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  • Question 1 - What is the most common characteristic of a patient with a deficiency in...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most common characteristic of a patient with a deficiency in vitamin C?

      Your Answer: Cheilosis and beefy red tongue

      Correct Answer: Perifollicular haemorrhages and hyperkeratosis

      Explanation:

      Vitamin C Deficiency and its Symptoms

      Vitamin C is primarily found in fruits and vegetables. When there is a deficiency of ascorbic acid, it can lead to a condition called scurvy. The symptoms of scurvy include inflamed and bleeding gums, impaired wound healing, and petechiae. Cutaneous findings such as follicular hyperkeratosis, perifollicular haemorrhages, ecchymoses, xerosis, leg oedema, poor wound healing, and bent or coiled body hairs are also common.

      It is important to note that cheilosis and red tongue are more indicative of vitamin B12 or iron deficiency, while diarrhoea and delusions suggest vitamin B deficiency (pellagra). Ocular muscle palsy and dementia are more likely to be caused by thiamine deficiency or Wernicke’s encephalopathy.

      Vitamin C deficiency is not uncommon among the elderly population, and it is crucial to be aware of the signs and symptoms to make a proper diagnosis. The diagnosis can be confirmed by measuring vitamin C concentrations in the white cell. By the symptoms and causes of vitamin C deficiency, individuals can take steps to prevent and treat this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      20.3
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  • Question 2 - A 32-year-old woman comes for her first trimester scan at 12 weeks’ gestation....

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman comes for her first trimester scan at 12 weeks’ gestation. She reports no vaginal bleeding and is feeling well. The ultrasound shows an intrauterine gestational sac with a fetal pole that corresponds to nine weeks’ gestation, but no fetal heart rate is detected. The patient had a stillbirth in her previous pregnancy at 27 weeks, and she underwent an extended course of psychotherapy to cope with the aftermath. What is the most suitable initial management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Allow expectant management and review 21 days later

      Correct Answer: Offer vaginal misoprostol

      Explanation:

      Misoprostol is a synthetic E1 prostaglandin that can be used for various obstetric purposes, including medical termination of pregnancy, induction of labor, and medical management of miscarriage. It works by inducing contractions in the myometrium to expel the products of conception and ripening and dilating the cervix. However, it can cause side effects such as diarrhea, nausea, vomiting, flatulence, and headaches, and in rare cases, uterine rupture. In the case of a miscarriage, expectant management is the first-line option, but medical or surgical management may be necessary in certain situations. Vaginal misoprostol is the most commonly used medical management, and patients should be informed of the potential risks and given appropriate pain relief and antiemetics. Surgical management is not first-line and carries risks such as perforation of the uterus, failure of the procedure, infection, bleeding, damage to the cervix, and venous thromboembolism. Expectant management should be offered and reviewed after 7-14 days, and if bleeding and pain settle, no further treatment is necessary. Mifepristone, an antiprogesterone medication, should not be used in the management of a missed or incomplete miscarriage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      52.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - Which statement about Japanese encephalitis is the most accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about Japanese encephalitis is the most accurate?

      Your Answer: It is only recognised in travellers who have spent prolonged periods in endemic areas

      Correct Answer: Transplacental transmission occurs

      Explanation:

      Japanese Encephalitis: A Viral Infection Endemic in Asia

      Japanese encephalitis is a type of RNA virus that is commonly found in India, East Asia, Malaysia, and the Philippines. Interestingly, previous exposure to other viruses in the Flavivirus family, such as dengue, can actually provide some protection against serious illness or death from Japanese encephalitis. This means that individuals who have been infected with dengue in the past may have a lower risk of severe symptoms if they contract Japanese encephalitis.

      Despite being endemic to certain regions, Japanese encephalitis can still affect travelers who spend only short periods of time in these areas. Additionally, the virus can be transmitted from mother to fetus during pregnancy.

      Fortunately, there is an immunization available for travelers who may be at risk of contracting Japanese encephalitis. It is important for individuals traveling to endemic areas to take precautions and consider getting vaccinated to protect themselves from this potentially serious viral infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      17.7
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  • Question 4 - A 10-year-old girl presents to the Emergency department with complaints of hip and...

    Correct

    • A 10-year-old girl presents to the Emergency department with complaints of hip and knee pain following a minor fall from her bike. Upon examination, her knee appears normal but there is limited range of motion at the hip joint. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Slipped upper femoral epiphysis

      Explanation:

      Slipped Upper Femoral Epiphysis: Symptoms and Risk Factors

      Slipped upper femoral epiphysis is a condition that commonly affects obese adolescent boys with a positive family history. It is characterized by the displacement of the femoral head from the femoral neck, which can lead to a range of symptoms.

      The most common symptoms of slipped upper femoral epiphysis include an externally rotated hip and antalgic gait, decreased internal rotation, thigh atrophy (depending on the chronicity of symptoms), and hip, thigh, and knee pain.

      It is important to note that 25% of cases are bilateral, meaning that both hips may be affected. This condition can be particularly debilitating for young people, as it can limit their mobility and cause significant discomfort.

      Overall, it is important for healthcare professionals to be aware of the risk factors and symptoms of slipped upper femoral epiphysis, as early diagnosis and treatment can help to prevent further complications and improve outcomes for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 5 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 24-hour history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with a 24-hour history of fever, headache, and neck stiffness. She has no significant past medical history and no allergies.

      Her vital signs are currently stable, and there are no visible rashes on examination. The patient is fully alert and oriented with a GCS of 15/15.

      After consulting with a senior physician, it is determined that a lumbar puncture is necessary. However, due to departmental constraints, it is unlikely that the procedure can be performed within the next hour.

      What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Await lumbar puncture results

      Correct Answer: IV ceftriaxone immediately

      Explanation:

      When patients are suspected of having viral meningitis, doctors often prescribe antibiotics as a precaution until the results of a lumbar puncture are available. This is especially true for elderly patients or those with weakened immune systems. If a young patient presents with symptoms such as fever, headache, and neck stiffness, doctors may perform tests like Kernig’s or Brudzinski’s signs to help diagnose the condition. However, because bacterial meningitis can be very dangerous, doctors may start treatment before a definitive diagnosis is made. Even if the likelihood of bacterial meningitis is low, delaying treatment could have serious consequences for the patient. Viral meningitis is more common and less severe than bacterial meningitis, but it can be difficult to distinguish between the two based on symptoms alone. Therefore, doctors may prescribe antibiotics as a precaution if a lumbar puncture cannot be performed within an hour. In this case, intravenous ceftriaxone would be the appropriate treatment. IV fluconazole is used to treat severe fungal infections, but it is unlikely to be necessary in an otherwise healthy patient. IV amoxicillin is typically reserved for patients who are immunocompromised, under 6 months old, or over 60 years old, as it can help protect against Listeria monocytogenes.

      Understanding Viral Meningitis

      Viral meningitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the leptomeninges and cerebrospinal fluid in the subarachnoid space caused by a viral agent. It is a more common and less severe condition compared to bacterial meningitis. Although approximately 3,000 cases of confirmed viral meningitis are reported yearly, the actual number of cases is likely to be much higher as patients often do not seek medical attention.

      The causes of viral meningitis include non-polio enteroviruses such as coxsackievirus and echovirus, mumps, herpes simplex virus (HSV), cytomegalovirus (CMV), herpes zoster viruses, HIV, and measles. Patients at the extremes of age, immunocompromised patients, and intravenous drug users are at higher risk of developing viral meningitis.

      Common symptoms of viral meningitis include headache, neck stiffness, photophobia, confusion, and fever. Focal neurological deficits on examination and seizures suggest a meningoencephalitis. A lumbar puncture is necessary to confirm the diagnosis, and cerebrospinal fluid findings in viral meningitis include lymphocyte-predominant cell differential, glucose levels of 2.8 – 4.2 mmol/L or 2/3 paired serum glucose mmol/L, and protein levels of 0.5 – 1 g/dL.

      Management of viral meningitis involves supportive treatment while awaiting the results of the lumbar puncture. If there is any suspicion of bacterial meningitis or encephalitis, broad-spectrum antibiotics with CNS penetration such as ceftriaxone and acyclovir intravenously should be administered. Generally, viral meningitis is self-limiting, and symptoms improve over the course of 7 – 14 days. acyclovir may be used if the patient is suspected of having meningitis secondary to HSV. Complications are rare in immunocompetent patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      77.3
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  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old woman is admitted to the Emergency Department with vomiting. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is admitted to the Emergency Department with vomiting. She has vague abdominal pain, and a particularly keen junior surgeon takes her to theatre for an appendectomy; the appendix is removed and is normal. In recovery, she becomes hypotensive and tachycardic and does not respond as expected to fluid replacement. On examination, she is very well tanned and slim; her blood pressure is 90/65 mmHg, with a pulse rate of 100 bpm.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Potassium (K+) 6.2 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Sodium (Na+) 127 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Urea 9.1 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 165 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Haemoglobin 98 g/l (normochromic normocytic) 115–155 g/l
      Free T4 6.2 pmol/l (low) 11–22 pmol/l
      Which of the following fits best with this clinical scenario?

      Your Answer: Further fluid replacement will be most effective in improving her condition

      Correct Answer: iv hydrocortisone is the initial treatment of choice

      Explanation:

      The recommended initial treatment for patients experiencing an adrenal crisis is intravenous hydrocortisone. This is because the adrenal glands are not producing enough cortisol, which can lead to severe adrenal insufficiency. The most common causes of an adrenal crisis include undiagnosed adrenal insufficiency with associated major stress, abrupt cessation of glucocorticoid therapy, and bilateral infarction of the adrenal glands. Symptoms of an adrenal crisis can include hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, renal impairment, and normochromic normocytic anemia, as well as non-specific symptoms such as vomiting, abdominal pain, weakness, fever, and lethargy. The patient’s tan may be due to increased melanocyte activity caused by raised levels of adrenocorticotrophic hormone. Intravenous T3 replacement may be effective in treating the patient’s low free T4 levels, which are likely a result of adrenal insufficiency. Fluid replacement alone will not be sufficient to treat the patient’s shock, which is the main manifestation of an adrenal crisis. Normochromic normocytic anemia can be treated with corticosteroid replacement, and the patient’s deranged renal function is likely a result of sepsis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Acute Medicine And Intensive Care
      67.7
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  • Question 7 - What is a true statement about atopic eczema? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a true statement about atopic eczema?

      Your Answer: Is a generalised rash over the whole body

      Correct Answer: Usually starts in the first year of life

      Explanation:

      Atopic Eczema

      Atopic eczema is a skin condition that is more likely to occur in individuals who have a family history of asthma, hay fever, and eczema. One of the common causes of this condition is cow’s milk, and switching to a milk hydrolysate may help alleviate symptoms. The condition typically affects the face, ears, elbows, and knees.

      It is important to note that topical steroids should only be used sparingly if symptoms cannot be controlled. Atopic eczema often develops in the first year of life, making it crucial for parents to be aware of the symptoms and seek medical attention if necessary. By the causes and symptoms of atopic eczema, individuals can take steps to manage the condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      257.6
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  • Question 8 - A 61-year-old retiree with a history of gallstone disease is scheduled for ERCP...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old retiree with a history of gallstone disease is scheduled for ERCP to extract a common bile duct stone discovered during an episode of biliary colic.
      What is the primary medical condition for which ERCP would be the most beneficial diagnostic procedure?

      Your Answer: Hepatocellular carcinoma

      Correct Answer: Pancreatic duct strictures

      Explanation:

      ERCP and its Indications for Diagnosis and Management of Pancreatic Duct Strictures

      Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) is a diagnostic and therapeutic procedure used for imaging the biliary tree and pancreatic ducts. It involves the injection of contrast to outline the ducts, allowing for visual inspection of the ampullary region of the pancreas and outlining of the pancreatic duct. ERCP is helpful in identifying stones, strictures, and tumors that cause obstruction, as well as for therapeutic interventions such as stone extraction or stent insertion.

      ERCP is indicated for patients with evidence or suspicion of obstructive jaundice, biliary/pancreatic duct disease, pancreatic cancer, pancreatitis of unknown origin, pancreatic pseudocysts, sphincter of Oddi dysfunction, and for therapeutic drainage. However, ERCP is not indicated for the diagnosis or management of alcoholic cirrhosis or hereditary hemochromatosis. Diagnosis of alcoholic cirrhosis can generally be based on clinical and laboratory findings, while liver biopsy can be used to confirm diagnosis if the cause is unclear. Gilbert syndrome, a mild self-limiting condition that causes pre-hepatic jaundice, does not require ERCP for diagnosis. Although ERCP may be used in the therapeutic management of patients with hepatocellular carcinoma with obstructive jaundice, it is not useful in the diagnosis of the condition itself.

      In conclusion, ERCP is a valuable tool for the diagnosis and management of pancreatic duct strictures, but its indications should be carefully considered in each individual case.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      47.2
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  • Question 9 - A 45-year-old patient visits her primary care physician with a complaint of net-like...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old patient visits her primary care physician with a complaint of net-like mottled skin on her hands, lower arms, feet, and calves that has persisted for 6 months. She reports no other symptoms. The physician orders routine blood tests, including FBC and coagulation screen, which reveal a haemoglobin level of 140 g/l, platelet count of 98 * 109/L, and white cell count of 8 * 109/L. The APTT is 45s, and the PT is 12s. An autoantibody screen is also performed, with the following significant results: positive for anti-cardiolipin antibodies and lupus anticoagulant, but negative for anti-dsDNA. What is the most appropriate treatment option for the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Daily low-dose aspirin

      Explanation:

      Patients who have been diagnosed with antiphospholipid syndrome and have not had a history of thrombosis are typically prescribed low-dose aspirin. This condition is characterized by CLOTS, which stands for clots, livedo reticularis, obstetric complications, and thrombocytopenia. Diagnosis is confirmed through blood tests that show thrombocytopenia, a prolonged APTT, and positive antiphospholipid antibodies such as anti-cardiolipin, anti-beta-2-glycoprotein-1 antibodies, and lupus anticoagulant. Treatment for Raynaud’s phenomena, which causes painful and pale fingers and toes in cold temperatures, involves daily nifedipine. Lifelong LMWH is not recommended, but lifelong warfarin is recommended for patients with antiphospholipid syndrome who have experienced a previous thrombotic event. LMWH may be an option during pregnancy.

      Antiphospholipid syndrome is a condition that can be acquired and is characterized by a higher risk of both venous and arterial thrombosis, recurrent fetal loss, and thrombocytopenia. It can occur as a primary disorder or as a secondary condition to other diseases, with systemic lupus erythematosus being the most common. One important point to remember for exams is that antiphospholipid syndrome can cause a paradoxical increase in the APTT. This is due to an ex-vivo reaction of the lupus anticoagulant autoantibodies with phospholipids involved in the coagulation cascade. Other features of this condition include livedo reticularis, pre-eclampsia, and pulmonary hypertension.

      Antiphospholipid syndrome can also be associated with other autoimmune disorders, lymphoproliferative disorders, and, rarely, phenothiazines. Management of this condition is based on EULAR guidelines. Primary thromboprophylaxis involves low-dose aspirin, while secondary thromboprophylaxis depends on the type of thromboembolic event. Initial venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3, while recurrent venous thromboembolic events require lifelong warfarin and low-dose aspirin. Arterial thrombosis should be treated with lifelong warfarin with a target INR of 2-3.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 7-year-old girl tripped while playing outside. She suffered a fall on an...

    Incorrect

    • A 7-year-old girl tripped while playing outside. She suffered a fall on an outstretched hand and immediately grabbed her right elbow in pain. She was taken to Accident and Emergency and an X-ray revealed a right humeral supracondylar fracture. The skin is intact and there is only minor swelling below the elbow, with normal distal pulses.
      Which of the following problems is this child most likely to experience?

      Your Answer: Volkmann’s contracture (flexion contracture of the hand and wrist)

      Correct Answer: Loss of sensation to the palmar aspects of the first and second fingers of the right hand and weakened right wrist flexion

      Explanation:

      Common Nerve Injuries Associated with Supracondylar Humeral Fractures

      Supracondylar humeral fractures can result in various nerve injuries, depending on the location and severity of the fracture. The following are some common nerve injuries associated with this type of fracture:

      1. Loss of sensation to the palmar aspects of the first and second fingers of the right hand and weakened right wrist flexion: This is most likely due to damage to the median nerve, which innervates these fingers and the flexors in the forearm.

      2. Loss of cutaneous sensation over the area over the shoulder: This is unlikely to be caused by a closed supracondylar fracture, as the cutaneous innervation in that area is a branch of the axillary nerve.

      3. Atrophy of the extensor muscles of the forearm: This is a result of damage to the radial nerve, which is responsible for the extensor mechanisms of the arm.

      4. Loss of sensation to the right fifth finger: This is most likely due to an ulnar nerve injury, which could occur due to an injury of the medial humeral epicondyle.

      5. Volkmann’s contracture (flexion contracture of the hand and wrist): This is caused by lack of circulation in the forearm due to brachial artery damage, leading to tissue death and fibrosis of the muscles. However, this diagnosis can be ruled out if there are distal pulses and lack of excessive swelling.

      In summary, supracondylar humeral fractures can result in various nerve injuries, and it is important to identify and manage them appropriately to prevent long-term complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Orthopaedics
      44.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A study evaluating the effectiveness of a novel treatment for metastatic breast cancer...

    Incorrect

    • A study evaluating the effectiveness of a novel treatment for metastatic breast cancer in comparison to standard therapy found a decrease in the primary outcome of death from metastatic disease from 60% at five years to 45% (p=0.032). What is the relative risk reduction linked with the new treatment?

      Your Answer: 25%

      Correct Answer: 20%

      Explanation:

      Relative Risk Reduction

      When analyzing data, two terms that are commonly used are absolute risk reduction and relative risk reduction. Absolute risk reduction refers to the actual difference in risk between two groups, while relative risk reduction is the percentage reduction in risk between the two groups.

      For example, if a study found that the absolute risk reduction was 10% at five years, this means that there was a 10% difference in risk between the two groups being compared. However, if the relative risk reduction was calculated to be 20%, this means that the risk of the outcome was reduced by 20% in the group receiving the intervention compared to the group that did not receive it.

      It is important to note that even if a study does not produce a significant difference, it is still possible to compute these risks. Relative risk reduction can be a more powerful reflection of the efficacy of an intervention in cases where absolute changes may be quite small. Therefore, both absolute and relative risk reduction can provide a more comprehensive of the impact of an intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      61
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  • Question 12 - A 25-year-old female patient visits her GP seeking guidance on conceiving. She has...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female patient visits her GP seeking guidance on conceiving. She has a medical history of epilepsy and is currently taking lamotrigine. Her last seizure occurred 1 year ago. She is worried about the safety of epilepsy medications during pregnancy and wonders if there are any supplements she should take. What are the key counseling points to address her concerns?

      Your Answer: Folic acid 400mcg, continue lamotrigine

      Correct Answer: Folic acid 5mg, continue lamotrigine

      Explanation:

      When women who are taking antiepileptic medication plan to conceive, they should be given a higher dose of folic acid (5mg) instead of the usual 400 mcg once daily. Folic acid is recommended during pregnancy to prevent neural tube defects, and a higher dose is necessary for women with epilepsy due to their increased risk of low serum folate levels. It is important to note that certain antiepileptic medications can interfere with folate metabolism, and switching to sodium valproate is not recommended as it is a known teratogen. It is also important for women to continue taking their medication during pregnancy to avoid an increased risk of seizures.

      Folic Acid: Importance, Deficiency, and Prevention

      Folic acid is a vital nutrient that is converted to tetrahydrofolate (THF) in the body. It is found in green, leafy vegetables and plays a crucial role in the transfer of 1-carbon units to essential substrates involved in the synthesis of DNA and RNA. However, certain factors such as phenytoin, methotrexate, pregnancy, and alcohol excess can cause a deficiency in folic acid. This deficiency can lead to macrocytic, megaloblastic anemia and neural tube defects.

      To prevent neural tube defects during pregnancy, it is recommended that all women take 400mcg of folic acid until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women at higher risk of conceiving a child with a neural tube defect should take 5mg of folic acid from before conception until the 12th week of pregnancy. Women are considered higher risk if they or their partner has a neural tube defect, they have had a previous pregnancy affected by a neural tube defect, or they have a family history of a neural tube defect. Additionally, women with certain medical conditions such as coeliac disease, diabetes, or thalassaemia trait, or those taking antiepileptic drugs, or who are obese (BMI of 30 kg/m2 or more) are also considered higher risk.

      In summary, folic acid is an essential nutrient that plays a crucial role in DNA and RNA synthesis. Deficiency in folic acid can lead to serious health consequences, including neural tube defects. However, taking folic acid supplements during pregnancy can prevent these defects and ensure a healthy pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
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  • Question 13 - A 28-year-old female patient presents to the clinic at 36 weeks of pregnancy....

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female patient presents to the clinic at 36 weeks of pregnancy. She reports a decrease in fetal movement over the past few days and is concerned. She has no significant medical history or family history and has had two uncomplicated pregnancies in the past. Physical examination is normal, and vital signs are stable. A handheld Doppler scan reveals no fetal heartbeat.
      What is the next course of action in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Repeat Doppler in 1 hour

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound scan

      Explanation:

      If a woman reports reduced fetal movements and no heartbeat is detected with a handheld Doppler after 28 weeks of gestation, an immediate ultrasound should be offered according to RCOG guidelines. Repeating Doppler after an hour is not recommended. If a heartbeat is detected, cardiotocography should be used to monitor the heart rate for at least 20 minutes. Fetal blood sampling is not necessary in this situation.

      Understanding Reduced Fetal Movements

      Introduction:
      Reduced fetal movements can indicate fetal distress and are a response to chronic hypoxia in utero. This can lead to stillbirth and fetal growth restriction. It is believed that placental insufficiency may also be linked to reduced fetal movements.

      Physiology:
      Quickening is the first onset of fetal movements, which usually occurs between 18-20 weeks gestation and increases until 32 weeks gestation. Multiparous women may experience fetal movements sooner. Fetal movements should not reduce towards the end of pregnancy. There is no established definition for what constitutes reduced fetal movements, but less than 10 movements within 2 hours (in pregnancies past 28 weeks gestation) is an indication for further assessment.

      Epidemiology:
      Reduced fetal movements affect up to 15% of pregnancies, with 3-5% of pregnant women having recurrent presentations with RFM. Fetal movements should be established by 24 weeks gestation.

      Risk factors for reduced fetal movements:
      Posture, distraction, placental position, medication, fetal position, body habitus, amniotic fluid volume, and fetal size can all affect fetal movement awareness.

      Investigations:
      Fetal movements are usually based on maternal perception, but can also be objectively assessed using handheld Doppler or ultrasonography. Investigations are dependent on gestation at onset of RFM. If concern remains, despite normal CTG, urgent (within 24 hours) ultrasound can be used.

      Prognosis:
      Reduced fetal movements can represent fetal distress, but in 70% of pregnancies with a single episode of reduced fetal movement, there is no onward complication. However, between 40-55% of women who suffer from stillbirth experience reduced fetal movements prior to diagnosis. Recurrent RFM requires further investigations to consider structural or genetic fetal abnormalities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      64.4
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  • Question 14 - A 65-year-old male patient visits an outpatient cardiology clinic for follow-up. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old male patient visits an outpatient cardiology clinic for follow-up. He has a medical history of heart failure, type-2 diabetes, and osteoporosis. For the past 3 years, he has been taking NovoRapid (rapid-acting insulin analogue) 10iU three times daily, Lantus (insulin glargine) 3 iU once daily, ramipril 10 mg once daily, bisoprolol 5mg once daily, and AdCal D3 (calcium and vitamin D) two tablets once daily without any adverse effects. Recently, he was prescribed amiloride 10 mg once daily. His blood work reveals:
      Na+ 141 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 6.0 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Bicarbonate 28 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      Urea 6.3 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 92 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      Which of his medications could have interacted with the new prescription to cause the abnormal blood results?

      Your Answer: Bisoprolol

      Correct Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      Understanding Potassium-Sparing Diuretics

      Potassium-sparing diuretics are a type of medication that can be divided into two categories: epithelial sodium channel blockers and aldosterone antagonists. The former includes drugs like amiloride and triamterene, while the latter includes spironolactone and eplerenone. These medications are used to treat conditions such as ascites, heart failure, nephrotic syndrome, and Conn’s syndrome.

      However, caution must be exercised when using potassium-sparing diuretics in patients taking ACE inhibitors, as they can cause hyperkalaemia. Amiloride is a weak diuretic that blocks the epithelial sodium channel in the distal convoluted tubule. It is often given with thiazides or loop diuretics as an alternative to potassium supplementation, as these medications can cause hypokalaemia.

      On the other hand, aldosterone antagonists like spironolactone act in the cortical collecting duct. They are commonly used in patients with cirrhosis who develop secondary hyperaldosteronism, with relatively large doses of 100 or 200mg often prescribed. Overall, understanding the different types of potassium-sparing diuretics and their indications is crucial in ensuring safe and effective treatment for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      21.8
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  • Question 15 - Sarah, a 15-year-old girl is brought to the GP by her father as...

    Incorrect

    • Sarah, a 15-year-old girl is brought to the GP by her father as Sarah has not had her first period. She is 1.50m tall and weighs 40 Kg. Her heart rate is 60 beats per minute. Blood pressure is 120/90 mmHg. She has not developed any secondary sexual characteristics. There is a strong family history of eating disorder. You suspect that the delayed puberty may be due to anorexia nervosa.
      What evidence supports the diagnosis of anorexia nervosa in Sarah?

      Your Answer: Hypocholesterolaemia

      Correct Answer: Lanugo hair

      Explanation:

      The presence of lanugo hair, which is fine and downy hair that grows in response to body fat loss, can be a characteristic physical finding that supports the diagnosis of anorexia nervosa. However, this should be considered alongside other features such as the failure of secondary sexual characteristics, bradycardia, cold intolerance, and a yellow tinge on the skin (hypercarotenaemia). Anosmia is not typically associated with anorexia nervosa, but it may be relevant in patients with Kallmann syndrome, which involves anosmia and delayed or absent puberty. Hirsutism, which is excessive hair growth, is indicative of elevated testosterone levels and is not compatible with anorexia nervosa. Hyperkalaemia is an incorrect feature, as hypokalaemia is the most common electrolyte abnormality in anorexia. Patients with anorexia nervosa often have high cholesterol levels in their blood.

      Characteristics of Anorexia Nervosa

      Anorexia nervosa is a disorder that is characterized by a number of clinical signs and physiological abnormalities. The most notable feature of this disorder is a reduced body mass index, which is often accompanied by bradycardia and hypotension. In addition, individuals with anorexia nervosa may experience enlarged salivary glands, which can cause discomfort and difficulty swallowing.

      Physiological abnormalities associated with anorexia nervosa include hypokalaemia, which is a deficiency of potassium in the blood, as well as low levels of FSH, LH, oestrogens, and testosterone. Individuals with anorexia nervosa may also have raised levels of cortisol and growth hormone, impaired glucose tolerance, hypercholesterolaemia, hypercarotinaemia, and low T3.

      Overall, anorexia nervosa is a complex disorder that can have a significant impact on an individual’s physical and emotional well-being. It is important for individuals who are struggling with this disorder to seek professional help in order to receive the support and treatment they need to recover.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      7
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  • Question 16 - An 8-year-old girl visits her GP complaining of an itchy scalp. Upon detection...

    Incorrect

    • An 8-year-old girl visits her GP complaining of an itchy scalp. Upon detection combing, head lice are found. What is a recognized treatment for head lice?

      Your Answer: Ketoconazole shampoo

      Correct Answer: Dimeticone 4% gel

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Head Lice

      Head lice infestations are a common problem, especially among children. There are several treatment options available, but not all of them are effective or recommended. Here are some of the commonly used treatments and their effectiveness:

      Dimeticone 4% gel: This gel works by suffocating and coating the lice, making it a well-recognized treatment for head lice.

      Ketoconazole shampoo: While this medicated shampoo is used to treat suspected fungal infections in the scalp, it is not a recognized treatment for head lice.

      Permethrin 5% cream: Although permethrin is an insecticide used to treat scabies, it is not recommended for head lice treatment as the 10-minute contact time may not be enough for it to be effective.

      Topical antibiotics: These are not recommended for head lice treatment.

      Topical antifungal: Topical antifungals have no role in the management of head lice.

      In conclusion, dimeticone 4% gel is a well-recognized treatment for head lice, while other treatments such as ketoconazole shampoo, permethrin 5% cream, topical antibiotics, and topical antifungal are not recommended. It is important to consult a healthcare professional for proper diagnosis and treatment of head lice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 25-year-old woman attends her first antenatal appointment, believing she is 10 weeks...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman attends her first antenatal appointment, believing she is 10 weeks pregnant. Which of the following is not typically done during this appointment?

      Your Answer: Pelvic examination

      Explanation:

      NICE guidelines recommend 10 antenatal visits for first pregnancies and 7 for subsequent pregnancies if uncomplicated. The purpose of each visit is outlined, including booking visits, scans, screening for Down’s syndrome, routine care for blood pressure and urine, and discussions about labour and birth plans. Rhesus negative women are offered anti-D prophylaxis at 28 and 34 weeks. The guidelines also recommend discussing options for prolonged pregnancy at 41 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 27-year-old woman participates in the UK cervical screening programme and receives an...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman participates in the UK cervical screening programme and receives an 'inadequate sample' result from her cervical smear test. After a repeat test 3 months later, she still receives an 'inadequate sample' result. What should be done next?

      Your Answer: Return to normal recall

      Correct Answer: Colposcopy

      Explanation:

      In the NHS cervical screening programme, cervical cancer screening involves testing for high-risk HPV (hrHPV) first. If the initial test results in an inadequate sample, it should be repeated after 3 months. If the second test also returns as inadequate, then colposcopy should be performed. This is because without obtaining hr HPV status or performing cytology, the risk of cervical cancer cannot be assessed. It would be unsafe to return the patient to normal recall as this could result in a delayed diagnosis of cervical cancer. Repeating the test after 3, 6 or 12 months is also not recommended as it may lead to a missed diagnosis.

      The cervical cancer screening program has evolved to include HPV testing, which allows for further risk stratification. A negative hr HPV result means a return to normal recall, while a positive result requires cytological examination. Abnormal cytology results lead to colposcopy, while normal cytology results require a repeat test at 12 months. Inadequate samples require a repeat within 3 months, and two consecutive inadequate samples lead to colposcopy. Treatment for CIN typically involves LLETZ or cryotherapy. Individuals who have been treated for CIN should be invited for a test of cure repeat cervical sample 6 months after treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      3.4
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 35-year-old woman complains of lower abdominal pain during her 8th week of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman complains of lower abdominal pain during her 8th week of pregnancy. A transvaginal ultrasound reveals the presence of a simple ovarian cyst alongside an 8-week intrauterine pregnancy. What is the best course of action for managing the cyst?

      Your Answer: Termination of pregnancy

      Correct Answer: Reassure patient that this is normal and leave the cyst alone

      Explanation:

      During the initial stages of pregnancy, ovarian cysts are typically physiological and referred to as corpus luteum. These cysts typically disappear during the second trimester. It is crucial to provide reassurance in such situations as expecting mothers are likely to experience high levels of anxiety. It is important to avoid anxiety during pregnancy to prevent any negative consequences for both the mother and the developing fetus.

      Understanding the Different Types of Ovarian Cysts

      Ovarian cysts are a common occurrence in women, and they can be classified into different types. The most common type of ovarian cyst is the physiological cyst, which includes follicular cysts and corpus luteum cysts. Follicular cysts occur when the dominant follicle fails to rupture or when a non-dominant follicle fails to undergo atresia. These cysts usually regress after a few menstrual cycles. Corpus luteum cysts, on the other hand, occur when the corpus luteum fails to break down and disappear after the menstrual cycle. These cysts may fill with blood or fluid and are more likely to cause intraperitoneal bleeding than follicular cysts.

      Another type of ovarian cyst is the benign germ cell tumour, which includes dermoid cysts. Dermoid cysts are also known as mature cystic teratomas and are usually lined with epithelial tissue. They may contain skin appendages, hair, and teeth. Dermoid cysts are the most common benign ovarian tumour in women under the age of 30, and they are usually asymptomatic. However, torsion is more likely to occur with dermoid cysts than with other ovarian tumours.

      Lastly, there are benign epithelial tumours, which arise from the ovarian surface epithelium. The most common benign epithelial tumour is the serous cystadenoma, which bears a resemblance to the most common type of ovarian cancer (serous carcinoma). Serous cystadenomas are bilateral in around 20% of cases. The second most common benign epithelial tumour is the mucinous cystadenoma, which is typically large and may become massive. If it ruptures, it may cause pseudomyxoma peritonei.

      In conclusion, understanding the different types of ovarian cysts is important for proper diagnosis and treatment. Complex ovarian cysts should be biopsied to exclude malignancy, while benign cysts may require monitoring or surgical removal depending on their size and symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 48-year-old man presents with constant abdominal pain that radiates to the back....

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man presents with constant abdominal pain that radiates to the back. The pain came on suddenly. Examination of the abdomen reveals a central mass. You note that he has become clinically shocked.
      He has a blood pressure of 76/45, heart rate 150, respiratory rate 28.
      Which of these is the most important step in the definitive management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Crossmatch blood

      Correct Answer: Arrange for surgery

      Explanation:

      Emergency Management of a Ruptured Aortic Aneurysm

      When a patient presents with symptoms of a ruptured aortic aneurysm, immediate action is necessary to save their life. The first step is to prepare the patient for surgery by informing the theatre, a vascular surgeon, and an anaesthetist. Without surgery, the mortality rate for a ruptured aneurysm is 100%. During surgery, a Dacron graft is inserted after clamping the aorta above the rupture.

      While waiting for surgery, a blood transfusion may be necessary to replace lost blood. However, surgery is the definitive treatment. It is also important to crossmatch blood and transfuse as needed.

      A computed tomography (CT) scan may be useful in diagnosing the condition, but it should not be performed until the patient is haemodynamically stable. In the meantime, obtaining an amylase level is necessary to rule out acute pancreatitis, although the presence of a mass suggests an aneurysm.

      In summary, emergency management of a ruptured aortic aneurysm requires prompt action to prepare the patient for surgery, administer blood transfusions, and obtain necessary diagnostic tests. Without immediate intervention, the patient’s life is at risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Vascular
      2
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - Which nerve root is associated with the ankle reflex test performed during a...

    Incorrect

    • Which nerve root is associated with the ankle reflex test performed during a neurological examination of the lower limbs where the foot is held in external rotation, the knee is flexed, and the Achilles tendon is struck with a tendon hammer while observing the calf?

      Your Answer: Tibial nerve S2, S3

      Correct Answer: Tibial nerve S1, S2

      Explanation:

      The Tibial Nerve and Ankle Reflex

      The ankle reflex is controlled by the tibial nerve, which originates from the S1 and S2 nerve roots. This nerve is a branch of the sciatic nerve and is responsible for supplying the posterior muscles of the leg and knee joint. The tibial nerve forms in the popliteal fossa and runs downwards on the tibialis posterior.

      As it travels, the tibial nerve provides sensation and motor function to the muscles in the leg and knee joint. It terminates by dividing into the medial and lateral plantar nerves. These nerves are responsible for providing sensation to the sole of the foot and controlling the muscles that move the foot and toes.

      Overall, the tibial nerve plays a crucial role in the ankle reflex and the overall function of the leg and foot. Its proper functioning is essential for maintaining balance and mobility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      3.6
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 49-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of sudden painless loss...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of sudden painless loss of vision on the left side. He reports experiencing dark 'floaters' in his vision and a 'red hue' before losing vision completely on the affected side. The symptoms were most severe when lying flat. The patient has a medical history of poorly controlled type 1 diabetes, proliferative diabetic retinopathy, hypertension, and a metallic aortic valve for which he takes warfarin. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute angle-closure glaucoma

      Correct Answer: Vitreous haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Vitreous haemorrhage should be considered as a possible cause of sudden visual loss in diabetic patients. This patient’s symptoms, including painless loss of vision with floaters and a red hue, are typical of vitreous haemorrhage. The worsening of symptoms when lying flat is also consistent with this diagnosis. The patient has several risk factors for vitreous haemorrhage, such as proliferative retinal disease, hypertension, and anticoagulant use.

      Acute angle-closure glaucoma, which presents with painful loss of vision, red-eye, halos around lights, and a semi-dilated non-reactive pupil, is less likely in this case as the patient denies pain and there is no mention of a red eye.

      Central retinal vein occlusion is unlikely as it does not typically present with floaters and a red hue preceding sudden loss of vision. Additionally, symptoms would not worsen when lying flat.

      Posterior vitreous detachment, which presents with flashes of light and floaters in the peripheral field of vision, does not cause loss of sight.

      Understanding Vitreous Haemorrhage

      Vitreous haemorrhage is a condition where there is bleeding into the vitreous humour, which can cause sudden painless loss of vision. This disruption to vision can range from floaters to complete visual loss. The bleeding can come from any vessel in the retina or extend through the retina from other areas. Once the bleeding stops, the blood is typically cleared from the retina at a rate of approximately 1% per day.

      The incidence of spontaneous vitreous haemorrhage is around 7 cases per 100,000 patient-years. The incidence by age and sex varies according to the underlying causes. The most common causes, which collectively account for 90% of cases, include proliferative diabetic retinopathy, posterior vitreous detachment, and ocular trauma (which is the most common cause in children and young adults).

      Patients with vitreous haemorrhage typically present with an acute or subacute onset of painless visual loss or haze, a red hue in the vision, or floaters or shadows/dark spots in the vision. Signs of the condition include decreased visual acuity (depending on the location, size, and degree of vitreous haemorrhage) and visual field defects if the haemorrhage is severe.

      Investigations for vitreous haemorrhage include dilated fundoscopy, slit-lamp examination, ultrasound (useful to rule out retinal tear/detachment and if haemorrhage obscures the retina), fluorescein angiography (to identify neovascularization), and orbital CT (used if open globe injury is suspected).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      4.2
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - An 80-year-old man is hospitalized with acute coronary syndrome and is diagnosed with...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man is hospitalized with acute coronary syndrome and is diagnosed with a heart attack. After four days, he experiences another episode of chest pain with non-specific ST-T wave changes on the ECG. Which cardiac enzyme would be the most suitable for determining if this second episode was another heart attack?

      Your Answer: Troponin T

      Correct Answer: CK-MB

      Explanation:

      Evaluating Chest Pain after an MI

      When a patient experiences chest pain within ten days of a previous myocardial infarction (MI), it is important to evaluate the situation carefully. Troponin T levels remain elevated for ten days following an MI, which can make it difficult to determine if a second episode of chest pain is related to the previous event. To make a diagnosis, doctors will need to evaluate the patient’s creatine kinase (CK)-myoglobin (MB) levels. These markers rise over three days and can help form a diagnostic profile that can help determine if the chest pain is related to a new MI or another condition. By carefully evaluating these markers, doctors can provide the best possible care for patients who are experiencing chest pain after an MI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
      2.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 27-year-old man presents with a 6-month history of depressed mood. He reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man presents with a 6-month history of depressed mood. He reports feeling fatigued and having suicidal thoughts on a daily basis. His appearance is disheveled and he has made multiple suicide attempts in the past few months. The psychiatrist decides to initiate electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) for his depression, scheduled to begin in a week. The patient is currently taking 100 mg of sertraline daily. What is the appropriate course of action regarding his medication prior to ECT treatment?

      Your Answer: Stop the sertraline completely

      Correct Answer: Reduce the sertraline daily dose

      Explanation:

      Before commencing ECT treatment, it is important to reduce the dosage of antidepressant medication, but not to stop it completely. The recommended approach is to gradually decrease the dosage to the minimum level. In some cases, an increased dosage of antidepressants may be added towards the end of the ECT course. It is not advisable to increase the dosage or discontinue the medication altogether. Switching to an alternative psychiatric drug, such as another SSRI or lithium, is also not recommended as it can be risky before ECT treatment.

      Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) is a viable treatment option for patients who suffer from severe depression that does not respond to medication, such as catatonia, or those who experience psychotic symptoms. The only absolute contraindication for ECT is when a patient has raised intracranial pressure.

      Short-term side effects of ECT include headaches, nausea, short-term memory impairment, memory loss of events prior to the therapy, and cardiac arrhythmia. However, these side effects are typically temporary and resolve quickly.

      Long-term side effects of ECT are less common, but some patients have reported impaired memory. It is important to note that the benefits of ECT often outweigh the potential risks, and it can be a life-changing treatment for those who have not found relief from other forms of therapy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      1.9
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 35-year-old man presents to the Dermatology Outpatient Department with mildly itchy, erythematous...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents to the Dermatology Outpatient Department with mildly itchy, erythematous plaques with oily, yellow scales on the scalp, forehead and behind his ears. The plaques have been present for two weeks. He has no significant medical history and is otherwise well.
      What is the definitive management for this patient?

      Your Answer: Oral corticosteroids

      Correct Answer: Ketoconazole shampoo and topical corticosteroid therapy

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Seborrhoeic Dermatitis: Focus on Ketoconazole Shampoo and Topical Corticosteroid Therapy

      Seborrhoeic dermatitis is a common skin condition characterized by erythematous patches with fine scaling on the scalp, forehead, and behind the ears. To manage this condition, a four-week course of mild-potency topical corticosteroid therapy with ketoconazole shampoo is recommended. This treatment approach has been shown to improve the signs and symptoms of seborrhoeic dermatitis. While antihistamines can provide symptomatic relief, they do not address the underlying cause of the disease. Oral corticosteroids and retinoids are not recommended for the treatment of seborrhoeic dermatitis. Vitamin C also has no role in the management of this condition. Overall, the combination of ketoconazole shampoo and topical corticosteroid therapy is a safe and effective treatment option for seborrhoeic dermatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      1.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 67-year-old woman comes in with a lesion on her left breast. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman comes in with a lesion on her left breast. Upon examination, there is a weeping, crusting lesion on the left nipple, but the areolar region is unaffected. No palpable mass is found in the breast, but there is a palpable lymph node in the axillary region. The patient's doctor attempted to treat the lesion with 1% hydrocortisone cream, but it was unsuccessful. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Phyllodes tumour

      Correct Answer: Pagets disease of the nipple

      Explanation:

      This type of lesion, which appears crusty and causes tears, is typically associated with Paget’s disease of the nipple. It is worth noting that the areolar region is usually unaffected. While there may not be a palpable mass, some patients may still have an invasive cancer underlying the lesion, which can lead to lymphadenopathy.

      Paget’s disease of the nipple is a condition that affects the nipple and is associated with breast cancer. It is present in a small percentage of patients with breast cancer, typically around 1-2%. In half of these cases, there is an underlying mass lesion, and 90% of those patients will have an invasive carcinoma. Even in cases where there is no mass lesion, around 30% of patients will still have an underlying carcinoma. The remaining cases will have carcinoma in situ.

      One key difference between Paget’s disease and eczema of the nipple is that Paget’s disease primarily affects the nipple and later spreads to the areolar, whereas eczema does the opposite. Diagnosis of Paget’s disease involves a punch biopsy, mammography, and ultrasound of the breast. Treatment will depend on the underlying lesion causing the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      2.4
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 51-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of diffuse abdominal pain and...

    Incorrect

    • A 51-year-old woman visits her GP with complaints of diffuse abdominal pain and a single episode of haematuria. During the physical examination, the GP notes that both kidneys are enlarged and the patient experiences some discomfort. The patient is worried as her father had kidney problems around the same age. An abdominal ultrasound is ordered by the GP. What is the potential complication that this patient is most likely to be at risk of, considering the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Subdural haemorrhage

      Correct Answer: Subarachnoid haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Adults with polycystic kidney disease are at an increased risk of experiencing subarachnoid haemorrhage due to ruptured berry aneurysms. This is the most significant associated condition, as ADPKD is known to be linked with cerebral berry aneurysms that can rupture and cause subarachnoid haemorrhage. Liver cysts are the most common complication of ADPKD, while colonic diverticula and bowel obstruction are less frequent. Although ADPKD can cause splenic cysts and splenomegaly, this is also less common than the risk of subarachnoid haemorrhage due to cerebral berry aneurysms.

      Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) is a prevalent genetic condition that affects approximately 1 in 1,000 Caucasians. The disease is caused by mutations in two genes, PKD1 and PKD2, which produce polycystin-1 and polycystin-2, respectively. ADPKD type 1 accounts for 85% of cases, while ADPKD type 2 accounts for the remaining 15%. Individuals with ADPKD develop multiple fluid-filled cysts in their kidneys, which can lead to renal failure.

      To diagnose ADPKD in individuals with a positive family history, an abdominal ultrasound is typically performed. The diagnostic criteria for ultrasound include the presence of two cysts, either unilateral or bilateral, in individuals under 30 years of age, two cysts in both kidneys for those aged 30-59 years, and four cysts in both kidneys for those over 60 years of age.

      Management of ADPKD may involve the use of tolvaptan, a vasopressin receptor 2 antagonist, for select patients. Tolvaptan has been recommended by NICE as an option for treating ADPKD in adults with chronic kidney disease stage 2 or 3 at the start of treatment, evidence of rapidly progressing disease, and if the company provides it with the agreed discount in the patient access scheme. The goal of treatment is to slow the progression of cyst development and renal insufficiency. An enlarged kidney with extensive cysts is a common finding in individuals with ADPKD.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      1.5
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - You see a 50-year-old male patient for discussion of his recent oral glucose...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 50-year-old male patient for discussion of his recent oral glucose tolerance test. He has a family history of type 2 diabetes and he wanted to be tested for it. He has no symptoms. You inform him that based on the result of his oral glucose tolerance test, he has impaired glucose tolerance. What is the accepted definition of impaired glucose tolerance?

      Your Answer: Fasting glucose <8 mmol/L (144 mg/dL) and 2 hour glucose >6 mmol/L (108 mg/dL) but <15 mmol/L (270 mg/dL)

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      WHO Recommendations for Diabetes and Intermediate Hyperglycaemia Diagnosis

      The World Health Organization (WHO) has established diagnostic criteria for diabetes and intermediate hyperglycaemia. According to the 2006 recommendations, a fasting plasma glucose level of 7.0 mmol/L (126 mg/dL) or higher, or a 2-hour plasma glucose level of 11.1 mmol/L (200 mg/dL) or higher indicates diabetes. On the other hand, impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) is diagnosed when the fasting plasma glucose level is less than 7.0 mmol/L (126 mg/dL) and the 2-hour plasma glucose level is between 7.8 and 11.1 mmol/L (140 mg/dL and 200 mg/dL). Impaired fasting glucose (IFG) is diagnosed when the fasting plasma glucose level is between 6.1 and 6.9 mmol/L (110 mg/dL to 125 mg/dL) and the 2-hour plasma glucose level is less than 7.8 mmol/L (140 mg/dL), if measured.

      It is important to note that if the 2-hour plasma glucose level is not measured, the status of the individual is uncertain as diabetes or IGT cannot be excluded. These recommendations serve as a guide for healthcare professionals in diagnosing and managing diabetes and intermediate hyperglycaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Medicine
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which statement about Giardia lamblia is accurate? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which statement about Giardia lamblia is accurate?

      Your Answer: May be cause of haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS)

      Correct Answer: May cause intestinal malabsorption

      Explanation:

      Giardia Lamblia and its Treatment

      Giardia lamblia is a common cause of traveller’s diarrhoea and intestinal malabsorption, along with E. coli. The most effective treatment for this condition is metronidazole. However, detecting cysts and oocysts in stool microscopy is laborious and lacks sensitivity. The current test of choice is the detection of antigens on the surface of the organisms in the stool specimen. A single stool examination can identify about 50% of cases, while three stool samples can identify about 90%. It is important to note that blood loss is not a feature of this condition. HUS, on the other hand, may be caused by E. coli 0157 infection, but not giardiasis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
      3.7
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 26-year-old man comes for his scheduled psychiatry visit after being prescribed Risperidone...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man comes for his scheduled psychiatry visit after being prescribed Risperidone for his recent diagnosis of schizophrenia. Although he has been stable since starting this medication, he reports experiencing milky discharge from both nipples and inquires about alternative medications that can manage his schizophrenia without causing this side effect. What would be the most suitable medication to consider as an alternative?

      Your Answer: Clozapine

      Correct Answer: Aripiprazole

      Explanation:

      Aripiprazole is the most suitable medication to try for this patient as it has the least side effects among atypical antipsychotics, especially in terms of prolactin elevation. This is important as the patient’s nipple discharge is likely caused by high prolactin levels. Chlorpromazine, a typical antipsychotic, is not recommended as it has a higher risk of extrapyramidal side effects. Clozapine, another atypical antipsychotic, is not appropriate for this patient as it is only used for treatment-resistant schizophrenia and requires two other antipsychotics to be trialled first. Haloperidol, a typical antipsychotic, is also not recommended due to its higher risk of extrapyramidal side effects.

      Atypical antipsychotics are now recommended as the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia, as per the 2005 NICE guidelines. These medications have the advantage of significantly reducing extrapyramidal side-effects. However, they can also cause adverse effects such as weight gain, hyperprolactinaemia, and in the case of clozapine, agranulocytosis. The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued warnings about the increased risk of stroke and venous thromboembolism when antipsychotics are used in elderly patients. Examples of atypical antipsychotics include clozapine, olanzapine, risperidone, quetiapine, amisulpride, and aripiprazole.

      Clozapine, one of the first atypical antipsychotics, carries a significant risk of agranulocytosis and requires full blood count monitoring during treatment. Therefore, it should only be used in patients who are resistant to other antipsychotic medication. The BNF recommends introducing clozapine if schizophrenia is not controlled despite the sequential use of two or more antipsychotic drugs, one of which should be a second-generation antipsychotic drug, each for at least 6-8 weeks. Adverse effects of clozapine include agranulocytosis, neutropaenia, reduced seizure threshold, constipation, myocarditis, and hypersalivation. Dose adjustment of clozapine may be necessary if smoking is started or stopped during treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      1.6
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Clinical Sciences (0/3) 0%
Obstetrics (1/5) 20%
Infectious Diseases (0/1) 0%
Paediatrics (1/1) 100%
Medicine (0/3) 0%
Acute Medicine And Intensive Care (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (0/3) 0%
Gastroenterology (0/2) 0%
Musculoskeletal (1/1) 100%
Orthopaedics (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (0/1) 0%
Psychiatry (0/3) 0%
Gynaecology (0/1) 0%
Vascular (0/1) 0%
Ophthalmology (0/1) 0%
Cardiology (0/1) 0%
Surgery (0/1) 0%
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