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Question 1
Correct
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A 51-year-old man undergoes excision of a bladder tumour. postoperatively, he has a small amount of haematuria. His urine output is as follows:
Time Urine output
13:00 60 ml/hr
14:00 68 ml/hr
15:00 52 ml/hr
16:00 0 ml/hr
17:00 0 ml/hr
18:00 0 ml/hr
You are asked to see the patient by his nurse who is concerned about the low urine output.
What is the correct next step?Your Answer: Flush the catheter with 50 ml of normal saline
Explanation:Appropriate Fluid Management in Post-Operative Patients
In post-operative patients, appropriate fluid management is crucial to prevent complications and promote healing. However, it is important to use the correct interventions based on the patient’s specific condition. Here are some examples:
Flush the Catheter with 50 ml of Normal Saline
This intervention is appropriate when there is an abrupt drop in urine output on a background of haematuria, which is likely caused by a clot obstructing the catheter tube. Flushing the catheter with a small amount of normal saline can dislodge the clot and reinstate urine flow without damaging the bladder and healing.Give a 250 ml Intravenous (IV) Bolus of Normal Saline
This intervention is appropriate when there is a gradual reduction in urine output, suggesting dehydration and hypovolaemia. However, it is not appropriate for an abrupt drop in urine output caused by catheter obstruction.Give a 2000 ml IV Bolus of Normal Saline
This intervention is only appropriate in cases of severe hypovolaemia or septic shock, following a lack of response to a small fluid bolus of 250-500 ml. It should not be used in other situations as it can lead to fluid overload and other complications.Flush the Catheter with 1500 ml of Normal Saline
This intervention is not appropriate as flushing the catheter with such a large volume of fluid can increase bladder pressure, damage the bladder mucosa, and impair the healing process.Prescribe 40 mg of Furosemide IV to Encourage Diuresis
This intervention is not appropriate in patients with low urine output in the post-operative period as reduced output may be an indication of hypovolaemia, in which case diuretics are contraindicated.In summary, appropriate fluid management in post-operative patients requires careful consideration of the patient’s specific condition and the appropriate interventions to prevent complications and promote healing.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of intense epigastric pain and non-bilious vomiting that has persisted for two days. She reports retching but no longer brings anything up. During the examination, the surgical registrar observes abdominal distension and widespread guarding and rigidity. The registrar requests the insertion of a nasogastric tube, but three attempts fail. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Small bowel obstruction
Correct Answer: Gastric volvulus
Explanation:A gastric volvulus can be identified by a triad of symptoms including vomiting, pain, and unsuccessful attempts to pass an NG tube. Although a distended abdomen may indicate obstruction and vomiting may suggest small bowel involvement, the key indicator is the inability to pass an NG tube. Borchardt’s triad, consisting of severe epigastric pain, retching, and failure to pass an NG tube, is a helpful mnemonic for remembering these symptoms.
Understanding Volvulus: A Condition of Twisted Colon
Volvulus is a medical condition that occurs when the colon twists around its mesenteric axis, leading to a blockage in blood flow and closed loop obstruction. Sigmoid volvulus is the most common type, accounting for around 80% of cases, and is caused by the sigmoid colon twisting on the sigmoid mesocolon. Caecal volvulus, on the other hand, occurs in around 20% of cases and is caused by the caecum twisting. This condition is more common in patients with developmental failure of peritoneal fixation of the proximal bowel.
Sigmoid volvulus is often associated with chronic constipation, Chagas disease, neurological conditions like Parkinson’s disease and Duchenne muscular dystrophy, and psychiatric conditions like schizophrenia. Caecal volvulus, on the other hand, is associated with adhesions, pregnancy, and other factors. Symptoms of volvulus include constipation, abdominal bloating, abdominal pain, and nausea/vomiting.
Diagnosis of volvulus is usually done through an abdominal film, which shows signs of large bowel obstruction alongside the coffee bean sign for sigmoid volvulus. Small bowel obstruction may be seen in caecal volvulus. Management of sigmoid volvulus involves rigid sigmoidoscopy with rectal tube insertion, while caecal volvulus usually requires operative management, with right hemicolectomy often being necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man is involved in a high-speed car accident and suffers from severe injuries. During the initial assessment, it is discovered that he has free fluid in his abdominal cavity on FAST scan. Due to his unstable condition, he is taken to the operating theatre for laparotomy. The surgeons identify the main sources of bleeding in the mesentery of the small bowel and tie them off. The injured sections of the small bowel are stapled off but not reanastamosed. However, there are multiple tiny areas of bleeding, especially in the wound edges, which the surgeons refer to as a general ooze. The abdomen is closed, and the patient is admitted to the intensive care unit. The surgeons plan to return to the theatre to repair the small bowel 24 hours later when the patient is more stable. What is the principle of damage control laparotomy?
Your Answer: Laparotomy performed to stop bleeding
Correct Answer: Laparotomy performed to restore normal physiology
Explanation:Damage Control Laparotomy: A Life-Saving Procedure
Damage control laparotomy is a surgical procedure performed when prolonged surgery would further deteriorate the patient’s physiology. Patients who require this procedure often present with a triad of acidosis, hypothermia, and coagulopathy. The primary goal of this procedure is to stop life-threatening bleeding and reduce contamination, rather than reconstructing damaged tissue and reanastomosing the bowel. For instance, the surgeon may staple off a perforated bowel to prevent further contamination.
After the abbreviated laparotomy for damage control, the patient is transferred to the intensive care unit for resuscitation. The medical team focuses on correcting the patient’s abnormal physiology, such as warming up the patient and correcting coagulopathy. The patient is closely monitored until their physiology is closer to normal, which usually takes 24 to 48 hours.
Once the patient’s physiology has improved, the surgeon performs an operation to reconstruct the anatomy. This approach allows the patient to recover from the initial surgery and stabilize before undergoing further procedures. Damage control laparotomy is a life-saving procedure that can prevent further deterioration of the patient’s condition and increase their chances of survival.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman complains of mild lower back pain and tenderness around the L3 vertebra. Upon conducting tests, the following results were obtained: Hemoglobin levels of 80 g/L (120-160), ESR levels of 110 mm/hr (1-10), and an albumin/globulin ratio of 1:2 (2:1). What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Bone secondaries
Correct Answer: Multiple myeloma
Explanation:Multiple Myeloma
Multiple myeloma is a type of cancer that affects plasma cells found in the bone marrow. These plasma cells are derived from B lymphocytes, but when they become malignant, they start to divide uncontrollably, forming tumors in the bone marrow. These tumors interfere with normal cell production and erode the surrounding bone, causing soft spots and holes. Since the malignant cells are clones derived from a single plasma cell, they all produce the same abnormal immunoglobulin that is secreted into the blood.
Patients with multiple myeloma may not show any symptoms for many years, but eventually, most patients develop some evidence of the disease. This can include weakened bones, which can cause bone pain and fractures, decreased numbers of red or white blood cells, which can lead to anemia, infections, bleeding, and bruising, and kidney failure, which can cause an increase in creatinine levels. Additionally, destruction of the bone can increase the level of calcium in the blood, leading to symptoms of hypercalcemia. Pieces of monoclonal antibodies, known as light chains or Bence Jones proteins, can also lodge in the kidneys and cause permanent damage. In some cases, an increase in the viscosity of the blood may lead to headaches.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man visits his GP complaining of blood in his urine for the past week. He experiences a burning sensation while urinating but no other discomfort. He has noticed some weight loss recently but is unsure of the amount and duration.
The patient has a medical history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and granulomatosis with polyangiitis. He takes metformin, amlodipine, methotrexate, and prednisolone for these conditions. He has also had malaria and schistosomiasis in the past. There is no significant family history.
The patient has a 10 pack-year smoking history and drinks alcohol occasionally. He recently returned from 40 years of teaching and traveling in rural Africa.
What is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Nephrolithiasis
Correct Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma of bladder
Explanation:Bladder cancer of squamous origin is the most probable diagnosis considering the patient’s history of residing in high-risk areas and having schistosomiasis. Nephrolithiasis, on the other hand, would cause renal colic, which patients describe as intense pain waves and discomfort. Clear cell carcinoma, although the most common subtype of renal cell carcinoma, is still less prevalent than bladder cancer and would not result in bladder symptoms.
Risk Factors for Bladder Cancer
Bladder cancer is a type of cancer that affects the bladder, and there are different types of bladder cancer. The most common type is urothelial (transitional cell) carcinoma, and the risk factors for this type of bladder cancer include smoking, exposure to aniline dyes, rubber manufacture, and cyclophosphamide. Smoking is the most important risk factor in western countries, with a hazard ratio of around 4. Exposure to aniline dyes, such as working in the printing and textile industry, can also increase the risk of bladder cancer. Rubber manufacture and cyclophosphamide are also risk factors for urothelial carcinoma.
On the other hand, squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder has different risk factors. Schistosomiasis and smoking are the main risk factors for this type of bladder cancer. Schistosomiasis is a parasitic infection that can cause inflammation and damage to the bladder, which can increase the risk of developing squamous cell carcinoma. Smoking is also a risk factor for squamous cell carcinoma, as it can cause changes in the cells of the bladder lining that can lead to cancer.
In summary, the risk factors for bladder cancer depend on the type of cancer. Urothelial carcinoma is mainly associated with smoking, exposure to aniline dyes, rubber manufacture, and cyclophosphamide, while squamous cell carcinoma is mainly associated with schistosomiasis and smoking. It is important to be aware of these risk factors and take steps to reduce your risk of developing bladder cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 6
Incorrect
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During your work in general practice, you come across a 16-year-old female patient who complains of nipple discharge. Her 85-year-old grandmother passed away 7 months ago due to breast cancer. The discharge is pale in colour and present in both nipples. The volume is minimal, and there are no palpable masses upon examination. The patient is worried about having breast cancer. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Prolactinoma
Correct Answer: Hormonal changes
Explanation:It is highly unlikely that bilateral nipple discharge is linked to breast cancer. In fact, in someone of this age, small amounts of pale or colorless discharge are more likely to be associated with hormonal changes during puberty. Breast cancer rarely presents with bilateral nipple discharge, and if it does, it is usually accompanied by a breast lump and bloody discharge. Additionally, given the patient’s age, breast cancer is an unlikely diagnosis. Other possible causes of bilateral nipple discharge include a benign pituitary tumor called a prolactinoma, which can cause cream-colored lactation, or fat necrosis of the breast, which may result from blunt trauma to the breast and can cause a hard lump but no nipple discharge. A breast abscess, on the other hand, is characterized by pus discharge from the nipple and red, swollen, warm breast skin.
Understanding Nipple Discharge: Causes and Assessment
Nipple discharge is a common concern among women, and it can be caused by various factors. Physiological discharge occurs during breastfeeding, while galactorrhea may be triggered by emotional events or certain medications. Hyperprolactinemia, which is often associated with pituitary tumors, can also cause nipple discharge. Mammary duct ectasia, which is characterized by the dilation of breast ducts, is common among menopausal women and smokers. On the other hand, nipple discharge may also be a sign of more serious conditions such as carcinoma or intraductal papilloma.
To assess patients with nipple discharge, a breast examination is necessary to determine the presence of a mass lesion. If a mass lesion is suspected, triple assessment is recommended. Reporting of investigations follows a system that uses a prefix denoting the type of investigation and a numerical code indicating the abnormality found. For non-malignant nipple discharge, endocrine disease should be excluded, and smoking cessation advice may be given for duct ectasia. In severe cases of duct ectasia, total duct excision may be necessary.
Understanding the causes and assessment of nipple discharge is crucial in providing appropriate management and treatment. It is important to seek medical attention if nipple discharge persists or is accompanied by other symptoms such as pain or a lump in the breast.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a 2-day history of worsening upper abdominal pain, accompanied by nausea and vomiting. The pain is exacerbated by meals, and he is unable to tolerate oral intake.
Upon examination, the patient appears distressed and in pain. His vital signs are as follows:
Temperature: 38.2 ℃
Heart rate: 110 beats/minute
Respiratory rate: 20/min
Blood pressure: 130/90 mmHg
Oxygen saturation: 98% on room air
There is tenderness in the right upper quadrant of his abdomen, but no distension, guarding, or rigidity on light palpation. Murphy's sign is negative. The sclera of his eyes has a yellow tinge.
Blood lab results are as follows:
Hb 130 g/L Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 180 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 15 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
Bilirubin 30 µmol/L (3 - 17)
ALP 360 u/L (30 - 100)
ALT 40 u/L (3 - 40)
γGT 50 u/L (8 - 60)
Albumin 38 g/L (35 - 50)
An ultrasound of the right upper quadrant reveals dilated intrahepatic and extrahepatic bile ducts and multiple hyperechoic spheres within the gallbladder. The patient is started on IV antibiotics and fluid resuscitation, but his condition remains critical.
What is the most appropriate next step in management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)
Explanation:Ascending cholangitis patients are typically recommended to undergo ERCP within 24-48 hours of diagnosis to alleviate any obstructions. This patient displays Charcot’s triad, leukocytosis, and elevated markers of cholestasis, as well as an ultrasound confirming acute ascending cholangitis. ERCP is the preferred treatment for acute cholangitis, with elective ERCP being performed after clinical improvement in mild cases and immediate ERCP in severe cases. While MRCP can assess biliary tree obstructions, it does not provide therapeutic drainage. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy is not recommended for septic patients and is only indicated once sepsis has been resolved, as it does not remove gallstones in the common bile duct.
Understanding Ascending Cholangitis
Ascending cholangitis is a bacterial infection that affects the biliary tree, with E. coli being the most common culprit. This condition is often associated with gallstones, which can predispose individuals to the infection. Patients with ascending cholangitis may present with Charcot’s triad, which includes fever, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice. However, this triad is only present in 20-50% of cases. Other common symptoms include hypotension and confusion. In severe cases, Reynolds’ pentad may be observed, which includes the additional symptoms of hypotension and confusion.
To diagnose ascending cholangitis, ultrasound is typically used as a first-line investigation to look for bile duct dilation and stones. Raised inflammatory markers may also be observed. Treatment involves intravenous antibiotics and endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) after 24-48 hours to relieve any obstruction.
Overall, ascending cholangitis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the symptoms and risk factors associated with this condition can help individuals seek medical attention early and improve their chances of a successful recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old patient arrives at the emergency department with complaints of abdominal pain and distention. They have not had a bowel movement in 4 days and have not passed gas in 1 day. During the examination, hyperactive bowel sounds are heard, and a digital rectal exam reveals an empty rectum. An urgent CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis with contrast reveals a suspicious large localized lesion in the descending colon, causing bowel obstruction and severely dilated bowel loops.
What is the most appropriate initial surgical option for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Loop colostomy
Explanation:The preferred surgical procedure for obstructing cancers in the distal colon is a loop colostomy. This involves creating a stoma with two openings, one connected to the functioning part of the bowel and the other leading into the distal colon to dysfunction and decompress it. The stoma can be reversed at a later time. However, other procedures such as AP resection, ileocolic anastomosis, and ileostomy are not appropriate for this patient’s descending colon mass.
Abdominal stomas are created during various abdominal procedures to bring the lumen or contents of organs onto the skin. Typically, this involves the bowel, but other organs may also be diverted if necessary. The type and method of construction of the stoma will depend on the contents of the bowel. Small bowel stomas should be spouted to prevent irritant contents from coming into contact with the skin, while colonic stomas do not require spouting. Proper siting of the stoma is crucial to reduce the risk of leakage and subsequent maceration of the surrounding skin. The type and location of the stoma will vary depending on the purpose, such as defunctioning the colon or providing feeding access. Overall, abdominal stomas are a necessary medical intervention that requires careful consideration and planning.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of the most severe headache he has ever experienced. He explains that he was sitting with his wife when he suddenly felt excruciating pain at the back of his head. The pain quickly escalated to a 10/10 intensity, and he also feels nauseous, although he has not vomited yet.
The patient has a medical history of adult dominant polycystic kidney disease and hypertension, for which he takes ramipril. Upon examination, his Glasgow coma scale is 15/15, and there is no focal neurology.
Due to concerns of an intracranial bleed, a non-contrast CT head is requested, which reveals hyperdensity in the subarachnoid space and ventricles. What is the most appropriate definitive intervention for this diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aneurysm coiling
Explanation:After experiencing a sudden and severe headache known as a thunderclap headache, a subarachnoid haemorrhage was diagnosed through CT scans that revealed fresh blood in the subarachnoid space. Given the patient’s history of ADPKD, which is associated with Berry aneurysms, it is likely that the haemorrhage was caused by an aneurysm. The most appropriate treatment for such an aneurysm is now considered to be coiling by an interventional neuroradiologist. This is a preferred method over neurosurgical procedures such as aneurysm clipping or haematoma evacuation via craniotomy, which are reserved for specific cases. Thrombectomy, on the other hand, is used to manage acute ischaemic stroke, while external ventricular drains are used to treat complications such as hydrocephalus and are not directly related to treating the aneurysm itself.
A subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH) is a type of bleeding that occurs within the subarachnoid space of the meninges in the brain. It can be caused by head injury or occur spontaneously. Spontaneous SAH is often caused by an intracranial aneurysm, which accounts for around 85% of cases. Other causes include arteriovenous malformation, pituitary apoplexy, and mycotic aneurysms. The classic symptoms of SAH include a sudden and severe headache, nausea and vomiting, meningism, coma, seizures, and ECG changes.
The first-line investigation for SAH is a non-contrast CT head, which can detect acute blood in the basal cisterns, sulci, and ventricular system. If the CT is normal within 6 hours of symptom onset, a lumbar puncture is not recommended. However, if the CT is normal after 6 hours, a lumbar puncture should be performed at least 12 hours after symptom onset to check for xanthochromia and other CSF findings consistent with SAH. If SAH is confirmed, referral to neurosurgery is necessary to identify the underlying cause and provide urgent treatment.
Management of aneurysmal SAH involves supportive care, such as bed rest, analgesia, and venous thromboembolism prophylaxis. Vasospasm is prevented with oral nimodipine, and intracranial aneurysms require prompt intervention to prevent rebleeding. Most aneurysms are treated with a coil by interventional neuroradiologists, but some require a craniotomy and clipping by a neurosurgeon. Complications of aneurysmal SAH include re-bleeding, hydrocephalus, vasospasm, and hyponatraemia. Predictive factors for SAH include conscious level on admission, age, and amount of blood visible on CT head.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man presents to his GP with a complaint of increasing blood in his urine over the past two weeks. He denies any pain or difficulty while urinating but reports feeling fatigued and possibly losing some weight over the last few months. He has a history of smoking with a 48 pack-year history. On examination, he has a heart rate of 70 bpm, blood pressure of 155/78 mmHg, oxygen saturation of 97% on air, and a temperature of 37.0ºC. There is tenderness in the left renal angle, and a palpable mass is felt on the left side. His abdomen is soft without anterior tenderness. Digital rectal exam reveals a non-enlarged and non-tender prostate. The urine dip results show leucocytes ++, blood +++, protein +, nitrites negative, glucose trace, and ketones negative. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Renal cell carcinoma
Explanation:Frank haematuria can be caused by various conditions, including cancer, stones, and infection. However, in this case, the absence of lower urinary tract symptoms and pain makes infection or stones less likely. The patient’s constitutional symptoms and absence of sepsis signs suggest an underlying malignancy. Additionally, the absence of nitrites on the dip test rules out a urinary tract infection. The presence of a ballotable mass and renal angle tenderness is more indicative of renal cell carcinoma than bladder tumour.
Understanding Renal Cell Cancer
Renal cell cancer, also known as hypernephroma, is a primary renal neoplasm that accounts for 85% of cases. It typically arises from the proximal renal tubular epithelium, with the clear cell subtype being the most common. This type of cancer is more prevalent in middle-aged men and is associated with smoking, von Hippel-Lindau syndrome, and tuberous sclerosis. While renal cell cancer is only slightly increased in patients with autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease, it can present with a classical triad of haematuria, loin pain, and abdominal mass. Other features include pyrexia of unknown origin, endocrine effects, and paraneoplastic hepatic dysfunction syndrome.
The T category criteria for renal cell cancer are based on the size and extent of the tumour. For confined disease, a partial or total nephrectomy may be recommended depending on the tumour size. Patients with a T1 tumour are typically offered a partial nephrectomy, while those with larger tumours may require a total nephrectomy. Treatment options for renal cell cancer include alpha-interferon, interleukin-2, and receptor tyrosine kinase inhibitors such as sorafenib and sunitinib. These medications have been shown to reduce tumour size and treat patients with metastases. It is important to note that renal cell cancer can have paraneoplastic effects, such as Stauffer syndrome, which is associated with cholestasis and hepatosplenomegaly. Overall, early detection and prompt treatment are crucial for improving outcomes in patients with renal cell cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgery
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