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  • Question 1 - You are a FY-1 doctor working in obstetrics. For one day a week...

    Incorrect

    • You are a FY-1 doctor working in obstetrics. For one day a week you are based in the early pregnancy assessment unit (EPAU). You are assessing a 28-year-old female with a suspected threatened miscarriage. How does this condition typically manifest?

      Your Answer: No per-vaginal bleeding but an open cervical os

      Correct Answer: Painless per-vaginal bleeding and a closed cervical os

      Explanation:

      A threatened miscarriage is characterized by bleeding, but the cervical os remains closed. Miscarriages can be classified as threatened, inevitable, incomplete, complete, or missed. Mild bleeding and little to no pain are typical symptoms of a threatened miscarriage. In contrast, an inevitable miscarriage is marked by heavy bleeding with clots and pain, and the cervical os is open. Inevitable miscarriages will not result in a continued pregnancy and will progress to incomplete or complete miscarriages.

      Miscarriage is a common complication that can occur in up to 25% of all pregnancies. There are different types of miscarriage, each with its own set of symptoms and characteristics. Threatened miscarriage is painless vaginal bleeding that occurs before 24 weeks, typically at 6-9 weeks. The bleeding is usually less than menstruation, and the cervical os is closed. Missed or delayed miscarriage is when a gestational sac containing a dead fetus is present before 20 weeks, without the symptoms of expulsion. The mother may experience light vaginal bleeding or discharge, and the symptoms of pregnancy may disappear. Pain is not usually a feature, and the cervical os is closed. Inevitable miscarriage is characterized by heavy bleeding with clots and pain, and the cervical os is open. Incomplete miscarriage occurs when not all products of conception have been expelled, and there is pain and vaginal bleeding. The cervical os is open in this type of miscarriage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 2 - A 29-year-old woman is admitted to the Labour Suite, 2 weeks post-due date,...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman is admitted to the Labour Suite, 2 weeks post-due date, for induction of labour. She is assessed using the Bishop’s scoring system and is noted to have a score of 5.
      What is the recommended treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer: Membrane sweep

      Correct Answer: Vaginal PGE2, then reassess 6 h later

      Explanation:

      Induction of Labour: Methods and Indications

      Induction of labour is a medical procedure that is carried out when the risks of continuing the pregnancy outweigh the risks of delivery. It is usually done in the interest of foetal wellbeing, rather than maternal wellbeing. There are various methods of inducing labour, and the choice of method depends on the individual case.

      Vaginal PGE2 is a commonly used method of induction. The Bishop’s score is assessed, and if it is less than 6, vaginal PGE2 is administered. The cervix is reassessed after 6 hours, and if the score is still less than 7, further prostaglandin is given.

      Other methods of induction include artificial rupture of membranes, which is performed when the woman is in active labour and her waters have not broken. A membrane sweep is offered at the 40- and 41-week checks for nulliparous women and at the 41-week check for multiparous women. Anti-progesterone is rarely used in the induction of labour.

      Induction of labour is indicated in cases of foetal indications such as post-due date of more than 10 days, foetal growth restriction, deteriorating foetal abnormalities, and deteriorating haemolytic disease. It is also indicated in cases of maternal indications such as pre-eclampsia, deteriorating medical conditions, certain diabetic pregnancies, and if treatment is required for malignancy.

      If vaginal PGE2 fails and the woman is not in active labour, artificial rupture of membranes with Syntocinon® may be performed. The choice of method depends on the individual case and the judgement of the healthcare provider.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 3 - A 25-year-old woman is experiencing labour with a suspected case of shoulder dystocia...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is experiencing labour with a suspected case of shoulder dystocia and failure of progression. What is the Wood's screw manoeuvre and how can it be used to deliver the baby?

      Your Answer: Hyperflex the mothers legs onto her abdomen and apply suprapubic pressure

      Correct Answer: Put your hand in the vagina and attempt to rotate the foetus 180 degrees

      Explanation:

      The Wood’s screw manoeuvre involves rotating the foetus 180 degrees by inserting a hand into the vagina. This is done in an attempt to release the anterior shoulder from the symphysis pubis. However, before attempting this manoeuvre, it is important to place the woman in the McRoberts position, which involves hyperflexing her legs onto her abdomen and applying suprapubic pressure. This creates additional space for the anterior shoulder. If the McRoberts position fails, the Rubin manoeuvre can be attempted by applying pressure on the posterior shoulder to create more room for the anterior shoulder. If these manoeuvres are unsuccessful, the woman can be placed on all fours and the same techniques can be attempted. If all else fails, an emergency caesarean section may be necessary.

      Shoulder dystocia is a complication that can occur during vaginal delivery when the body of the fetus cannot be delivered after the head has already been delivered. This is usually due to the anterior shoulder of the fetus becoming stuck on the mother’s pubic bone. Shoulder dystocia can cause harm to both the mother and the fetus. Risk factors for shoulder dystocia include fetal macrosomia, high maternal body mass index, diabetes mellitus, and prolonged labor.

      If shoulder dystocia is identified, it is important to call for senior help immediately. The McRoberts’ maneuver is often performed, which involves flexing and abducting the mother’s hips to increase the angle of the pelvis and facilitate delivery. An episiotomy may be performed to provide better access for internal maneuvers, but it will not relieve the bony obstruction. Symphysiotomy and the Zavanelli maneuver are not recommended as they can cause significant maternal morbidity. Oxytocin administration is not indicated for shoulder dystocia.

      Complications of shoulder dystocia can include postpartum hemorrhage and perineal tears for the mother, and brachial plexus injury and neonatal death for the fetus. It is important to manage shoulder dystocia promptly and appropriately to minimize the risk of these complications.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 4 - A fit and well 36-week pregnant patient is admitted for a planned Caesarean...

    Correct

    • A fit and well 36-week pregnant patient is admitted for a planned Caesarean section. Blood tests show the following:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 102 g/l 115–155 g/l
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 89 fl 82–98 fl
      Platelets 156 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      White cell count (WCC) 11 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      With which of the following are these findings consistent?

      Your Answer: Dilutional anaemia of pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Understanding Dilutional Anaemia of Pregnancy

      Dilutional anaemia of pregnancy is a common condition that occurs during pregnancy. It is characterized by a normal mean cell volume (MCV) and is caused by a disproportional rise in plasma volume, which dilutes the red blood cells. This condition is the most likely option for a patient with a normal MCV.

      Iron deficiency anaemia, on the other hand, is microcytic and gives a low MCV. Pancytopenia, which is the term for low haemoglobin, white cells, and platelets, is not applicable in this case as the patient’s white cells and platelets are in the normal range.

      Folic acid or B12 deficiency would give rise to macrocytic anaemia with raised MCV, which is not the case for this patient. Myelodysplasia, an uncommon malignant condition that usually occurs in patients over 60, is also unlikely.

      In conclusion, understanding dilutional anaemia of pregnancy is important for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and management for pregnant patients.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 5 - A 28-year-old first-time mother had a normal vaginal delivery at term. The baby’s...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old first-time mother had a normal vaginal delivery at term. The baby’s birth weight was 2 100 g. She wanted to breastfeed but is wondering whether she should supplement feeds with formula to help the baby’s growth.
      Which of the following best applies to the World Health Organization (WHO) recommendations for feeding in low-birthweight infants?

      Your Answer: Low-birthweight infants should receive daily vitamin D, calcium and phosphorus supplementation

      Correct Answer: Low-birthweight infants who cannot be fed their mother’s breast milk should be fed donor human milk

      Explanation:

      Recommendations for Feeding Low-Birthweight Infants

      Low-birthweight infants, those with a birthweight of less than 2,500 g, should be exclusively breastfed for the first six months of life, according to WHO recommendations. If the mother’s milk is not available, donor human milk should be sought. If that is not possible, standard formula milk can be used. There is no difference in the duration of exclusive breastfeeding between low-birthweight and normal-weight infants. Daily vitamin A supplementation is not currently recommended for low-birthweight infants, but very low-birthweight infants should receive daily supplementation of vitamin D, calcium, and phosphorus. Low-birthweight infants who are able to breastfeed should start as soon as possible after birth, once they are clinically stable.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 6 - A 26-year-old woman goes for her first ultrasound and discovers that she is...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old woman goes for her first ultrasound and discovers that she is carrying monochorionic twins. Her GP advises her to inform them immediately if she experiences sudden abdominal distension or shortness of breath. What is the complication of monochorionic multiple pregnancy that the GP is referring to?

      Your Answer: Twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome

      Explanation:

      Multiple Pregnancies: Incidence, Types, and Complications

      Multiple pregnancies, such as twins and triplets, have different incidences. Twins occur in 1 out of 105 pregnancies, while triplets occur in 1 out of 10,000 pregnancies. Twins can be either dizygotic or monozygotic, with the former being more common at 80%. Monoamniotic monozygotic twins have higher risks of spontaneous miscarriage, perinatal mortality rate, malformations, intrauterine growth restriction, and prematurity. Twin-to-twin transfusions may occur, which require laser ablation of interconnecting vessels.

      Dizygotic twins are becoming more common due to infertility treatment, and predisposing factors include previous twins, family history, increasing maternal age, multigravida, induced ovulation, in-vitro fertilization, and race, particularly Afro-Caribbean. Antenatal complications may arise, such as polyhydramnios, pregnancy-induced hypertension, and anemia, while fetal complications include perinatal mortality, prematurity, light-for-date babies, and malformations.

      During labor, complications may occur, such as postpartum hemorrhage, malpresentation, cord prolapse, and entanglement. Management includes rest, ultrasound for diagnosis and monthly checks, additional iron and folate, more antenatal care, and precautions during labor, such as having two obstetricians present. Most twins deliver by 38 weeks, and if longer, most twins are induced at 38-40 weeks.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 7 - A 33-year-old primiparous woman has been referred at 35+5 weeks’ gestation to the...

    Correct

    • A 33-year-old primiparous woman has been referred at 35+5 weeks’ gestation to the Antenatal Assessment Unit by her community midwife because of a raised blood pressure. On arrival, her blood pressure is 162/114 mmHg despite two doses of oral labetalol and her heart rate is 121 bpm. Examination reveals non-specific abdominal tenderness predominantly in the right upper quadrant; the uterus is soft and fetal movements are palpated. Urine dipstick reveals 3+ protein only. The cardiotocograph is normal.
      Initial blood tests are as follows:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 95 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 5.8 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      Platelets 32 × 109/l 150–450 × 109/l
      Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 140 IU/l 10–40 IU/l
      Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 129 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
      Bilirubin 28 μmol/l 2–17 μmol/l
      Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) 253 IU/l 100–190 IU/l
      Which of the following is the most definitive treatment in this patient?

      Your Answer: Immediate delivery of the fetus to improve blood pressure

      Explanation:

      Management of Severe Pre-eclampsia with HELLP Syndrome

      Severe pre-eclampsia with HELLP syndrome is a serious complication of pregnancy that requires prompt management to prevent maternal and fetal morbidity and mortality. The first-line medication for pre-eclampsia is labetalol, but if it fails to improve symptoms, second-line treatments such as intravenous hydralazine or oral nifedipine can be used. In cases of severe pre-eclampsia, delivery of the fetus is the only definitive treatment. However, if delivery is planned before 36 weeks, intramuscular betamethasone is required to protect the fetus from neonatal respiratory distress syndrome. Intravenous magnesium sulfate infusion is also necessary for neuroprotection and to lower the risk of eclampsia. It should be considered in cases of mild or moderate pre-eclampsia with certain symptoms. While these interventions are essential in managing severe pre-eclampsia with HELLP syndrome, they are not definitive treatments. Close monitoring of both the mother and fetus is necessary, and delivery should be planned as soon as possible to prevent further complications.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 8 - Sarah is a 28-year-old woman who has recently given birth to a baby...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah is a 28-year-old woman who has recently given birth to a baby boy 6 weeks ago. At the 6 week check, you can see from her records that she has previously been on sertraline for moderate depression, however, this was stopped before her pregnancy. She tells you that she is finding it difficult to cope and is feeling extremely low. On examination, she is tearful and has a flat affect. She denies any thoughts to harm herself or her baby but is keen to try a medication that would be safe to use with breastfeeding.
      Which of the following medications may be appropriate for her to start?

      Your Answer: Citalopram

      Correct Answer: Paroxetine

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, the preferred treatment for post-natal depression in breastfeeding women is either sertraline or paroxetine. Before starting treatment, it is recommended to seek advice from a specialist perinatal mental health team. Although tricyclic antidepressants like amitriptyline are an option, they are less commonly used due to concerns about maternal toxicity. Citalopram is also not the first-line choice. It is safe for the patient to take medication while breastfeeding, but the infant should be monitored for any adverse effects. The priority is to manage the patient’s mood symptoms to reduce the risk to both her and her baby.

      Understanding Postpartum Mental Health Problems

      Postpartum mental health problems can range from mild ‘baby-blues’ to severe puerperal psychosis. To screen for depression, healthcare professionals may use the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Scale, which is a 10-item questionnaire that indicates how the mother has felt over the previous week. A score of more than 13 indicates a ‘depressive illness of varying severity’, with sensitivity and specificity of more than 90%. The questionnaire also includes a question about self-harm.

      ‘Baby-blues’ is seen in around 60-70% of women and typically occurs 3-7 days following birth. It is more common in primips, and mothers are characteristically anxious, tearful, and irritable. Reassurance and support from healthcare professionals, particularly health visitors, play a key role in managing this condition. Most women with the baby blues will not require specific treatment other than reassurance.

      Postnatal depression affects around 10% of women, with most cases starting within a month and typically peaking at 3 months. The features are similar to depression seen in other circumstances, and cognitive behavioural therapy may be beneficial. Certain SSRIs such as sertraline and paroxetine may be used if symptoms are severe. Although these medications are secreted in breast milk, they are not thought to be harmful to the infant.

      Puerperal psychosis affects approximately 0.2% of women and requires admission to hospital, ideally in a Mother & Baby Unit. Onset usually occurs within the first 2-3 weeks following birth, and features include severe swings in mood (similar to bipolar disorder) and disordered perception (e.g. auditory hallucinations). There is around a 25-50% risk of recurrence following future pregnancies. Paroxetine is recommended by SIGN because of the low milk/plasma ratio, while fluoxetine is best avoided due to a long half-life.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 9 - A 29-year-old pregnant woman presents at 40 weeks gestation for an artificial rupture...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old pregnant woman presents at 40 weeks gestation for an artificial rupture of the membranes. Following the procedure, a vaginal examination reveals a palpable umbilical cord. What position should she be advised to assume?

      Your Answer: On all fours, on the knees and elbows

      Explanation:

      When a woman experiences cord prolapse, the correct position for her is on all fours, with her knees and elbows on the ground. This condition can be caused by artificial rupture of the membranes, and it is important to keep the cord warm and moist while preparing for a caesarian section. The Trendelenburg position, which involves tilting the head-end of the bed downwards, is used in abdominal surgery to shift abdominal contents upwards. The Lloyd Davis position, which involves separating the legs and tilting the head-end of the bed downwards, is used in rectal and pelvic surgery. The McRoberts manoeuvre, which involves hyperflexing the legs tightly to the abdomen, is used in cases of shoulder dystocia during delivery, but not for cord prolapse. The lithotomy position, which involves raising the legs in stirrups and separating them, is used in obstetrics and gynaecology for various procedures, but not for cord prolapse.

      Understanding Umbilical Cord Prolapse

      Umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that can occur during delivery. It happens when the umbilical cord descends ahead of the presenting part of the fetus, which can lead to compression or spasm of the cord. This can cause fetal hypoxia and potentially irreversible damage or death. Certain factors increase the risk of cord prolapse, such as prematurity, multiparity, polyhydramnios, twin pregnancy, cephalopelvic disproportion, and abnormal presentations like breech or transverse lie.

      Around half of all cord prolapses occur when the membranes are artificially ruptured. Diagnosis is usually made when the fetal heart rate becomes abnormal and the cord is palpable vaginally or visible beyond the introitus. Cord prolapse is an obstetric emergency that requires immediate management. The presenting part of the fetus may be pushed back into the uterus to avoid compression, and the cord should be kept warm and moist to prevent vasospasm. The patient may be asked to go on all fours or assume the left lateral position until preparations for an immediate caesarian section have been carried out. Tocolytics may be used to reduce uterine contractions, and retrofilling the bladder with saline can help elevate the presenting part. Although caesarian section is the usual first-line method of delivery, an instrumental vaginal delivery may be possible if the cervix is fully dilated and the head is low.

      In conclusion, umbilical cord prolapse is a rare but serious complication that requires prompt recognition and management. Understanding the risk factors and appropriate interventions can help reduce the incidence of fetal mortality associated with this condition.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 10 - A 25-year-old primiparous female is at 39 weeks gestation. Upon examination by a...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old primiparous female is at 39 weeks gestation. Upon examination by a midwife, her Bishop score is determined to be 4. What is the significance of this score?

      Your Answer: Labour is unlikely to start spontaneously

      Explanation:

      To determine if induction is necessary, the Bishop scoring system evaluates cervical characteristics such as position, consistency, effacement, dilation, and foetal station. If the score is less than 5, induction is likely required. However, if the score is above 9, spontaneous labour is expected.

      Induction of labour is a process where labour is artificially started and is required in about 20% of pregnancies. It is indicated in cases of prolonged pregnancy, prelabour premature rupture of the membranes, maternal medical problems, diabetic mother over 38 weeks, pre-eclampsia, obstetric cholestasis, and intrauterine fetal death. The Bishop score is used to assess whether induction of labour is necessary and includes cervical position, consistency, effacement, dilation, and fetal station. A score of less than 5 indicates that labour is unlikely to start without induction, while a score of 8 or more indicates a high chance of spontaneous labour or response to interventions made to induce labour.

      Possible methods of induction include membrane sweep, vaginal prostaglandin E2, oral prostaglandin E1, maternal oxytocin infusion, amniotomy, and cervical ripening balloon. The NICE guidelines recommend vaginal prostaglandins or oral misoprostol if the Bishop score is less than or equal to 6, while amniotomy and an intravenous oxytocin infusion are recommended if the score is greater than 6.

      The main complication of induction of labour is uterine hyperstimulation, which refers to prolonged and frequent uterine contractions that can interrupt blood flow to the intervillous space and result in fetal hypoxemia and acidemia. Uterine rupture is a rare but serious complication. Management includes removing vaginal prostaglandins and stopping the oxytocin infusion if one has been started, and considering tocolysis.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 11 - A 32-year-old woman comes to the antenatal clinic at 14 weeks pregnant. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman comes to the antenatal clinic at 14 weeks pregnant. She was surprised to discover her pregnancy just last week, as it was unexpected. This is her fourth pregnancy, but she has had three miscarriages in the past. The midwife suggests a quadruple test due to the late discovery of her pregnancy, which reveals the following results:

      - Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) is low
      - Unconjugated oestriol (uE3) is low
      - Total human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG) is low
      - Inhibin-A is normal

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Turner's syndrome

      Correct Answer: Edward's syndrome

      Explanation:

      The quadruple test result shows a decrease in AFP, oestriol, and hCG, without change in inhibin A, indicating Edward’s syndrome. This condition is caused by trisomy 18 and can present with physical features such as micrognathia, low-set ears, rocker bottom feet, and overlapping fingers. The quadruple test is a screening test used to identify pregnancies with a higher risk of Down’s syndrome, Edwards’ syndrome, Patau’s syndrome, or neural tube defects. It is typically offered to patients who discover their pregnancy late and are no longer eligible for the combined test. ARPKD cannot be diagnosed with a quadruple test, but it can be detected prenatally with an ultrasound. Down’s syndrome would present with low AFP, low unconjugated oestriol, high hCG, and inhibin A, while neural tube defects would present with high AFP and normal oestriol, hCG, and inhibin A.

      NICE updated guidelines on antenatal care in 2021, recommending the combined test for screening for Down’s syndrome between 11-13+6 weeks. The test includes nuchal translucency measurement, serum B-HCG, and pregnancy-associated plasma protein A (PAPP-A). The quadruple test is offered between 15-20 weeks for women who book later in pregnancy. Results are interpreted as either a ‘lower chance’ or ‘higher chance’ of chromosomal abnormalities. If a woman receives a ‘higher chance’ result, she may be offered a non-invasive prenatal screening test (NIPT) or a diagnostic test. NIPT analyzes cell-free fetal DNA in the mother’s blood and has high sensitivity and specificity for detecting chromosomal abnormalities. Private companies offer NIPT screening from 10 weeks gestation.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 12 - A 32-year-old pregnant woman is concerned about the risk of measles, mumps, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old pregnant woman is concerned about the risk of measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) infection for her unborn baby. She has never been vaccinated for MMR and is currently 14 weeks pregnant. There are no sick contacts around her.

      What is the appropriate course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer: Give her the measles and mumps vaccines during her current visit, but refrain from giving the rubella vaccine at any stage of her pregnancy

      Correct Answer: Refrain from giving her any MMR vaccination now and at any stage of her pregnancy

      Explanation:

      The MMR vaccine, which contains live attenuated virus, should not be given to women who are pregnant or trying to conceive. It is recommended that women avoid getting pregnant for at least 28 days after receiving the vaccine. If a pregnant woman is not immune to MMR, she should avoid contact with individuals who have the disease. In the event that a woman receives the MMR vaccine unintentionally during the periconception period or early pregnancy, termination of pregnancy is not necessary. This information is based on the guidelines provided by the American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists.

      Rubella and Pregnancy: Risks, Features, Diagnosis, and Management

      Rubella, also known as German measles, is a viral infection caused by the togavirus. Thanks to the introduction of the MMR vaccine, it is now rare. However, if contracted during pregnancy, there is a risk of congenital rubella syndrome, which can cause serious harm to the fetus. It is important to note that the incubation period is 14-21 days, and individuals are infectious from 7 days before symptoms appear to 4 days after the onset of the rash.

      The risk of damage to the fetus is highest in the first 8-10 weeks of pregnancy, with a risk as high as 90%. However, damage is rare after 16 weeks. Features of congenital rubella syndrome include sensorineural deafness, congenital cataracts, congenital heart disease (e.g. patent ductus arteriosus), growth retardation, hepatosplenomegaly, purpuric skin lesions, ‘salt and pepper’ chorioretinitis, microphthalmia, and cerebral palsy.

      If a suspected case of rubella in pregnancy arises, it should be discussed immediately with the local Health Protection Unit (HPU) as type/timing of investigations may vary. IgM antibodies are raised in women recently exposed to the virus. It should be noted that it is very difficult to distinguish rubella from parvovirus B19 clinically. Therefore, it is important to also check parvovirus B19 serology as there is a 30% risk of transplacental infection, with a 5-10% risk of fetal loss.

      If a woman is tested at any point and no immunity is demonstrated, they should be advised to keep away from people who might have rubella. Non-immune mothers should be offered the MMR vaccination in the post-natal period. However, MMR vaccines should not be administered to women known to be pregnant or attempting to become pregnant.

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  • Question 13 - A 32-year-old multiparous woman presents very anxious on day 10 postpartum. She is...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old multiparous woman presents very anxious on day 10 postpartum. She is struggling with breastfeeding; her nipples are sore, and she feels her son is not feeding enough, as he is fussy and crying for most of the day. Breast examination reveals bilateral breast engorgement, but no evidence of infection. The patient tells you she felt embarrassed to ask the nurse for advice when she had her first postnatal visit, as she did not want her to think she was incompetent as a mother.
      What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Arrange a one-to-one appointment with a health visitor

      Explanation:

      Management options for breastfeeding problems in new mothers

      Breastfeeding is a common challenge for new mothers, and it is important to provide them with effective management options. The first-line option recommended by NICE guidelines is a one-to-one visit from a health visitor or breastfeeding specialist nurse. This allows for observation and advice on optimal positioning, milk expressing techniques, and pain management during breastfeeding. Information leaflets and national breastfeeding support organisation websites can supplement this training, but they are not as effective as one-to-one observation. Prescribing formula milk may be an option if there is evidence of significant weight loss in the baby. It is important to reassure the mother that establishing a good breastfeeding technique can take time, but active support should be provided to maximise the chances of success.

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  • Question 14 - A 28-year-old woman has recently delivered a baby in the labour ward. Following...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman has recently delivered a baby in the labour ward. Following the delivery, an evaluation is conducted to determine the amount of blood loss for recording purposes. The medical records indicate that she experienced a primary postpartum haemorrhage. Can you provide the accurate definition of primary postpartum haemorrhage (PPH)?

      Your Answer: The loss of 500 ml or more of blood from the genital tract within 24 hours of the birth of a baby

      Explanation:

      Maternal mortality rates are still high globally due to obstetric haemorrhage. Postpartum haemorrhage is characterized by blood loss of 500 ml after vaginal delivery, not including the placenta. If blood loss exceeds 1000mls, it is classified as major postpartum haemorrhage. It is crucial to evaluate the severity of the bleeding and seek appropriate management (as outlined below).

      Understanding Postpartum Haemorrhage

      Postpartum haemorrhage (PPH) is a condition where a woman experiences blood loss of more than 500 ml after giving birth vaginally. It can be classified as primary or secondary. Primary PPH occurs within 24 hours after delivery and is caused by the 4 Ts: tone, trauma, tissue, and thrombin. The most common cause is uterine atony. Risk factors for primary PPH include previous PPH, prolonged labour, pre-eclampsia, increased maternal age, emergency Caesarean section, and placenta praevia.

      In managing PPH, it is important to involve senior staff immediately and follow the ABC approach. This includes two peripheral cannulae, lying the woman flat, blood tests, and commencing a warmed crystalloid infusion. Mechanical interventions such as rubbing up the fundus and catheterisation are also done. Medical interventions include IV oxytocin, ergometrine, carboprost, and misoprostol. Surgical options such as intrauterine balloon tamponade, B-Lynch suture, ligation of uterine arteries, and hysterectomy may be considered if medical options fail to control the bleeding.

      Secondary PPH occurs between 24 hours to 6 weeks after delivery and is typically due to retained placental tissue or endometritis. It is important to understand the causes and risk factors of PPH to prevent and manage this life-threatening emergency effectively.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 15 - A 34-year-old woman in her second pregnancy comes in at 11 weeks with...

    Incorrect

    • A 34-year-old woman in her second pregnancy comes in at 11 weeks with a 1-day history of vaginal bleeding. Bleeding began as a light brown discharge while wiping and was accompanied by menstrual-like cramps. Symptoms have since subsided. During the examination, the abdomen is soft and painless, the cervical os is closed, and there is some dark brown discharge in the vaginal area.
      What ultrasound results would confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Products of conception seen in the uterus; absent fetal heart rate

      Correct Answer: Gestational sac seen within the uterus; fetal heart rate present

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Types of Miscarriage

      Miscarriage is the loss of pregnancy before 20 weeks’ gestation and can occur due to various risk factors. There are different types of miscarriage, each with its own set of symptoms and ultrasound findings.

      Threatened Miscarriage: This type presents with lower abdominal pain and light brown discharge. Ultrasound reveals an intrauterine gestational sac and fetal heart rate. Patients may experience further threatened miscarriage or proceed to a complete or full-term pregnancy.

      Inevitable Miscarriage: Active bleeding within the uterine cavity is suggestive of an ongoing miscarriage. The cervical os is open, and products of conception may be seen within the vagina. This type will inevitably progress to a miscarriage.

      Complete Miscarriage: An empty uterus is associated with a complete miscarriage. Examination reveals a closed cervical os and may or may not be associated with vaginal bleeding.

      Missed Miscarriage: A gestational sac small for dates, associated with an absent fetal heart rate, is an incidental finding. Examination is unremarkable, with a closed cervical os and no evidence of vaginal bleeding.

      Incomplete Miscarriage: Products of conception are seen within the uterus, with an absent fetal heart rate. Examination reveals an open or closed cervical os and bleeding. If this miscarriage does not proceed to a complete miscarriage, it will require surgical evacuation.

      Understanding the different types of miscarriage can help patients and healthcare providers manage the condition effectively.

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  • Question 16 - As a newly graduated doctor in obstetrics and gynaecology, you are attending to...

    Correct

    • As a newly graduated doctor in obstetrics and gynaecology, you are attending to an emergency call for a midwife-led delivery. The delivery has been stalled for some time, and the midwife informs you that it is a case of shoulder dystocia. You determine that performing McRobert's manoeuvre is necessary.

      What is the appropriate position for the woman to be in to carry out this manoeuvre?

      Your Answer: Supine with both hips fully flexed and abducted

      Explanation:

      The McRobert’s manoeuvre is an efficient and uncomplicated method to address shoulder dystocia. By enhancing the flexibility of the sacroiliac joints, it facilitates pelvic rotation and the subsequent release of the fetal shoulder. It is crucial to immediately seek assistance upon identifying shoulder dystocia.

      Shoulder dystocia is a complication that can occur during vaginal delivery when the body of the fetus cannot be delivered after the head has already been delivered. This is usually due to the anterior shoulder of the fetus becoming stuck on the mother’s pubic bone. Shoulder dystocia can cause harm to both the mother and the fetus. Risk factors for shoulder dystocia include fetal macrosomia, high maternal body mass index, diabetes mellitus, and prolonged labor.

      If shoulder dystocia is identified, it is important to call for senior help immediately. The McRoberts’ maneuver is often performed, which involves flexing and abducting the mother’s hips to increase the angle of the pelvis and facilitate delivery. An episiotomy may be performed to provide better access for internal maneuvers, but it will not relieve the bony obstruction. Symphysiotomy and the Zavanelli maneuver are not recommended as they can cause significant maternal morbidity. Oxytocin administration is not indicated for shoulder dystocia.

      Complications of shoulder dystocia can include postpartum hemorrhage and perineal tears for the mother, and brachial plexus injury and neonatal death for the fetus. It is important to manage shoulder dystocia promptly and appropriately to minimize the risk of these complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 17 - A 27-year-old G4P3 woman presents with a lump in the breast, having ceased...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old G4P3 woman presents with a lump in the breast, having ceased breastfeeding her youngest child two weeks prior. Her past medical history is significant for previous episodes of mastitis when breastfeeding her older children. On examination the lump is in the right breast at the six o'clock position, 3 cm from the nipple. The lump is non-tender and the overlying skin seems unaffected. Her observations are as follows:

      Heart rate: 90,
      Respiratory rate: 14,
      Blood pressure: 112/72 mmHg,
      Oxygen saturation: 99%,
      Temperature: 37.5 Cº.

      What is the probable diagnosis, and what is the most appropriate next step in investigation?

      Your Answer: Galactocele, fine need aspiration and cytology of fluid

      Correct Answer: Galactocele, no further investigation necessary

      Explanation:

      Galactocele and breast abscess can be distinguished based on clinical history and examination findings, without the need for further investigation.

      Recent discontinuation of breastfeeding is a risk factor for both mastitis/abscess formation and galactocele formation. Galactoceles are distinguishable from breast abscesses because they are painless and non-tender upon examination, and there are no signs of infection locally or systemically.
      Although the patient’s history of mastitis increases the likelihood of a breast abscess, the clinical presentation strongly suggests a galactocele (i.e. painless lump, no localized redness, and absence of fever).

      Understanding Galactocele

      Galactocele is a condition that commonly affects women who have recently stopped breastfeeding. It occurs when a lactiferous duct becomes blocked, leading to the accumulation of milk and the formation of a cystic lesion in the breast. Unlike an abscess, galactocele is usually painless and does not cause any local or systemic signs of infection.

      In simpler terms, galactocele is a type of breast cyst that develops when milk gets trapped in a duct. It is not a serious condition and can be easily diagnosed by a doctor. Women who experience galactocele may notice a lump in their breast, but it is usually painless and does not require any treatment. However, if the lump becomes painful or infected, medical attention may be necessary. Overall, galactocele is a common and harmless condition that can be managed with proper care and monitoring.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 18 - A 29-year-old pregnant woman attends her 12 week booking appointment at the antenatal...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old pregnant woman attends her 12 week booking appointment at the antenatal clinic. She has no previous medical history and is pregnant for the first time. During the appointment, the midwife takes a blood sample to screen for HIV, rubella, and syphilis, and sends a midstream urine sample for culture to check for asymptomatic bacteriuria. What other infectious disease is routinely screened for during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Group B streptococcus

      Correct Answer: Hepatitis B

      Explanation:

      Screening for Hepatitis C is not a standard practice during pregnancy, as per NICE guidelines, due to insufficient evidence of its clinical and cost-effectiveness. However, screening for Hepatitis B is conducted during the booking appointment to reduce the risk of mother-child transmission through post-natal interventions. While chlamydia screening is not routinely offered in antenatal care, individuals under 25 years of age are provided with information about their local National Chlamydia Screening Programme, given the higher prevalence of chlamydia in this age group. There is currently no regular screening programme for Group B streptococcus in the UK.

      Antenatal Screening Policy

      Antenatal screening is an important aspect of prenatal care that helps identify potential health risks for both the mother and the developing fetus. The National Screening Committee (NSC) has recommended a policy for antenatal screening that outlines the conditions for which all pregnant women should be offered screening and those for which screening should not be offered.

      The NSC recommends that all pregnant women should be offered screening for anaemia, bacteriuria, blood group, Rhesus status, and anti-red cell antibodies, Down’s syndrome, fetal anomalies, hepatitis B, HIV, neural tube defects, risk factors for pre-eclampsia, syphilis, and other conditions depending on the woman’s medical history.

      However, there are certain conditions for which screening should not be offered, such as gestational diabetes, gestational hypertension, and preterm labor. These conditions are typically managed through regular prenatal care and monitoring.

      It is important for pregnant women to discuss their screening options with their healthcare provider to ensure that they receive appropriate care and support throughout their pregnancy. By following the NSC’s recommended policy for antenatal screening, healthcare providers can help identify potential health risks early on and provide appropriate interventions to ensure the best possible outcomes for both mother and baby.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 19 - A 25-year-old woman is being assessed in the postpartum unit, 48 hours after...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is being assessed in the postpartum unit, 48 hours after a vaginal delivery. The delivery was uncomplicated and she is eager to be discharged. She has initiated breastfeeding and is forming a strong attachment with her newborn.
      When inquired about birth control, she reports that she previously used the progesterone-only pill and wishes to resume this method. What is the soonest she can restart this contraception?

      Your Answer: Three weeks

      Correct Answer: Immediately

      Explanation:

      The progesterone-only pill can be taken by postpartum women (both breastfeeding and non-breastfeeding) at any time after delivery. It is categorized as UKMEC 1, meaning there are no restrictions on its use. Women can start taking it immediately if they choose to do so, and there is no need to wait for three weeks before starting. The combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) can be taken as UKMEC 2 after three weeks in non-breastfeeding women, and after six weeks in breastfeeding women or as UKMEC 1 in non-breastfeeding women. In breastfeeding women, the COCP can be taken as UKMEC 1 after six months. The progesterone-only pill is safe for breastfeeding women as it has minimal transfer into breast milk, and there is no harm to the baby.

      After giving birth, women need to use contraception after 21 days. The progesterone-only pill (POP) can be started at any time postpartum, according to the FSRH. Additional contraception should be used for the first two days after day 21. A small amount of progesterone enters breast milk, but it is not harmful to the infant. On the other hand, the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is absolutely contraindicated (UKMEC 4) if breastfeeding is less than six weeks post-partum. If breastfeeding is between six weeks and six months postpartum, it is a UKMEC 2. The COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers. It should not be used in the first 21 days due to the increased venous thromboembolism risk post-partum. After day 21, additional contraception should be used for the first seven days. The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after four weeks.

      The lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breastfeeding (no supplementary feeds), amenorrhoeic, and less than six months post-partum. It is important to note that an inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and small for gestational age babies.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 20 - A 25 year old woman presents to her GP with breast pain. She...

    Correct

    • A 25 year old woman presents to her GP with breast pain. She gave birth 3 weeks ago and is exclusively breastfeeding. She reports a 4 day history of increasing pain in her left breast, which has not improved with continued feeding and expressing. During examination, she appears healthy, but her temperature is 38.5ºC. There is a small area of redness above the left nipple, which is sensitive to touch. She has no known allergies.
      What is the best course of action for management?

      Your Answer: Oral flucloxacillin & encourage to continue breastfeeding

      Explanation:

      Lactation mastitis is a prevalent inflammatory condition of the breast that can have infectious or non-infectious origins. The primary cause is milk stasis, which can occur due to either overproduction or insufficient removal.

      In cases of non-infectious mastitis, the accumulation of milk leads to an inflammatory response. Occasionally, an infection may develop through retrograde spread via a lactiferous duct or a traumatised nipple, with Staphylococcus aureus being the most common organism.

      Symptoms of lactation mastitis include breast pain (usually unilateral) accompanied by an erythematosus, warm, and tender area. Patients may also experience fever and flu-like symptoms.

      The first-line approach to managing lactation mastitis is conservative, involving analgesia and encouraging effective milk removal (either through continued breastfeeding or expressing from the affected side) to prevent further milk stasis. It is also crucial to ensure proper positioning and attachment during feeding.

      If symptoms do not improve after 12-24 hours of conservative management, antibiotics should be prescribed. The first-line choice is oral flucloxacillin (500 mg four times a day for 14 days), or erythromycin if the patient is allergic to penicillin. Co-amoxiclav is the second-line choice.

      In cases where conservative and antibiotic management do not improve symptoms, other more serious causes, such as inflammatory breast cancer, should be considered. (Source – CKS mastitis)

      Breastfeeding Problems and Their Management

      Breastfeeding is a natural process, but it can come with its own set of challenges. Some of the minor problems that breastfeeding mothers may encounter include frequent feeding, nipple pain, blocked ducts, and nipple candidiasis. These issues can be managed by seeking advice on proper positioning, trying breast massage, and using appropriate medication.

      Mastitis is a more serious problem that affects around 1 in 10 breastfeeding women. It is characterized by symptoms such as fever, nipple fissure, and persistent pain. Treatment involves the use of antibiotics, such as flucloxacillin, for 10-14 days. Breastfeeding or expressing milk should continue during treatment to prevent complications such as breast abscess.

      Breast engorgement is another common problem that causes breast pain in breastfeeding women. It occurs in the first few days after birth and affects both breasts. Hand expression of milk can help relieve the discomfort of engorgement. Raynaud’s disease of the nipple is a less common problem that causes nipple pain and blanching. Treatment involves minimizing exposure to cold, using heat packs, and avoiding caffeine and smoking.

      If a breastfed baby loses more than 10% of their birth weight in the first week of life, it may be a sign of poor weight gain. This should prompt consideration of the above breastfeeding problems and an expert review of feeding. Monitoring of weight should continue until weight gain is satisfactory.

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  • Question 21 - A 28-year-old woman with gestational diabetes delivered at 39+2 weeks’ gestation by an...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman with gestational diabetes delivered at 39+2 weeks’ gestation by an uncomplicated elective Caesarean section for macrosomia. The baby weighed 4.8 kg at delivery. The Apgar score at 1 and 5 minutes was 10. Eight hours later, she pulls the emergency alarm because her baby became lethargic and started shaking.

      What is the most probable reason for this newborn's seizure activity and lethargy?

      Your Answer: Hypoglycaemia

      Explanation:

      Neonatal Seizures: Likely Causes and Differential Diagnosis

      Neonatal seizures can be a cause of concern for parents and healthcare providers. The most common cause of neonatal seizures is hypoglycaemia, which can occur in neonates born to mothers with gestational diabetes. Hypoglycaemia can lead to significant morbidity and mortality if left untreated. Other possible causes of neonatal seizures include hypoxic ischaemic encephalopathy, neonatal sepsis, intracranial haemorrhage, and benign familial neonatal seizures. However, in the absence of prematurity or complicated delivery, hypoglycaemia is the most likely cause of neonatal seizures in a term baby born to a mother with gestational diabetes. Diagnosis and treatment should be prompt to prevent long-term complications.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 22 - A 27-year-old woman comes in for her regular prenatal check-up at 30 weeks...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman comes in for her regular prenatal check-up at 30 weeks gestation. She reports feeling well and has had an uncomplicated pregnancy thus far. Her vital signs are as follows:
      Respiratory rate: 18 breaths/min
      Heart rate: 70 beats/min
      Blood pressure: 130/88 mmHg
      Temperature: 37.2ºC
      Oxygen saturation: 97% on room air
      Urinalysis results show:
      Protein: +
      Glucose: -
      Nitrites: -

      What is the most appropriate course of action for this patient?

      Your Answer: Prophylactic aspirin and labetalol

      Correct Answer: Routine management

      Explanation:

      If a pregnant woman has new-onset BP ≥ 140/90 mmHg after 20 weeks AND ≥ 1 of proteinuria, organ dysfunction, she is diagnosed with pre-eclampsia. However, if a patient presents to a routine antenatal appointment at 28 weeks gestation and her blood pressure does not meet the threshold of ≥ 140/90 mmHg, she should continue with routine management even if her urine is positive for protein. Therefore, commencing nifedipine and fluid restriction is incorrect as they are only used in the management of severe pre-eclampsia. Similarly, commencing prophylactic aspirin, prophylactic aspirin and labetalol, or prophylactic aspirin and nifedipine is incorrect as they are only used if the patient is diagnosed with pre-eclampsia.

      Pre-eclampsia is a condition that occurs during pregnancy and is characterized by high blood pressure, proteinuria, and edema. It can lead to complications such as eclampsia, neurological issues, fetal growth problems, liver involvement, and cardiac failure. Severe pre-eclampsia is marked by hypertension, proteinuria, headache, visual disturbances, and other symptoms. Risk factors for pre-eclampsia include hypertension in a previous pregnancy, chronic kidney disease, autoimmune disease, diabetes, chronic hypertension, first pregnancy, and age over 40. Aspirin may be recommended for women with high or moderate risk factors. Treatment involves emergency assessment, admission for observation, and medication such as labetalol, nifedipine, or hydralazine. Delivery of the baby is the most important step in management, with timing depending on the individual case.

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  • Question 23 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the gynaecology department with a recent diagnosis of...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the gynaecology department with a recent diagnosis of cervical cancer. Upon staging, it was found that she has a small malignant tumour that is only visible under a microscope and measures 6mm in width. The depth of the tumour is 2.5mm, and there is no evidence of nodal or distant metastases, classifying her disease as stage IA1. She expresses a desire to preserve her fertility as she has not yet started a family.

      What treatment option would be most appropriate for this patient?

      Your Answer: Cone biopsy and close follow-up

      Explanation:

      If a woman with stage IA cervical cancer wants to maintain her fertility, a cone biopsy with negative margins and close follow-up may be considered as the best option. Hysterectomy with or without lymph node clearance would not preserve fertility. Radical trachelectomy, which involves removing the cervix, upper part of the vagina, and surrounding tissues, and checking for cancer spread in the pelvis, is an option for IA2 tumors that also preserves fertility.

      Management of Cervical Cancer Based on FIGO Staging

      Cervical cancer management is determined by the FIGO staging and the patient’s desire to maintain fertility. The FIGO staging system categorizes cervical cancer into four stages based on the extent of the tumor’s spread. Stage IA and IB tumors are confined to the cervix, with IA tumors only visible under a microscope and less than 7 mm wide. Stage II tumors have spread beyond the cervix but not to the pelvic wall, while stage III tumors have spread to the pelvic wall. Stage IV tumors have spread beyond the pelvis or involve the bladder or rectum.

      The management of stage IA tumors involves a hysterectomy with or without lymph node clearance. For patients who want to maintain fertility, a cone biopsy with negative margins can be performed, but close follow-up is necessary. Stage IB tumors are managed with radiotherapy and concurrent chemotherapy for B1 tumors and radical hysterectomy with pelvic lymph node dissection for B2 tumors.

      Stage II and III tumors are managed with radiation and concurrent chemotherapy, with consideration for nephrostomy if hydronephrosis is present. Stage IV tumors are treated with radiation and/or chemotherapy, with palliative chemotherapy being the best option for stage IVB. Recurrent disease is managed with either surgical treatment followed by chemoradiation or radiotherapy followed by surgical therapy.

      The prognosis of cervical cancer depends on the FIGO staging, with higher survival rates for earlier stages. Complications of treatments include standard surgical risks, increased risk of preterm birth with cone biopsies and radical trachelectomy, and ureteral fistula with radical hysterectomy. Complications of radiotherapy include short-term symptoms such as diarrhea and vaginal bleeding and long-term effects such as ovarian failure and fibrosis of various organs.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 24 - A 23-year-old pregnant woman from Sudan visits her GP with concerns about her...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old pregnant woman from Sudan visits her GP with concerns about her upcoming vaginal delivery. She is currently 30 weeks pregnant and has undergone type 3 female genital mutilation. She expresses her preference to have her vagina reinfibulated after delivery, as this is what she is accustomed to. What is the recommended course of action?

      Your Answer: Advise her that reinfibulation can only be performed under exceptional circumstances and she will need to be further assessed

      Correct Answer: Advise her that reinfibulation is illegal and cannot be done under any circumstances

      Explanation:

      Performing any form of female genital cutting/modification for non-medical reasons, including reinfibulation of a woman with type 3 FGM after vaginal delivery, is illegal according to the Female Genital Mutilation Act 2003. It is strictly prohibited to carry out such procedures under any circumstances. However, discussing the topic is not illegal.

      Understanding Female Genital Mutilation

      Female genital mutilation (FGM) is a term used to describe any procedure that involves the partial or complete removal of the external female genitalia or any other injury to the female genital organs for non-medical reasons. The World Health Organization (WHO) has classified FGM into four types. Type 1 involves the partial or total removal of the clitoris and/or the prepuce, while type 2 involves the partial or total removal of the clitoris and the labia minora, with or without excision of the labia majora. Type 3 involves the narrowing of the vaginal orifice with the creation of a covering seal by cutting and appositioning the labia minora and/or the labia majora, with or without excision of the clitoris. Finally, type 4 includes all other harmful procedures to the female genitalia for non-medical purposes, such as pricking, piercing, incising, scraping, and cauterization. It is important to understand the different types of FGM to raise awareness and prevent this harmful practice.

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      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 25 - A 31-year-old primiparous woman, who is 34 weeks pregnant, presents to the emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 31-year-old primiparous woman, who is 34 weeks pregnant, presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. She reports that the bleeding has stopped after about a teaspoon of blood. Her pregnancy has been uncomplicated, and she has been attending antenatal care regularly. She confirms that her waters have not broken.

      Upon examination, her vital signs are stable, and the foetal heart rate is reassuring. However, she has a tense and tender abdomen. A transvaginal ultrasound reveals a small retroplacental haemorrhage and an apically located placenta.

      What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Admit for a category 2 caesarean section

      Correct Answer: Admit for IV corticosteroids and monitoring

      Explanation:

      The patient has presented with antepartum haemorrhage and ultrasound shows retroplacental haemorrhage, indicating placental abruption. Conservative management is appropriate due to stable vital signs and gestation of 33 weeks. IV corticosteroids are recommended to develop fetal lungs. Tocolysis, category 2 caesarean section, 24-hour cardiotocography monitoring, and planned induction are not indicated. Admission and monitoring are necessary in case of maternal or fetal compromise. Delivery may be required sooner than 3 weeks.

      Placental Abruption: Causes, Symptoms, and Risk Factors

      Placental abruption is a condition that occurs when the placenta separates from the uterine wall, leading to maternal bleeding into the space between them. Although the exact cause of this condition is unknown, certain factors have been associated with it, including proteinuric hypertension, cocaine use, multiparity, maternal trauma, and increasing maternal age. Placental abruption is not a common occurrence, affecting approximately 1 in 200 pregnancies.

      The clinical features of placental abruption include shock that is disproportionate to the visible blood loss, constant pain, a tender and tense uterus, and a normal lie and presentation of the fetus. The fetal heart may be absent or distressed, and there may be coagulation problems. It is important to be aware of other conditions that may present with similar symptoms, such as pre-eclampsia, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and anuria.

      In summary, placental abruption is a serious condition that can have significant consequences for both the mother and the fetus. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms of this condition is important for early detection and appropriate management.

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  • Question 26 - A 32-year-old pregnant woman with pre-eclampsia experienced an eclamptic seizure at 11 am...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old pregnant woman with pre-eclampsia experienced an eclamptic seizure at 11 am today. Magnesium was administered, and the baby was delivered an hour later at midday. However, she had another eclamptic seizure at 2 pm. Both the mother and baby have been stable since then. What is the appropriate time to discontinue the magnesium infusion?

      Your Answer: 24 hours after last seizure

      Explanation:

      The administration of magnesium should be initiated in women who are at high risk of severe pre-eclampsia or those who have eclampsia. It is important to continue the treatment for 24 hours after delivery or the last seizure, whichever occurs later. Therefore, the correct answer is 24 hours after the last seizure.

      Understanding Eclampsia and its Treatment

      Eclampsia is a condition that occurs when seizures develop in association with pre-eclampsia, a pregnancy-induced hypertension that is characterized by proteinuria and occurs after 20 weeks of gestation. To prevent seizures in patients with severe pre-eclampsia and treat seizures once they develop, magnesium sulphate is commonly used. However, it is important to note that this medication should only be given once a decision to deliver has been made. In cases of eclampsia, an IV bolus of 4g over 5-10 minutes should be given, followed by an infusion of 1g/hour. During treatment, it is crucial to monitor urine output, reflexes, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturations. Respiratory depression can occur, and calcium gluconate is the first-line treatment for magnesium sulphate-induced respiratory depression. Treatment should continue for 24 hours after the last seizure or delivery, as around 40% of seizures occur post-partum. Additionally, fluid restriction is necessary to avoid the potentially serious consequences of fluid overload.

      In summary, understanding the development of eclampsia and its treatment is crucial in managing this potentially life-threatening condition. Magnesium sulphate is the primary medication used to prevent and treat seizures, but it should only be given once a decision to deliver has been made. Monitoring vital signs and urine output is essential during treatment, and calcium gluconate should be readily available in case of respiratory depression. Finally, fluid restriction is necessary to avoid complications associated with fluid overload.

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  • Question 27 - A 32-year-old teacher with type II diabetes is 5-months pregnant with her first...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old teacher with type II diabetes is 5-months pregnant with her first child. Following reviewing the patient in prenatal clinic, you are interested to find out more about stages of fetal development.
      During the fifth (gestational) month of human development, which organ is the most active site of formation of formed elements of the blood?

      Your Answer: Spleen

      Correct Answer: Bone marrow

      Explanation:

      The Sites of Haematopoiesis in the Fetus and Adult

      Haematopoiesis, the process of blood cell formation, occurs in various sites throughout fetal development and in adults. The dominant site of haematopoiesis changes as the fetus develops and bones are formed. Here are the different sites of haematopoiesis and their significance:

      Bone Marrow: From four months into childhood and adulthood, bone marrow becomes the primary source of hematopoiesis. Red blood cells and immune effector cells are derived from pluripotent haematopoietic cells, which are first noted in blood islands of the yolk sac. By 20 weeks, almost all of these cells are produced by the bone marrow.

      Yolk Sac: Haematopoiesis begins in the yolk sac and in angiogenic cell clusters throughout the embryonic body. This involves the formation of nucleated red blood cells, which differentiate from endothelial cells in the walls of blood vessels. Yolk sac haematopoiesis peaks at about one month and becomes insignificant by three months.

      Liver: By the sixth week, the fetal liver performs haematopoiesis. This peaks at 12-16 weeks and continues until approximately 36 weeks. Haematopoietic stem cells differentiate in the walls of liver sinusoids. In adults, there is a reserve haematopoietic capacity, especially in the liver.

      Spleen: The spleen is a minor site of haematopoiesis, being active between the third and sixth months.

      Lymph Nodes: Lymph nodes are not a significant site of haematopoiesis.

      In patients with certain conditions, such as haemolytic anaemia or myeloproliferative disease, hepatic haematopoiesis may be reactivated, leading to hepatomegaly. Understanding the different sites of haematopoiesis is important for understanding blood cell formation and certain medical conditions.

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  • Question 28 - A 35-year-old primigravida woman, at 10 weeks gestation, presents to the emergency department...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old primigravida woman, at 10 weeks gestation, presents to the emergency department with heavy vaginal bleeding. She reports passing large clots and experiencing cramping for the past 2 hours.

      Upon examination, her blood pressure is 85/60 mmHg and her heart rate is 120 beats/minute. Pelvic examination reveals blood clots in the vaginal canal. A speculum exam shows active vaginal bleeding, a dilated cervical os, and a uterus consistent in size with a 9-week gestation. Pelvic ultrasonography reveals small amounts of fluid in the endometrium with an intrauterine sac measuring 22mm in crown-rump length, but no fetal cardiac activity is detected.

      What is the most appropriate next step in management?

      Your Answer: Dilation and curettage

      Explanation:

      If there is evidence of infection or an increased risk of hemorrhage, expectant management is not appropriate for a miscarriage. A patient with first-trimester vaginal bleeding, a dilated cervical os, and an intrauterine sac without fetal cardiac activity is experiencing an inevitable miscarriage. Miscarriages can be managed through expectant, pharmacological, or surgical means. Expectant management involves bed rest, avoiding strenuous physical activity, and weekly follow-up pelvic ultrasounds. This approach is typically recommended for patients with a threatened miscarriage that presents as vaginal bleeding. The threatened miscarriage may resolve on its own or progress to an inevitable, incomplete, or complete miscarriage. However, in this case, the open cervical os and absent fetal cardiac activity indicate that the miscarriage is inevitable, and the fetus is no longer viable. Medical management involves using drugs like misoprostol or methotrexate to medically evacuate retained products of conception in inevitable or incomplete miscarriages. Nevertheless, this patient is experiencing heavy vaginal bleeding, which has caused hypotension and tachycardia, making her hemodynamically unstable. In all cases of early pregnancy loss with hemodynamic instability, urgent surgical evacuation of products of conception is necessary to minimize further blood loss. Dilation and curettage is a common and controlled method of uterine evacuation.

      Management Options for Miscarriage

      Miscarriage can be a difficult and emotional experience for women. In the 2019 NICE guidelines, three types of management for miscarriage were discussed: expectant, medical, and surgical. Expectant management involves waiting for a spontaneous miscarriage and is considered the first-line option. However, if it is unsuccessful, medical or surgical management may be offered.

      Medical management involves using tablets to expedite the miscarriage. Vaginal misoprostol, a prostaglandin analogue, is used to cause strong myometrial contractions leading to the expulsion of tissue. It is important to advise patients to contact their doctor if bleeding does not start within 24 hours. Antiemetics and pain relief should also be given.

      Surgical management involves undergoing a surgical procedure under local or general anaesthetic. The two main options are vacuum aspiration (suction curettage) or surgical management in theatre. Vacuum aspiration is done under local anaesthetic as an outpatient, while surgical management is done in theatre under general anaesthetic. This was previously referred to as ‘Evacuation of retained products of conception’.

      It is important to note that some situations are better managed with medical or surgical management, such as an increased risk of haemorrhage, being in the late first trimester, having coagulopathies or being unable to have a blood transfusion, previous adverse and/or traumatic experience associated with pregnancy, evidence of infection, and more. Ultimately, the management option chosen should be based on the individual patient’s needs and preferences.

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  • Question 29 - A 35 year old type 2 diabetic comes to the diabetics clinic seeking...

    Correct

    • A 35 year old type 2 diabetic comes to the diabetics clinic seeking advice on her desire to conceive. The patient has well-managed blood sugar levels and is currently taking metformin and gliclazide. What recommendations should you provide regarding potential medication adjustments during pregnancy?

      Your Answer: Patient may continue on metformin but gliclazide must be stopped

      Explanation:

      The patient can still take metformin but should discontinue gliclazide. When managing type 2 diabetes during pregnancy, metformin can be used alone or with insulin for women with pre-existing diabetes. Although the patient may need to switch to insulin, it is not always necessary. However, both liraglutide and gliclazide are not safe to use during pregnancy.

      Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.

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  • Question 30 - A patient 16/40 gestation contacts your clinic via phone. This is her first...

    Correct

    • A patient 16/40 gestation contacts your clinic via phone. This is her first pregnancy and she is worried about not experiencing any foetal movements yet. You provide reassurance that foetal movements can be felt between 16-20 weeks gestation in first pregnancies. When should further investigation be considered if no foetal movements are felt by this time?

      Your Answer: 24 weeks

      Explanation:

      According to RCOG guidelines, women typically feel fetal movements by 20 weeks of gestation. However, if no movements are felt by 24 weeks, it is recommended to refer the woman to a maternal fetal medicine unit to assess for potential neuromuscular conditions.

      Understanding Reduced Fetal Movements

      Introduction:
      Reduced fetal movements can indicate fetal distress and are a response to chronic hypoxia in utero. This can lead to stillbirth and fetal growth restriction. It is believed that placental insufficiency may also be linked to reduced fetal movements.

      Physiology:
      Quickening is the first onset of fetal movements, which usually occurs between 18-20 weeks gestation and increases until 32 weeks gestation. Multiparous women may experience fetal movements sooner. Fetal movements should not reduce towards the end of pregnancy. There is no established definition for what constitutes reduced fetal movements, but less than 10 movements within 2 hours (in pregnancies past 28 weeks gestation) is an indication for further assessment.

      Epidemiology:
      Reduced fetal movements affect up to 15% of pregnancies, with 3-5% of pregnant women having recurrent presentations with RFM. Fetal movements should be established by 24 weeks gestation.

      Risk factors for reduced fetal movements:
      Posture, distraction, placental position, medication, fetal position, body habitus, amniotic fluid volume, and fetal size can all affect fetal movement awareness.

      Investigations:
      Fetal movements are usually based on maternal perception, but can also be objectively assessed using handheld Doppler or ultrasonography. Investigations are dependent on gestation at onset of RFM. If concern remains, despite normal CTG, urgent (within 24 hours) ultrasound can be used.

      Prognosis:
      Reduced fetal movements can represent fetal distress, but in 70% of pregnancies with a single episode of reduced fetal movement, there is no onward complication. However, between 40-55% of women who suffer from stillbirth experience reduced fetal movements prior to diagnosis. Recurrent RFM requires further investigations to consider structural or genetic fetal abnormalities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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