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  • Question 1 - A 75-year-old man with a history of ischaemic cardiomyopathy and atrial fibrillation is...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man with a history of ischaemic cardiomyopathy and atrial fibrillation is admitted to the hospital due to vomiting caused by norovirus. His blood tests from 2 months ago were as follows:
      - Sodium (Na+): 136 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      - Potassium (K+): 4.0 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      - Urea: 7.8 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      - Creatinine: 120 µmol/L (55 - 120)

      However, his blood tests today show:
      - Sodium (Na+): 130 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      - Potassium (K+): 2.8 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      - Urea: 10.2 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      - Creatinine: 140 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      - Digoxin level: 3.1 ng/ml (0.8-2.0)

      Which of his regular medications is likely responsible for his digoxin toxicity?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Correct Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Explanation:

      Digoxin toxicity is often caused by hypokalaemia, which allows digoxin to bind more easily to the ATPase pump on cardiac myocytes. Normally, potassium would compete for the same binding site as digoxin. However, in the absence of sufficient potassium, digoxin’s inhibitory effects are increased. In this case, the patient’s hypokalaemia was caused by bendroflumethiazide, which also led to vomiting and hyponatraemia. The patient’s renal function was not significantly affected, ruling out acute kidney injury as a cause of the hypokalaemia. Ramipril, aspirin, and amlodipine are unlikely to cause digoxin toxicity, although other calcium channel blockers such as verapamil and diltiazem can reduce digoxin excretion via the kidneys.

      Understanding Digoxin and Its Toxicity

      Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure patients. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, it has a narrow therapeutic index and requires monitoring for toxicity.

      Toxicity may occur even when the digoxin concentration is within the therapeutic range. Symptoms of toxicity include lethargy, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, confusion, yellow-green vision, arrhythmias, and gynaecomastia. Hypokalaemia is a classic precipitating factor, as it allows digoxin to more easily bind to the ATPase pump and increase its inhibitory effects. Other factors that may contribute to toxicity include increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, electrolyte imbalances, hypoalbuminaemia, hypothermia, hypothyroidism, and certain medications such as amiodarone, quinidine, and verapamil.

      Management of digoxin toxicity involves the use of Digibind, correction of arrhythmias, and monitoring of potassium levels. It is important to recognize the potential for toxicity and monitor patients accordingly to prevent adverse outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      35.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 19-year-old man is brought into the emergency department after being involved in...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old man is brought into the emergency department after being involved in a motorcycle accident. He is minimally responsive, visibly pale, and groaning in pain.

      Key findings from the initial A-E approach are:

      Airway Patent
      Breathing Chest clear and equal air entry bilaterally, respiratory rate 30 breaths per minute, oxygen saturation 95%
      Circulation Heart rate 160 beats per minute, blood pressure 80/50 mmHg
      Disability GCS 9/15, blood glucose 7 mmol/L, pupils equal and reactive to light
      Everything else Tense abdomen with diffuse tenderness

      You make several attempts at siting a cannula but fail.

      What is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient's hypotension?

      Your Answer: Call vascular access to site a peripherally inserted central cannula (PICC)

      Correct Answer: Call a trained individual to attempt intraosseous access

      Explanation:

      Different Routes for Venous Access

      There are various methods for establishing venous access, each with its own advantages and disadvantages. The peripheral venous cannula is easy to insert and has a wide lumen for rapid fluid infusions. However, it is unsuitable for administering vasoactive or irritant drugs and may cause infections if not properly managed. On the other hand, central lines have multiple lumens for multiple infusions but are more difficult to insert and require ultrasound guidance. Femoral lines are easier to manage but have high infection rates, while internal jugular lines are preferred. Intraosseous access is typically used in pediatric practice but can also be used in adults for a wide range of fluid infusions. Tunnelled lines, such as Groshong and Hickman lines, are popular for long-term therapeutic requirements and can be linked to injection ports. Finally, peripherally inserted central cannulas (PICC lines) are less prone to major complications and are inserted peripherally.

      Overall, the choice of venous access route depends on the patient’s condition, the type of infusion required, and the operator’s expertise. It is important to weigh the benefits and risks of each method and to properly manage any complications that may arise.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      53
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 32-year-old woman is considering artificial insemination. What is the most reliable blood...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman is considering artificial insemination. What is the most reliable blood hormone marker for predicting ovulation?

      Your Answer: Luteinising hormone (LH)

      Explanation:

      Hormones Involved in the Menstrual Cycle

      The menstrual cycle is regulated by a complex interplay of hormones. Here are the key hormones involved and their functions:

      Luteinising hormone (LH): This hormone triggers ovulation by causing the release of an egg from the ovary. An LH surge occurs prior to ovulation, and ovulation occurs about 12 hours after the peak in LH.

      Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH): FSH stimulates the development of follicles in the ovary. It peaks on day 3 of the menstrual cycle.

      Oestrogen: Oestrogen is responsible for the growth of the endometrium, the lining of the uterus.

      Progesterone: After ovulation, progesterone induces secretory activity of the endometrial glands in anticipation of implantation.

      Human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG): If fertilisation occurs, the developing conceptus begins to secrete hCG from the syncytiotrophoblast. This hormone is a convenient marker for pregnancy, not ovulation.

      Understanding the roles of these hormones can help women better understand their menstrual cycle and fertility.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 57-year-old woman has undergone a mitral valve repair and is experiencing a...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman has undergone a mitral valve repair and is experiencing a prolonged recovery in the cardiac intensive care unit. To aid in her management, a pulmonary artery catheter is inserted.
      What is one of the calculated measurements provided by the pulmonary artery catheter?

      Your Answer: Pulmonary artery wedge pressure

      Correct Answer: Cardiac output

      Explanation:

      Measuring Cardiac Output and Pressures with a Pulmonary Artery Catheter

      A pulmonary artery catheter can provide direct and derived measurements for assessing cardiac function. Direct measurements include right atrial pressure, right ventricular pressure, pulmonary artery pressure, pulmonary artery wedge pressure, core temperature, and mixed venous saturation. The catheter can also be used to calculate cardiac output using the method of thermodilution. This involves a proximal port with a heater and a distal thermistor that senses changes in temperature.

      Pulmonary artery wedge pressure is a direct measurement that can be obtained with the catheter, reflecting left atrial filling. However, it may not always accurately reflect the pressure in the left atrium due to various factors. Right ventricular pressure is another direct measurement that can be obtained.

      Central venous saturation is a direct measure in some machines with a built-in saturation measurement probe, while in others, samples can be taken via the distal port and measured using a gas machine. Overall, a pulmonary artery catheter can provide valuable information for monitoring cardiac output and pressures in critically ill patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anaesthetics & ITU
      21.3
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 75-year-old male with multiple comorbidities is set to undergo a bowel resection...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old male with multiple comorbidities is set to undergo a bowel resection in his local hospital. He visits the senior anaesthetist at the pre-operative assessment clinic to assess his eligibility for surgery and organize any necessary pre-operative investigations. According to NICE, who should undergo a chest X-ray as part of their pre-operative assessment?

      Your Answer: Patients over the age of 65

      Correct Answer: Not routinely recommended

      Explanation:

      It is no longer standard practice to perform chest x-rays prior to surgery. However, individuals who are 65 years or older may require an ECG before undergoing major surgery. Patients with renal disease may need a complete blood count and an ECG before intermediate surgery, depending on their ASA grade. Patients with hypertension do not require any specific pre-operative tests.

      The American Society of Anaesthesiologists (ASA) classification is a system used to categorize patients based on their overall health status and the potential risks associated with administering anesthesia. There are six different classifications, ranging from ASA I (a normal healthy patient) to ASA VI (a declared brain-dead patient whose organs are being removed for donor purposes).

      ASA II patients have mild systemic disease, but without any significant functional limitations. Examples of mild diseases include current smoking, social alcohol drinking, pregnancy, obesity, and well-controlled diabetes mellitus or hypertension. ASA III patients have severe systemic disease and substantive functional limitations, with one or more moderate to severe diseases. Examples include poorly controlled diabetes mellitus or hypertension, COPD, morbid obesity, active hepatitis, alcohol dependence or abuse, implanted pacemaker, moderate reduction of ejection fraction, End-Stage Renal Disease (ESRD) undergoing regularly scheduled dialysis, history of myocardial infarction, and cerebrovascular accidents.

      ASA IV patients have severe systemic disease that poses a constant threat to life, such as recent myocardial infarction or cerebrovascular accidents, ongoing cardiac ischemia or severe valve dysfunction, severe reduction of ejection fraction, sepsis, DIC, ARD, or ESRD not undergoing regularly scheduled dialysis. ASA V patients are moribund and not expected to survive without the operation, such as ruptured abdominal or thoracic aneurysm, massive trauma, intracranial bleed with mass effect, ischaemic bowel in the face of significant cardiac pathology, or multiple organ/system dysfunction. Finally, ASA VI patients are declared brain-dead and their organs are being removed for donor purposes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Surgery
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 21-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of abdominal pain that started...

    Correct

    • A 21-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of abdominal pain that started yesterday. She had her last period 2 weeks ago, and her menstrual cycle is usually regular. She has had multiple sexual partners in the past 6 months and has been experiencing deep dyspareunia lately. She has noticed an increase in vaginal discharge over the past few days, and the pain is not relieved by paracetamol. During the examination, her temperature is 37.8 °C, and she is otherwise stable within the normal range. Her abdomen is soft but tender, and a cervical exam reveals cervical excitation +++ with right adnexal tenderness and thick yellow/green discharge from the cervical os. Swabs are taken, and there is no bleeding. A urine β-HCG test is negative. What would be your next step?

      Your Answer: Give intramuscular (im) ceftriaxone stat and a 14-day course of doxycycline and metronidazole

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)

      Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) is a common condition caused by the ascending infection of Chlamydia or gonorrhoeae from the vagina. The symptoms include bilateral lower abdominal pain, deep dyspareunia, and abnormal bleeding or discharge. The recent British Association for Sexual Health and HIV (BASHH) guideline recommends empirical antibiotic treatment for sexually active women under 25 who have these symptoms. The treatment includes stat im ceftriaxone and a 2-week course of doxycycline and metronidazole. Intravenous therapy is indicated in severe cases.

      Pelvic ultrasound scan is not necessary for the diagnosis of PID. Blood tests to check inflammatory markers and serum β-HCG are not required if the clinic history and examination suggest PID. Analgesia and observation are not sufficient for the treatment of PID. Oral antibiotics alone are not recommended for the treatment of PID.

      In conclusion, PID requires prompt and appropriate treatment with broad-spectrum antibiotics. The recommended treatment options should be followed based on the severity of the disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      44.4
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 50-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with new back pain. She...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with new back pain. She describes the pain radiating down the back of her right leg into her little toe and she has an associated weakness of her right leg which is stopping her from walking. She reports not having been able to pass urine all day despite feeling as though she needs to go.

      On examination, she has a 4/5 weakness of the left leg throughout and a 3/5 weakness of the right leg throughout. Her reflexes are absent on her right and reduced on her left. She has a loss of pin prick sensation throughout the L4, L5, and S1 dermatomes on the right as well as in her perineum. On digital rectal examination, she has a loss of perianal sensation with normal anal tone but a reduced anal squeeze.

      What investigation is most appropriate for this suspected diagnosis?

      Your Answer: MRI scan of the lumbar-sacral spine within 6 hours

      Explanation:

      If a patient presents with back pain and leg pain along with a new neurological deficit, it is likely that they are suffering from spinal nerve impingement. If they also experience urinary symptoms and saddle anaesthesia, and have an abnormal rectal examination, it is highly probable that they have cauda equina syndrome. This condition can lead to irreversible complications such as incontinence and paralysis of the lower limbs if left untreated. Therefore, it is crucial to conduct urgent imaging to confirm the diagnosis. The most effective imaging modality is an MRI of the lumbar-sacral spine, as it provides detailed information about soft tissues. Plain x-rays and CT scans are not recommended as they do not provide sufficient information about nerve injury. Ideally, the scan should be conducted immediately, but due to operational constraints, a target of 6 hours is more feasible. Waiting for 72 hours is not acceptable, as it can result in permanent paralysis or incontinence.

      Cauda equina syndrome (CES) is a rare but serious condition that occurs when the nerve roots in the lower back are compressed. It is crucial to consider CES in patients who present with new or worsening lower back pain, as a late diagnosis can result in permanent nerve damage and long-term leg weakness and urinary/bowel incontinence. The most common cause of CES is a central disc prolapse, typically at L4/5 or L5/S1, but it can also be caused by tumors, infections, trauma, or hematomas. CES can present in various ways, and there is no single symptom or sign that can diagnose or exclude it. Possible features include low back pain, bilateral sciatica, reduced sensation in the perianal area, decreased anal tone, and urinary dysfunction. Urgent MRI is necessary for diagnosis, and surgical decompression is the recommended management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      62
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - You are asked to give a presentation to a group of third-year medical...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to give a presentation to a group of third-year medical students about the different types of dementia and how they may present.
      Which of the following is characteristic of frontotemporal dementia?

      Your Answer: Rapid progressive loss of memory and cognitive abilities

      Correct Answer: Confabulation and repetition

      Explanation:

      Understanding Fronto-Temporal Dementia: Symptoms and Features

      Fronto-temporal dementia is a complex disorder that affects both the frontal and temporal lobes of the brain. Its diagnosis can be challenging, especially in the early stages of the disease. To better understand this condition, it is helpful to examine its symptoms and features based on the affected brain regions.

      Frontal lobe dysfunction is characterized by changes in personality and behavior, such as loss of tact and concern for others, disinhibition, emotional instability, distractibility, impulsivity, and fixed attitudes. However, some patients may exhibit opposite behaviors and become increasingly withdrawn.

      Temporal lobe dysfunction, on the other hand, affects speech and language abilities, leading to dysphasia, confabulation, repetition, and difficulty finding words and names (semantic dementia).

      Other features of fronto-temporal dementia include earlier onset (typically between 40-60 years old), slow and insidious progression, relatively preserved memory in the early stages, and loss of executive function as the disease advances. Unlike Alzheimer’s disease, hallucinations, paranoia, and delusions are rare, and personality and mood remain largely unaffected.

      It is important to note that fronto-temporal dementia can present differently in late onset cases (70-80 years old) and does not typically involve bradykinesia, a hallmark symptom of Parkinson’s disease. Rapid progressive loss of memory and cognitive abilities is also not typical of fronto-temporal dementia, as the disease tends to progress slowly over time.

      In summary, understanding the symptoms and features of fronto-temporal dementia can aid in its early detection and management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 50-year-old man presents to his physician with a complaint of excessive dandruff....

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man presents to his physician with a complaint of excessive dandruff. He also reports the presence of scaling lesions on his face. Upon examination, there is waxing scale with underlying erythema on his eyebrows, scalp, and nasolabial fold. The patient has a history of HIV for the past 3 years and is currently taking retroviral medication. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Seborrhoeic dermatitis

      Explanation:

      Common Skin Conditions: Symptoms and Treatment Options

      Seborrhoeic Dermatitis: This condition is caused by a hypersensitivity reaction to a superficial fungal infection, Malassezia furfur. It typically affects the scalp and face, presenting as yellow papules and scaling plaques with underlying erythema. Treatment involves topical steroid and anti-fungal drugs.

      Contact Dermatitis: Hypersensitivity reactions to substances like latex, jewellery, soap, and detergents can cause pruritic erythematous rashes with papulo-vesicular lesions at the site of contact.

      Atopic Dermatitis: Patients with atopic dermatitis have high levels of immunoglobulin E (IgE) and present with scaly, erythematosus, pruritic skin lesions, most commonly on the flexor surfaces.

      Acne: More common in women than men, acne presents as papulo-pustular lesions on the face and other body areas. Rupture of these lesions releases free fatty acids, which further irritate the skin and extend the lesions. Both black open comedones and closed white comedones may be present.

      Alopecia Areata: This autoimmune disease causes discrete, smooth, circular areas of hair loss on the scalp, without associated scaling, inflammation, or broken hair. It can involve a single or multiple areas.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      18.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 25-year-old individual consumes approximately 750 ml of whiskey during a night out....

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old individual consumes approximately 750 ml of whiskey during a night out. The following day, they experience increased thirst and notice an increase in urine output. What is the most plausible explanation for the development of polyuria in individuals who consume excessive amounts of alcohol?

      Your Answer: Ethanol inhibits ADH secretion

      Explanation:

      The secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which is dependent on calcium, is inhibited by ethanol through the blocking of channels in the neurohypophyseal nerve terminal. Hangover-induced nausea is primarily caused by vagal stimulation of the vomiting center. Tremors that may occur after a particularly intense bout of alcohol consumption are a result of increased glutamate production by neurons, which compensates for the previous inhibition caused by ethanol.

      Management of Problem Drinking: Nutritional Support and Drug Therapy

      Problem drinking can have serious consequences on an individual’s health and well-being. To manage this condition, nutritional support and drug therapy are often recommended. According to SIGN guidelines, alcoholic patients should receive oral thiamine if their diet is deficient. This is because alcohol can deplete the body’s thiamine levels, which can lead to neurological complications such as Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome.

      In addition to nutritional support, drug therapy can also be used to manage problem drinking. Benzodiazepines are commonly used for acute withdrawal symptoms, while disulfiram is used to promote abstinence. Disulfiram works by inhibiting acetaldehyde dehydrogenase, which causes a severe reaction when alcohol is consumed. Patients should be aware that even small amounts of alcohol found in perfumes, foods, and mouthwashes can produce severe symptoms. However, disulfiram is contraindicated in patients with ischaemic heart disease and psychosis.

      Another drug used to manage problem drinking is acamprosate. This medication reduces cravings and has been shown to improve abstinence in placebo-controlled trials. Acamprosate is a weak antagonist of NMDA receptors, which are involved in the brain’s reward system. By blocking these receptors, acamprosate can help reduce the pleasurable effects of alcohol and decrease the likelihood of relapse.

      In summary, managing problem drinking requires a multifaceted approach that includes nutritional support and drug therapy. By addressing both the physical and psychological aspects of alcohol dependence, individuals can achieve and maintain sobriety.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      22.3
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Pharmacology (1/2) 50%
Surgery (0/2) 0%
Gynaecology (2/2) 100%
Anaesthetics & ITU (0/1) 0%
Musculoskeletal (1/1) 100%
Neurology (0/1) 0%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Passmed