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Question 1
Incorrect
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A carpal tunnel release results in median nerve damage. Which muscles will be impacted by this in the patient?
Your Answer: Flexor digiti minimi brevis
Correct Answer: Abductor pollicis brevis
Explanation:Only the abductor pollicis brevis is innervated by the median nerve, while the other muscles are innervated by different nerves. It is important to be careful not to confuse the terms adductor and abductor when discussing muscle innervation.
Abductor Pollicis Brevis: Anatomy and Function
The abductor pollicis brevis is a muscle located in the palm of the hand. It originates from the flexor retinaculum, scaphoid, and trapezium bones and inserts into the radial side of the proximal phalanx of the thumb via a short tendon. The muscle is innervated by the recurrent branch of the median nerve in the palm.
The main function of the abductor pollicis brevis is to abduct the thumb at the carpometacarpal and metacarpophalangeal joints. This causes the thumb to move anteriorly at right angles to the plane of the palm and to rotate medially, which is useful for activities such as typing. When the thumb is fully abducted, there is an angulation of around 30 degrees between the proximal phalanx and the metacarpal.
Abduction of the thumb involves medial rotation of the metacarpal, and the abductor pollicis brevis is used along with the opponens pollicis in the initial stages of thumb opposition. Overall, the abductor pollicis brevis plays an important role in the movement and function of the thumb.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 2
Correct
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You are observing a GP during their morning consultations. A 60-year-old man has presented to the clinic with elevated liver function tests discovered during routine blood tests over the past month. Despite being asymptomatic, the patient has a history of osteoarthritis in his knees, one of which underwent total replacement surgery three months ago. He also has arthritis affecting the small joints in his hands and feet, which is well-controlled with medication, as well as hypertension that is stable with medication. What is an important cause of hepatic damage that should be ruled out in this case?
Your Answer: Immune suppression medication for arthritis
Explanation:The patient has both osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis, with the latter affecting the smaller joints of the hands and feet. Methotrexate is a commonly used immunosuppressive medication for rheumatoid arthritis, but it can cause hepatotoxicity as a significant side effect.
Although fat emboli are a potential risk after orthopaedic surgery, they usually cause neural and respiratory symptoms rather than liver damage. Additionally, the onset of fat emboli occurs within hours to days after the operation, not three months later.
While calcium channel blockers, ACE inhibitors, and opioid medications have their own side effects, they typically do not affect liver function.
Methotrexate is an antimetabolite that hinders the activity of dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme that is crucial for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is a significant drug that can effectively control diseases, but its side-effects can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential. Methotrexate is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, especially rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. However, it can cause adverse effects such as mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis.
Women should avoid pregnancy for at least six months after stopping methotrexate treatment, and men using methotrexate should use effective contraception for at least six months after treatment. Prescribing methotrexate requires familiarity with guidelines relating to its use. It is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. Folic acid 5 mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after methotrexate dose. The starting dose of methotrexate is 7.5 mg weekly, and only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed.
It is important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia. High-dose aspirin also increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity due to reduced excretion. In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Overall, methotrexate is a potent drug that requires careful prescribing and monitoring to ensure its effectiveness and safety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 3
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman presents to her GP with a two-month history of tingling and numbness in her thumb, index and middle finger that wakes her up at night. During the examination, the GP instructs the patient to flex her wrist for 60 seconds and the patient reports that this reproduces the symptoms. What is the term for this test?
Your Answer: Phalen's test
Explanation:Carpal tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the median nerve in the carpal tunnel is compressed. This can cause pain and pins and needles sensations in the thumb, index, and middle fingers. In some cases, the symptoms may even travel up the arm. Patients may shake their hand to alleviate the discomfort, especially at night. During an examination, weakness in thumb abduction and wasting of the thenar eminence may be observed. Tapping on the affected area may also cause paraesthesia, and flexing the wrist can trigger symptoms.
There are several potential causes of carpal tunnel syndrome, including idiopathic factors, pregnancy, oedema, lunate fractures, and rheumatoid arthritis. Electrophysiology tests may reveal prolongation of the action potential in both motor and sensory nerves. Treatment options may include a six-week trial of conservative measures such as wrist splints at night or corticosteroid injections. If symptoms persist or are severe, surgical decompression may be necessary, which involves dividing the flexor retinaculum.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old male visits his GP with blister-like skin alterations that have been bothering him for a few months on his body and inside his mouth. Upon biopsy, it is revealed that there are intra-epithelial blisters containing acantholytic keratinocytes.
What skin condition is known to present with these features?Your Answer: Herpes gladiatorum
Correct Answer: Pemphigus vulgaris
Explanation:Pemphigus vulgaris is likely the condition that a middle-aged man with acantholytic keratinocytes and involvement of the mouth (mucous membranes) would present with. This is because this condition is characterised by intra-epithelial blisters containing acantholytic keratinocytes.
Bullous pemphigoid, on the other hand, is characterised by damage to the hemidesmosomes and infiltration of white blood cells such as lymphocytes into the affected area. It does not demonstrate acantholytic keratinocytes and does not affect mucous membranes like the mouth.
Actinic keratosis does not cause blistering, and bullous impetigo typically affects babies.
Pemphigus vulgaris is an autoimmune condition that occurs when the body’s immune system attacks desmoglein 3, a type of cell adhesion molecule found in epithelial cells. This disease is more prevalent in the Ashkenazi Jewish population. The most common symptom is mucosal ulceration, which can be the first sign of the disease. Oral involvement is seen in 50-70% of patients. Skin blistering is also a common symptom, with easily ruptured vesicles and bullae. These lesions are typically painful but not itchy and may appear months after the initial mucosal symptoms. Nikolsky’s sign is a characteristic feature of pemphigus vulgaris, where bullae spread following the application of horizontal, tangential pressure to the skin. Biopsy results often show acantholysis.
The first-line treatment for pemphigus vulgaris is steroids, which help to reduce inflammation and suppress the immune system. Immunosuppressants may also be used to manage the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 5
Incorrect
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During pronation and supination, which bones are involved in movement?
Your Answer: Rotation of the ulna on the radius
Correct Answer: Rotation of the radius on the ulna
Explanation:The movement of the arm’s pronation and supination is caused by the rotation of the radius bone, while the ulna bone remains still. This movement involves two joints: the proximal and distal radio-ulnar joints. The humerus bone remains stationary during this process, while the radial head rotates on the humerus’s capitulum. It’s worth noting that the distal carpal bones don’t move in relation to the distal radius during pronation and supination.
Anatomy of the Radius Bone
The radius bone is one of the two long bones in the forearm that extends from the lateral side of the elbow to the thumb side of the wrist. It has two expanded ends, with the distal end being the larger one. The upper end of the radius bone has articular cartilage that covers the medial to lateral side and articulates with the radial notch of the ulna by the annular ligament. The biceps brachii muscle attaches to the tuberosity of the upper end.
The shaft of the radius bone has several muscle attachments. The upper third of the body has the supinator, flexor digitorum superficialis, and flexor pollicis longus muscles. The middle third of the body has the pronator teres muscle, while the lower quarter of the body has the pronator quadratus muscle and the tendon of supinator longus.
The lower end of the radius bone is quadrilateral in shape. The anterior surface is covered by the capsule of the wrist joint, while the medial surface has the head of the ulna. The lateral surface ends in the styloid process, and the posterior surface has three grooves that contain the tendons of extensor carpi radialis longus and brevis, extensor pollicis longus, and extensor indicis. Understanding the anatomy of the radius bone is crucial in diagnosing and treating injuries and conditions that affect this bone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old man acquires an infection in the pulp of his pinky finger. What is the closest location to which this infection can spread?
Your Answer: The distal interphalangeal joint
Correct Answer: Proximal to the flexor retinaculum
Explanation:The tendon sheath that runs from the little finger to the proximal part of the carpal tunnel poses a considerable risk of facilitating the spread of infections towards the proximal direction.
Anatomy of the Hand: Fascia, Compartments, and Tendons
The hand is composed of bones, muscles, and tendons that work together to perform various functions. The bones of the hand include eight carpal bones, five metacarpals, and 14 phalanges. The intrinsic muscles of the hand include the interossei, which are supplied by the ulnar nerve, and the lumbricals, which flex the metacarpophalangeal joints and extend the interphalangeal joint. The thenar eminence contains the abductor pollicis brevis, opponens pollicis, and flexor pollicis brevis, while the hypothenar eminence contains the opponens digiti minimi, flexor digiti minimi brevis, and abductor digiti minimi.
The fascia of the palm is thin over the thenar and hypothenar eminences but relatively thick elsewhere. The palmar aponeurosis covers the soft tissues and overlies the flexor tendons. The palmar fascia is continuous with the antebrachial fascia and the fascia of the dorsum of the hand. The hand is divided into compartments by fibrous septa, with the thenar compartment lying lateral to the lateral septum, the hypothenar compartment lying medial to the medial septum, and the central compartment containing the flexor tendons and their sheaths, the lumbricals, the superficial palmar arterial arch, and the digital vessels and nerves. The deepest muscular plane is the adductor compartment, which contains adductor pollicis.
The tendons of the flexor digitorum superficialis (FDS) and flexor digitorum profundus (FDP) enter the common flexor sheath deep to the flexor retinaculum. The tendons enter the central compartment of the hand and fan out to their respective digital synovial sheaths. The fibrous digital sheaths contain the flexor tendons and their synovial sheaths, extending from the heads of the metacarpals to the base of the distal phalanges.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 7
Incorrect
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You are the junior doctor working in the emergency department. A 30-year-old male is brought in by ambulance after being caught in a house fire. He has significant burns spreading across his left arm, chest, abdomen and left thigh. During the A to E assessment, the consultant working with you asks you to give the patient aggressive fluid resuscitation using 1L of 0.9% sodium chloride over 30 minutes.
What is the rationale behind administering aggressive fluid resuscitation to this patient?Your Answer: Burns cause fluid loss via evaporation
Correct Answer: Burns cause fluid loss via third spacing
Explanation:To determine the severity of a burn, a thorough examination is necessary. A superficial burn only affects the epidermis, while a partial thickness burn affects the dermis, and a full-thickness burn affects all layers of skin, including subcutaneous tissues, muscle, and bone if severe.
Third spacing occurs when fluid moves from the intravascular space to the interstitial or third space due to increased capillary permeability and loss of albumin. This can cause hypotension, making it crucial to replace intravascular volume in the management of severe burns.
While burns can cause fluid loss through evaporation, it is minimal and can be stopped by removing the source of the burn.
While adequate hydration is important for healing any injury, it is not the reason for aggressive fluid resuscitation. It is worth noting that a patient’s energy requirement increases during burn recovery, and they may require up to 6000 calories per day.
Maintenance fluids are given to patients who cannot drink enough to stay hydrated, such as those who are cognitively impaired or nil by mouth before surgery. Unlike resuscitation fluids, maintenance fluids provide the body with the necessary water, electrolytes, and glucose to function normally in a day based on weight.
Fluids do not affect the inflammatory process and therefore cannot reduce inflammation caused by burns.
First Aid and Management of Burns
Burns can be caused by heat, electricity, or chemicals. Immediate first aid involves removing the person from the source of the burn and irrigating the affected area with cool water. The extent of the burn can be assessed using Wallace’s Rule of Nines or the Lund and Browder chart. The depth of the burn can be determined by its appearance, with full-thickness burns being the most severe. Referral to secondary care is necessary for deep dermal and full-thickness burns, as well as burns involving certain areas of the body or suspicion of non-accidental injury.
Severe burns can lead to tissue loss, fluid loss, and a catabolic response. Intravenous fluids and analgesia are necessary for resuscitation and pain relief. Smoke inhalation can result in airway edema, and early intubation may be necessary. Circumferential burns may require escharotomy to relieve compartment syndrome and improve ventilation. Conservative management is appropriate for superficial burns, while more complex burns may require excision and skin grafting. There is no evidence to support the use of antimicrobial prophylaxis or topical antibiotics in burn patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man with a history of untreated hypertension and diabetes mellitus presents to the clinic with worsening bone and joint pain. Upon examination, diffuse muscular tenderness is noted but is otherwise unremarkable. The following blood test results are obtained:
Calcium 1.9 mmol/L (2.1-2.6)
Phosphate 2.0 mmol/L (0.8-1.4)
ALP 170 IU/L (44-147)
Parathyroid Hormone 70 pg/mL (15-65)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Secondary hyperparathyroidism
Explanation:The patient’s low serum calcium, high serum phosphate, high ALP, and high PTH levels suggest that they have chronic kidney disease leading to secondary hyperparathyroidism. This occurs when the kidneys are unable to synthesize enough vitamin D, resulting in low calcium levels. Additionally, poor kidney function leads to high phosphate levels. As a compensatory mechanism, the parathyroid hormone levels increase, causing lytic bone lesions and high ALP, which explains the patient’s diffuse musculoskeletal tenderness.
Humoral hypercalcemia of malignancy is a condition where parathyroid hormone-related peptide acts similarly to parathyroid hormone, leading to high calcium levels. However, phosphate levels would be low or normal due to the effect of this hormone. In contrast, this patient’s parathyroid hormone levels are high, indicating secondary hyperparathyroidism.
Liver disease alone does not typically cause disturbances in calcium metabolism.
Primary hyperparathyroidism is characterized by excess secretion of parathyroid hormone, resulting in high serum calcium and parathyroid hormone levels. However, in this condition, phosphate levels are low due to the effect of high parathyroid hormone. This patient’s blood work does not suggest primary hyperparathyroidism.
Tertiary hyperparathyroidism occurs in end-stage renal disease, where longstanding secondary hyperparathyroidism leads to excess production of parathyroid hormone and eventual hypercalcemia, rather than hypocalcemia.
Lab Values for Bone Disorders
When it comes to bone disorders, certain lab values can provide important information about the condition. In cases of osteoporosis, calcium, phosphate, alkaline phosphatase (ALP), and parathyroid hormone (PTH) levels are typically normal. However, in osteomalacia, calcium and phosphate levels are decreased while ALP and PTH levels are increased. Primary hyperparathyroidism, which can lead to osteitis fibrosa cystica, is characterized by increased calcium and PTH levels but decreased phosphate levels. Chronic kidney disease can result in secondary hyperparathyroidism, which is marked by decreased calcium levels and increased phosphate and PTH levels. Paget’s disease, on the other hand, typically shows normal calcium and phosphate levels but increased ALP levels. Finally, osteopetrosis is associated with normal levels of calcium, phosphate, ALP, and PTH. By analyzing these lab values, healthcare professionals can better diagnose and treat bone disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old male has an accident at work where he is injured by a loose piece of glass. The glass cuts his skin and damages the tendons of one of the muscles in his hand. Consequently, he cannot flex the distal interphalangeal joint of his ring finger. However, he can still flex the proximal interphalangeal joint (PIP) and the metacarpophalangeal (MCP) joint of the same finger. None of his other fingers are impacted.
Which muscle is likely to have been affected?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Flexor digitorum profundus
Explanation:The flexor digitorum profundus muscle is primarily responsible for flexing the distal interphalangeal joint. It is located deep to the flexor digitorum superficialis muscle and is specific to each digit. The flexor digitorum superficialis muscle, on the other hand, flexes the metacarpophalangeal and proximal interphalangeal joints. The flexor carpi ulnaris muscle is responsible for flexing and adducting the wrist, while the flexor pollicis longus muscle flexes the thumb. It is important to note that the flexor digitorum superficialis muscle must be intact for its function to remain present.
The forearm flexor muscles include the flexor carpi radialis, palmaris longus, flexor carpi ulnaris, flexor digitorum superficialis, and flexor digitorum profundus. These muscles originate from the common flexor origin and surrounding fascia, and are innervated by the median and ulnar nerves. Their actions include flexion and abduction of the carpus, wrist flexion, adduction of the carpus, and flexion of the metacarpophalangeal and interphalangeal joints.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A teenage boy presents with a left-sided winged scapula after getting into a scuffle at a party. During the examination, he struggles to perform a specific movement with his left arm. Which movement is most likely causing him difficulty?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Abduction
Explanation:Winged scapula is caused by paralysis of serratus anterior, which affects arm abduction. Triceps brachii is responsible for extension, biceps brachii for flexion, and latissimus dorsi for adduction.
Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman has been experiencing ongoing muscle weakness in her arms and legs for the past 4 months. She has been referred to the hospital and has agreed to undergo a muscle biopsy of her right quadriceps. The collected samples have been sent to histopathology for examination. When observing under a microscope, which type(s) of muscle would typically display sarcomeres?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Skeletal and cardiac muscle
Explanation:The typical striated appearance of skeletal and cardiac muscle is due to sarcomeres, which are the fundamental unit of muscles.
The Process of Muscle Contraction
Muscle contraction is a complex process that involves several steps. It begins with an action potential reaching the neuromuscular junction, which causes a calcium ion influx through voltage-gated calcium channels. This influx leads to the release of acetylcholine into the extracellular space, which activates nicotinic acetylcholine receptors, triggering an action potential. The action potential then spreads through the T-tubules, activating L-type voltage-dependent calcium channels in the T-tubule membrane, which are close to calcium-release channels in the adjacent sarcoplasmic reticulum. This causes the sarcoplasmic reticulum to release calcium, which binds to troponin C, causing a conformational change that allows tropomyosin to move, unblocking the binding sites. Myosin then binds to the newly released binding site, releasing ADP and pulling the Z bands towards each other. ATP binds to myosin, releasing actin.
The components involved in muscle contraction include the sarcomere, which is the basic unit of muscles that gives skeletal and cardiac muscles their striated appearance. The I-band is the zone of thin filaments that is not superimposed by thick filaments, while the A-band contains the entire length of a single thick filament. The H-zone is the zone of the thick filaments that is not superimposed by the thin filaments, and the M-line is in the middle of the sarcomere, cross-linking myosin. The sarcoplasmic reticulum releases calcium ion in response to depolarization, while actin is the thin filaments that transmit the forces generated by myosin to the ends of the muscle. Myosin is the thick filaments that bind to the thin filament, while titin connects the Z-line to the thick filament, altering the structure of tropomyosin. Tropomyosin covers the myosin-binding sites on actin, while troponin-C binds with calcium ions. The T-tubule is an invagination of the sarcoplasmic reticulum that helps co-ordinate muscular contraction.
There are two types of skeletal muscle fibres: type I and type II. Type I fibres have a slow contraction time, are red in colour due to the presence of myoglobin, and are used for sustained force. They have a high mitochondrial density and use triglycerides as
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man arrives at the Emergency Department with a swollen, red, and hot first metatarsophalangeal joint. The diagnosis is an acute gout attack. What substance in the joint space is responsible for causing gout?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Monosodium urate
Explanation:When joint aspiration is performed in cases of gout, the presence of needle-shaped monosodium urate crystals that are negatively birefringent can be observed under polarised light. The acute manifestation of gout often involves the first metatarsophalangeal joint, which is commonly referred to as podagra. Gout is caused by elevated levels of uric acid, which results in the accumulation of monosodium urate crystals in and around the joints. Pseudogout, a similar condition, is caused by the deposition of calcium pyrophosphate. In rheumatoid arthritis, a collection of fibrous tissue known as a pannus may be observed within affected joints, while osteoarthritis may present with bony projections called osteophytes. A diet that is high in purines, such as red meat, liver, and beer, may increase the likelihood of developing gout.
Understanding Gout: Symptoms and Diagnosis
Gout is a type of arthritis that causes inflammation and pain in the joints. Patients experience episodes of intense pain that can last for several days, followed by periods of no symptoms. The acute episodes usually reach their peak within 12 hours and can affect various joints, with the first metatarsophalangeal joint being the most commonly affected. Swelling and redness are also common symptoms of gout.
If left untreated, repeated acute episodes of gout can lead to joint damage and chronic joint problems. To diagnose gout, doctors may perform synovial fluid analysis to look for needle-shaped, negatively birefringent monosodium urate crystals under polarised light. Uric acid levels may also be checked once the acute episode has subsided, as they can be high, normal, or low during the attack.
Radiological features of gout include joint effusion, well-defined punched-out erosions with sclerotic margins, and eccentric erosions. Unlike rheumatoid arthritis, gout does not cause periarticular osteopenia. Soft tissue tophi may also be visible.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 13
Incorrect
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Which one of the following is not a pathological response to extensive burns in elderly patients?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Absolute polycythaemia
Explanation:The primary pathological response is haemolysis.
Pathology of Burns
Extensive burns can cause various pathological changes in the body. The heat and microangiopathy can damage erythrocytes, leading to haemolysis. The loss of capillary membrane integrity can cause plasma leakage into the interstitial space, resulting in hypovolaemic shock. This shock can occur up to 48 hours after the injury and can cause a decrease in blood volume and an increase in haematocrit. Additionally, protein loss and secondary infections, such as Staphylococcus aureus, can occur. There is also a risk of acute peptic stress ulcers, known as Curling’s ulcers. Furthermore, full-thickness circumferential burns in an extremity can lead to compartment syndrome.
The healing process of burns depends on the severity of the burn. Superficial burns can heal through the migration of keratinocytes to form a new layer over the burn site. However, full-thickness burns can result in dermal scarring, which may require skin grafts to provide optimal coverage. It is important to understand the pathology of burns to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 14
Incorrect
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What is the most frequent reason for osteolytic bone metastasis in adolescents?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Neuroblastoma
Explanation:Neuroblastomas are a childhood tumour that frequently metastasizes widely and causes lytic lesions.
Secondary Malignant Tumours of Bone: Risk of Fracture and Treatment Options
Metastatic lesions affecting bone are more common than primary bone tumours, with typical tumours that spread to bone including breast, bronchus, renal, thyroid, and prostate. These tumours are more likely to affect those over the age of 50, with the commonest bone sites affected being the vertebrae, proximal femur, ribs, sternum, pelvis, and skull. The greatest risk for pathological fracture is osteolytic lesions, and bones with lesions that occupy 50% or less are prone to fracture under loading. The Mirel scoring system is used to determine the risk of fracture, with a score of 9 or greater indicating an impending fracture and requiring prophylactic fixation. Non-operative treatments for hypercalcaemia include rehydration and bisphosphonates, while pain can be managed with opiate analgesics and radiotherapy. Some tumours, such as breast and prostate, may benefit from chemotherapy and/or hormonal agents. In cases where the lesion is an isolated metastatic deposit, excision and reconstruction may be considered for better outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 15
Incorrect
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You are observing a tarsal tunnel release surgery on a patient you had interviewed earlier that afternoon. Upon incision of the flexor retinaculum, you notice several structures that are visible.
Can you list the structural contents in order from anterior to posterior?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tibialis posterior tendon, flexor digitorum longus tendon, posterior tibial artery and vein, tibial nerve, flexor hallucis longus tendon
Explanation:The correct order of contents in the tarsal tunnel, from anterior to posterior, is as follows: tibialis posterior tendon, flexor digitorum longus tendon, posterior tibial artery and vein, tibial nerve, and flexor hallucis longus tendon. Therefore, the correct answer is 3. Answers 1 and 2 are incorrect as they include the tibialis anterior tendon, which is not located in the tarsal tunnel.
The foot has two arches: the longitudinal arch and the transverse arch. The longitudinal arch is higher on the medial side and is supported by the posterior pillar of the calcaneum and the anterior pillar composed of the navicular bone, three cuneiforms, and the medial three metatarsal bones. The transverse arch is located on the anterior part of the tarsus and the posterior part of the metatarsus. The foot has several intertarsal joints, including the sub talar joint, talocalcaneonavicular joint, calcaneocuboid joint, transverse tarsal joint, cuneonavicular joint, intercuneiform joints, and cuneocuboid joint. The foot also has various ligaments, including those of the ankle joint and foot. The foot is innervated by the lateral plantar nerve and medial plantar nerve, and it receives blood supply from the plantar arteries and dorsalis pedis artery. The foot has several muscles, including the abductor hallucis, flexor digitorum brevis, abductor digit minimi, flexor hallucis brevis, adductor hallucis, and extensor digitorum brevis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old individual arrives at the emergency department after experiencing a sharp pain on the right side of their chest while bench pressing 120kg at the gym. They heard a snapping noise and noticed swelling on the right side of their chest and bruising on their right arm. Upon examination, the right side of their chest appears asymmetrical with bunched up musculature, indicating a tear of the pectoralis major tendon. What is the typical insertion point for this tendon?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lateral lip of the intertubercular sulcus
Explanation:The correct answer is the lateral lip of the intertubercular sulcus, which is the insertion site of the latissimus dorsi muscle.
A ruptured pectoralis major tendon is a common injury in weight training, often occurring during the bench press exercise. The patient may experience a painful snap or hear a snapping noise, and the tension in the muscle is lost, causing the chest wall to lose its shape. Bruising may be visible on the chest or arm.
Other anatomical features mentioned in the question include the lesser and greater tubercles of the humerus, which are insertion sites for various rotator cuff muscles, and the pectineal line on the femur, which is the insertion site for the pectineus muscle.
Pectoralis Major Muscle: Origin, Insertion, Nerve Supply, and Actions
The pectoralis major muscle is a large, fan-shaped muscle located in the chest region. It originates from the medial two thirds of the clavicle, manubrium, and sternocostal angle and inserts into the lateral edge of the bicipital groove of the humerus. The muscle is innervated by the lateral pectoral nerve and its main actions include adduction and medial rotation of the humerus.
In simpler terms, the pectoralis major muscle is responsible for bringing the arm towards the body and rotating it inward. It is an important muscle for movements such as pushing, pulling, and lifting. The muscle is commonly targeted in strength training exercises such as bench press and push-ups. Understanding the origin, insertion, nerve supply, and actions of the pectoralis major muscle is important for proper exercise form and injury prevention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old girl is referred to a geneticist with a diagnosis of Marfan's syndrome. She is also hypermobile and taller than 99% of her peers. Her mother passed away recently due to an aortic dissection.
What is the protein that is impacted in Marfan's syndrome?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Fibrillin-1
Explanation:Marfan’s syndrome is the result of a genetic mutation affecting fibrillin-1, a crucial protein for the formation of extracellular matrix. This condition is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner and leads to abnormal connective tissue, resulting in various symptoms such as tall stature, high arched palate, and aortic aneurysms.
Epidermolysis bullosa, a condition characterized by severe blistering of the skin and mucous membranes, is linked to mutations in laminin V.
Alport syndrome, which presents with glomerulonephritis and hearing loss, is caused by mutations in type IV collagen.
Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, a connective tissue disorder that often involves hypermobility and skin fragility, is associated with mutations in type V collagen.
Understanding Marfan’s Syndrome
Marfan’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the connective tissue in the body. It is caused by a defect in the FBN1 gene on chromosome 15, which codes for the protein fibrillin-1. This disorder is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern and affects approximately 1 in 3,000 people.
Individuals with Marfan syndrome often have a tall stature with an arm span to height ratio greater than 1.05. They may also have a high-arched palate, arachnodactyly (long, slender fingers), pectus excavatum (sunken chest), pes planus (flat feet), and scoliosis (curvature of the spine). In addition, they may experience cardiovascular problems such as dilation of the aortic sinuses, mitral valve prolapse, and aortic aneurysm, which can lead to aortic dissection and aortic regurgitation. Other symptoms may include repeated pneumothoraces (collapsed lung), upwards lens dislocation, blue sclera, myopia, and ballooning of the dural sac at the lumbosacral level.
In the past, the life expectancy of individuals with Marfan syndrome was around 40-50 years. However, with regular echocardiography monitoring and medication such as beta-blockers and ACE inhibitors, the life expectancy has significantly improved. Despite this, cardiovascular problems remain the leading cause of death in individuals with Marfan syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man with peripheral vascular disease is scheduled for a below knee amputation. Can you identify the compartment in the lower leg where peroneus brevis is located?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lateral compartment
Explanation:The deep transverse fascia divides the leg into anterior and posterior compartments, while the interosseous membrane separates them. The lateral compartment includes the peroneus brevis muscle.
Fascial Compartments of the Leg
The leg is divided into compartments by fascial septae, which are thin layers of connective tissue. In the thigh, there are three compartments: the anterior, medial, and posterior compartments. The anterior compartment contains the femoral nerve and artery, as well as the quadriceps femoris muscle group. The medial compartment contains the obturator nerve and artery, as well as the adductor muscles and gracilis muscle. The posterior compartment contains the sciatic nerve and branches of the profunda femoris artery, as well as the hamstrings muscle group.
In the lower leg, there are four compartments: the anterior, posterior (divided into deep and superficial compartments), lateral, and deep posterior compartments. The anterior compartment contains the deep peroneal nerve and anterior tibial artery, as well as the tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum longus, extensor hallucis longus, and peroneus tertius muscles. The posterior compartment contains the tibial nerve and posterior tibial artery, as well as the deep and superficial muscles. The lateral compartment contains the superficial peroneal nerve and peroneal artery, as well as the peroneus longus and brevis muscles. The deep posterior compartment contains the tibial nerve and posterior tibial artery, as well as the flexor hallucis longus, flexor digitorum longus, tibialis posterior, and popliteus muscles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 19
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a tender, hot, and painful knee. Upon aspiration and light microscopy, rhomboid crystals with weakly positive birefringence are detected.
What is the composition of these crystals?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Calcium pyrophosphate
Explanation:Pseudogout is a condition where calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals are deposited in the joints, causing inflammation. This is different from gout, which is caused by the deposition of monosodium urate crystals due to factors such as inadequate urea excretion or high purine intake from foods like seafood.
Treatment for pseudogout involves the use of anti-inflammatory medications and joint replacement surgery may be necessary if the condition causes significant joint damage.
In gout, urea levels may be increased, but during an acute attack, they may actually be decreased. Struvite stones are formed from bacterial products, while staghorn stones are large stones that are often caused by Proteus mirabilis and can obstruct the renal pelvis.
Understanding Pseudogout
Pseudogout, also known as acute calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition disease, is a type of microcrystal synovitis that occurs when calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals are deposited in the synovium. This condition is commonly associated with increasing age, but younger patients who develop pseudogout usually have an underlying risk factor such as haemochromatosis, hyperparathyroidism, low magnesium or phosphate levels, acromegaly, or Wilson’s disease.
The knee, wrist, and shoulders are the most commonly affected joints in pseudogout. Diagnosis is made through joint aspiration, which reveals weakly-positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals, and x-rays, which show chondrocalcinosis. In the knee, linear calcifications of the meniscus and articular cartilage can be seen.
Management of pseudogout involves joint fluid aspiration to rule out septic arthritis, followed by treatment with NSAIDs or intra-articular, intra-muscular, or oral steroids, similar to the treatment for gout. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms of pseudogout can help with early diagnosis and effective management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 2nd-year medical student is tasked with placing a cannula in the cubital fossa of the patient.
What anatomical structure can be found in the cubital fossa?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Median nerve
Explanation:The only content of the cubital fossa is the median nerve, while the ulnar nerve passes posterior to the medial epicondyle to enter the forearm. The femoral nerve and artery are located in the femoral canal, and the tricep tendon is situated on the posterior aspect of the arm.
The Antecubital Fossa: Anatomy and Clinical Significance
The antecubital fossa is a depression located on the anterior aspect of the arm, between the arm and forearm. It is an important area for medical professionals as it is where venous blood samples are typically taken from. The borders of the antecubital fossa are the brachioradialis muscle laterally, the pronator teres medially, and a line between the medial and lateral epicondyles superiorly.
There are both deep and superficial structures found in the antecubital fossa. Deep structures include the radial nerve, tendon of the biceps muscle, brachial artery, and medial nerve. Superficial structures consist of a network of veins, including the cephalic vein and basilic vein, which come together as the median cubital vein.
The main clinical relevance of the antecubital fossa is its use for blood sampling and cannulation. However, it is also important to have a working knowledge of the anatomy as structures can become damaged. Excessive straining of the biceps tendon can cause it to rupture, leading to a ‘Popeye sign’. Damage to the medial nerve can also occur, resulting in muscle paralysis in the forearm and hand. Overall, understanding the anatomy and clinical significance of the antecubital fossa is crucial for medical professionals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male is stabbed in the groin, resulting in injury to multiple structures and a laceration of the adductor longus muscle. Which nerve is responsible for the innervation of the adductor longus?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Obturator nerve
Explanation:Adductor Longus Muscle
The adductor longus muscle originates from the anterior body of the pubis and inserts into the middle third of the linea aspera. Its main function is to adduct and flex the thigh, as well as medially rotate the hip. This muscle is innervated by the anterior division of the obturator nerve, which originates from the spinal nerves L2, L3, and L4. The adductor longus is one of the adductor muscles, which are a group of muscles located in the thigh that work together to bring the legs towards the midline of the body. The schematic image below illustrates the relationship of the adductor muscles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old man is stabbed in the chest at the level of the junction between the sternum and manubrium. What is the structure that is most vulnerable?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aortic arch
Explanation:The aortic arch can be located at the Angle of Louis (Manubriosternal angle) on the surface. The oesophagus is situated at the back and is less susceptible to damage.
The sternal angle is a significant anatomical landmark located at the level of the upper sternum and manubrium. It is characterized by several structures, including the upper part of the manubrium, left brachiocephalic vein, brachiocephalic artery, left common carotid, left subclavian artery, lower part of the manubrium, and costal cartilages of the 2nd ribs. Additionally, the sternal angle marks the transition point between the superior and inferior mediastinum, and is also associated with the arch of the aorta, tracheal bifurcation, union of the azygos vein and superior vena cava, and the crossing of the thoracic duct to the midline. Overall, the sternal angle is a crucial anatomical structure that serves as a reference point for various medical procedures and diagnoses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman goes into labour following an uncomplicated pregnancy. During delivery, the baby is found to be in a breech position and there is insufficient time for a C-section. What is the condition that poses the greatest risk to the newborn?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Developmental dysplasia of the hip
Explanation:Developmental dysplasia of the hip is more likely to occur in babies who were in a breech presentation during pregnancy. Neonatal hypoglycaemia can be a risk for babies born to mothers with gestational diabetes or those who are preterm or small for their gestational age. Asymmetrical growth restriction, where a baby’s head circumference is on a higher centile than their weight or abdominal circumference, is often caused by uteroplacental dysfunction, such as pre-eclampsia or maternal smoking.
Developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) is a condition that affects 1-3% of newborns and is more common in females, firstborn children, and those with a positive family history or breech presentation. It used to be called congenital dislocation of the hip (CDH). DDH is more often found in the left hip and can be screened for using ultrasound in infants with certain risk factors or through clinical examination using the Barlow and Ortolani tests. Other factors to consider include leg length symmetry, knee level when hips and knees are flexed, and restricted hip abduction in flexion. Ultrasound is typically used to confirm the diagnosis, but x-rays may be necessary for infants over 4.5 months old. Management options include the Pavlik harness for younger children and surgery for older ones. Most unstable hips will stabilize on their own within 3-6 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old man presents to the emergency department following a fall on his outstretched arm. He has a medical history of osteoporosis and takes calcium, vitamin D, and alendronic acid.
During the examination, he experiences tenderness at the proximal humerus and is unable to abduct his shoulder. However, his elbow, wrist, and hand appear normal.
After a plain radiography, it is discovered that he has a fracture of the proximal humerus. Which nerve has been affected by this injury?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Axillary nerve
Explanation:The correct nerve associated with loss of shoulder abduction due to denervation of the deltoid muscle in an elderly man with a proximal humerus fracture is the axillary nerve (C5,C6). Injury to the long thoracic, musculocutaneous, radial, and ulnar nerves are less likely based on the mechanism of injury and examination findings.
Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman has made the decision to have a thyroidectomy for her Graves' disease. During the procedure, one of the blood vessels supplying the thyroid gland, the superior thyroid artery, will be ligated.
What is the correct description of the superior thyroid artery?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: A branch of the external carotid artery that supplies the superior portion of the thyroid gland
Explanation:The superior thyroid artery is the initial branch of the external carotid artery and is responsible for supplying the upper pole of the thyroid gland. It descends towards the gland after arising and generally provides blood to the superior and anterior regions. On the other hand, the inferior thyroid artery originates from the thyrocervical trunk, which is a branch of the subclavian artery. It travels in a superomedial direction to reach the inferior pole of the thyroid and typically supplies the postero-inferior aspect.
Anatomy of the Thyroid Gland
The thyroid gland is a butterfly-shaped gland located in the neck, consisting of two lobes connected by an isthmus. It is surrounded by a sheath from the pretracheal layer of deep fascia and is situated between the base of the tongue and the fourth and fifth tracheal rings. The apex of the thyroid gland is located at the lamina of the thyroid cartilage, while the base is situated at the fourth and fifth tracheal rings. In some individuals, a pyramidal lobe may extend from the isthmus and attach to the foramen caecum at the base of the tongue.
The thyroid gland is surrounded by various structures, including the sternothyroid, superior belly of omohyoid, sternohyoid, and anterior aspect of sternocleidomastoid muscles. It is also related to the carotid sheath, larynx, trachea, pharynx, oesophagus, cricothyroid muscle, and parathyroid glands. The superior and inferior thyroid arteries supply the thyroid gland with blood, while the superior and middle thyroid veins drain into the internal jugular vein, and the inferior thyroid vein drains into the brachiocephalic veins.
In summary, the thyroid gland is a vital gland located in the neck, responsible for producing hormones that regulate metabolism. Its anatomy is complex, and it is surrounded by various structures that are essential for its function. Understanding the anatomy of the thyroid gland is crucial for the diagnosis and treatment of thyroid disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 19-year-old motorcyclist is rushed to the emergency department following a car collision. Upon examination, it is discovered that the lower left limb has suffered a compound fracture.
The patient undergoes surgery to treat the injuries with open reduction and internal fixation. Despite intensive physiotherapy, the patient experiences an abnormal gait after the surgery. The left foot's plantarflexion and inversion power are measured at 2/5.
Which nerve is most likely to have been damaged?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Tibial nerve
Explanation:The patient experiences a loss of the ability to plantarflex and invert their foot, which is likely due to damage to the tibial nerve.
Lower limb anatomy is an important topic that often appears in examinations. One aspect of this topic is the nerves that control motor and sensory functions in the lower limb. The femoral nerve controls knee extension and thigh flexion, and provides sensation to the anterior and medial aspect of the thigh and lower leg. It is commonly injured in cases of hip and pelvic fractures, as well as stab or gunshot wounds. The obturator nerve controls thigh adduction and provides sensation to the medial thigh. It can be injured in cases of anterior hip dislocation. The lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh provides sensory function to the lateral and posterior surfaces of the thigh, and can be compressed near the ASIS, resulting in a condition called meralgia paraesthetica. The tibial nerve controls foot plantarflexion and inversion, and provides sensation to the sole of the foot. It is not commonly injured as it is deep and well protected, but can be affected by popliteral lacerations or posterior knee dislocation. The common peroneal nerve controls foot dorsiflexion and eversion, and can be injured at the neck of the fibula, resulting in foot drop. The superior gluteal nerve controls hip abduction and can be injured in cases of misplaced intramuscular injection, hip surgery, pelvic fracture, or posterior hip dislocation. Injury to this nerve can result in a positive Trendelenburg sign. The inferior gluteal nerve controls hip extension and lateral rotation, and is generally injured in association with the sciatic nerve. Injury to this nerve can result in difficulty rising from a seated position, as well as difficulty jumping or climbing stairs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old obese female with twice-yearly flares of ulcerative colitis has presented to the gastroenterology department with flare. She was previously being managed well with steroids. After doing the thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) test she is started on a medication. A complete blood count done after a month of starting treatment shows:
Hb 112 g/L Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 68 * 109/L (150 - 400)
WBC 25 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
What is the active compound that the drug being used in the treatment of this patient's condition is metabolized to?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mercaptopurine
Explanation:Azathioprine is utilized for treating Crohn’s disease in this patient, and it is likely that the drug is metabolized into mercaptopurine, an active compound that acts as a purine analogue and inhibits purine synthesis.
In the purine catabolism pathway, inosine is produced when AMP is deaminated by adenylate (AMP) deaminase to form IMP. Inosine is then formed by hydrolysis of IMP with nucleotidase.
Hypoxanthine is also produced in the purine catabolism pathway through the phosphorylation of inosine. Xanthine is formed when hypoxanthine is oxidized by xanthine oxidase.
The answer purine is incorrect because azathioprine does not convert into purines, but rather it inhibits their synthesis.
Azathioprine is a medication that is converted into mercaptopurine, which is an active compound that inhibits the production of purine. To determine if someone is at risk for azathioprine toxicity, a test for thiopurine methyltransferase (TPMT) may be necessary. Adverse effects of this medication include bone marrow depression, nausea and vomiting, pancreatitis, and an increased risk of non-melanoma skin cancer. If infection or bleeding occurs, a full blood count should be considered. It is important to note that there may be a significant interaction between azathioprine and allopurinol, so lower doses of azathioprine should be used. However, azathioprine is generally considered safe to use during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 28
Incorrect
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Sophie, a 27-year-old female, is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance after being involved in a car accident. Upon examination, it is discovered that she has a surgical neck fracture of the humerus on X-ray.
What is the structure that is most commonly at risk of damage with a surgical neck fracture of the humerus?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Axillary nerve
Explanation:The most frequently occurring nerve injury in a surgical neck fracture of the humerus is damage to the axillary nerve. The radial nerve is at risk of injury in a mid shaft fracture of the humerus, as it passes through the radial groove. A supracondylar fracture of the humerus increases the likelihood of injury to the brachial artery, which can lead to volkmaan’s ischemic contractures.
The humerus is a long bone that runs from the shoulder blade to the elbow joint. It is mostly covered by muscle but can be felt throughout its length. The head of the humerus is a smooth, rounded surface that connects to the body of the bone through the anatomical neck. The surgical neck, located below the head and tubercles, is the most common site of fracture. The greater and lesser tubercles are prominences on the upper end of the bone, with the supraspinatus and infraspinatus tendons inserted into the greater tubercle. The intertubercular groove runs between the two tubercles and holds the biceps tendon. The posterior surface of the body has a spiral groove for the radial nerve and brachial vessels. The lower end of the humerus is wide and flattened, with the trochlea, coronoid fossa, and olecranon fossa located on the distal edge. The medial epicondyle is prominent and has a sulcus for the ulnar nerve and collateral vessels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Sarah, a 30-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with severe pain in her left big toe. Her first MTP joint is swollen, hot, and red. She is seen biting her nails and hitting her head against the wall. Her caregiver informs you that this is her usual behavior.
Upon joint aspiration, negative birefringent needle-shaped crystals are found. Sarah's medical history includes a learning disability, depression, and asthma. She takes sertraline for depression and frequently uses hydrocortisone cream for eczema. Sarah does not consume red meat and prefers a vegetable-based diet.
What factors predispose Sarah to this type of crystalline arthritis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lesch-Nyhan syndrome
Explanation:If an individual with learning difficulties and a history of gout exhibits self-mutilating behaviors such as head-banging or nail-biting, it may indicate the presence of Lesch-Nyhan syndrome. However, risk factors for gout do not include sertraline, hydrocortisone, or asthma, but rather red meat consumption. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is an X-linked recessive condition caused by a deficiency in hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferase (HGPRTase) and is characterized by hyperuricemia, learning disability, self-mutilating behavior, gout, and renal failure.
Predisposing Factors for Gout
Gout is a type of synovitis caused by the accumulation of monosodium urate monohydrate in the synovium. This condition is triggered by chronic hyperuricaemia, which is characterized by uric acid levels exceeding 0.45 mmol/l. There are two main factors that contribute to the development of hyperuricaemia: decreased excretion of uric acid and increased production of uric acid.
Decreased excretion of uric acid can be caused by various factors, including the use of diuretics, chronic kidney disease, and lead toxicity. On the other hand, increased production of uric acid can be triggered by myeloproliferative/lymphoproliferative disorders, cytotoxic drugs, and severe psoriasis.
In rare cases, gout can also be caused by genetic disorders such as Lesch-Nyhan syndrome, which is characterized by hypoxanthine-guanine phosphoribosyl transferase (HGPRTase) deficiency. This condition is x-linked recessive, which means it is only seen in boys. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome is associated with gout, renal failure, neurological deficits, learning difficulties, and self-mutilation.
It is worth noting that aspirin in low doses (75-150mg) is not believed to have a significant impact on plasma urate levels. Therefore, the British Society for Rheumatology recommends that it should be continued if necessary for cardiovascular prophylaxis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old man is undergoing a block dissection of the groin for a malignant melanoma. During the surgery, the femoral triangle is being explored to control intraoperative bleeding. What structure forms the medial border of the femoral triangle?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Adductor longus
Explanation:The adductor canal is bordered laterally by the vastus medialis and its roof is formed by the sartorius muscle. The adductor longus muscle forms the medial boundary of the femoral triangle.
The Adductor Canal: Anatomy and Contents
The adductor canal, also known as Hunter’s or the subsartorial canal, is a structure located in the middle third of the thigh, immediately distal to the apex of the femoral triangle. It is bordered laterally by the vastus medialis muscle and posteriorly by the adductor longus and adductor magnus muscles. The roof of the canal is formed by the sartorius muscle. The canal terminates at the adductor hiatus.
The adductor canal contains three important structures: the saphenous nerve, the superficial femoral artery, and the superficial femoral vein. The saphenous nerve is a sensory nerve that supplies the skin of the medial leg and foot. The superficial femoral artery is a major artery that supplies blood to the lower limb. The superficial femoral vein is a large vein that drains blood from the lower limb.
In order to expose the contents of the adductor canal, the sartorius muscle must be removed. Understanding the anatomy and contents of the adductor canal is important for medical professionals who perform procedures in this area, such as nerve blocks or vascular surgeries.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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