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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 69-year-old man, with CCF is admitted with SOB and a productive cough. Clinical findings, and a chest X-ray suggest a diagnosis of both pulmonary oedema and pneumonia. He is put on high flow oxygen and treated with furosemide, GTN spray and morphine, and started on antibiotics.
His breathlessness improves, and a repeat chest X-ray shows decreased pulmonary oedema. An ABG shows the following:
pH: 7.01 (normal 7.35–7.45)
p(CO2): 8 kPa (normal 4.5–6.0 kPa)
p(O2): 11 kPa (normal 10–14 kPa)
HCO3–: 18 mmol (normal 24–30 mmol/l)
base excess: 1.2 mmol/l (normal −2 to +2.0 mmol/l)
sodium: 142 mmol/l (normal 135–145 mmol/l)
potassium: 5.9 mmol/l (normal 3.5–5.0 mmol/l)
glucose: 7.5 mmol/l (normal 5–5.5 mmol/l)
lactate: 3.1 mmol/l (normal 2.2–5 mmol/l).
Based on the patient, which of the following does he have that is an indication for acute dialysis?Your Answer: Refractory pulmonary oedema
Correct Answer: Metabolic acidosis
Explanation:Indications for Acute Dialysis: Assessing the Patient’s Condition
When considering whether a patient requires acute dialysis, several factors must be taken into account. Severe metabolic acidosis with a pH below 7.2 is a clear indication for dialysis. Similarly, severe refractory hyperkalaemia with levels above 7 mmol/l may require dialysis, although standard measures to correct potassium levels should be attempted first. However, if the patient’s potassium levels are only mildly elevated, dialysis may not be necessary.
A raised lactate level is not an indication for acute dialysis. Refractory pulmonary oedema, which has not responded to initial treatment with diuretics, may require dialysis. However, if the patient’s pulmonary oedema has responded to treatment, dialysis may not be necessary.
In summary, the decision to initiate acute dialysis depends on a careful assessment of the patient’s condition, taking into account factors such as metabolic acidosis, hyperkalaemia, lactate levels, and pulmonary oedema.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old woman presents with back and flank pain affecting both sides. She has been diagnosed some years ago with antiphospholipid antibody syndrome and has suffered from a previous deep vein thrombosis. On assessment, temperature is 36.7oC, heart rate is 76 bpm, blood pressure 128/80 mmHg and she is still passing urine.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Sodium (Na+) 141 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 6.3 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Urea 17.3 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 325 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Urine proteinuria +++
Which of the following diagnoses fits best with this clinical scenario?Your Answer: Bilateral renal artery stenosis
Correct Answer: Bilateral renal vein thrombosis
Explanation:Possible Causes of Bilateral Flank Pain, Renal Failure, and Proteinuria
Bilateral flank pain, renal failure, and marked proteinuria can be caused by various conditions. One possible diagnosis is bilateral renal vein thrombosis, especially if the patient has a history of antiphospholipid antibody syndrome and previous deep vein thrombosis. Other causes of renal vein thrombosis include extrinsic compression of the renal vein by a tumour or a retroperitoneal mass, invasion of the renal vein or inferior vena cava by a tumour, or nephrotic syndrome that increases coagulability. Abdominal ultrasound and angiography can help diagnose renal vein thrombosis, and anticoagulation is the main treatment.
Bilateral ureteric obstruction can cause anuria, while bilateral pyelonephritis can cause sepsis and leukocytes and nitrites in the urine. Medullary sponge kidney, a congenital disorder that causes cystic dilation of the collecting ducts in one or both kidneys, may present with haematuria or nephrocalcinosis but does not affect renal function. Bilateral renal artery stenosis can cause uncontrollable hypertension and reduced renal function but not pain. Therefore, a thorough evaluation is necessary to determine the underlying cause of the patient’s symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 3
Correct
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A 67-year-old retired bus driver presents to the Emergency Department with end-stage renal disease due to diabetic nephropathy. What is the most probable histological finding on kidney biopsy for this patient?
Your Answer: Kimmelstiel–Wilson nodules
Explanation:Renal Biopsy Findings in Diabetic Nephropathy and Other Renal Diseases
Diabetic nephropathy is a progressive kidney disease that damages the glomerular filtration barrier, leading to proteinuria. Renal biopsy is a diagnostic test that can reveal various findings associated with different renal diseases.
Kimmelstiel–Wilson nodules are a hallmark of diabetic nephropathy, which are nodules of hyaline material that accumulate in the glomerulus. In contrast, immune complex deposition is commonly found in crescentic glomerulonephritis, anti-GBM disease, lupus, and IgA/post-infectious GN.
Rouleaux formation, the abnormal stacking of red blood cells, is not associated with diabetic nephropathy but can cause diabetic retinopathy. Clear cells, a classification of renal cell carcinoma, are not a finding associated with diabetic nephropathy either.
Finally, mesangial amyloid deposits are not associated with diabetic nephropathy but may be found in the mesangium, glomerular capillary walls, interstitium, or renal vessels in amyloidosis. Renal biopsy is a valuable tool in diagnosing and managing various renal diseases, including diabetic nephropathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 4
Correct
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A 50-year-old man with long-standing insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus was on dialysis, secondary to end-stage renal disease (ESRD). Three months ago, he received a kidney transplant, with his old kidney left in place. The transplanted kidney is attached to the central circulation, mimicking natural circulation. There are absolutely no signs of rejection, and the kidney is working perfectly. The patient is surprised to find out that he no longer has ‘thin blood’ because it has been years since he has not required medical management for his anaemia.
What is the main factor responsible for the normalization of his blood parameters and his recovery, following the kidney transplant?Your Answer: Erythropoietin (EPO)
Explanation:The Role of Kidney Function in Anaemia of ESRD Patients
Erythropoietin (EPO) is synthesized and secreted by the kidney, making it a crucial factor in maintaining haematopoiesis. Patients with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) often suffer from severe anaemia and require exogenous EPO to address this issue. A hypoproliferative disorder, ESRD may or may not be accompanied by anaemia of chronic disease or iron deficiency, leading to decreased reticulocytes. Iron supplementation is often necessary in conjunction with EPO to maintain haematopoiesis in dialysis patients.
Renin, on the other hand, is not implicated in anaemia. Aldosterone, which is part of the renin-angiotensin pathway that originates in the kidney, is not directly involved in anaemia either. Any derangement in aldosterone levels secondary to ESRD would have been normalized by now in the kidney.
Normalizing kidney function may improve the iron levels of the patient, but the primary effect of renal disease is insufficient EPO secretion, leading to anaemia. Patients with ESRD are typically phosphate-overloaded and calcium-deficient. While a transplant may lead to decreased phosphate levels due to increased clearance, this is not directly implicated in haematopoiesis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 5
Correct
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A 20-year-old man visits his GP clinic with a chief complaint of headaches. During the physical examination, no abnormalities are detected, but his blood pressure is found to be 178/90 mmHg. The doctor suspects a renal origin for the hypertension and wants to perform an initial screening test for renovascular causes. What is the most appropriate investigation for this purpose?
Your Answer: Abdominal duplex ultrasound
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Renal Hypertension
Renal hypertension, or high blood pressure caused by kidney disease, can be diagnosed through various diagnostic tests. The appropriate initial screening investigation is an abdominal duplex ultrasound, which can detect renal vascular or anatomical pathologies such as renal artery stenosis or polycystic kidney disease. If abnormalities are found, more advanced testing such as a CTA, magnetic resonance angiography, or nuclear medicine testing may be necessary. However, an ultrasound is the best initial screening investigation for renal hypertension.
A CTA is a follow-up test that may be performed if an initial abdominal duplex ultrasound suggests a renal cause for the hypertension. It is an advanced, specialist test that would not be appropriate as an initial screening investigation. On the other hand, a magnetic resonance angiography is an advanced, gold-standard test that can be performed if an initial abdominal duplex ultrasound suggests a renal cause for the hypertension.
HbA1c is a blood test that tests your average blood glucose levels over the last 2–3 months. It can indicate if diabetes may have contributed to the hypertension, but will not clarify whether there is a renal cause. Lastly, a urine albumin: creatinine ratio tests for the presence of protein in the urine, which is a reflection of kidney disease, but does not give us any indication of the cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 6
Correct
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A 7-year-old girl presents with haematuria, hearing loss, and poor eyesight caused by lens dislocation. After conducting additional tests, the diagnosis of Alport syndrome is made. What type of collagen is typically affected by a molecular defect in this disease?
Your Answer: Type IV
Explanation:Types and Effects of Collagen Defects on Human Health
Collagen is an essential protein that provides structural support to various tissues in the human body. Defects in different types of collagen can lead to various health conditions. Type IV collagen is crucial for the integrity of the basement membrane, and mutations in its genes can cause Alport syndrome, resulting in haematuria, hearing loss, and visual disturbances. Type III collagen defects cause Ehlers–Danlos syndrome, characterized by joint hypermobility, severe bruising, and blood vessel defects. Type I collagen defects lead to osteogenesis imperfecta, characterized by brittle bones, abnormal teeth, and weak tendons. Kniest dysplasia is caused by defects in type II collagen, leading to short stature, poor joint mobility, and eventual blindness. Kindler syndrome is characterized by the absence of epidermal anchoring fibrils due to defects in type VII collagen, resulting in skin fragility. Understanding the effects of collagen defects on human health is crucial for diagnosis and treatment of these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old computer programmer presented with blood in the urine. It was painless and not associated with any obstructive feature. On examination, his blood pressure was found to be 166/90 mmHg, although his earlier medical check-up 1 year ago was normal. His only past history was nephrotic syndrome 6 years ago, which was diagnosed histologically as minimal change disease and treated successfully. Urine examination revealed blood only with a trace of protein. He is not currently taking any drugs.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Bladder carcinoma
Correct Answer: Renal arteriovenous (AV) fistula
Explanation:Possible Causes of Hypertension and Haematuria in a Patient with a History of Nephrotic Syndrome
Renal arteriovenous (AV) fistula is a possible cause of hypertension and haematuria in a patient with a history of nephrotic syndrome. This condition may develop after renal biopsy or trauma, which are risk factors for the formation of renal AVMs. Acquired causes account for 70-80% of renal AVMs, and up to 15% of patients who undergo renal biopsy may develop renal fistulae. However, most patients remain asymptomatic. Hypertension in renal AVM is caused by relative renal hypoperfusion distal to the malformation, which activates the renin-angiotensin system. Pre-existing kidney disease is a risk factor for the development of AVM after biopsy. Renal AVMs may produce bruits in the flanks and vermiform blood clots in the urine. Sudden pain in a patient with renal AVM may be due to intrarenal haemorrhage or blood clot obstruction of the ureters. Renal vein thrombosis is unlikely in a patient in remission from nephrotic syndrome. Renal stones are not a likely cause of painless haematuria in this patient. Bladder carcinoma is not a likely cause of hypertension in a young patient without relevant environmental risk factors. Therefore, an AV fistula formation after biopsy is the most likely diagnosis.
Possible Causes of Hypertension and Haematuria in a Patient with a History of Nephrotic Syndrome
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old woman with a long-standing history of poorly controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus presents to clinic complaining of swelling in her ankles, face and fingers. She states she can no longer wear her wedding ring because her fingers are too swollen. On examination, her blood pressure is 150/90 mmHg; she has pitting oedema in her ankles and notably swollen fingers and face. Her blood results show:
Investigation Results Normal value
Creatinine 353.6 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Phosphate 1.9 mmol/l 0.70–1.40 mmol/l
Parathyroid hormone (PTH) Elevated
Urinalysis 3+ glucose, 3+ protein
Which of the following is the most likely mechanism of this woman's increased PTH?Your Answer: Osteoporosis
Correct Answer: Decreased glomerular filtration rate (GFR)
Explanation:Understanding the Causes of Secondary Hyperparathyroidism
Secondary hyperparathyroidism is a condition that occurs when the parathyroid glands produce too much parathyroid hormone (PTH) in response to low calcium levels in the blood. This can be caused by a variety of factors, including chronic renal failure, vitamin D excess, and the use of certain medications like diuretics.
In cases of chronic renal failure, decreased glomerular filtration rate (GFR) can lead to raised creatinine levels and proteinuria. This can cause diabetic nephropathy, which can result in hyperphosphataemia and secondary hyperparathyroidism. Over time, this can also lead to osteoporosis as a long-term complication of hyperparathyroidism.
Vitamin D excess is another cause of secondary hyperparathyroidism, but it is associated with low phosphate levels rather than hyperphosphataemia. In cases of parathyroid adenoma, a less likely cause in this patient, there is an overproduction of PTH by a benign tumor in the parathyroid gland.
Finally, the use of diuretics can increase phosphate excretion, leading to hypophosphataemia. This can also contribute to the development of secondary hyperparathyroidism.
Understanding the various causes of secondary hyperparathyroidism is important for proper diagnosis and treatment. By addressing the underlying condition, it may be possible to reduce the production of PTH and prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 9
Correct
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A 4-year-old child is brought to their General Practitioner (GP) with failure to thrive. His parents complain that he drinks a lot of water and urinates frequently and is not growing very well. The GP does blood and urine tests and diagnoses Fanconi syndrome.
Which of the following features would you most likely see in Fanconi syndrome?Your Answer: Hypokalaemia
Explanation:Understanding Fanconi Syndrome: Symptoms and Causes
Fanconi syndrome is a condition that affects the function of the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) in the kidneys, leading to a general impairment of reabsorption of amino acids, potassium, bicarbonate, phosphate, and glucose. This can be caused by various factors, including inherited disorders, acquired tubule damage, or idiopathic reasons. Common symptoms of Fanconi syndrome include polyuria, hypophosphatemia, acidosis, and hypokalemia. It is important to note that patients with Fanconi syndrome may experience oliguria due to the lack of reabsorption of solutes, leading to water loss. Contrary to popular belief, patients with Fanconi syndrome may experience acidosis rather than alkalosis due to the lack of reabsorption of bicarbonate in the PCT. Additionally, hypophosphatemia, rather than hyperphosphatemia, is seen in patients with Fanconi syndrome, as the impaired reabsorption of phosphate through the proximal tubules is a common feature. Finally, patients with Fanconi syndrome tend to present with hypokalemia rather than hyperkalemia due to the impaired reabsorption and increased secretion of potassium caused by the disturbance of the PCT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 76-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital feeling generally unwell. She has also developed a fever and diffuse erythematous rash over the last few days. Urinalysis is positive for blood and protein, and blood tests show raised eosinophils and creatinine. Her General Practitioner started her on a new medication two weeks ago, but she cannot remember the name or what it was for.
Which of the following drugs would be safe to continue at present, given the suspected diagnosis?Your Answer: Omeprazole
Correct Answer: Prednisolone
Explanation:Drug-Induced Acute Tubulointerstitial Nephritis: Common Culprits and Management Options
Acute tubulointerstitial nephritis is a condition characterized by fever, rash, and abnormalities on urinalysis. It can be caused by various drugs, including non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), beta-lactam antibiotics, allopurinol, and proton pump inhibitors (PPIs). In this case, the patient’s raised eosinophil count suggests drug-induced acute tubulointerstitial nephritis.
Prednisolone, a steroid commonly used to manage this condition, is safe to continue. However, NSAIDs like diclofenac should be stopped as they can inhibit prostaglandins that maintain the glomerular filtration rate. Allopurinol may also need to be withdrawn to determine if it is contributing to the symptoms. Beta-lactam antibiotics like amoxicillin are another common cause and may need to be stopped. PPIs like omeprazole are a relatively rare but known trigger and should be withdrawn promptly. It is important to remember that steroids should not be suddenly stopped in most patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal
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