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  • Question 1 - A 55-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of a burning sensation in her...

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of a burning sensation in her chest after eating meals for the past 2 months. She explains that this pain usually occurs after consuming heavy meals and can keep her up at night. Despite trying over-the-counter antacids, she has found little relief. The pain is retrosternal, without radiation, and is not aggravated by physical activity. She denies any difficulty or pain while swallowing and has not experienced any weight loss. She is worried that she may be having a heart attack every time this happens as both her parents died from coronary artery disease. She has no other medical conditions and is not taking any regular medications. An ECG reveals normal sinus rhythm without ischaemic changes. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD)

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Retrosternal Pain: GORD, PUD, MI, Pancreatitis, and Pericarditis

      When a patient presents with retrosternal pain, it is important to consider various differential diagnoses. In this case, the patient’s pain is burning in nature and occurs in the postprandial period, making gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) a likely diagnosis. Other common manifestations of GORD include hypersalivation, globus sensation, and laryngitis. However, if the patient had any ‘alarm’ symptoms, such as weight loss or difficulty swallowing, further investigation would be necessary.

      Peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is another potential cause of deep epigastric pain, especially in patients with risk factors such as Helicobacter pylori infection, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory use, and alcoholism.

      Myocardial infarction (MI) is less likely in this case, as the patient’s pain does not worsen with exertion and is not accompanied by other cardiac symptoms. Additionally, the patient’s ECG is normal.

      Pancreatitis typically presents with abdominal pain that radiates to the back, particularly in patients with gallstones or a history of alcoholism. The patient’s non-radiating, retrosternal burning pain is not consistent with pancreatitis.

      Pericarditis is characterized by pleuritic chest pain that is aggravated by inspiration and lying flat, but relieved by sitting forward. Widespread ST-segment elevation on electrocardiogram is also common. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatories are typically used as first-line treatment.

      In summary, a thorough consideration of the patient’s symptoms and risk factors can help narrow down the potential causes of retrosternal pain and guide appropriate diagnostic and treatment strategies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 2 - A 28-year-old woman presented to her General Practitioner complaining of six months of...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old woman presented to her General Practitioner complaining of six months of intermittent uncomfortable abdominal distension and bloating, which changed with her menstrual cycle. These symptoms were interspersed with bouts of loose motions. She worked as a teacher in a busy school and found work very stressful; she had previously taken a course of sertraline for anxiety and depression. Examination, blood test results and sigmoidoscopy were all normal.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Irritable bowel syndrome

      Explanation:

      Distinguishing Irritable Bowel Syndrome from Other Gastrointestinal Disorders

      Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a common gastrointestinal disorder that affects more women than men and is often associated with affective disorders. Symptoms of IBS may vary throughout the menstrual cycle, but it is important to rule out other possible diagnoses such as endometriosis. Physical exams and tests are typically normal in IBS, but any unintentional weight loss, rectal bleeding, nocturnal diarrhea, fecal incontinence, or onset of persistent GI symptoms after age 40 requires further assessment. Management of IBS may include dietary changes and medication such as antispasmodics, anti-diarrheals, laxatives, and even Antidepressants. Other gastrointestinal disorders such as chronic pancreatitis, diverticulitis, peptic ulcer disease, and ulcerative colitis have distinct clinical features that can help differentiate them from IBS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 3 - A 32-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with severe epigastric pain and...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with severe epigastric pain and vomiting. The pain radiates through to her back and began 2 hours ago while she was out with her friends in a restaurant. She has a past medical history of gallstones and asthma.
      Which test should be used to confirm this woman’s diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Serum lipase

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Acute Pancreatitis

      Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is commonly caused by gallstones and alcohol consumption. Its symptoms include upper abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. While serum amylase is widely used for diagnosis, serum lipase is preferred where available. Serum lactate is a useful marker for organ perfusion and can indicate the severity of the inflammatory response. A raised white cell count, particularly neutrophilia, is associated with a poorer prognosis. Serum calcium levels may also be affected, but this is not a specific test for pancreatitis. Blood glucose levels may be abnormal, with hyperglycemia being common, but this is not diagnostic of acute pancreatitis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 4 - A 38-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department by her partner due...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department by her partner due to increasing confusion and abdominal distension. Collateral history indicates increasing forgetfulness over the last 12 months and that other members of the family have had similar symptoms although further details are not available. Examination identifies hepatomegaly and ascites. The patient is noted to have a shuffling gait and tremor. Ultrasound of the liver confirms the presence of cirrhosis.
      Which one of the following tests would most likely confirm the suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer: AST:ALT ratio

      Correct Answer: Serum ceruloplasmin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Wilson’s Disease: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Treatment

      Wilson’s disease is a rare genetic disorder that causes copper to accumulate in the liver and brain, leading to a range of symptoms including neuropsychiatric issues, liver disease, and parkinsonism. Diagnosis is typically based on low serum ceruloplasmin and low serum copper, as well as the presence of Kayser-Fleischer rings in the cornea. Treatment involves a low copper diet and the use of copper chelators like penicillamine, with liver transplant as a potential option for severe cases. Other conditions, such as α-1-antitrypsin deficiency and autoimmune hepatitis, can cause liver disease but do not typically present with parkinsonian symptoms. Understanding the unique features of Wilson’s disease is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 5 - A 30-year-old male presents with massive haematemesis and is diagnosed with splenomegaly. What...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male presents with massive haematemesis and is diagnosed with splenomegaly. What is the probable origin of the bleeding?

      Your Answer: Portal Vein Thrombosis

      Correct Answer: Oesophageal varices

      Explanation:

      Portal Hypertension and its Manifestations

      Portal hypertension is a condition that often leads to splenomegaly and upper gastrointestinal (GI) bleeding. The primary cause of bleeding is oesophageal varices, which are dilated veins in the oesophagus. In addition to these symptoms, portal hypertension can also cause ascites, a buildup of fluid in the abdomen, and acute or chronic hepatic encephalopathy, a neurological disorder that affects the brain. Another common manifestation of portal hypertension is splenomegaly with hypersplenism, which occurs when the spleen becomes enlarged and overactive, leading to a decrease in the number of blood cells in circulation. the various symptoms of portal hypertension is crucial for early diagnosis and effective management of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 6 - A 55-year-old man, with a history of moderate alcohol intake (20 units/week), presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man, with a history of moderate alcohol intake (20 units/week), presents with complaints of arthralgia and worsening erectile dysfunction over the past 6–9 months. On examination, he has a deep tan and evidence of chronic liver disease. The following investigations were conducted:

      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin 145 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White Cell Count 8.3 x 109/l 4–11 x 109/l
      Platelets 164 x 109/l 150–400 x 109/l
      Urea 6.0 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
      Sodium 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium 4.2 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 95 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Aspartate Aminotransferase (AST) 65 IU/l 10–40 IU/l
      Alanine Aminotransferase (ALT) 82 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
      Alkaline Phosphatase 135 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
      Bilirubin 23 mmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
      Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) 326 IU/l 100–190 IU/l
      Serum iron 45 μmol/l 0.74–30.43 μmol/l
      Total iron-binding capacity 6.2 μmol/l 10.74–30.43 μmol/l
      Ferritin 623 μg/ 20–250 µg/l
      Glucose 8.8 mmol/l <7.0 mmol/l

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Alcoholic cirrhosis

      Correct Answer: Haemochromatosis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Iron Overload

      A middle-aged man presents with skin discoloration, chronic liver disease, arthralgia, and erectile dysfunction. His serum ferritin level is significantly elevated at 623, indicating iron overload. However, liver disease can also cause an increase in serum ferritin.

      Acute viral hepatitis is unlikely as his symptoms have been worsening over the past 6-9 months, and his transaminase levels are only moderately elevated. Alcoholic cirrhosis is also unlikely as his alcohol intake is modest.

      Excess iron ingestion is a possibility, but it would require significant ingestion over a long period of time. Wilson’s disease, a recessively inherited disorder of copper metabolism, is also unlikely as it does not explain the symptoms of iron overload.

      Overall, the differential diagnosis for this patient includes haemochromatosis, a genetic disorder that causes iron overload. Further testing and evaluation are necessary to confirm the diagnosis and determine the appropriate treatment plan.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 7 - A 3-day-old baby born at term is brought to the Neonatal Unit with...

    Correct

    • A 3-day-old baby born at term is brought to the Neonatal Unit with green fluid vomiting and a swollen belly. The baby was doing fine after birth and was being breastfed. The parents mention that the baby has urinated but has not yet passed meconium. During the examination, the baby seems weak, pale, and breathing rapidly.

      What could be the probable reason for the baby's deteriorating condition?

      Your Answer: Hirschsprung’s disease

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis for a neonate with abdominal distension and failure to pass meconium

      Hirschsprung’s disease, NEC, biliary atresia, GBS sepsis, and haemolytic disease of the newborn are among the possible causes of abdominal distension and failure to pass meconium in a neonate. Hirschsprung’s disease is the most likely diagnosis in a term neonate with bilious vomiting and absence of meconium, as it results from a developmental failure of the gut’s parasympathetic plexus. Surgical intervention via colostomy is necessary to relieve obstruction and prevent enterocolitis. NEC, which involves bowel necrosis, is more common in preterm neonates and may present with similar symptoms. Biliary atresia, a cause of neonatal jaundice, is less likely in this case, as the baby is pale and has not yet passed meconium. GBS sepsis is a potential diagnosis in any unwell neonate, but the history of not passing meconium within the first 48 hours and the presence of bilious vomit and distended abdomen suggest Hirschsprung’s disease as a more likely cause. Haemolytic disease of the newborn, caused by rhesus antibodies crossing the placenta, would not present with abdominal distension and failure to pass meconium. Accurate diagnosis and prompt management are crucial in ensuring the best outcome for the neonate.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 8 - A 54-year-old male with a history of cirrhosis due to alcohol abuse presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old male with a history of cirrhosis due to alcohol abuse presents with malaise and decreased urine output. Upon examination, he appears jaundiced and his catheterized urine output is only 5 ml per hour. Laboratory results show low urinary sodium and elevated urine osmolality compared to serum osmolality. Blood tests reveal elevated liver enzymes, bilirubin, and creatinine. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Hepatitis B

      Correct Answer: Hepatorenal syndrome

      Explanation:

      Hepatorenal Syndrome

      Hepatorenal syndrome is a severe medical condition that can lead to the rapid deterioration of kidney function in individuals with cirrhosis or fulminant hepatic failure. This condition occurs due to changes in the circulation that supplies the intestines, which alters the blood flow and tone in vessels supplying the kidney. As a result, the liver’s deranged function causes Hepatorenal syndrome, which can be life-threatening. Unfortunately, the only treatment for this condition is liver transplantation.

      While hepatitis B can present as membranous glomerulonephritis, it is unlikely in this case due to the known history of alcoholic liver disease. Acute tubular necrosis is also possible, which can result from toxic medication and reduced blood pressure to the kidney in individuals with cirrhosis. However, in acute tubular necrosis, urine and sodium osmolality are raised compared to Hepatorenal syndrome, where the urine and serum sodium osmolality are low. Additionally, one would expect to see muddy-brown casts or hyaline casts on urine microscopy in someone with acute tubular necrosis.

      In conclusion, Hepatorenal syndrome is crucial for individuals with cirrhosis or fulminant hepatic failure. This condition can lead to the rapid deterioration of kidney function and can be life-threatening. While other conditions such as hepatitis B and acute tubular necrosis can present similarly, they have distinct differences that can help with diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 9 - A 60-year-old woman presents to the Surgical Assessment Unit with mild abdominal pain...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman presents to the Surgical Assessment Unit with mild abdominal pain that has been occurring on and off for several weeks. However, the pain has now worsened, causing her to feel nauseated and lose her appetite. She has not had a bowel movement in 3 days and has not noticed any blood in her stool. Upon examination, her temperature is 38.2 °C, heart rate 110 bpm, and blood pressure 124/82 mmHg. Her abdomen is soft, but she experiences tenderness in the left lower quadrant. Bowel sounds are present but reduced. During rectal examination, tenderness is the only finding. The patient has no history of gastrointestinal issues and only sees her general practitioner for osteoarthritis. She has not had a sexual partner since her husband passed away 2 years ago. Based on the information provided, what is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Diverticulitis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Diverticulitis: Symptoms, Risk Factors, and Differential Diagnoses

      Diverticulitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of diverticula, which are mucosal herniations through the muscle of the colon. While most people over 50 have diverticula, only 25% of them become symptomatic, experiencing left lower quadrant abdominal pain that worsens after eating and improves after bowel emptying. Low dietary fiber, obesity, and smoking are risk factors for diverticular disease, which can lead to complications such as perforation, obstruction, or abscess formation.

      Bowel perforation is a potential complication of diverticulitis, but it is rare and usually accompanied by peritonitis. Pelvic inflammatory disease is a possible differential diagnosis in women, but it is unlikely in this case due to the lack of sexual partners for two years. Inflammatory bowel disease is more common in young adults, while diverticulosis is more prevalent in people over 50. Colorectal cancer is another differential diagnosis to consider, especially in older patients with a change in bowel habit and fever or tachycardia.

      In summary, understanding the symptoms, risk factors, and differential diagnoses of diverticulitis is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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  • Question 10 - A 10-month-old girl comes to the paediatric outpatient clinic with a four month...

    Correct

    • A 10-month-old girl comes to the paediatric outpatient clinic with a four month history of bloating, diarrhoea and failure to gain weight. Her development is otherwise normal. What is the most suitable screening antibody test for her?

      Your Answer: Antitissue transglutaminase (anti-TTG)

      Explanation:

      Reliable Antibody Test for Coeliac Disease

      Coeliac disease is an autoimmune condition that targets the gliadin epitope in gluten. It often presents in children with symptoms such as failure to thrive and diarrhoea, which can start during weaning. To diagnose coeliac disease, doctors use antibody tests such as anti-TTG, anti-endomysial antibody, and antigliadin. Among these, anti-TTG is the most reliable and is used as a first-line screening test due to its sensitivity of nearly 100%. Anti-endomysial antibodies are more expensive and observer-dependent, so they are not recommended as a first-line screening test. Antigliadin is rarely measured due to its lower accuracy. It is also important to measure IgA levels because IgA-deficient patients may be asymptomatic and cause a false-negative anti-TTG test.

      Autoimmune Conditions and Antibody Tests

      Autoimmune conditions can cause a variety of symptoms, including diarrhoea and bloating. Graves’ autoimmune thyroid disease, for example, may present with diarrhoea, but bloating is not commonly associated. To diagnose autoimmune conditions, doctors use antibody tests such as ANCA, which is raised in many autoimmune conditions, including some patients with ulcerative colitis. However, ANCA is not raised in coeliac disease. Therefore, it is important to use the appropriate antibody test for each autoimmune condition to ensure an accurate diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gastroenterology (6/10) 60%
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