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Question 1
Correct
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A 49-year-old woman with poorly controlled type 1 diabetes mellitus presents with complaints of bloating and vomiting after meals. She reports that her blood glucose levels have been fluctuating more frequently lately. Which medication is most likely to provide relief for her symptoms?
Your Answer: Metoclopramide
Explanation:Gastric emptying dysfunction can cause upper gastrointestinal symptoms and disrupt glucose control. Metoclopramide, a pro-kinetic medication, can help improve gastric emptying and alleviate these issues.
Diabetes can cause peripheral neuropathy, which typically results in sensory loss rather than motor loss. This often affects the lower legs first due to the length of the sensory neurons supplying this area, resulting in a glove and stocking distribution. Painful diabetic neuropathy is a common issue that can be managed with drugs such as amitriptyline, duloxetine, gabapentin, or pregabalin. If these drugs do not work, tramadol may be used as a rescue therapy, and topical capsaicin may be used for localized neuropathic pain. Pain management clinics may also be helpful for patients with resistant problems.
Gastrointestinal autonomic neuropathy can cause gastroparesis, which can lead to erratic blood glucose control, bloating, and vomiting. This can be managed with prokinetic agents such as metoclopramide, domperidone, or erythromycin. Chronic diarrhea, which often occurs at night, is another potential complication of diabetic neuropathy. Gastroesophageal reflux disease can also occur due to decreased lower esophageal sphincter pressure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old woman presents to the General Practitioner. She has a past medical history of hypertension, diabetes mellitus type II, peripheral vascular disease and ischaemic heart disease. The patient had an episode of retinal artery occlusion (RAO) and had to go to the Eye Hospital as an emergency.
After many investigations, the Ophthalmologist stated that the cause of her RAO is atherosclerosis of her central retinal artery (CRA). The patient is worried about her eyesight becoming worse and asks about long-term management plans for RAO.
Which of the following is considered part of the long-term management plan for RAO?
Select the SINGLE most appropriate management from the list below.
Your Answer: Prophylaxis with an anticoagulation agent
Correct Answer: Prophylaxis with an antiplatelet agent
Explanation:Retinal artery occlusion is a condition that increases the risk of ischemic end-organ damage, such as stroke. Long-term management involves identifying and addressing underlying causes, reducing risk factors for atherosclerosis, and considering carotid endarterectomy if necessary. Ophthalmic follow-up and referral to low-vision-aid clinics may also be necessary. Acute treatment options include ocular massage, intra-arterial fibrinolysis, and lowering intraocular pressure with anterior chamber paracentesis. Atherosclerosis and embolism are the main causes of RAO, and prophylaxis with an antiplatelet or anticoagulation agent may be necessary for long-term management. However, even with early treatment, the prognosis is generally poor, and only about one-third of patients show any improvement.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 3
Correct
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You are asked to review an elderly nursing home resident who has generalised inflammation of his oropharynx and is finding it difficult to eat. His past history of note includes the use of a steroid inhaler for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). On examination, there are areas of erythema and a number of white plaques accompanied by some white, curd-like material.
Which diagnosis best fits this clinical picture?Your Answer: Oropharyngeal candidiasis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis of Oral Lesions: Candidiasis, HIV Infection, Hairy Leukoplakia, Darier’s Disease, and Leukoedema
Oral lesions can present in various forms and have different underlying causes. In the case of an elderly man with long-term use of a steroid inhaler for COPD, poor oral hygiene, and possibly poorly fitting prosthetics, the most likely diagnosis is oropharyngeal candidiasis. This yeast-like fungal infection can be treated with antifungal medication, applied to the oral mucosa and any removable oral prostheses, and soaking the latter in an antifungal denture-soaking solution.
HIV infection can also cause oral lesions, primarily in patients with advanced disease. Candidiasis is a common opportunistic infection in these patients, but hairy leukoplakia, associated with Epstein-Barr virus, can also occur. Hairy leukoplakia presents as painless white lesions on the tongue or buccal mucosa, with a characteristic hairy appearance that cannot be scraped off.
Darier’s disease is a rare genetic disorder that causes greasy hyperkeratotic papules in seborrhoeic regions, nail abnormalities, and mucous membrane changes. Mucosal lesions are found in approximately 15% of patients, appearing as white papules with a central depression, most commonly in the mouth.
Leukoedema is a benign condition characterized by a blue, grey, or white appearance of the oral mucosa, with wrinkled, streaky lesions, mostly found on the inside of the cheeks. It is more common and pronounced in smokers.
In summary, the differential diagnosis of oral lesions includes candidiasis, HIV infection, hairy leukoplakia, Darier’s disease, and leukoedema. A thorough examination and consideration of the patient’s medical history can help determine the underlying cause and appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 4
Incorrect
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Samantha is a 55-year-old Hispanic woman who visits her primary care physician for a routine check-up of her hypertension. Despite being treated with amlodipine 10 mg once daily, her blood pressure has been poorly controlled during her last two appointments. During her examination today, her blood pressure is 160/100 mmHg, pulse 70/minute, respiratory rate 15/min, and she has no fever. What would be the next appropriate step to attempt to control Samantha's hypertension?
Your Answer: Add spironolactone
Correct Answer: Add candesartan
Explanation:To manage poorly controlled hypertension in patients already taking a calcium channel blocker, the recommended next step is to add an ACE inhibitor, an angiotensin receptor blocker (ARB), or a thiazide-like diuretic. In this particular case, since the patient is black, an ARB is the preferred choice. Beta-blockers like metoprolol are not commonly used for hypertension management. Increasing the dose of amlodipine may lead to more side effects, so it is generally better to add multiple drugs at lower doses instead of increasing the dose of one drug to its maximum.
NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.
The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.
NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.
New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 5
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman with a 9-month history of weight loss, intermittent bloody mucus stools and abdominal pain undergoes a colonoscopy, which shows a mucosal ‘cobblestone’ pattern and skip lesions. She drinks approximately four units of alcohol a week and has a smoking history of five pack years.
Which of the following is the most appropriate lifestyle advice for this patient?Your Answer: Stop smoking
Explanation:Lifestyle Advice for Patients with Inflammatory Bowel Disease
Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is a chronic inflammatory process that can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract. Patients with IBD may experience symptoms such as diarrhoea, abdominal pain, and bleeding. Here are some lifestyle advice for patients with IBD:
Stop smoking: Research suggests that smoking can make Crohn’s disease worse. Smokers with Crohn’s disease have more severe symptoms and complications, require more medication, and are more likely to need surgery.
Eat a balanced diet: Patients with IBD may need to be careful about the amount and type of fibre in their diet. During flare-ups, it may be helpful to reduce the amount of insoluble fibre consumed, but, once the flare-up is over, it is important to increase fibre intake again.
Avoid alcohol: Although there is no evidence that alcohol consumption worsens IBD symptoms, alcohol can affect the lining of the gastrointestinal tract and interact with certain medications.
Quit smoking: Although smoking may delay or even prevent ulcerative colitis, the health risks of smoking outweigh any benefits seen in UC, and strongly discourage smoking in everyone, whether or not they have IBD.
Consider probiotics: The role of probiotics in IBD is not fully understood, but their use can be discussed with a General Practitioner or dietitian. More research is needed on their general effectiveness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 39-year-old male patient comes to the clinic complaining of scrotal swelling and discomfort that has been going on for three months. Upon examination, there is swelling on one side of the scrotum that illuminates when light is shone on it. The swelling is soft and painless, and the testis cannot be fully felt due to the presence of fluid. What is the best next step to take?
Your Answer: Refer urgently for testicular biopsy
Correct Answer: Refer urgently for testicular ultrasound
Explanation:An ultrasound is necessary for adult patients with a hydrocele to rule out any underlying causes, such as a tumor. Although the most common cause of a non-acute hydrocele is unknown, it is crucial to exclude malignancy first. Therefore, providing reassurance or reevaluating the patient at a later time would only be appropriate after a testicular ultrasound has ruled out cancer. Testicular biopsy should not be used to investigate suspected testicular cancer as it may spread the malignancy through seeding along the needle’s track. While a unilateral hydrocele may be an uncommon presentation of a renal carcinoma invading the renal vein, a CTAP would not be the initial investigation in this case. If malignancy is confirmed, CT may be useful in staging the malignancy.
A hydrocele is a condition where fluid accumulates within the tunica vaginalis. There are two types of hydroceles: communicating and non-communicating. Communicating hydroceles occur when the processus vaginalis remains open, allowing peritoneal fluid to drain into the scrotum. This type of hydrocele is common in newborn males and usually resolves within a few months. Non-communicating hydroceles occur when there is excessive fluid production within the tunica vaginalis. Hydroceles can develop secondary to conditions such as epididymo-orchitis, testicular torsion, or testicular tumors.
The main feature of a hydrocele is a soft, non-tender swelling of the hemi-scrotum that is usually located anterior to and below the testicle. The swelling is confined to the scrotum and can be transilluminated with a pen torch. If the hydrocele is large, the testis may be difficult to palpate. Diagnosis can be made clinically, but ultrasound is necessary if there is any doubt about the diagnosis or if the underlying testis cannot be palpated.
Management of hydroceles depends on the severity of the presentation. Infantile hydroceles are generally repaired if they do not resolve spontaneously by the age of 1-2 years. In adults, a conservative approach may be taken, but further investigation, such as an ultrasound, is usually warranted to exclude any underlying cause, such as a tumor.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 7
Correct
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A woman presents with severe vomiting. She reports not being able to keep fluids down for the past 12 hours. You suspect a diagnosis of gastroenteritis and on discussing possible causes she mentions reheating curry with rice the night before. What is the most likely causative organism?
Your Answer: Bacillus cereus
Explanation:Gastroenteritis can occur either at home or while traveling, known as travelers’ diarrhea. This condition is characterized by at least three loose to watery stools in 24 hours, accompanied by abdominal cramps, fever, nausea, vomiting, or blood in the stool. The most common cause of travelers’ diarrhea is Escherichia coli. Acute food poisoning is another pattern of illness that results in sudden onset of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea after ingesting a toxin. Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus, or Clostridium perfringens are typically responsible for acute food poisoning.
There are several types of infections that can cause gastroenteritis, each with its own typical presentation. Escherichia coli is common among travelers and causes watery stools, abdominal cramps, and nausea. Giardiasis results in prolonged, non-bloody diarrhea, while cholera causes profuse, watery diarrhea and severe dehydration leading to weight loss. Shigella causes bloody diarrhea, vomiting, and abdominal pain, while Staphylococcus aureus results in severe vomiting with a short incubation period. Campylobacter typically starts with a flu-like prodrome and progresses to crampy abdominal pains, fever, and diarrhea, which may be bloody and mimic appendicitis. Bacillus cereus can cause two types of illness, vomiting within six hours, typically due to rice, or diarrheal illness occurring after six hours. Amoebiasis has a gradual onset of bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and tenderness that may last for several weeks.
The incubation period for gastroenteritis varies depending on the type of infection. Staphylococcus aureus and Bacillus cereus have an incubation period of 1-6 hours, while Salmonella and Escherichia coli have an incubation period of 12-48 hours. Shigella and Campylobacter have an incubation period of 48-72 hours, while Giardiasis and Amoebiasis have an incubation period of more than seven days.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 8
Correct
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A 42-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a sudden onset of severe headache at the back of her head, vomiting, and sensitivity to light. A CT scan reveals a subarachnoid hemorrhage, and a subsequent CT angiogram shows an aneurysmal bleed on the posterior cerebral artery. Assuming that the patient's vital signs and Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) score remain stable, what is the definitive treatment plan for this patient's condition?
Your Answer: Coiling of the aneurysm
Explanation:After a subarachnoid haemorrhage, the preferred treatment for most intracranial aneurysms is coiling by an interventional neuroradiologist. This is the most probable course of action given the patient’s stable condition. If the patient showed signs of raised intracranial pressure, such as haemodynamic instability or a change in GCS, craniotomy and clipping of the aneurysm might be considered. However, regardless of whether the aneurysm is coiled or clipped, the primary objective is to prevent further bleeding by mechanically occluding the aneurysm, preferably within the first 24 hours. Therefore, the other options are unlikely to be the correct and definitive management for the patient’s condition.
A subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH) is a type of bleeding that occurs within the subarachnoid space of the meninges in the brain. It can be caused by head injury or occur spontaneously. Spontaneous SAH is often caused by an intracranial aneurysm, which accounts for around 85% of cases. Other causes include arteriovenous malformation, pituitary apoplexy, and mycotic aneurysms. The classic symptoms of SAH include a sudden and severe headache, nausea and vomiting, meningism, coma, seizures, and ECG changes.
The first-line investigation for SAH is a non-contrast CT head, which can detect acute blood in the basal cisterns, sulci, and ventricular system. If the CT is normal within 6 hours of symptom onset, a lumbar puncture is not recommended. However, if the CT is normal after 6 hours, a lumbar puncture should be performed at least 12 hours after symptom onset to check for xanthochromia and other CSF findings consistent with SAH. If SAH is confirmed, referral to neurosurgery is necessary to identify the underlying cause and provide urgent treatment.
Management of aneurysmal SAH involves supportive care, such as bed rest, analgesia, and venous thromboembolism prophylaxis. Vasospasm is prevented with oral nimodipine, and intracranial aneurysms require prompt intervention to prevent rebleeding. Most aneurysms are treated with a coil by interventional neuroradiologists, but some require a craniotomy and clipping by a neurosurgeon. Complications of aneurysmal SAH include re-bleeding, hydrocephalus, vasospasm, and hyponatraemia. Predictive factors for SAH include conscious level on admission, age, and amount of blood visible on CT head.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 9
Correct
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An 80-year-old man is receiving treatment at the Haematology Clinic for multiple myeloma (MM). He is a newly diagnosed non-transplant candidate.
Various blood tests are being conducted to monitor response to treatment and determine prognosis.
What is considered the most crucial factor for predicting survival and prognosis?Your Answer: Beta-2 microglobulin
Explanation:Prognostic Factors in Multiple Myeloma
Multiple myeloma is a type of cancer that affects plasma cells in the bone marrow. Prognostic factors are important in determining the severity of the disease and predicting survival rates. Here are some key factors to consider:
Beta-2 microglobulin: This protein is found on the surface of all nucleated cells and is associated with the human leukocyte antigen (HLA)–histocompatibility complex. Elevated levels of serum beta-2 microglobulin are linked to poor prognosis in multiple myeloma patients.
Serum creatinine: High levels of creatinine indicate renal impairment, which is common in multiple myeloma patients and is associated with a poor prognosis.
Albumin: Low levels of albumin are related to the extent of myeloma proliferation and are therefore of diagnostic and prognostic importance. An albumin level of 29.0 g/l or less is a sign of advanced disease.
C-Reactive protein (CRP): Elevated CRP levels before autologous stem-cell transplantation (ASCT) are associated with worse overall survival in multiple myeloma patients, especially those who had a transplant more than 12 months after diagnosis.
Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH): High LDH levels at the time of diagnosis are a marker of poor prognosis in multiple myeloma patients. Increased LDH is associated with worse overall survival, progression-free survival, aggressive disease, and high tumor burden.
Understanding these prognostic factors can help healthcare providers make informed decisions about treatment options and provide patients with more accurate information about their disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female student attends the blood transfusion service wishing to donate blood. She is currently well, has never had a serious illness and weighs 60 kg. About three months ago she spent the summer doing voluntary work in Nigeria. She also had her ears pierced three years ago and had a tattoo put on her left arm one year ago. She is not acceptable as a donor.
Which of the following is the reason for her rejection to donate blood in the UK?Your Answer: Body piercing
Correct Answer: Recent travel to an endemic area
Explanation:Blood Donation Eligibility Criteria: Factors to Consider
When it comes to donating blood, there are several factors to consider to ensure the safety of both the donor and the recipient. Here are some examples:
Recent travel to an endemic area: If a person has recently traveled to a country with a high risk of infectious diseases, they may have to wait a certain period before donating blood. For instance, if someone has returned from Nigeria, they must wait at least six months before donating blood in the UK.
Underweight: A person must weigh at least 50 kg to donate blood. If they weigh less than that, they may not have enough blood volume to spare.
Body piercing: If someone has had a body piercing within the last 12 months, they should inform the staff before donating blood. They may have to wait for at least four months before donating.
Tattoo: Similarly, if someone has had a tattoo within the last 12 months, they should inform the staff before donating blood. They may have to wait for at least four months before donating.
Age: To donate blood, a person must be between 17 and 66 years old (or 70 if they have donated blood before). If they are over 70, they can still donate if they have donated blood in the last two years.
By considering these factors, blood donation centers can ensure that the blood they collect is safe and suitable for transfusion.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 11
Correct
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An 72-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of palpitations, dizziness, and shortness of breath. He has a medical history of COPD and is currently being treated for pneumonia with antibiotics. Upon examination, his heart rate is 170/min, respiratory rate is 22/min, blood pressure is 140/92 mmHg, and temperature is 36.3 ºC. An electrocardiogram reveals a polymorphic ventricular tachycardia with oscillatory changes in amplitude of the QRS complexes around the isoelectric line. Which medication is most likely responsible for his symptoms?
Your Answer: Azithromycin
Explanation:Azithromycin is the macrolide antibiotic that can cause torsades de pointes, which is evident in this patient presenting with dizziness, shortness of breath, palpitations, and polymorphic ventricular tachycardia with oscillatory changes. Macrolides can lead to a long QT interval, which can be fatal if not treated promptly with intravenous magnesium to stabilize the cardiac myocytes. Amoxicillin, doxycycline, and flucloxacillin are other antibiotics used to treat pneumonia but have not been associated with long QT intervals and torsades de pointes. However, they can cause other side effects such as diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, skin reactions, and thrombocytopenia.
Torsades de Pointes: A Life-Threatening Condition
Torsades de pointes is a type of ventricular tachycardia that is associated with a prolonged QT interval. This condition can lead to ventricular fibrillation, which can cause sudden death. There are several causes of a prolonged QT interval, including congenital conditions such as Jervell-Lange-Nielsen syndrome and Romano-Ward syndrome, as well as certain medications like antiarrhythmics, tricyclic antidepressants, and antipsychotics. Other causes include electrolyte imbalances, myocarditis, hypothermia, and subarachnoid hemorrhage.
The management of torsades de pointes involves the administration of intravenous magnesium sulfate. This can help to stabilize the heart rhythm and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old male patient visits the GP clinic with a history of hip and back pain that has been getting worse over the past 3 years. The patient reports that the hip pain is more severe when bearing weight and improves with rest. During the examination, you observe frontal bossing and leg bowing.
What is the initial treatment option that should be considered for this patient's condition?Your Answer: Cinacalcet
Correct Answer: Alendronate
Explanation:Bisphosphonates are the primary treatment for Paget’s disease of the bone.
Replacing vitamin D is not an effective treatment for Paget’s disease.
Radiotherapy is used to treat osteosarcoma, not Paget’s disease.
Cinacalcet is used to treat hypercalcemia caused by hyperparathyroidism, not Paget’s disease.Understanding Paget’s Disease of the Bone
Paget’s disease of the bone is a condition characterized by increased and uncontrolled bone turnover. It is believed to be caused by excessive osteoclastic resorption followed by increased osteoblastic activity. Although it is a common condition, affecting 5% of the UK population, only 1 in 20 patients experience symptoms. The most commonly affected areas are the skull, spine/pelvis, and long bones of the lower extremities. Predisposing factors include increasing age, male sex, northern latitude, and family history.
Symptoms of Paget’s disease include bone pain, particularly in the pelvis, lumbar spine, and femur. The stereotypical presentation is an older male with bone pain and an isolated raised alkaline phosphatase (ALP). Classical, untreated features include bowing of the tibia and bossing of the skull. Diagnosis is made through blood tests, which show raised ALP, and x-rays, which reveal osteolysis in early disease and mixed lytic/sclerotic lesions later.
Treatment is indicated for patients experiencing bone pain, skull or long bone deformity, fracture, or periarticular Paget’s. Bisphosphonates, either oral risedronate or IV zoledronate, are the preferred treatment. Calcitonin is less commonly used now. Complications of Paget’s disease include deafness, bone sarcoma (1% if affected for > 10 years), fractures, skull thickening, and high-output cardiac failure.
Overall, understanding Paget’s disease of the bone is important for early diagnosis and management of symptoms and complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presented to his GP with two instances of painless visible haematuria. He was subsequently referred to urology for biopsy and flexible cystoscopy, which revealed a transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder. What is the most significant risk factor associated with this condition?
Your Answer: Male sex
Correct Answer: Smoking
Explanation:Risk Factors for Bladder Cancer
Bladder cancer is a type of cancer that affects the bladder, and there are different types of bladder cancer. The most common type is urothelial (transitional cell) carcinoma, and the risk factors for this type of bladder cancer include smoking, exposure to aniline dyes, rubber manufacture, and cyclophosphamide. Smoking is the most important risk factor in western countries, with a hazard ratio of around 4. Exposure to aniline dyes, such as working in the printing and textile industry, can also increase the risk of bladder cancer. Rubber manufacture and cyclophosphamide are also risk factors for urothelial carcinoma.
On the other hand, squamous cell carcinoma of the bladder has different risk factors. Schistosomiasis and smoking are the main risk factors for this type of bladder cancer. Schistosomiasis is a parasitic infection that can cause inflammation and damage to the bladder, which can increase the risk of developing squamous cell carcinoma. Smoking is also a risk factor for squamous cell carcinoma, as it can cause changes in the cells of the bladder lining that can lead to cancer.
In summary, the risk factors for bladder cancer depend on the type of cancer. Urothelial carcinoma is mainly associated with smoking, exposure to aniline dyes, rubber manufacture, and cyclophosphamide, while squamous cell carcinoma is mainly associated with schistosomiasis and smoking. It is important to be aware of these risk factors and take steps to reduce your risk of developing bladder cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 14
Incorrect
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You are a junior doctor working in pediatrics. You are preparing cases for the morbidity and mortality meeting. What is the time frame that defines infant mortality?
Your Answer: Any death in pregnancy, labour or in the 48hours post partum
Correct Answer: Any death in pregnancy, labour or in the six weeks post partum
Explanation:The investigation of maternal deaths in the UK is carried out by the Confidential Enquiry into Maternal Deaths, which encompasses deaths occurring during pregnancy, labour, and up to six weeks after delivery. Post partum haemorrhage (PPH) is a leading cause of maternal mortality. A stillbirth is defined as the loss of a fetus after twenty weeks gestation, while any loss prior to this is classified as a miscarriage.
Perinatal Death Rates and Related Metrics
Perinatal mortality rate is a measure of stillbirths and early neonatal deaths within seven days per 1,000 births after 24 weeks of gestation. In the UK, this rate is around 6 per 1,000 births. This figure is usually broken down into 4 per 1,000 stillbirths and 2 per 1,000 early neonatal deaths.
Maternal mortality rate, on the other hand, is calculated by dividing the number of deaths during pregnancy, labor, and six weeks after delivery by the total number of maternities and multiplying the result by 1000. Meanwhile, the stillbirth rate is determined by dividing the number of babies born dead after 24 weeks by the total number of births (live and stillborn) and multiplying the result by 1000. Lastly, the neonatal death rate is computed by dividing the number of babies who died between 0-28 days by the total number of live births and multiplying the result by 1000.
These metrics are important in assessing the quality of perinatal care and identifying areas for improvement. By monitoring these rates, healthcare providers can work towards reducing perinatal deaths and improving maternal and neonatal outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man with a history of alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency visits his GP complaining of increased difficulty in breathing. The GP suspects that his lungs may be deteriorating and orders spirometry to aid in the diagnosis.
What spirometry results would be anticipated for a patient with this condition?Your Answer: FEV1= 60% FEV1/FVC = 0.9
Correct Answer: FEV1 = 60% FEV1/FVC = 0.65
Explanation:What spirometry result is expected in alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency?
Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency will result in an obstructive pattern on spirometry, similar to chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD). The two important factors to consider in spirometry are the FEV1 and the FEV1/FVC ratio. In obstructive disease, the FEV1 is reduced due to narrowed airways, while the FVC remains normal. This results in a reduced FEV1/FVC ratio. Therefore, in alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency, we would expect to see a reduced FEV1 and FEV1/FVC ratio on spirometry.
Understanding Alpha-1 Antitrypsin Deficiency
Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency is a genetic condition that occurs when the liver fails to produce enough of a protein called alpha-1 antitrypsin (A1AT). A1AT is responsible for protecting cells from enzymes that can cause damage, such as neutrophil elastase. This deficiency is inherited in an autosomal recessive or co-dominant fashion, with alleles classified by their electrophoretic mobility as M for normal, S for slow, and Z for very slow. The normal genotype is PiMM, while heterozygous individuals have PiMZ. Homozygous PiSS individuals have 50% normal A1AT levels, while homozygous PiZZ individuals have only 10% normal A1AT levels.
The classic manifestation of A1AT deficiency is emphysema, which is a type of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. This condition is most commonly seen in young, non-smoking patients. However, the evidence base is conflicting regarding the risk of emphysema. Non-smokers with A1AT deficiency are at a lower risk of developing emphysema, but they may pass on the A1AT gene to their children. Patients with A1AT deficiency who manifest disease usually have the PiZZ genotype.
In addition to emphysema, A1AT deficiency can also cause liver problems such as cirrhosis and hepatocellular carcinoma in adults, and cholestasis in children. Diagnosis is made by measuring A1AT concentrations and performing spirometry, which typically shows an obstructive pattern. Management includes avoiding smoking, supportive measures such as bronchodilators and physiotherapy, and intravenous A1AT protein concentrates. In severe cases, lung volume reduction surgery or lung transplantation may be necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 16
Incorrect
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As a foundation doctor on the neonatal ward, you conduct a newborn examination on a six hour old infant. The baby was delivered vaginally at 38 weeks with no risk factors for sepsis and no maternal concerns. The baby was born in a healthy condition, with good tone. However, you observe cyanosis in the peripheries, while the rest of the examination appears normal. Pre and post ductal oxygen saturations are at 97%. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Cardiac disease
Correct Answer: Acrocyanosis
Explanation:Cyanosis, a bluish discoloration of the skin, is a common occurrence in newborns. Peripheral cyanosis, which affects the hands and feet, is often seen in the first 24 hours of life and can be caused by crying or illness. Central cyanosis, on the other hand, is a more serious condition that occurs when the concentration of reduced hemoglobin in the blood exceeds 5g/dl. To differentiate between cardiac and non-cardiac causes of central cyanosis, doctors may use the nitrogen washout test, which involves giving the infant 100% oxygen for ten minutes and then measuring arterial blood gases. A pO2 of less than 15 kPa indicates cyanotic congenital heart disease, which can be caused by conditions such as tetralogy of Fallot, transposition of the great arteries, and tricuspid atresia.
If cyanotic congenital heart disease is suspected, initial management involves supportive care and the use of prostaglandin E1, such as alprostadil, to maintain a patent ductus arteriosus in ductal-dependent congenital heart defects. This can serve as a temporary measure until a definitive diagnosis is made and surgical correction is performed.
Acrocyanosis, a type of peripheral cyanosis, is a benign condition that is often seen in healthy newborns. It is characterized by bluish discoloration around the mouth and extremities, such as the hands and feet, and is caused by vasomotor changes that result in peripheral vasoconstriction and increased tissue oxygen extraction. Unlike other causes of peripheral cyanosis that may indicate significant pathology, such as septic shock, acrocyanosis occurs immediately after birth in healthy infants and typically resolves within 24 to 48 hours.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A mother brings her 8-month-old son to your clinic with concerns about his left eye. She reports that his left eye is constantly watering and occasionally becomes sticky, but there is no yellow or green discharge. The child has been treated twice with chloramphenicol drops, but there was no improvement. A negative eye swab was obtained last month. The child is healthy and has no issues with visual development. What would be your approach to managing this patient?
Your Answer: Urgent ophthalmology referral
Correct Answer: Reassurance and advice to continue conservative treatment unless symptoms persist beyond 1 year of age
Explanation:Recurrent watery or sticky eyes in neonates may be caused by congenital tear duct obstruction, which typically resolves on its own by the age of 1. This condition can often be mistaken for conjunctivitis, leading to multiple appointments and unsuccessful treatment with chloramphenicol drops and negative swabs. Parents should be reassured that most cases will resolve on their own, but if symptoms persist beyond 1 year, a referral to an ophthalmologist is recommended.
Understanding Nasolacrimal Duct Obstruction in Infants
Nasolacrimal duct obstruction is a common condition that affects around 10% of infants at one month of age. It is characterized by a persistent watery eye caused by an imperforate membrane, usually located at the lower end of the lacrimal duct. Fortunately, symptoms usually resolve on their own by the age of one year in 95% of cases.
To manage this condition, parents can be taught to massage the lacrimal duct to help clear any blockages. However, if symptoms persist beyond one year, it is recommended to seek the advice of an ophthalmologist. In such cases, probing may be considered, which is a procedure done under a light general anaesthetic. By understanding the causes and management of nasolacrimal duct obstruction, parents can take the necessary steps to ensure their child’s eye health and comfort.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old pilot comes in for his yearly physical examination. He has no significant medical history, does not take any regular medication, and reports no concerning symptoms. He maintains a healthy lifestyle and enjoys participating in ultramarathons as a runner.
During the physical examination, an ECG is conducted, which was normal during his last check-up the previous year. What would be the most worrisome ECG characteristic?Your Answer: Left axis deviation
Correct Answer: Left bundle branch block (LBBB)
Explanation:A new left bundle branch block on an ECG is always a sign of pathology and not a normal variant. It indicates a delay in the left half of the conducting system, which can be caused by conditions such as aortic stenosis, cardiomyopathy, or ischaemia. However, other findings on an ECG, such as J-waves, left axis deviation, second-degree heart block (Mobitz I), or a short QT interval, may be normal variants in a healthy individual and not a cause for concern unless accompanied by symptoms of arrhythmias.
Left Bundle Branch Block: Causes and Diagnosis
Left bundle branch block (LBBB) is a cardiac condition that can be diagnosed through an electrocardiogram (ECG). The ECG shows typical features of LBBB, including a ‘W’ in V1 and a ‘M’ in V6. It is important to note that new LBBB is always pathological and can be caused by various factors such as myocardial infarction, hypertension, aortic stenosis, and cardiomyopathy. However, diagnosing a myocardial infarction for patients with existing LBBB can be difficult. In such cases, the Sgarbossa criteria can be used to aid in diagnosis.
Other rare causes of LBBB include idiopathic fibrosis, digoxin toxicity, and hyperkalaemia. It is crucial to identify the underlying cause of LBBB to determine the appropriate treatment plan. Therefore, patients with LBBB should undergo further evaluation and testing to determine the cause of their condition. By identifying the cause of LBBB, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate treatment and management to improve the patient’s overall health and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman visits the GP clinic as she hasn't had her menstrual period for 3 months. Upon conducting a urinary pregnancy test, it comes out positive. A dating scan is scheduled, which shows a gestational sac with a nonviable foetus. What could be the possible diagnosis?
Your Answer: Inevitable miscarriage
Correct Answer: Missed miscarriage
Explanation:Miscarriage is a common complication that can occur in up to 25% of all pregnancies. There are different types of miscarriage, each with its own set of symptoms and characteristics. Threatened miscarriage is painless vaginal bleeding that occurs before 24 weeks, typically at 6-9 weeks. The bleeding is usually less than menstruation, and the cervical os is closed. Missed or delayed miscarriage is when a gestational sac containing a dead fetus is present before 20 weeks, without the symptoms of expulsion. The mother may experience light vaginal bleeding or discharge, and the symptoms of pregnancy may disappear. Pain is not usually a feature, and the cervical os is closed. Inevitable miscarriage is characterized by heavy bleeding with clots and pain, and the cervical os is open. Incomplete miscarriage occurs when not all products of conception have been expelled, and there is pain and vaginal bleeding. The cervical os is open in this type of miscarriage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old female patient visits the GP clinic with two circular patches on her scalp that have resulted in hair loss and scarring. She reports that she first noticed these patches 4 weeks after returning from a trip to Italy. Upon further inquiry, she also acknowledges experiencing persistent joint pain and stiffness. Could scarring alopecia be caused by any of the following?
Your Answer: Trichotillomania
Correct Answer: Lichen planus
Explanation:Scarring alopecia can be caused by various factors such as trauma/burns, radiotherapy, discoid lupus, tinea capitis, and lichen planus. However, out of these options, lichen planus is the only cause that leads to scarring alopecia. The remaining causes, including alopecia areata, carbimazole, trichotillomania, and telogen effluvium, result in non-scarring alopecia.
Input:
Alopecia may be divided into scarring (destruction of hair follicle) and non-scarring (preservation of hair follicle). Scarring alopecia can be caused by trauma, burns, radiotherapy, lichen planus, discoid lupus, and untreated tinea capitis. Non-scarring alopecia can be caused by male-pattern baldness, drugs such as cytotoxic drugs, carbimazole, heparin, oral contraceptive pill, and colchicine, nutritional deficiencies such as iron and zinc deficiency, autoimmune conditions such as alopecia areata, telogen effluvium, hair loss following a stressful period such as surgery, and trichotillomania.Output:
– Alopecia can be categorized into scarring and non-scarring types.
– Scarring alopecia is caused by trauma, burns, radiotherapy, lichen planus, discoid lupus, and untreated tinea capitis.
– Non-scarring alopecia is caused by male-pattern baldness, drugs such as cytotoxic drugs, carbimazole, heparin, oral contraceptive pill, and colchicine, nutritional deficiencies such as iron and zinc deficiency, autoimmune conditions such as alopecia areata, telogen effluvium, hair loss following a stressful period such as surgery, and trichotillomania. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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An 18-year-old woman presents to her GP with painful lumps in her neck that appeared two days ago. She also reports a sore throat and fever. Upon examination, she has tender, enlarged, smooth masses on both sides. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Branchial cyst
Correct Answer: Reactive lymphadenopathy
Explanation:Differentiating Neck Lumps: Causes and Characteristics
When a patient presents with a neck lump, it is important to consider the possible causes and characteristics to determine the appropriate course of action. In this case, the patient’s sore throat and fever suggest a throat infection, which has resulted in reactive lymphadenopathy. This is a common cause of neck lump presentations in primary care.
Other possible causes of neck lumps include goitre, which is a painless mass in the midline of the throat that is not associated with fever and may be functional if accompanied by hyperthyroidism. An abscess could also present as a painful neck lump, but the history of a sore throat and bilateral swelling make this less likely.
Branchial cysts are smooth, soft masses in the lateral neck that are usually benign and congenital in origin. Lipomas, on the other hand, are lumps caused by the accumulation of soft, fatty deposits under the skin and do not typically present with systemic features.
In summary, understanding the characteristics and possible causes of neck lumps can aid in the diagnosis and management of patients presenting with this symptom.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 22
Incorrect
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To prevent adverse drug effects, which drug from the list below should have their serum levels monitored?
Select the SINGLE most important drug from the list below.Your Answer: Rifampicin
Correct Answer: Theophylline
Explanation:Monitoring Medications: Guidelines for Serum Level and Function Tests
Theophylline: To avoid toxicity, serum theophylline levels should be monitored due to its narrow therapeutic window. A concentration of 10-20 mg/l is required for bronchodilatation, but adverse effects can occur within this range and increase at concentrations >20 mg/l. Plasma theophylline concentration should be measured 5 days after starting oral treatment and at least 3 days after any dose adjustment.
Carbimazole: The maintenance dose for this anti-thyroid drug is determined by measuring fT4 and TSH levels.
Warfarin: The INR, not serum level monitoring, is used to assess the effect of this anticoagulant.
Rifampicin: Renal and hepatic function should be checked before treatment. Further checks are necessary only if the patient develops fever, malaise, vomiting, jaundice, or unexplained deterioration during treatment. However, liver function and full blood count should be monitored on prolonged therapy.
Cyclophosphamide: Side effects from this medication include bone marrow suppression and haemorrhagic cystitis, related to the cumulative medication dose. A full blood count and urinalysis should be monitored regularly in patients taking this medication.
Guidelines for Monitoring Medications: Serum Levels and Function Tests
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old Nigerian girl is brought to the GP clinic by her mother. She has been experiencing headaches, fatigue, and body aches for the past week. She has also been complaining of a sore throat and difficulty swallowing. This morning, her mother noticed swollen glands on both sides of her neck. The mother asks if her daughter can still attend school.
What would be your advice to the mother?Your Answer: She can only go back to school after the swellings are resolved and she feels completely back to normal
Correct Answer: She should be kept off school for 5 days from the onset of swollen glands
Explanation:If a child develops swollen glands due to mumps, they should stay away from school for 5 days starting from the day the swelling began. As the child’s swollen glands started one day ago, they should not attend school for the next 5 days. Waiting for a month is not necessary, but the child should not return to school until the 5-day exclusion period is over, even if the swelling has not completely resolved. The option suggesting waiting until all swellings have resolved before returning to school is incorrect.
The Health Protection Agency has provided guidance on when children should be excluded from school due to infectious conditions. Some conditions, such as conjunctivitis, fifth disease, roseola, infectious mononucleosis, head lice, threadworms, and hand, foot and mouth, do not require exclusion. Scarlet fever requires exclusion for 24 hours after commencing antibiotics, while whooping cough requires exclusion for 2 days after commencing antibiotics or 21 days from onset of symptoms if no antibiotics are taken. Measles requires exclusion for 4 days from onset of rash, rubella for 5 days from onset of rash, and chickenpox until all lesions are crusted over. Mumps requires exclusion for 5 days from onset of swollen glands, while diarrhoea and vomiting require exclusion until symptoms have settled for 48 hours. Impetigo requires exclusion until lesions are crusted and healed, or for 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment, and scabies requires exclusion until treated. Influenza requires exclusion until the child has recovered. The official advice regarding school exclusion for chickenpox has varied, but the most recent guidance suggests that all lesions should be crusted over before children return to school.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old male with type 2 diabetes presents for a check-up. He is currently on metformin 1g twice daily and gliclazide 160 mg twice daily. His BMI is 29 kg/m². Blood tests are taken.
Sodium 140 mmol/L
Potassium 4.0mmol/L
Urea 5.8mmol/L
Creatinine 135 umol/L
eGFR 44 ml/min/1.73m²
HbA1c 7.5% (58 mmol/mol)
What modification to his current treatment plan is recommended based on the provided information?Your Answer: Add thiazolidinedione
Correct Answer: No change to medication
Explanation:Metformin is typically the first choice for diabetes treatment due to its positive impact on weight. Sulphonylureas are usually the second option, unless they cause hypoglycaemia or are not well-tolerated. If sulphonylureas are not an option, alternatives like DPP4 inhibitors or thiazolidinediones may be considered. Insulin is the next line of treatment after metformin and sulphonylureas, but DPP4 inhibitors may be preferred if insulin is not suitable or if the patient wants to avoid injections or weight gain. However, DPP4 inhibitors should only be continued if they are effective, as they can be expensive.
When it comes to metformin and renal function, it is recommended to stop using it if creatinine levels exceed 150mmol/L or eGFR is below 30ml/min/1.73m². Caution is advised when eGFR is between 30-45ml/min/1.73m², taking into account the rate of deterioration in renal function. For example, if eGFR has remained stable at 33ml/min/1.73m² for six months, it may be reasonable to continue using metformin. However, if eGFR has decreased from 50 to 38ml/min/1.73m², it is likely that metformin should be discontinued due to the risk of lactic acidosis.
NICE updated its guidance on the management of type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) in 2022, reflecting advances in drug therapy and improved evidence regarding newer therapies such as SGLT-2 inhibitors. The first-line drug of choice remains metformin, which should be titrated up slowly to minimize gastrointestinal upset. HbA1c targets should be agreed upon with patients and checked every 3-6 months until stable, with consideration for relaxing targets on a case-by-case basis. Dietary advice includes encouraging high fiber, low glycemic index sources of carbohydrates and controlling intake of foods containing saturated fats and trans fatty acids. Blood pressure targets are the same as for patients without type 2 diabetes, and antiplatelets should not be offered unless a patient has existing cardiovascular disease. Only patients with a 10-year cardiovascular risk > 10% should be offered a statin, with atorvastatin 20mg as the first-line choice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents with back pain that shoots down her right leg, which she experienced suddenly while picking up her child. During examination, she can only raise her right leg to 30 degrees due to shooting pains down her leg. There is reduced sensation on the dorsum of her right foot, especially around the big toe, and weak foot dorsiflexion. The ankle and knee reflexes seem intact, and a diagnosis of disc prolapse is suspected. Which nerve root is most likely affected?
Your Answer: L4
Correct Answer: L5
Explanation:The characteristics of a L5 lesion include the absence of dorsiflexion in the foot and a lack of sensation on the top of the foot.
Understanding Prolapsed Disc and its Features
A prolapsed lumbar disc is a common cause of lower back pain that can lead to neurological deficits. It is characterized by clear dermatomal leg pain, which is usually worse than the back pain. The pain is often aggravated when sitting. The features of the prolapsed disc depend on the site of compression. For instance, L3 nerve root compression can cause sensory loss over the anterior thigh, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test. On the other hand, L4 nerve root compression can lead to sensory loss in the anterior aspect of the knee, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test.
The management of prolapsed disc is similar to that of other musculoskeletal lower back pain. It involves analgesia, physiotherapy, and exercises. According to NICE, the first-line treatment for back pain without sciatica symptoms is NSAIDs +/- proton pump inhibitors, rather than neuropathic analgesia. If the symptoms persist after 4-6 weeks, referral for consideration of MRI is appropriate. Understanding the features of prolapsed disc can help in the diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old businessman comes to the clinic complaining of watery, non-bloody diarrhea, anorexia, and abdominal bloating that has been going on for 10 days. He recently returned from a trip to India and his symptoms started 3 days after his return. Upon examination, he has dry mucous membranes but normal skin turgor and no fever. What is the probable organism responsible for his symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Giardia lamblia
Explanation:The symptoms experienced by the patient, such as bloating and watery diarrhoea lasting for an extended period, suggest that the cause of their illness is Giardiasis rather than the more typical culprit, Escherichia coli, which is commonly associated with travellers’ diarrhoea.
Understanding Giardiasis
Giardiasis is a condition caused by a type of protozoan called Giardia lamblia. It is transmitted through the faeco-oral route and can be contracted through various means such as foreign travel, drinking water from rivers or lakes, and even male-male sexual contact. While some individuals may not experience any symptoms, others may suffer from non-bloody diarrhea, bloating, abdominal pain, lethargy, flatulence, and weight loss. In severe cases, malabsorption and lactose intolerance may occur. Diagnosis can be made through stool microscopy, stool antigen detection assay, or PCR assays. Treatment typically involves the use of metronidazole.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old woman visits her GP and reports experiencing night sweats, hot flashes, and painful sexual intercourse due to vaginal dryness. The GP suspects that she may be going through menopause and orders a set of blood tests to check her hormonal levels.
What hormonal changes are probable in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cessation of oestradiol and progesterone production
Explanation:The cessation of oestradiol and progesterone production in the ovaries, which can be caused naturally or by medical intervention, leads to menopause. This decrease in hormone production often results in elevated levels of FSH and LH.
Understanding Menopause and Contraception
Menopause is a natural biological process that marks the end of a woman’s reproductive years. On average, women in the UK experience menopause at the age of 51. However, prior to menopause, women may experience a period known as the climacteric. During this time, ovarian function starts to decline, and women may experience symptoms such as hot flashes, mood swings, and vaginal dryness.
It is important for women to understand that they can still become pregnant during the climacteric period. Therefore, it is recommended to use effective contraception until a certain period of time has passed. Women over the age of 50 should use contraception for 12 months after their last period, while women under the age of 50 should use contraception for 24 months after their last period. By understanding menopause and the importance of contraception during the climacteric period, women can make informed decisions about their reproductive health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman comes to her GP complaining of pelvic pain and deep dyspareunia that has been ongoing for four days. During the examination, the GP notes a temperature of 37.9 degrees Celsius, lower abdominal tenderness, and cervical motion tenderness. The GP suspects that the woman may have pelvic inflammatory disease. What criteria should the GP use to determine whether antibiotics should be prescribed?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clinical evidence - history and examination
Explanation:According to NICE guidelines, clinicians should diagnose pelvic inflammatory disease based on clinical symptoms and start antibiotic treatment promptly. While investigations such as endocervical and high vaginal swabs for microscopy and culture should be performed, they should not delay treatment. Negative swab results do not exclude the possibility of the disease. Blood cultures are not necessary unless the patient shows signs of systemic illness. Transvaginal ultrasound is not the first choice but may be necessary if an abscess is suspected.
(NICE CKS – Pelvic Inflammatory Disease)Understanding Pelvic Inflammatory Disease
Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a condition that occurs when the female pelvic organs, including the uterus, fallopian tubes, ovaries, and surrounding peritoneum, become infected and inflamed. The most common cause of PID is an ascending infection from the endocervix, often caused by Chlamydia trachomatis. Other causative organisms include Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Mycoplasma genitalium, and Mycoplasma hominis. Symptoms of PID include lower abdominal pain, fever, dyspareunia, dysuria, menstrual irregularities, vaginal or cervical discharge, and cervical excitation.
To diagnose PID, a pregnancy test should be done to rule out an ectopic pregnancy, and a high vaginal swab should be taken to screen for Chlamydia and Gonorrhoea. However, these tests are often negative, so consensus guidelines recommend having a low threshold for treatment due to the potential complications of untreated PID. Management typically involves a combination of antibiotics, such as oral ofloxacin and oral metronidazole or intramuscular ceftriaxone, oral doxycycline, and oral metronidazole.
Complications of PID include perihepatitis (Fitz-Hugh Curtis Syndrome), which occurs in around 10% of cases and is characterized by right upper quadrant pain that may be confused with cholecystitis. PID can also lead to infertility, with the risk as high as 10-20% after a single episode, chronic pelvic pain, and ectopic pregnancy. In mild cases of PID, intrauterine contraceptive devices may be left in, but recent guidelines suggest that removal of the IUD should be considered for better short-term clinical outcomes. Understanding PID and its potential complications is crucial for early diagnosis and effective management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 63-year-old man visits your clinic for his regular asthma inhaler prescription. During the consultation, he mentions experiencing difficulty in sustaining his erections and requests a prescription for sildenafil. What is the most prevalent side effect of sildenafil?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Headaches
Explanation:Sildenafil is frequently prescribed in primary care. Adverse effects of sildenafil consist of headaches, facial flushing, indigestion, and temporary visual disturbances with a blue-green tint.
Understanding Phosphodiesterase Type V Inhibitors
Phosphodiesterase type V (PDE5) inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. These drugs work by increasing the levels of cGMP, which leads to the relaxation of smooth muscles in the blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which was the first drug of its kind. It is a short-acting medication that is usually taken one hour before sexual activity.
Other PDE5 inhibitors include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra). Tadalafil is longer-acting than sildenafil and can be taken on a regular basis, while vardenafil has a similar duration of action to sildenafil. However, these drugs are not suitable for everyone. Patients taking nitrates or related drugs, those with hypotension, and those who have had a recent stroke or myocardial infarction should not take PDE5 inhibitors.
Like all medications, PDE5 inhibitors can cause side effects. These may include visual disturbances, blue discolouration, non-arteritic anterior ischaemic neuropathy, nasal congestion, flushing, gastrointestinal side-effects, headache, and priapism. It is important to speak to a healthcare professional before taking any medication to ensure that it is safe and appropriate for you.
Overall, PDE5 inhibitors are an effective treatment for erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. However, they should only be used under the guidance of a healthcare professional and with careful consideration of the potential risks and benefits.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 30
Incorrect
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For which condition is the Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) a screening questionnaire?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cognitive impairment
Explanation:The MMSE as a Screening Tool for Cognitive Impairment and Dementia
The Mini-Mental State Examination (MMSE) is a widely used screening tool for cognitive impairment and dementia. It assesses cognitive functioning and gives a score out of 30, which can be used to identify individuals who may require further investigation for dementia. However, the MMSE is sensitive to education, and individuals with limited education may have lower scores without cognitive impairment.
While the MMSE is a valuable screening tool for moderate and severe dementia, it cannot make a diagnosis of any type of dementia on its own. It detects cognitive impairment, not cognitive decline, which requires a history. Additionally, there is no reliable test that assesses mental illnesses as a whole.
Nevertheless, the MMSE has been used in many community studies of older people and has proved to be a valuable screening tool for various types of dementia, including vascular dementia. Overall, the MMSE is a useful tool for identifying cognitive impairment and potential dementia, but it should be used in conjunction with other assessments and evaluations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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