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  • Question 1 - A 40 year-old Brazilian accountant presented to the medical outpatient clinic with progressive...

    Incorrect

    • A 40 year-old Brazilian accountant presented to the medical outpatient clinic with progressive leg swelling over the last 18 months. His mobility had become increasingly restricted due to both the swelling and shortness of breath on exertion. His father and paternal grandfather had both died from ischaemic heart disease in their 60s. His past medical history was unremarkable. He had smoked 15 cigarettes a day for 15 years and drank 15 units of alcohol per week.

      On examination, his temperature was 36.5ºC, blood pressure was 95/50 mmHg and heart rate was 75 beats per minute. His JVP was elevated to the angle of the jaw. His chest was clear on auscultation, but a third heart sound and pan-systolic murmur were audible on auscultation of the precordium. Bilateral pitting oedema to mid-thigh level was present.

      Investigations:

      Haemoglobin 131 g/L (130-180)
      White cell count 6.9 x 109/L (4.0-11.0)
      Neutrophil count 3.1 x 109/L (2.0-7.5)
      Lymphocyte count 1.9 x 109/L (1.3-3.5)
      Eosinophil count 1.1 X 109/L (0.1-0.4)
      Platelets 260 x 109/L (150-400)

      Sodium 132 mmol/L (135-145)
      Potassium 3.6 mmol/L (3.5-5.0)
      Urea 8.0 mmol/L (2.5-7.5)
      Creatinine 101 mol/L (20-90)
      Fasting plasma glucose 7.2 mmol/L (3.0-6.0)

      Echocardiogram Moderately impaired left ventricular systolic function
      Dilated left ventricle with moderate mitral regurgitation

      What is the most appropriate treatment for the underlying condition?

      Your Answer: Doxycycline

      Correct Answer: Benznidazole

      Explanation:

      This individual is suffering from a persistent case of tropical trypanosomiasis (Chagas disease), which is caused by a parasite that is prevalent in South America and transmitted by triatomine bugs. The initial symptoms of the infection may include a temporary fever and swelling around the injection site. However, in this case, the infection has become chronic and is causing complications such as dilated cardiomyopathy, arrhythmias, and oesophageal dysmotility that resembles achalasia. Although the patient has some risk factors for ischemic heart disease, the likelihood of it affecting them at their age is relatively low. The preferred treatment for tropical trypanosomiasis is currently benznidazole.

      Understanding Trypanosomiasis

      Trypanosomiasis is a protozoal disease that comes in two main forms: African trypanosomiasis, also known as sleeping sickness, and American trypanosomiasis, or Chagas’ disease. The former has two types: Trypanosoma gambiense in West Africa and Trypanosoma rhodesiense in East Africa, both of which are spread by the tsetse fly. Trypanosoma rhodesiense tends to have a more acute course. Symptoms include a painless subcutaneous nodule at the site of infection, intermittent fever, enlargement of posterior cervical lymph nodes, and later, central nervous system involvement such as somnolence, headaches, mood changes, and meningoencephalitis.

      On the other hand, American trypanosomiasis is caused by the protozoan Trypanosoma cruzi. In the acute phase, the vast majority of patients (95%) are asymptomatic, although a chagoma (an erythematous nodule at the site of infection) and periorbital oedema are sometimes seen. Chronic Chagas’ disease mainly affects the heart and gastrointestinal tract, with myocarditis leading to dilated cardiomyopathy (with apical atrophy) and arrhythmias, and gastrointestinal features including megaoesophagus and megacolon causing dysphagia and constipation.

      Early disease management for African trypanosomiasis involves IV pentamidine or suramin, while later disease or central nervous system involvement requires IV melarsoprol. Treatment for American trypanosomiasis is most effective in the acute phase using azole or nitroderivatives such as benznidazole or nifurtimox. Chronic disease management involves treating the complications, such as heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 2 - A 27-year-old man with a history of ankylosing spondylitis and a clavicular fracture...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old man with a history of ankylosing spondylitis and a clavicular fracture presents to haematology clinic one week before starting chemotherapy for acute myeloid leukaemia (AML). He is experiencing chronic lower back pain, night sweats, and fatigue, and is eager to begin treatment. His current medications include paracetamol and ibuprofen. Blood tests reveal a Hb level of 113 g/l, platelet count of 156 * 109/l, and WBC count of 57 * 109/l, with normal electrolyte and renal function.

      Which of the following measures is the least effective in preventing tumour lysis syndrome?

      Your Answer: Stopping NSAID use

      Correct Answer: Urine alkalization

      Explanation:

      To prevent tumour lysis syndrome (TLS) in a patient with AML and a high white cell count who is about to undergo chemotherapy, it is crucial to ensure adequate renal perfusion. This can be achieved by administering aggressive intravenous hydration before treatment and discontinuing NSAIDs like ibuprofen. Additionally, medications like allopurinol and rasburicase can be used to prevent the accumulation of uric acid. However, urine alkalization has not been found to be effective.

      Understanding Tumour Lysis Syndrome

      Tumour lysis syndrome (TLS) is a life-threatening condition that can occur during the treatment of high-grade lymphomas and leukaemias. It is caused by the breakdown of tumour cells and the release of chemicals into the bloodstream. While it can occur without chemotherapy, it is usually triggered by the introduction of combination chemotherapy. Patients at high risk of TLS should be given prophylactic medication such as IV allopurinol or IV rasburicase to prevent the potentially deadly effects of tumour cell lysis.

      TLS leads to a high potassium and high phosphate level in the presence of a low calcium. It should be suspected in any patient presenting with an acute kidney injury in the presence of a high phosphate and high uric acid level. From 2004, TLS has been graded using the Cairo-Bishop scoring system, which takes into account laboratory and clinical factors.

      It is important to be aware of TLS and take preventative measures to avoid its potentially fatal consequences. By understanding the causes and symptoms of TLS, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate treatment and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology
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  • Question 3 - A 70-year-old woman was involved in a car accident as a passenger. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old woman was involved in a car accident as a passenger. The vehicle did not have an airbag and she suffered significant chest bruising. She has a history of chronic stable angina but no other medical issues. The nursing staff requests your assessment as she has suddenly deteriorated a few hours after being admitted.

      Upon admission, her blood pressure is 85/50 mmHg, pulse is regular at 95 beats per minute. She is experiencing peripheral shutdown and pulsus paradoxus. Heart sounds are faint, and her ECG shows widespread T wave inversion.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cardiac tamponade

      Explanation:

      Diagnosis of Cardiac Tamponade

      The patient’s symptoms of muffled heart sounds and pulsus paradoxus, along with peripheral shutdown, suggest the possibility of cardiac tamponade. This condition is likely due to the chest injury sustained from the dashboard. The preferred diagnostic method is urgent bedside echocardiography, followed by ultrasound-guided pericardiocentesis if necessary.

      Other potential causes of low output heart failure, such as myocardial contusion or infarct, would not result in the same symptoms as cardiac tamponade. Myocarditis is also an unlikely cause, as it would not lead to the same quietening of heart sounds or pulsus paradoxus.

      In summary, the patient’s symptoms strongly suggest cardiac tamponade, and prompt diagnosis and treatment are necessary to prevent further complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 4 - An 80-year-old woman is admitted to the acute medical unit with abdominal pain,...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman is admitted to the acute medical unit with abdominal pain, swelling and confusion. She has a medical history of Parkinson's disease, recurrent urinary tract infections and hypertension. She is currently taking amlodipine, co-careldopa and doxazosin. She resides in a care home and is usually pleasant and talkative with no history of memory problems. However, her behavior is out of character. Her observations are heart rate 88 beats per minute, respiratory rate 18/minute, oxygen saturations 97% on room air, blood pressure 145/88 mmHg and temperature 37.1ºC.

      Upon examination, impacted faeces in the rectum and mild suprapubic tenderness are noted. She is inattentive and confused, and her cognition fluctuates. A unilateral resting tremor and mild bradykinesia are also observed. Urinalysis showed leucocytes +++ and nitrites +. An ECG is unremarkable. Blood tests reveal elevated CRP levels, but they normalize after treatment with antibiotics for a presumed urinary tract infection and laxatives and suppositories for constipation.

      Despite these interventions, the patient remains confused, agitated and inattentive, posing a danger to herself and other patients on the ward. Given the likely diagnosis, what is the most appropriate pharmacological management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Quetiapine

      Explanation:

      Quetiapine is a suitable medication for managing acute confusional states in patients with Parkinson’s disease. This is because it can improve cognition and psychotic features without worsening the motor symptoms of the disease. In cases where conservative measures have failed, pharmacological management may be necessary, and oral medications should be attempted first. Haloperidol is not recommended as it is a dopamine-antagonist and can worsen motor symptoms, while olanzapine can cause excessive sedation and worsen motor symptoms as well.

      Understanding Acute Confusional State

      Acute confusional state, also known as delirium or acute organic brain syndrome, is a condition that affects up to 30% of elderly patients admitted to the hospital. It is often caused by a combination of predisposing factors such as age, dementia, significant injury, frailty, and polypharmacy, as well as precipitating events like infections, metabolic imbalances, change of environment, and severe pain.

      The symptoms of acute confusional state can vary widely, but commonly include memory disturbances, agitation or withdrawal, disorientation, mood changes, visual hallucinations, disturbed sleep cycle, and poor attention. Management of the condition involves treating the underlying cause, modifying the environment, and using sedatives like haloperidol or olanzapine. However, care must be taken in patients with Parkinson’s disease, as antipsychotics can worsen their symptoms.

      Overall, understanding acute confusional state is important for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and treatment for affected patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Geriatric Medicine
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  • Question 5 - A 19-year-old male college student arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old male college student arrives at the emergency department complaining of severe itching. He has been experiencing worsening itching on his hands and arms for the past three months since moving into a dormitory with two other students. Despite taking over-the-counter chlorphenamine, the itching has become progressively worse and unmanageable. He has no medical history and does not take any regular medications. As an economics student, he has not been exposed to any chemicals. Upon examination, linear burrows are visible on the sides of some of his fingers on both hands, and there is evidence of excessive scratching, but no signs of infection. The doctor prescribes permethrin 5% as treatment. What instructions should be given for its application?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Apply once to whole body and repeat in one week and advise household contacts to do same

      Explanation:

      Scabies: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment

      Scabies is a skin condition caused by the mite Sarcoptes scabiei, which is spread through prolonged skin contact. It is most commonly seen in children and young adults. The mite burrows into the skin, laying its eggs in the outermost layer. The resulting intense itching is due to a delayed hypersensitivity reaction to the mites and eggs, which occurs about a month after infection. Symptoms include widespread itching, linear burrows on the fingers and wrists, and secondary features such as excoriation and infection.

      The first-line treatment for scabies is permethrin 5%, followed by malathion 0.5% if necessary. Patients should be advised to avoid close physical contact until treatment is complete and to treat all household and close contacts, even if asymptomatic. Clothing, bedding, and towels should be laundered, ironed, or tumble-dried on the first day of treatment to kill off mites. The insecticide should be applied to all areas, including the face and scalp, and left on for 8-12 hours for permethrin or 24 hours for malathion before washing off. Treatment should be repeated after 7 days.

      Crusted scabies, also known as Norwegian scabies, is a severe form of the condition seen in patients with suppressed immunity, particularly those with HIV. The skin is covered in hundreds of thousands of mites, and isolation is essential. Ivermectin is the treatment of choice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 6 - A 65-year-old lifelong smoker presents to his GP with a four day history...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old lifelong smoker presents to his GP with a four day history of wheezing and leg swelling. Despite being prescribed diuretics and other medications, his condition continues to worsen. His BP is 120/70 mmHg with a postural drop of 15 mmHg, and his pulse is 80 bpm and regular. Laboratory tests reveal the following results:
      - Sodium (Na+): 132 mmol/l (normal range: 135-145 mmol/l)
      - Potassium (K+): 4.8 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5-5.0 mmol/l)
      - Urea: 30 mmol/l (normal range: 2.5-6.5 mmol/l)
      - Creatinine (Cr): 190 μmol/l (normal range: 50-120 µmol/l)
      - Bicarbonate (HCO3-): 17 mmol/l (normal range: 24-30 mmol/l)
      Arterial blood gas analysis shows the following results:
      - pH: 7.10 (normal range: 7.35-7.45)
      - pCO2: 7.2 kPa (normal range: 4.6-6.0 kPa)
      - pO2: 6.8 kPa (normal range: 10.5-13.5 kPa)
      What is the most likely diagnosis based on these findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mixed picture of COPD and cardiac failure with renal hypoperfusion

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Acid-Base Imbalance in a Patient with COPD and Cardiac Failure

      This patient presents with a mixed picture of COPD and cardiac failure, resulting in respiratory and metabolic acidosis. The respiratory acidosis is likely due to chronic CO2 retention from COPD and pulmonary edema from cardiac failure. Treatment with diuretics exacerbates the situation by causing renal hypoperfusion and metabolic acidosis.

      Pre-kidney disease alone would not cause the observed symptoms, and severe COPD would result in respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation. Aspirin poisoning can also cause a mixed respiratory alkalosis-metabolic acidosis, but it presents with different symptoms such as tinnitus, vertigo, and hyperpyrexia.

      Acute kidney disease and fluid overload would lead to metabolic acidosis and pulmonary edema, but not carbon dioxide retention and wheezing. Understanding the underlying causes of acid-base imbalances is crucial in providing appropriate treatment for patients with complex medical conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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  • Question 7 - You are summoned to the Emergency department to assess a 20-year-old man who...

    Incorrect

    • You are summoned to the Emergency department to assess a 20-year-old man who is suspected to have overdosed on cocaine. He is experiencing chest pain and is highly agitated, with a blood pressure reading of 195/105 mmHg. What is the recommended first-line medication for treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Midazolam

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Cocaine-Induced Symptoms

      Cocaine use can lead to various sympathetic effects such as tachycardia, hypertension, anxiety, seizures, and headaches. In case of agitation, seizures, and hypertension, benzodiazepines like midazolam are the initial treatment of choice. Beta blockers should be avoided as they can worsen hypertension by causing unopposed alpha activity. Calcium channel blockers like nifedipine can be used as a second line treatment for hypertension if benzodiazepines are not effective. Clonidine or dexmedetomidine, which are centrally acting alpha-2 agonists, can be used to treat anxiety and hypertension with a single agent. However, labetolol is not recommended as it does not abolish coronary artery spasm. It is important to seek medical attention immediately if any of these symptoms occur after cocaine use.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
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  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of severe headache...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of severe headache and sensitivity to light. She has also vomited once. On examination, she has a fever of 38.5 °C and enlarged cervical lymph nodes. Chest auscultation is clear. A CT scan of her head is performed, which rules out any mass lesion and indicates that lumbar puncture can be safely performed. The CSF results are as follows: clear appearance, predominantly mononuclear cells, white cell count of 4.2 per mm3, glucose level of 3.8 mmol/l, plasma glucose level of 5.2 mmol/l, and protein level of 0.51 g/l. What is the most likely diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Coxsackie meningitis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of Meningitis: Causes and CSF Analysis

      Meningitis is a serious condition that can be caused by various pathogens. The cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis is a crucial diagnostic tool in determining the underlying cause of meningitis. Here is a differential diagnosis of meningitis based on the CSF analysis:

      1. Coxsackie Meningitis: The CSF analysis shows an aseptic meningitis, which is most likely caused by enteroviruses such as Coxsackie. Treatment is supportive.

      2. Meningococcal Meningitis: A bacterial meningitis cannot be ruled out on clinical grounds, and therefore urgent treatment with IV antibiotics is necessary. The CSF result is not consistent with bacterial meningitis.

      3. Herpes Simplex Encephalitis: This is unlikely as the patient does not exhibit symptoms of encephalopathy.

      4. Pneumococcal Meningitis: The CSF is not consistent with bacterial meningitis.

      5. Tuberculous Meningitis: The CSF typically shows elevated protein, very low glucose, and a mononuclear pleocytosis. Three serial CSF samples should be obtained for acid-fast bacilli smear and culture.

      In conclusion, the CSF analysis is a crucial diagnostic tool in determining the underlying cause of meningitis. Treatment should be initiated promptly based on the suspected cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 9 - A 65-year-old man went on a road trip with his family, and after...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man went on a road trip with his family, and after arriving at their destination and settling in, his son noticed that he became confused suddenly, repeatedly asking where they were and how they got there. He could not remember events that occurred in the past 24 hours, and when told the answers to his questions, would ask the same question 5 minutes later. There was no change in his personality, no change in his speech, nor any muscle weakness. He is able to recall his address, the names of his sons and wife, and his date of birth.

      His son said his father did not suffer any trauma during the road trip, and did not lose consciousness anytime throughout the day. The patient's past medical history includes hypertension and diabetes, and he takes lisinopril 10 mg once daily, and metformin 500mg twice daily.

      On examination the patient was alert, but constantly asked where he was and why was he there. He was afebrile, heart rate 76 bpm, blood pressure 142/72 mmHg, respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation of 98% on air. Neurological examination was unremarkable, but his abbreviated mental test score was 6/10.

      His investigation results were as follow:

      C Reactive protein 3 mg/l
      Haemoglobin 13.9 g/dl
      White cell count 6.2 x 10^9/L
      Na+ 140 mmol/l
      K+ 4.1 mmol/l
      Urea 4.5 mmol/l
      Creatinine 72 µmol/l
      Corrected calcium 2.35 mmol/l
      Plasma glucose 7.2 mmol/l

      Computer Tomography (CT) head scan No acute intracranial pathology.

      Over the next 12 hours, his memory improves and he is discharged from the observation ward.

      What is the best advice for the patient with regards to driving in the future?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: DVLA need not be notified, no driving restrictions

      Explanation:

      This woman experienced a bout of transient global amnesia, a neurological disorder that causes sudden and temporary memory loss lasting up to 24 hours. Patients may exhibit perseveration, repeatedly asking the same questions due to their inability to retain short-term memories, while still being able to recall long-term memories. The cause of this condition is currently unknown.

      According to DVLA guidelines, individuals with transient global amnesia are permitted to drive as long as they have ruled out epilepsy, any after-effects of head injury, and other conditions that may affect their awareness. There is no need to inform the DVLA in such cases.

      The DVLA has guidelines for individuals with neurological disorders who wish to drive cars or motorcycles. However, the rules for drivers of heavy goods vehicles are much stricter. For individuals with epilepsy or seizures, they must not drive and must inform the DVLA. If an individual has had a first unprovoked or isolated seizure, they must take six months off driving if there are no relevant structural abnormalities on brain imaging and no definite epileptiform activity on EEG. If these conditions are not met, the time off driving is increased to 12 months. Individuals with established epilepsy or those with multiple unprovoked seizures may qualify for a driving license if they have been free from any seizure for 12 months. If there have been no seizures for five years (with medication if necessary), a ’til 70 license is usually restored. Individuals should not drive while anti-epilepsy medication is being withdrawn and for six months after the last dose.

      For individuals with syncope, a simple faint has no restriction on driving. A single episode that is explained and treated requires four weeks off driving. A single unexplained episode requires six months off driving, while two or more episodes require 12 months off. For individuals with other conditions such as stroke or TIA, they must take one month off driving. They may not need to inform the DVLA if there is no residual neurological deficit. If an individual has had multiple TIAs over a short period of time, they must take three months off driving and inform the DVLA. For individuals who have had a craniotomy, such as for meningioma, they must take one year off driving. If an individual has had a pituitary tumor, a craniotomy requires six months off driving, while trans-sphenoidal surgery allows driving when there is no debarring residual impairment likely to affect safe driving. Individuals with narcolepsy/cataplexy must cease driving on diagnosis but can restart once there is satisfactory control of symptoms. For individuals with chronic neurological disorders such as multiple sclerosis or motor neuron disease, they should inform the DVLA and complete the PK1 form (application for driving license holders’ state of health). If the tumor is a benign meningioma and there is no seizure history, the license can be reconsidered six months after surgery if the individual remains seizure-free.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 10 - A 59-year-old man with no permanent residence presents to the Emergency department with...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man with no permanent residence presents to the Emergency department with difficulty walking. He has a past medical history of alcoholism and type 2 diabetes. The patient reports that his shoes have worn out and due to decreased sensation, he was unaware that he had stepped on a nail. The lesion on his right foot has been present for about three weeks.

      What is the next step in assessing his foot injury?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Plain x-ray foot

      Explanation:

      The next crucial step is to gather valuable information regarding the foot infection’s severity. After three weeks of injury, plain x-ray should reveal changes that indicate osteomyelitis, such as soft tissue swelling, bone demineralisation, cortical irregularity, and an elevated periosteum. Further evaluation of the infection’s extent and potential surgical approaches for debridement may require MRI imaging of the foot. Inflammatory markers are not specific indicators of infection, and ultrasound of the foot is only useful for visualising soft tissue swelling or pus/fluid collection. A wound swab may reveal a range of bacteria, which is why a broader spectrum antibiotic like co-amoxiclav is often prescribed for diabetic patients.

      Understanding Osteomyelitis: Types, Causes, and Treatment

      Osteomyelitis is a bone infection that can be classified into two types: haematogenous and non-haematogenous. Haematogenous osteomyelitis is caused by bacteria in the bloodstream and is usually monomicrobial. It is more common in children and can be caused by risk factors such as sickle cell anaemia, intravenous drug use, immunosuppression, and infective endocarditis. On the other hand, non-haematogenous osteomyelitis is caused by the spread of infection from adjacent soft tissues or direct injury to the bone. It is often polymicrobial and more common in adults, with risk factors such as diabetic foot ulcers, pressure sores, diabetes mellitus, and peripheral arterial disease.

      Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause of osteomyelitis, except in patients with sickle-cell anaemia where Salmonella species are more prevalent. To diagnose osteomyelitis, MRI is the imaging modality of choice, with a sensitivity of 90-100%.

      The treatment for osteomyelitis involves a course of antibiotics for six weeks. Flucloxacillin is the preferred antibiotic, but clindamycin can be used for patients who are allergic to penicillin. Understanding the types, causes, and treatment of osteomyelitis is crucial in managing this bone infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Rheumatology
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  • Question 11 - A 65-year-old caucasian male presented to heart failure clinic with shortness of breath...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old caucasian male presented to heart failure clinic with shortness of breath on exertion. He has a history of heart failure, initially diagnosed four years previously.

      His current medications included ramipril, aspirin, bisoprolol, simvastatin and spironolactone. He is concerned that despite all of these medications his breathlessness is worsening. In addition to this he is now using four pillows to sleep at night.

      On examination he is comfortable at rest with fine crackles at both lung bases and pitting oedema reaching up to both knees. His observations reveal a respiratory rate of 16 breaths per minute, oxygen saturation 96% in room air, blood pressure 110/85 mmHg, heart rate 70 beats per minute, temperature 37.2ºC.

      His ECG revealed a normal sinus rhythm with narrow QRS complexes. A recent echocardiogram completed two weeks previously demonstrated an ejection fraction of 30%. His current medications were reviewed and he was found to be on the maximum dose for each of these.

      His baseline U&E results are as follows:

      Na+ 136 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 4.5 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Bicarbonate 26 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      Urea 6.7 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 110 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      What is the best course of treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sacubitril-Valsartan (after stopping ACE inhibitor)

      Explanation:

      Chronic heart failure can be managed through drug therapy, as outlined in the updated guidelines issued by NICE in 2018. While loop diuretics are useful in managing fluid overload, they do not reduce mortality in the long term. The first-line treatment for all patients is an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Aldosterone antagonists are the standard second-line treatment, but both ACE inhibitors and aldosterone antagonists can cause hyperkalaemia, so potassium levels should be monitored. SGLT-2 inhibitors are increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction, as they reduce glucose reabsorption and increase urinary glucose excretion. Third-line treatment options include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, and cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments include annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 12 - You are evaluating a 75-year-old man in the respiratory clinic who presented to...

    Incorrect

    • You are evaluating a 75-year-old man in the respiratory clinic who presented to the hospital with worsening dyspnea over several months, which acutely worsened in the days leading up to his admission. He has a history of smoking with a 50 pack year history and no other medical or surgical conditions. On examination, he had reduced breath sounds, expiratory wheeze, and fine bibasal crepitations that did not change with coughing. He was diagnosed with a non-infective exacerbation of newly diagnosed chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and discharged on inhalers. However, his dyspnea persists with an MRC dyspnoea score of 3-4. Further investigations revealed centrilobular emphysematous change in the upper lobes bilaterally, subpleural reticular opacities, and honeycombing in both lung bases. What is the correct diagnosis for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He has combined pulmonary fibrosis and emphysema (CPFE)

      Explanation:

      Patients with combined pulmonary fibrosis and emphysema (CPFE) have a much higher incidence of lung cancer compared to those with emphysema alone. CPFE is characterized by upper-lobe emphysema, lower-lobe fibrosis, preserved lung volume, and severely reduced gas exchange capacity. This is due to the counterbalanced effects of emphysema and pulmonary fibrosis, which both lead to reduced gas exchange. CPFE patients also have an increased risk of developing pulmonary arterial hypertension, which may require lung transplantation. HRCT findings of basal predominance fibrosis and honeycombing are consistent with a usual interstitial pneumonia (UIP) pattern, while non-specific interstitial pneumonia (NSIP) is characterized by bilateral ground-glass opacity with minimal honeycombing. Smoking-related emphysema is typically upper lobe predominant and centrilobular.

      Understanding COPD: Symptoms and Diagnosis

      Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is a common medical condition that includes chronic bronchitis and emphysema. Smoking is the leading cause of COPD, and patients with mild disease may only need occasional use of a bronchodilator, while severe cases may result in frequent hospital admissions due to exacerbations. Symptoms of COPD include a productive cough, dyspnea, wheezing, and in severe cases, right-sided heart failure leading to peripheral edema.

      To diagnose COPD, doctors may recommend post-bronchodilator spirometry to demonstrate airflow obstruction, a chest x-ray to check for hyperinflation, bullae, and flat hemidiaphragm, and to exclude lung cancer. A full blood count may also be necessary to exclude secondary polycythemia, and body mass index (BMI) calculation is important. The severity of COPD is categorized using the FEV1, with a ratio of less than 70% indicating airflow obstruction. The grading system has changed following the 2010 NICE guidelines, with Stage 1 – mild now including patients with an FEV1 greater than 80% predicted but with a post-bronchodilator FEV1/FVC ratio of less than 0.7. Measuring peak expiratory flow is of limited value in COPD, as it may underestimate the degree of airflow obstruction.

      In summary, COPD is a common condition caused by smoking that can result in a range of symptoms and severity. Diagnosis involves various tests to check for airflow obstruction, exclude lung cancer, and determine the severity of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 13 - An 80-year-old female is referred to the outpatient department for hypertension. She has...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old female is referred to the outpatient department for hypertension. She has been generally healthy but recently visited the gynaecologists for incontinence, where hypertension was detected. Upon examination, the patient has a BMI of 25 kg/m2, a pulse of 80 beats per minute, a blood pressure of 188/78 mmHg, and normal heart sounds. Fundal examination reveals silver wiring. What class of drugs would be the most suitable for treating this patient's hypertension?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Calcium antagonist

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Isolated Systolic Hypertension in Elderly Patients

      Elderly patients with isolated systolic hypertension, where the systolic blood pressure is greater than 160 mmHg and diastolic blood pressure is below 90 mmHg, are at risk of morbidity and mortality. Studies such as Systolic Hypertension in the Elderly Program and Syst-Eur have shown that thiazides and calcium antagonists are the preferred drugs for reducing these risks. However, incontinence may be a side effect of diuretic therapy, making calcium antagonists a more suitable option for some patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 14 - A 25-year-old Japanese woman was brought to the Emergency Room on a stretcher...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old Japanese woman was brought to the Emergency Room on a stretcher as she was found lying on the floor of her apartment unable to move by her roommate. She had participated in a 5K race at a local park, the day before and had eaten a full chocolate cake before going to bed. She got up around 4 am to get a glass of water and noticed weakness in her limbs. She could hardly hold the glass and finally fell on the kitchen floor. Over the past few weeks, she has suffered from increasing heart palpitations and stress related to her upcoming exams.

      Upon examination, she was of average build and anxious. She gave a clear account of the progression of her illness. Pulse was 110/min and irregularly irregular. Blood pressure was 130/90 mmHg. Cranial nerves were normal. Neck muscle power was 4/5. Shoulder girdle, truncal and pelvic girdle muscles 3/5. Tendon reflexes were decreased and plantar were absent. Sensation was intact.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Periodic paralysis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis for Proximal Weakness and Hypokalemia

      Thyrotoxicosis with hypokalemic periodic paralysis is more prevalent in individuals of Chinese and Japanese descent. Attacks are similar to those of familial hypokalemic periodic paralysis and typically occur after strenuous exercise or a carbohydrate-rich meal. Potassium chloride can restore muscle power, and treatment of hyperthyroidism can prevent further attacks. Routine blood tests may reveal significant hypokalemia. Transverse myelitis, Guillain-Barré syndrome, and embolic stroke are less likely diagnoses due to the lack of upper motor neuron signs and preserved sensation or symmetry of weakness. Polymyositis is a reasonable differential diagnosis, but the rapid onset makes a periodic paralysis disorder more likely.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 15 - A 23-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with blood in her urine....

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old female presents to the Emergency Department with blood in her urine. She produces a sample, demonstrates painless rose coloured macroscopic haematuria. She reports no past medical history except a single episode of a urinary tract infection about 4 years ago and a recent 'cough and sore throat' that had got better two weeks ago. Her family has no history of bladder or kidney problems except her mother having 'shockwave treatment to her kidney tubes a few years ago'. She is sexually active with a regular partner, her last menstrual period was 2 weeks ago.

      On examination, her abdomen is soft and non-tender with no organomegaly. Urine dip demonstrates 4+ blood, 1+ protein. Her blood tests are as follows:

      Hb 125 g/l
      Platelets 259 * 109/l
      WBC 12.1 * 109/l

      Na+ 139 mmol/l
      K+ 4.8 mmol/l
      Urea 5.6 mmol/l
      Creatinine 72 µmol/l
      CRP 3 mg/l

      Beta HCG negative
      HIV negative
      CMV IgG positive
      CMV IgM negative
      EBV IgG positive
      Anti-streptolysin titre positive

      Chest radiography is unremarkable. Ultrasound of her renal tract shows normal sized kidneys with no hydronephrosis.

      What is the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis

      Explanation:

      If you recently had a respiratory tract infection, you should be aware of the possibility of developing mesangioproliferative glomerulonephropathy or diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis. The former is caused by IgA deposition following an upper respiratory tract infection, while the latter is caused by reduced C3 and diffuse glomerular proliferation around 2 to 3 weeks after a streptococcal infection. Minimal change disease is characterized by significant proteinuria due to the loss of small protein molecules through the deficient basement membrane. It is unlikely that you have membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis, which is most commonly associated with hepatitis C, cryoglobulinemia, and lipodystrophy, as you have no risk factors for this condition.

      Post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis is a condition that typically occurs 7-14 days after an infection caused by group A beta-haemolytic Streptococcus, usually Streptococcus pyogenes. It is more common in young children and is caused by the deposition of immune complexes (IgG, IgM, and C3) in the glomeruli. Symptoms include headache, malaise, visible haematuria, proteinuria, oedema, hypertension, and oliguria. Blood tests may show a raised anti-streptolysin O titre and low C3, which confirms a recent streptococcal infection.

      It is important to note that IgA nephropathy and post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis are often confused as they both can cause renal disease following an upper respiratory tract infection. Renal biopsy features of post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis include acute, diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis with endothelial proliferation and neutrophils. Electron microscopy may show subepithelial ‘humps’ caused by lumpy immune complex deposits, while immunofluorescence may show a granular or ‘starry sky’ appearance.

      Despite its severity, post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis carries a good prognosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine
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  • Question 16 - A 38-year-old male presents to your outpatient clinic with a progressive history over...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old male presents to your outpatient clinic with a progressive history over the past 5 years of increasing, progressive 'clumsiness'. His work colleagues had a long running joke with him that he is poorly coordinated for about the past five years but in recent weeks, he has noticed that he is unable to write legibly or even hold a key still using either hand to open a door. He denies any recent weight loss of night sweats, is otherwise healthy with no other past medical history. He is a lifelong non-smoker with a minimal alcohol history and lives with his wife and 2 children.

      On examination, his cranial nerves were unremarkable except for mild multidirectional nystagmus at primary gaze. Fundoscopy was normal. Limb examination revealed a significant impairment of finger-nose and heel-shin testing. His gait, tone, power, sensation and reflexes were normal with downgoing plantars. A brief mini-mental state examination scored 30/30. An MRI head is awaited. His blood tests are as below:

      Hb 158 g/l
      Platelets 323 * 109/l
      WBC 6.5 * 109/l

      Na+ 141 mmol/l
      K+ 4.9 mmol/l
      Urea 6.6 mmol/l
      Creatinine 85 µmol/l
      CRP 2 mg/l
      Creatine kinase 223 IU/l (50-335)
      TSH 3.3 mu/l
      Free T4 17 nmol/l
      HIV negative
      Anti-neuronal antibodies negative

      Which investigation is most likely to yield the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Neurogenetics testing

      Explanation:

      The patient has a chronic onset syndrome of pure ataxia, which is likely to be a spinocerebellar ataxia (SCA), specifically SCA6. Miller-Fisher syndrome, prion disease such as Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD), and paraneoplastic syndrome are key differential diagnoses that need to be ruled out. Vitamin deficiency is unlikely. Neurogenetic testing for SCA is the most likely way to diagnose the patient.

      Understanding Spinocerebellar Ataxia

      Spinocerebellar ataxia is a collection of genetic disorders that are inherited in an autosomal dominant manner. These disorders are characterized by the gradual onset of ataxic symptoms, including tremors, nystagmus, and gait disturbances. Most individuals with spinocerebellar ataxia begin to experience symptoms in their third or fourth decade of life.

      Spinocerebellar ataxia is a progressive condition that can significantly impact an individual’s quality of life. While there is currently no cure for this disorder, there are treatments available that can help manage symptoms and slow the progression of the disease. It is important for individuals with spinocerebellar ataxia to work closely with their healthcare providers to develop a comprehensive treatment plan that addresses their unique needs and goals. With proper care and management, individuals with spinocerebellar ataxia can continue to lead fulfilling lives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 17 - A 35-year-old woman with a history of heavy smoking presents to the clinic...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman with a history of heavy smoking presents to the clinic with increased abdominal swelling. She has noticed increasing abdominal girth over the past 4-6 months.
      On examination, there are signs of chronic lung disease, including wheezing and shortness of breath, and she also has a persistent cough. Her BP is 110/70 mmHg.
      Investigations:
      s
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 120 g/l 135 - 175 g/l
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 90 fL 80 - 100 fl
      White cell count (WCC) 6.2 × 109/l 4.0 - 11.0 × 109/l
      Platelets (PLT) 250 × 109/l 150 - 400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 138 mmol/l 135 - 145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.2 mmol/l 3.5 - 5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine (Cr) 75 µmol/l 50 - 120 µmol/l
      CA-125 75 u/ml < 35 u/ml
      What is the most likely cause for the increased CA-125?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cirrhosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Causes of Elevated CA-125: A Case Study

      A patient presenting with ascites and a raised CA-125 raises the suspicion of ovarian cancer, but it is important to consider other potential causes. In this case, the patient has a history of alcohol use and features of chronic liver disease, making cirrhosis the most likely option. Cirrhosis with ascites is a well-known cause of a false positive CA-125.

      While colon cancer and ovarian cancer can also produce a falsely positive CA-125, the patient’s clinical presentation and history make these less likely options. Hepatitis B infection is not strongly associated with an elevated CA-125, and hepatocellular carcinoma is not typically associated with a rise in CA-125.

      If ovarian cancer is suspected, the Risk of Malignancy Index (RMI) can be used to assess the risk, combining transvaginal US, menopausal status, and CA-125 level. Women with a score >250 should be referred for specialist assessment. In women with a family history of ovarian carcinoma, genetic screening for BRCA1/2 is recommended to assess future ovarian carcinoma risk.

      Overall, understanding the potential causes of elevated CA-125 is crucial in accurately diagnosing and treating patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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  • Question 18 - You assess a 29-year-old woman with Hashimoto's thyroiditis at the thyroid clinic. She...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 29-year-old woman with Hashimoto's thyroiditis at the thyroid clinic. She has been on a steady dose of 100 μg of thyroxine for the past few years, and her TSH was measured at 2.9 mU/l about 6 months ago (normal range 0.4-5). She is now 12 weeks pregnant, and you need to determine how to manage her thyroxine therapy during this pregnancy.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increase her thyroxine dose by an average of 25-50 mcg

      Explanation:

      Managing Hypothyroidism in Pregnancy: Adjusting Thyroxine Dose

      During pregnancy, it is important to monitor thyroid function in patients with hypothyroidism. Thyroid function tests should be assessed at different stages of pregnancy, and an average increase in thyroxine requirements of 25-50 μg is expected. This increased need for thyroxine stops immediately after delivery. Patients with positive thyroid autoantibodies have a higher risk of spontaneous abortion, while suboptimal treatment for hypothyroidism increases the risk of pregnancy-induced hypertension, anaemia, and postpartum haemorrhage. TSH should be monitored, and guidelines suggest keeping it below 3.0. Adjusting the thyroxine dose is necessary to manage hypothyroidism in pregnancy, but reducing it by 50 mcg or increasing it by 100 mcg can lead to symptomatic hypothyroidism or hyperthyroidism, respectively. Keeping the dose unchanged will result in hypothyroidism as pregnancy progresses. Therefore, increasing the dose by an average of 25-50 mcg is the appropriate course of action.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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  • Question 19 - You have admitted a 42-year-old man onto the intensive care unit with sepsis...

    Incorrect

    • You have admitted a 42-year-old man onto the intensive care unit with sepsis of unknown origin. A right-sided internal jugular central venous catheter has been inserted, and you are examining the chest X-ray to verify the catheter tip's placement. What is the most secure position to leave the catheter tip?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: In the lower superior vena cava

      Explanation:

      Proper Placement of Central Venous Catheter Tips

      Central venous catheters are commonly used in medical procedures to administer medication or fluids directly into the bloodstream. It is important to ensure that the catheter tip is properly placed to avoid complications. A post-procedure radiograph can confirm the location of the catheter tip. If the tip is above the carina, it is likely outside the right atrium in the lower superior vena cava. It is recommended that the catheter tip be positioned in the long axis of the SVC without acute abutment to the vein wall.

      Left-sided catheters pose a higher risk of complications if they are placed in the innominate veins or upper SVC due to the abutment of the catheter tip to the vessel wall. This can cause pain on injection, thrombosis, and infection. It is considered negligent to place the catheter tip in the right atrium as it can lead to arrhythmias, tricuspid valve dysfunction, and placement in the coronary sinus.

      Proper placement of central venous catheter tips is crucial to avoid complications and ensure effective treatment. Radiographs should be used to confirm the location of the catheter tip, and it should be positioned in the long axis of the SVC without acute abutment to the vein wall. Left-sided catheters should be carefully placed to avoid erosion of the vessel wall and other complications. Placing the catheter tip in the right atrium is considered negligent and can lead to serious health issues.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiology
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  • Question 20 - A 70-year-old man has been experiencing progressive weakness in his lower limbs for...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man has been experiencing progressive weakness in his lower limbs for the past four months. He finds it difficult to get up from his armchair and walk, and tires easily during any activity. He has also been experiencing a dry mouth and constipation, which is sometimes painful and incomplete. His GP has identified a positive faecal occult blood sample and he has lost 3 kg in weight over the past 2 months. On examination, his blood pressure was 180/90 mmHg, heart rate 102/min. There was no clubbing or skin rash. His BMI was 24. He was alert and cognition was normal. Pupils were 2.5 mm on each side and were non-reactive to light. He also had slight bilateral ptosis. Other cranial nerves were normal. Hip flexors were 4/5. His grip strength also appeared weak bilaterally, but improved with reinforcement. Tendon reflexes were symmetrical and hypoactive. Planters were flexors. No muscle tenderness was present. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome

      Explanation:

      Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome (LEMS) is a type of myasthenia that is often associated with paraneoplastic syndrome, particularly in patients with small cell lung cancer or other types of cancer. Unlike myasthenia gravis, LEMS primarily affects the muscles of the pelvic and shoulder girdles and trunk, causing weakness and fatigue. Autonomic disturbances, such as dry mouth and constipation, are common, and cranial nerves may also be affected. Repetitive nerve stimulation can reveal an incremental response. Treatment options include medication, immunoglobulin therapy, plasmapheresis, corticosteroids, and excision of the primary tumor. Other conditions, such as lumbosacral disc disease, polymyositis, cauda equina syndrome, and spinal-muscular atrophy, have different symptoms and are not consistent with the presentation of LEMS.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 21 - A 78-year-old male has been receiving medical care for the past week due...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old male has been receiving medical care for the past week due to a full sensitive E. coli bacteraemia that was believed to have originated from the urinary system. After completing the treatment, the patient is still in the hospital for physiotherapy. However, the patient experiences a sudden increase in temperature the following day, and cultures reveal the regrowth of E. coli.

      What would be the most suitable course of action to take next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Image the renal tract

      Explanation:

      Consulting with a microbiologist regarding this case would likely lead to a recommendation for imaging. It is unusual for the same organism to regrow so quickly in a patient who has received appropriate antimicrobial treatment, suggesting that there may be an untreated source of the bacteria. In this case, a renal abscess may be the culprit, which could potentially be detected through ultrasound.

      It is not necessary to switch to meropenem if the organism has responded well to antibiotics with a narrower spectrum.

      It is unlikely that E. coli is the cause of hospital-acquired pneumonia.

      If a renal abscess is identified, the next step would be to refer the patient to a urologist.

      Imaging should be the first step in determining whether a nephrostomy is necessary.

      Escherichia coli: A Common Gut Commensal with Various Disease Manifestations

      Escherichia coli is a type of Gram-negative rod that is commonly found in the gut as a normal commensal. It is a facultative anaerobe and can ferment lactose. However, E. coli infections can lead to various diseases in humans, including diarrhoeal illnesses, urinary tract infections (UTIs), and neonatal meningitis. The classification of E. coli is based on the antigens that can trigger an immune response. These antigens include the lipopolysaccharide layer (O), capsule (K), and flagellin (H). For instance, neonatal meningitis caused by E. coli is usually due to a serotype that contains the capsular antigen K-1.

      One particular strain of E. coli, O157:H7, is associated with severe, haemorrhagic, watery diarrhoea. It has a high mortality rate and can lead to haemolytic uraemic syndrome. This strain is often transmitted through contaminated ground beef. Despite being a common gut commensal, E. coli can cause various diseases that can be life-threatening. Therefore, proper hygiene and food safety practices are essential in preventing E. coli infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 22 - A 45-year-old female with a recent diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old female with a recent diagnosis of type 2 diabetes mellitus presents with fatigue. She has a history of obesity and high cholesterol levels. She does not smoke and only drinks alcohol on special occasions. Her sister has Graves' disease. During the examination, a soft yellow plaque is noted on her eyelids bilaterally.

      The following tests were conducted:

      - Hb: 13 g/dl
      - Platelets: 175 * 10^9/l
      - WBC: 5 * 10^9/l
      - MCV: 80 fl
      - MCH: 0.4 fmol/cell
      - MCHC: 20 mmol/l
      - Na+: 135 mmol/l
      - K+: 4 mmol/l
      - Creatinine: 80 µmol/l
      - Urea: 3 mmol/l
      - ESR: 40 mm/hr
      - Alkaline phosphatase: 300 IU/l
      - Gamma glutamyl transpeptidase: 100 IU/l
      - Alanine transaminase: 60 IU/l
      - Aspartate transaminase: 15 IU/l
      - Bilirubin: 10 µmol/l
      - Serum albumin: 40 g/l
      - Serum cholesterol: 7 mmol/l

      What additional investigation would be most useful in reaching a diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antimitochondrial antibodies (AMA)

      Explanation:

      The diagnosis of primary biliary cholangitis (PBC) can be made with a high degree of accuracy using the anti-mitochondrial antibody (AMA) test, which has a high sensitivity and specificity for PBC. When combined with a clinical history that supports the diagnosis, no further testing is necessary. Liver biopsy is becoming less commonly used as a diagnostic tool due to the high value and specificity of AMA and the focal nature of the liver changes in PBC. While serum IgM levels are elevated in pure PBC, they are not sensitive or specific enough to be relied upon for diagnosis. In this case, there is no indication from the patient’s history or physical examination to suggest an increased risk of viral hepatitis.

      Primary biliary cholangitis is a chronic liver disorder that affects middle-aged women. It is thought to be an autoimmune condition that damages interlobular bile ducts, causing progressive cholestasis and potentially leading to cirrhosis. The classic presentation is itching in a middle-aged woman. It is associated with Sjogren’s syndrome, rheumatoid arthritis, systemic sclerosis, and thyroid disease. Diagnosis involves immunology and imaging tests. Management includes ursodeoxycholic acid, cholestyramine for pruritus, and liver transplantation in severe cases. Complications include cirrhosis, osteomalacia and osteoporosis, and an increased risk of hepatocellular carcinoma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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  • Question 23 - A 27-year-old male presents with hypertension, agitation, and sweats that have been ongoing...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old male presents with hypertension, agitation, and sweats that have been ongoing for six months. He has no significant family history, smoked 10 cigarettes per day, and drinks minimally. His current medications for hypertension include bendroflumethiazide 2.5 mg/d and ramipril 10 mg per day. On examination, his blood pressure is 176/94 mmHg, and his BMI is 23.5 kg/m2. Further investigations reveal a urine free metadrenaline level of 12 µmol/24 hr (<5) and a fasting plasma calcitonin level of 100 ng/L (0-11.5). An MRI scan of the abdomen shows a 3.5 cm mass in the right adrenal gland. What other diagnosis is likely to be associated with his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hyperparathyroidism

      Explanation:

      Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia Type 2: A Rare Genetic Disorder

      Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia (MEN) is a rare genetic disorder that affects the endocrine system. There are two types of MEN, type 1 and type 2. Type 1 is associated with pancreatic and pituitary neoplasia, while type 2 is characterized by phaeochromocytoma and medullary cell thyroid neoplasia, and is often associated with hyperparathyroidism. In this patient’s case, the features suggest MEN type 2, which is usually inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern. However, in this case, there appears to be a spontaneous mutation as there is no family history of note.

      It is important to investigate phaeochromocytoma in young patients for potential underlying disorders such as neurofibromatosis, MEN, and von Hippel-Lindau. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial in managing the symptoms and preventing complications associated with MEN. Therefore, patients with a family history of MEN or those presenting with symptoms suggestive of the disorder should undergo genetic testing and regular screening to detect any potential neoplasia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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  • Question 24 - A 35-year-old man presents 10 h after a sudden-onset occipital headache, which began...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents 10 h after a sudden-onset occipital headache, which began abruptly during sex.
      CT scan is unremarkable; lumbar puncture reveals evidence of xanthochromia. His blood pressure on admission is 140/90 mmHg.
      What is the most suitable course of action for this individual?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with post-coital headache and xanthochromia, subarachnoid hemorrhage (SAH) should be suspected. While not all post-coital headaches are due to SAH, around 4% of SAH cases occur after sexual intercourse. Therefore, it is important to consider magnetic resonance angiography to determine if there is a lesion that may bleed again or require intervention.

      Aspirin therapy should not be commenced in this case, as xanthochromia suggests a potential intracerebral hemorrhage. Reassurance and discharge are also not appropriate, as a vascular lesion at further risk of bleeding should be ruled out.

      Similarly, there is little evidence to support acute blood pressure control with angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor therapy in this situation. Discharge without ruling out a significant vascular lesion is also not recommended.

      If xanthochromia is absent, atypical migraine may be considered as an alternative diagnosis. However, prescribing sumatriptan therapy at this point is not appropriate for a patient with post-coital headache and xanthochromia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 25 - A 35-year-old amateur bodybuilder presents to the Hepatology Clinic with abnormal liver function...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old amateur bodybuilder presents to the Hepatology Clinic with abnormal liver function tests. He reports taking various dietary supplements but denies using any prescription medications. On examination, his blood pressure is 140/90 mmHg, and his pulse is 70 bpm and regular. He has significant muscle development and normal pubic and axillary hair, but his testes appear smaller than expected. Laboratory tests show the following results:

      - Hemoglobin (Hb): 180 g/l (normal range: 135-175 g/l)
      - White cell count (WCC): 7.5 × 109/l (normal range: 4.0-11.0 × 109/l)
      - Platelets (PLT): 320 × 109/l (normal range: 150-400 × 109/l)
      - Sodium (Na+): 142 mmol/l (normal range: 135-145 mmol/l)
      - Potassium (K+): 4.2 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5-5.0 mmol/l)
      - Creatinine (Cr): 100 µmol/l (normal range: 50-120 µmol/l)

      Which of the following parameters is most likely to be decreased in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Luteinising hormone (LH)

      Explanation:

      Patients who abuse androgens often hide the truth about their use of exogenous testosterone. The symptoms of reduced testicular volume and elevated haemoglobin levels suggest androgen abuse, which is common among bodybuilders. Androgen abuse can also cause abnormal liver function and lipid abnormalities, such as a reduction in HDL cholesterol and an increase in LDL cholesterol, which can increase the risk of cardiovascular disease. Androgen administration can activate the haemostatic system, leading to an increase in levels of prothrombin fragment 1, antithrombin III, and protein S, and a reduction in levels of TPA and its inhibitor. The presence of androgenisation with reduced testicular volume suggests exogenous testosterone administration, which can be detected by measuring the testosterone/epitestosterone ratio.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
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  • Question 26 - A 32-year-old man comes to the endocrine clinic for follow-up. He was diagnosed...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man comes to the endocrine clinic for follow-up. He was diagnosed with Addison's disease a year ago and has been successfully treated with hydrocortisone. He reports feeling much better and has regained his weight and energy levels. He is planning a trip to South Africa and has already prepared by ensuring he has enough hydrocortisone and medical insurance. What precautions should he take before his travels?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Issue supply of IM hydrocortisone

      Explanation:

      Patients with Addison’s disease should have an IM hydrocortisone injection kit to prevent adrenal crisis, especially when travelling. They can still receive anti-malarial treatment and fly, but should visit a travel clinic for advice on vaccinations and malaria risk.

      Addison’s disease is a condition that requires patients to undergo glucocorticoid and mineralocorticoid replacement therapy. This treatment involves taking a combination of hydrocortisone and fludrocortisone. Hydrocortisone is usually given in 2 or 3 divided doses, with patients requiring 20-30 mg per day, mostly in the first half of the day. Fludrocortisone is also included in the treatment regimen. Patient education is crucial in managing Addison’s disease. Patients should be reminded not to miss glucocorticoid doses, and they may consider wearing Medic Alert bracelets and steroid cards. Additionally, patients should be provided with hydrocortisone for injection with needles and syringes to treat an adrenal crisis. It is also important to discuss how to adjust the glucocorticoid dose during an intercurrent illness.

      During an intercurrent illness, the glucocorticoid dose should be doubled, while the fludrocortisone dose remains the same. The Addison’s Clinical Advisory Panel has produced guidelines that detail specific scenarios for managing intercurrent illness. These guidelines can be found on the CKS link for more information. Proper management of Addison’s disease is essential to ensure that patients receive the appropriate treatment and care they need to manage their condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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  • Question 27 - A 38-year-old woman presents for review. She admits to unprotected sex with a...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman presents for review. She admits to unprotected sex with a number of partners and has suffered a dry cough, shortness of breath and weight loss over the past few months. Her major current complaint is that has had progressive lower limb swelling which has worsened over the past few weeks. Blood pressure on examination is 130/80 mmHg and there is peripheral oedema. Her BMI is 22.

      Investigations reveal:
      24-h urinary protein excretion 4.8 g
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 112 g/l 135–175 g/l
      CD4 count 200 cells 500-1500 cells
      Albumin 28 g 35–55 g/l
      Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 4.0 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine 190 µmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
      Urea 11.8 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l

      What is the initial treatment of choice for this patient's renal dysfunction?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Antiretroviral drugs

      Explanation:

      The patient has HIV-associated nephropathy (HIVAN), which is characterized by nephrotic range proteinuria, normal blood pressure, normal or increased kidney size on ultrasound scan, and focal segmental glomerulosclerosis on renal biopsy. The recommended treatment includes aggressive antiretroviral therapy and angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor therapy, unless contraindicated due to hyperkalaemia. While observational studies suggest that second-line agents such as ciclosporin and corticosteroids may be beneficial, there is no completed randomized controlled trial to support their use. Cyclophosphamide is not recommended as it may cause harm by suppressing the immune system and increasing the risk of opportunistic infections. Furosemide may be used to alleviate symptoms such as volume overload and peripheral oedema, but caution must be exercised as it may lower blood pressure further.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine
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  • Question 28 - A 55-year-old woman with type II diabetes and chronic renal failure on haemodialysis...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman with type II diabetes and chronic renal failure on haemodialysis presents with unstable angina. She is currently using twice daily insulin for glycaemic control, but her control has been poor recently.

      Investigations:

      - Haemoglobin: 86 g/L (115-165)
      - MCV: 84 fL (80-96)
      - Platelets: 198 ×109/L (150-400)
      - White cell count: 6.7 ×109/L (4-11)
      - HbA1c: 90 mmol/mol (20-46) or 10.4% (3.8-6.4)

      What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Blood transfusion with two units of packed red cells

      Explanation:

      Treatment for Anaemia in Chronic Renal Failure Patients

      In patients with chronic renal failure, it is crucial to maintain a haemoglobin concentration above 110 g/L to prevent cardiovascular morbidity and mortality. Anaemia can lead to ventricular hypertrophy, which is why it is important to correct it. If a patient exhibits severe anaemia symptoms, such as angina, an urgent blood transfusion is the treatment of choice.

      However, if the patient does not have symptoms, subcutaneous erythropoietin and intravenous iron are the recommended treatments. IV iron therapy should be given after a small IV test dose to exclude anaphylaxis. SC erythropoietin should also be administered to enhance erythropoiesis and increase the haemoglobin concentration.

      If the patient does not respond to this dual regimen, further investigation is necessary. The patient should be evaluated for sepsis, chronic blood loss, non-compliance with treatment, or severe hyperparathyroidism, which can cause marrow fibrosis. By addressing anaemia in chronic renal failure patients, we can reduce the risk of cardiovascular complications and improve overall outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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  • Question 29 - A 67-year-old man presents with severe abdominal pain. He has a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man presents with severe abdominal pain. He has a history of depression and type 2 diabetes, and takes levemir, sitagliptin, and gliclazide. He denies smoking, alcohol, or illicit drug use, and claims to have been taking all his diabetic medications. On examination, he is overweight with dry mucous membranes and generalised abdominal pain. His blood pressure is 101/76 mmHg, pulse rate is 113 beats per minute, and temperature is 37.8ºC. Investigations reveal elevated levels of creatinine, urea, alkaline phosphatase, alanine transaminase, gamma-glutamyl transpeptidase, amylase, glucose, and positive results for WCC, RBC, and ketones in his urine. What is the likely underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Drug induced pancreatitis

      Explanation:

      The cause of the patient’s raised amylase is most likely pancreatitis, which can be induced by sitagliptin. While a perforated small bowel or diabetic ketoacidosis can also cause elevated amylase levels, the patient’s symptoms and test results make these less likely. Gallstones and biliary obstruction are also unlikely causes, as the patient has no evidence of these conditions. However, non-alcoholic fatty liver disease cannot be ruled out based on the ultrasound scan alone. Both sitagliptin and glucagon like peptide-1 agonists have been associated with pancreatitis and should be discontinued if an episode occurs.

      Diabetes mellitus is a condition that has seen the development of several drugs in recent years. One hormone that has been the focus of much research is glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1), which is released by the small intestine in response to an oral glucose load. In type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM), insulin resistance and insufficient B-cell compensation occur, and the incretin effect, which is largely mediated by GLP-1, is decreased. GLP-1 mimetics, such as exenatide and liraglutide, increase insulin secretion and inhibit glucagon secretion, resulting in weight loss, unlike other medications. They are sometimes used in combination with insulin in T2DM to minimize weight gain. Dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitors, such as vildagliptin and sitagliptin, increase levels of incretins by decreasing their peripheral breakdown, are taken orally, and do not cause weight gain. Nausea and vomiting are the major adverse effects of GLP-1 mimetics, and the Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency has issued specific warnings on the use of exenatide, reporting that it has been linked to severe pancreatitis in some patients. NICE guidelines suggest that a DPP-4 inhibitor might be preferable to a thiazolidinedione if further weight gain would cause significant problems, a thiazolidinedione is contraindicated, or the person has had a poor response to a thiazolidinedione.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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  • Question 30 - A 30-year-old man presents to the genitourinary medicine clinic with a painless ulcer...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man presents to the genitourinary medicine clinic with a painless ulcer on his penis that has been present for a week. He is HIV positive and sexually active with one regular male partner. Despite having an undetectable viral load, they do not use condoms. He had gonorrhoeae in the past, which was treated with antibiotics. On examination, he has a single shallow ulcer with surrounding erythema. Syphilis serology shows a positive EIA and TPPA, but a negative RPR. What is the best immediate management option?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intramuscular penicillin G and check syphilis PCR

      Explanation:

      This man has a painless ulcer on his penis, which, despite negative HSV testing, suggests a possible case of syphilis. His syphilis serology indicates a positive screening EIA and follow-up TPPA, both of which are treponemal-specific. However, his RPR titre is undetectable, which could indicate either past infection or early acute infection without seroconversion on the RPR.

      Given that this man is HIV positive and engages in unprotected intercourse, he is at high risk for syphilis, even if he reports having only one long-term partner. He denies any history of past infection, so he should receive treatment for syphilis with antibiotics. Penicillin G is the first choice, as he has no known allergies.

      To confirm the diagnosis, further testing is necessary, with syphilis PCR being the gold standard.

      Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. The infection progresses through primary, secondary, and tertiary stages, with an incubation period of 9-90 days. The primary stage is characterized by a painless ulcer at the site of sexual contact, along with local lymphadenopathy. Women may not always exhibit visible symptoms. The secondary stage occurs 6-10 weeks after primary infection and presents with systemic symptoms such as fevers and lymphadenopathy, as well as a rash on the trunk, palms, and soles. Other symptoms may include buccal ulcers and genital warts. Tertiary syphilis can lead to granulomatous lesions of the skin and bones, ascending aortic aneurysms, general paralysis of the insane, tabes dorsalis, and Argyll-Robertson pupil. Congenital syphilis can cause blunted upper incisor teeth, linear scars at the angle of the mouth, keratitis, saber shins, saddle nose, and deafness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Infectious Diseases (0/1) 0%
Haematology (0/1) 0%
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