’s head is too large for the mother’s pelvis. By making a controlled incision, the risk of the tear extending towards the anus and surrounding muscles is reduced, which could lead to long-term problems such as fecal incontinence. Secondly, the episiotomy creates more space for the baby to pass through, making delivery easier and safer for both the mother and child.
Understanding Episiotomy
Episiotomy is a surgical procedure that involves making an incision in the posterior wall of the vagina and perineum during the second stage of labor. This procedure is done to make it easier for the baby to pass through the birth canal. The incision is made in the area between the vagina and anus, and it can be either midline or mediolateral.
Episiotomy is usually performed when the baby is in distress, and there is a need to speed up the delivery process. It can also be done to prevent tearing of the perineum, which can be more difficult to repair than an episiotomy. However, the procedure is not without risks, and it can lead to complications such as pain, infection, and bleeding.
In recent years, there has been a decline in the use of episiotomy, as studies have shown that it does not necessarily reduce the risk of tearing or improve healing time. Many healthcare providers now only perform episiotomy when it is medically necessary. It is important for expectant mothers to discuss the use of episiotomy with their healthcare provider and understand the risks and benefits before making a decision.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 4
Correct
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A 68-year-old man who has recently had a stroke is here for a follow-up appointment. He explains that he was watching a game with his son when he suddenly lost feeling on the left side of his body. Emergency services were called and he was taken to the hospital where a CT scan confirmed a right-sided ischemic stroke. He has no other medical history. What antiplatelet medication should he be prescribed after the stroke?
Your Answer: Aspirin 300 mg daily for 2 weeks then clopidogrel 75 mg daily lifelong
Explanation:After a stroke, all patients should receive an antiplatelet medication, unless they require an anticoagulant. As per NICE guidelines, individuals with confirmed ischaemic stroke through brain imaging should be given 300 mg of aspirin daily for two weeks. Afterward, long-term treatment with 75 mg of clopidogrel is recommended, provided it is well-tolerated and not contraindicated. If clopidogrel is not suitable, modified-release dipyridamole with low-dose aspirin should be administered.
Latest Guidance on Antiplatelets
Antiplatelets are medications that prevent blood clots from forming by inhibiting platelet aggregation. The most recent guidelines recommend different antiplatelet regimens depending on the diagnosis. For acute coronary syndrome, aspirin and ticagrelor are recommended for 12 months, followed by lifelong aspirin and clopidogrel if aspirin is contraindicated. For percutaneous coronary intervention, lifelong aspirin and prasugrel or ticagrelor for 12 months are recommended, with lifelong clopidogrel if aspirin is contraindicated. For TIA and ischaemic stroke, lifelong clopidogrel is recommended as first-line treatment, with lifelong aspirin and dipyridamole as second-line treatment. For peripheral arterial disease, lifelong clopidogrel is recommended as first-line treatment, with lifelong aspirin as second-line treatment. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the best possible outcomes for patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old man visits his doctor with worries about a discharge coming from his nipples. Which medication is the most probable cause for this symptom?
Your Answer: Spironolactone
Correct Answer: Chlorpromazine
Explanation:Gynaecomastia may be linked to each of the remaining four drugs instead of galactorrhoea.
Understanding Prolactin and Galactorrhoea
Prolactin is a hormone produced by the anterior pituitary gland, and its release is regulated by various physiological factors. Dopamine is the primary inhibitor of prolactin release, and dopamine agonists like bromocriptine can be used to manage galactorrhoea. Galactorrhoea is a condition characterized by the production of breast milk in individuals who are not breastfeeding. It is important to distinguish the causes of galactorrhoea from those of gynaecomastia, which is the enlargement of male breast tissue.
Excess prolactin can lead to different symptoms in men and women. Men may experience impotence, loss of libido, and galactorrhoea, while women may have amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea. Several factors can cause raised prolactin levels, including prolactinoma, pregnancy, oestrogens, stress, exercise, sleep, acromegaly, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and primary hypothyroidism. Additionally, certain medications like metoclopramide, domperidone, phenothiazines, haloperidol, SSRIs, and opioids can also increase prolactin levels.
In summary, understanding prolactin and its effects on the body is crucial in diagnosing and managing conditions like galactorrhoea. Identifying the underlying causes of raised prolactin levels is essential in providing appropriate treatment and improving patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man has been diagnosed with active tuberculosis and started on antibiotics. He has a history of chronic kidney disease stage 4 and atrial fibrillation treated with warfarin. His INR taken 2 days after starting treatment is elevated at 7.8. Which antibiotic is the likely cause of this result?
Your Answer: Rifampicin
Correct Answer: Isoniazid
Explanation:The cytochrome p450 system is inhibited by isoniazid, which leads to a decrease in the metabolism of warfarin. This results in an increase in the INR and prolongation of its effects. Although erythromycin is metabolized by the cytochrome p450 system, it is not used in the initial phase of anti-tuberculosis treatment. Levofloxacin is not typically used in the initial phase of anti-tuberculosis treatment, but it may be used in combination with other agents if standard treatment is discontinued due to hepatotoxicity. Pyridoxine, which is vitamin B6, is not utilized in the treatment of tuberculosis.
P450 Enzyme System and its Inducers and Inhibitors
The P450 enzyme system is responsible for metabolizing drugs in the body. Induction of this system usually requires prolonged exposure to the inducing drug, unlike P450 inhibitors, which have rapid effects. Some drugs that induce the P450 system include antiepileptics like phenytoin and carbamazepine, barbiturates such as phenobarbitone, rifampicin, St John’s Wort, chronic alcohol intake, griseofulvin, and smoking, which affects CYP1A2 and is the reason why smokers require more aminophylline.
On the other hand, some drugs inhibit the P450 system, including antibiotics like ciprofloxacin and erythromycin, isoniazid, cimetidine, omeprazole, amiodarone, allopurinol, imidazoles such as ketoconazole and fluconazole, SSRIs like fluoxetine and sertraline, ritonavir, sodium valproate, and acute alcohol intake. It is important to be aware of these inducers and inhibitors as they can affect the metabolism and efficacy of drugs in the body. Proper dosing and monitoring can help ensure safe and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 7
Correct
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A 68-year-old man presents with two episodes of painless, transient left monocular visual loss lasting up to a minute; each episode was like a curtain descending from the upper visual field to affect the whole vision of his left eye. Neurological examination is normal. His blood pressure is 130/85 mmHg. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), glucose and lipids are all within the normal ranges. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows sinus rhythm. Computerised tomography (CT) of the brain is normal. Doppler ultrasound of the carotid arteries shows 50% stenosis of the left internal carotid artery.
Which of the following is the treatment of choice?Your Answer: Aspirin
Explanation:Management of Transient Visual Loss and Carotid Artery Stenosis
Transient visual loss can be caused by various factors, including retinal ischemia and emboli from atherosclerotic carotid arteries. In cases where Doppler ultrasound shows 40% stenosis of the internal carotid artery, surgery is not recommended. Instead, best medical treatment should be administered, including control of blood pressure, antiplatelet agents, cholesterol-lowering drugs, and lifestyle advice. Acute treatment with 300 mg aspirin is recommended, followed by high-dose treatment for two weeks before initiating long-term antithrombotic treatment.
Prednisolone is used in the treatment of giant cell arteritis, which can also cause transient visual loss. Diagnosis requires three out of five criteria, including age over 50, new headache, temporal artery abnormality, elevated ESR, and abnormal artery biopsy.
Carotid artery angioplasty may be considered as an alternative to carotid endarterectomy for revascularization in select cases. However, there are concerns regarding stent placement and the risk of stroke. Surgical management is only indicated for carotid artery stenosis over 50%.
Anticoagulation treatment is not routinely used for the treatment of acute stroke. It may be considered for those in atrial fibrillation or at high risk of venous thromboembolism. For patients with a history of transient ischemic attack, high-dose aspirin is recommended for two weeks post-event, followed by long-term secondary prevention with aspirin and modified-release dipyridamole or clopidogrel.
Management of Transient Visual Loss and Carotid Artery Stenosis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old college student is brought to the emergency department by her roommates, presenting confusion and fever. She had been complaining of a severe headache and neck stiffness since yesterday. Her roommates have also noticed what appears to be bruising.
Upon examination, she appears acutely unwell, with a fever and nuchal rigidity. A widespread purpuric rash is observed, as well as general pallor and mottling.
Considering the probable diagnosis, what should be provided to her roommates?Your Answer: Intramuscular benzylpenicillin now
Correct Answer: Oral ciprofloxacin now
Explanation:Prophylaxis for contacts of patients with meningococcal meningitis involves the use of oral ciprofloxacin or rifampicin. In this case, the patient’s symptoms indicate meningococcal meningitis, and therefore, household members and close contacts should be offered prophylaxis with ciprofloxacin as the preferred drug. Intramuscular benzylpenicillin is not appropriate for prophylaxis, but may be given to a patient with suspected meningococcal meningitis in a pre-hospital setting. Intravenous benzylpenicillin is a treatment option for the patient, not for contacts. Intravenous cefotaxime is also a treatment option for the patient, but not a suitable prophylactic antibiotic for contacts. Waiting until symptoms develop to give oral ciprofloxacin is not recommended – it should be given immediately.
The investigation and management of suspected bacterial meningitis are intertwined due to the potential negative impact of delayed antibiotic treatment. Patients should be urgently transferred to the hospital, and an ABC approach should be taken initially. A lumbar puncture should be delayed in certain circumstances, and IV antibiotics should be given as a priority if there is any doubt. The bloods and CSF should be tested for various parameters, and prophylaxis should be offered to households and close contacts of patients affected with meningococcal meningitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 9
Correct
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A 25-year-old female presented to her GP with a grey, thin, creamy vaginal discharge.
Which of the following is the best verbal advice to give her?Your Answer: Avoid perfumed soaps
Explanation:Bacterial Vaginosis: Symptoms, Risk Factors, and Diagnosis
Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a common vaginal infection caused by an overgrowth of bacteria. It is important for patients to understand the symptoms, risk factors, and diagnosis of BV in order to properly manage and treat the condition.
Symptoms of BV include vaginal odor, increased vaginal discharge, vulvar irritation, and rarely, dysuria or dyspareunia. Risk factors for BV include recent antibiotic use, decreased estrogen production, presence of an intrauterine device, douching, and sexual activity that could lead to transmission.
Physical findings of BV include grey, thin, and homogeneous vaginal discharge that adheres to the vaginal mucosa, increased light reflex of the vaginal walls, and typically little or no evidence of inflammation. Diagnosis of BV is made through microscopic examination of the discharge, with demonstration of three of the following four Amsel criteria: clue cells on a saline smear, a pH >4.5, characteristic discharge, and a positive whiff test.
Patients with BV should be advised to wash only with hypoallergenic bar soaps or no soap at all, avoid liquid soaps, body washes, and perfumed soaps, and not to douche or use over-the-counter vaginal hygiene products. While studies have shown inconsistent results, some patients may find relief from symptoms by using yogurt containing live bacteria.
It is important to properly manage and treat BV, as long-standing or untreated cases may lead to more serious complications such as endometritis, salpingitis, pelvic inflammatory disease, or pregnancy complications. However, with proper care and attention, the prognosis for uncomplicated cases of BV is generally excellent.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 10
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman with Addison's disease is seen for a follow-up appointment. She reports a productive cough and feeling feverish for the past three days. Upon examination, her chest is clear, pulse is 84 beats per minute, and temperature is 37.7ÂșC. Due to her medical history, an antibiotic is prescribed.
What advice should be given regarding her adrenal replacement therapy?Your Answer: Double the hydrocortisone dose, keep the same fludrocortisone dose
Explanation:In the case of a patient with Addison’s disease who develops an additional illness, it is recommended to increase the dose of glucocorticoids while maintaining the same dose of fludrocortisone.
Addison’s disease is a condition that requires patients to undergo both glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid replacement therapy. This treatment usually involves taking a combination of hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone. Hydrocortisone is typically given in 2 or 3 divided doses, with patients requiring 20-30 mg per day, mostly in the first half of the day. Patient education is crucial, and it is essential to emphasize the importance of not missing glucocorticoid doses. Additionally, patients should consider wearing MedicAlert bracelets and steroid cards, and they should be provided with hydrocortisone for injection with needles and syringes to treat an adrenal crisis.
During an intercurrent illness, it is crucial to manage the glucocorticoid dose properly. In simple terms, the glucocorticoid dose should be doubled, while the fludrocortisone dose should remain the same. The Addison’s Clinical Advisory Panel has produced guidelines that detail specific scenarios, and patients should refer to these guidelines for more information. It is essential to discuss how to adjust the glucocorticoid dose during an intercurrent illness with a healthcare professional. Proper management of Addison’s disease is crucial to ensure that patients can lead healthy and fulfilling lives.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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