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Question 1
Correct
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A 52-year-old man visits the clinic with concerns about a gradual decline in his hearing ability over the past few months. His wife urged him to seek medical attention as she noticed he was having difficulty hearing conversations and needed to turn up the volume on the TV and radio. Upon examination, otoscopy reveals no abnormalities in either ear. The Rinne's test is positive bilaterally, and the Weber test is normal. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Presbycusis
Explanation:Differentiating Causes of Hearing Loss: A Brief Overview
Hearing loss can be caused by a variety of factors, including age-related changes, tumors, infections, and genetic conditions. Here are some key features to help differentiate between some of the most common causes of hearing loss:
Presbycusis: This is age-related hearing loss that affects high-frequency sounds and is irreversible. Management includes reassurance and discussion of hearing aid options.
Acoustic Neuroma: This is a benign tumor of the vestibulocochlear nerve that can cause unilateral tinnitus and hearing loss, as well as facial numbness and balance problems. Bilateral hearing loss without other symptoms makes this diagnosis unlikely.
Cholesteatoma: This condition is characterized by recurrent or persistent ear discharge, conductive hearing loss, and ear discomfort. Otoscopy may reveal a deep retraction pocket or pearly white mass behind the intact tympanic membrane. This patient has sensorineural rather than conductive hearing loss.
Ménière’s Disease: This condition typically presents with fluctuating hearing loss, vertigo, and tinnitus. Aural fullness may also be present. This patient does not have all the symptoms to meet the criteria for this diagnosis.
Otosclerosis: This is a form of conductive hearing loss that typically occurs in early adulthood and may be accompanied by tinnitus and transient vertigo. Sensorineural hearing loss in an older patient makes this diagnosis unlikely.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 2
Correct
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A 57-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a one-day history of blurring of vision and headache. He tells you there is no pain on touching the scalp, or when eating and chewing food.
He has a past medical history of hypertension and type II diabetes mellitus, which is well controlled with metformin.
He tells you that his uncle died of brain cancer and he is afraid that he may have the same condition.
On examination, his visual acuity is 6/18 in both eyes. On dilated fundoscopy, you see some arterioles narrower than others. There are also venules being compressed by arterioles. There is optic disc swelling in both eyes with some exudates lining up like a star at the macula. There is also some dot-and-blot and flame-shaped haemorrhages.
His pulse is 80 beats per minute, while his blood pressure (BP) is 221/119 mmHg. His temperature is 37 °C, while his respiratory rate is 14 breaths per minute. His oxygen saturations are 98% on room air.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Hypertensive retinopathy
Explanation:Differentiating Hypertensive Retinopathy from Other Eye Conditions: A Case Study
The patient in question presented with a highly raised blood pressure and complained of headache and blurring of vision. Fundoscopy revealed bilateral optic disc swelling, which is a typical feature of hypertensive retinopathy. However, other conditions such as giant-cell arteritis, age-related macular degeneration, intracranial space-occupying lesion, and proliferative diabetic retinopathy were also considered.
Giant-cell arteritis was ruled out due to the absence of scalp tenderness and jaw claudication. Age-related macular degeneration was also unlikely as there were no drusen or choroidal neovascularisation present. While an intracranial space-occupying lesion was a possibility, the lack of accompanying symptoms such as early-morning vomiting and weight loss made it less likely. Proliferative diabetic retinopathy was also ruled out as there were no new vessels at the disc or elsewhere.
In conclusion, the patient’s symptoms and fundoscopy findings strongly suggest a diagnosis of hypertensive retinopathy. It is important to differentiate this condition from other eye conditions to ensure appropriate treatment and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 3
Correct
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Which of the following is a contraindication to using a triptan for treating migraines in elderly patients?
Your Answer: A history of ischaemic heart disease
Explanation:Triptan use is contraindicated in individuals with cardiovascular disease.
Triptans for Migraine Treatment
Triptans are medications that act as agonists for 5-HT1B and 5-HT1D receptors and are commonly used in the acute treatment of migraines. They are often prescribed in combination with NSAIDs or paracetamol and are typically taken as soon as possible after the onset of a headache, rather than at the onset of an aura. Triptans are available in various forms, including oral tablets, orodispersible tablets, nasal sprays, and subcutaneous injections.
While triptans are generally well-tolerated, some patients may experience triptan sensations, such as tingling, heat, tightness in the throat and chest, heaviness, or pressure. It is important to note that triptans are contraindicated in patients with a history of or significant risk factors for ischaemic heart disease or cerebrovascular disease.
In summary, triptans are a commonly used medication for the acute treatment of migraines. They should be taken as soon as possible after the onset of a headache and are available in various forms. However, patients should be aware of potential adverse effects and contraindications before taking triptans.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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Question 4
Correct
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A 65-year-old male with a history of COPD and hypertension complains of pain while swallowing. The patient is currently taking a salbutamol and beclomethasone inhaler, bendroflumethiazide, and amlodipine. What could be the possible reason for this symptom?
Your Answer: Oesophageal candidiasis
Explanation:Oesophageal candidiasis, a known complication of inhaled steroid therapy, often presents with pain while swallowing (odynophagia).
Understanding Dysphagia and its Causes
Dysphagia, or difficulty in swallowing, can be caused by various conditions affecting the esophagus, such as oesophageal cancer, oesophagitis, oesophageal candidiasis, achalasia, pharyngeal pouch, systemic sclerosis, and myasthenia gravis. Each condition has its own characteristic features, which can help in identifying the underlying cause of dysphagia. For instance, dysphagia associated with weight loss, anorexia, or vomiting during eating may indicate oesophageal cancer, while dysphagia of both liquids and solids from the start may suggest achalasia.
To determine the cause of dysphagia, patients usually undergo an upper GI endoscopy, which allows doctors to examine the esophagus and detect any abnormalities. Fluoroscopic swallowing studies may also be done to evaluate motility disorders. Additionally, a full blood count and ambulatory oesophageal pH and manometry studies may be required for certain conditions.
It’s important to note that new-onset dysphagia is a red flag symptom that requires urgent endoscopy, regardless of age or other symptoms. Therefore, understanding the different causes of dysphagia and their characteristic features can aid in prompt diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 5
Correct
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A 63-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of breast tissue enlargement. He is feeling very self-conscious and anxious about his upcoming summer vacation. Which medication is the most probable cause of his condition?
Your Answer: Spironolactone
Explanation:Understanding Gynaecomastia: Causes and Drug Triggers
Gynaecomastia is a medical condition that occurs when males develop an abnormal amount of breast tissue. This condition is usually caused by an increased ratio of oestrogen to androgen. It is important to differentiate the causes of galactorrhoea, which is due to the actions of prolactin on breast tissue, from those of gynaecomastia.
There are several causes of gynaecomastia, including physiological changes that occur during puberty, syndromes with androgen deficiency such as Kallman’s and Klinefelter’s, testicular failure, liver disease, testicular cancer, ectopic tumour secretion, hyperthyroidism, and haemodialysis. Additionally, certain drugs can trigger gynaecomastia, with spironolactone being the most common drug cause. Other drugs that can cause gynaecomastia include cimetidine, digoxin, cannabis, finasteride, GnRH agonists like goserelin and buserelin, oestrogens, and anabolic steroids.
It is important to note that while drug-induced gynaecomastia is rare, there are still some drugs that can trigger this condition. Some of the very rare drug causes of gynaecomastia include tricyclics, isoniazid, calcium channel blockers, heroin, busulfan, and methyldopa. Understanding the causes and drug triggers of gynaecomastia can help individuals seek appropriate medical attention and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old male presents to an urgent care centre with concerns about decreased frequency of urination. He reports only urinating once in the past 12 hours and feels unable to urinate despite the urge to do so. The patient has a medical history of diabetes mellitus managed with metformin and chronic back pain managed with ibuprofen and PPI cover. He has no known allergies. Blood tests reveal the following results: Na+ 139 mmol/L (135 - 145), K+ 4.8 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0), Bicarbonate 22 mmol/L (22 - 29), Urea 7.1 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0), and Creatinine 200 µmol/L (55 - 120). The patient's previous creatinine level was 119 µmol/L. The general practitioner refers the patient to the emergency department for further investigation. What is the correct classification?
Your Answer: Acute Kidney Injury stage 3
Correct Answer: Acute Kidney Injury stage 1
Explanation:The patient in this vignette meets the criteria for AKI Stage 1, which is characterized by a moderate increase in serum creatinine (1.5-1.9 times the baseline) or reduced urine output (<0.5 mL/kg/hr) for at least 6 hours. The patient has risk factors such as age, diabetes mellitus, and NSAID use for back pain, which can contribute to AKI. It is important to note that AKI is a classification and not a diagnosis. AKI Stage 2 is characterized by a more significant increase in serum creatinine (2-2.9 times the baseline) or reduced urine output for at least 12 hours. The vignette does not show renal function that is severe enough to meet this classification. AKI Stage 3 is the most severe stage, with a serum creatinine increase of 3 times or more from baseline or reduced urine output for at least 24 hours. Again, the patient’s renal function is not severe enough to meet this classification. There is no AKI Stage 4 or 5. Chronic kidney disease is classified from stages 1-5 based on the patient’s estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR). A patient with CKD Stage 4 would have an eGFR of 15-29 ml/min/1.73m², while a patient with CKD Stage 5 would have end-stage renal disease with an eGFR <15 ml/min/1.73m² or be receiving renal replacement therapy. The NICE guidelines for acute kidney injury (AKI) identify risk factors such as emergency surgery, CKD, diabetes, and use of nephrotoxic drugs. Diagnostic criteria include a rise in creatinine, fall in urine output, or fall in eGFR. The KDIGO criteria are used to stage AKI, with stage 3 indicating the most severe cases. Referral to a nephrologist is recommended for certain cases, such as AKI with no known cause or inadequate response to treatment. Complications of AKI include CKD, hyperkalaemia, metabolic acidosis, and fluid overload.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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Which of the following characteristics is the least typical of Trichomonas vaginalis?
Your Answer: Vaginal pH < 4.5
Correct Answer:
Explanation:A pH level greater than 4.5 is linked to Trichomonas vaginalis and bacterial vaginosis.
Understanding Trichomonas vaginalis and its Comparison to Bacterial Vaginosis
Trichomonas vaginalis is a type of protozoan parasite that is highly motile and flagellated. It is known to cause trichomoniasis, which is a sexually transmitted infection. The infection is characterized by symptoms such as offensive, yellow/green, frothy vaginal discharge, vulvovaginitis, and strawberry cervix. The pH level is usually above 4.5, and in men, it may cause urethritis.
To diagnose trichomoniasis, a wet mount microscopy is conducted to observe the motile trophozoites. The treatment for trichomoniasis involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, although a one-off dose of 2g metronidazole may also be used.
When compared to bacterial vaginosis, trichomoniasis has distinct differences. Bacterial vaginosis is caused by an overgrowth of bacteria in the vagina, while trichomoniasis is caused by a protozoan parasite. The symptoms of bacterial vaginosis include a thin, grayish-white vaginal discharge with a fishy odor, and a pH level above 4.5. Unlike trichomoniasis, bacterial vaginosis is not considered a sexually transmitted infection.
In conclusion, understanding the differences between trichomoniasis and bacterial vaginosis is crucial in diagnosing and treating these conditions effectively. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help prevent complications and improve overall health and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A middle-aged man is concerned that the lump he has discovered in his neck may be due to Hodgkin's disease. A routine work-up is completely negative, but he continues to worry about it.
Which of the following is the most likely condition here?
Your Answer: Delusional disorder-somatic type
Correct Answer: Hypochondriasis
Explanation:Differentiating Hypochondriasis from Other Disorders
Hypochondriasis is a condition characterized by persistent preoccupation with having a serious physical illness. However, it is important to differentiate it from other disorders with similar symptoms.
Conversion disorder is a neurological condition that presents with loss of function without an organic cause. Delusional disorder-somatic type involves delusional thoughts about having a particular illness or physical problem. In somatisation disorder, patients present with medically unexplained symptoms and seek medical attention to find an explanation for them. Factitious disorder involves deliberately producing symptoms for attention as a patient.
It is important to note that in hypochondriasis, the patient’s beliefs are not as fixed as they would be in delusional disorder-somatic type, and worry dominates the picture. In somatisation disorder, the emphasis is on the symptoms rather than a specific diagnosis, while in hypochondriasis, the patient puts emphasis on the presence of a specific illness. Factitious disorder involves deliberate production of symptoms, which is not present in hypochondriasis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a sudden onset of central abdominal pain. He claims this is radiating to his back and that it started this afternoon. He is currently still in pain and has been started on some analgesia. His blood pressure is 135/80 mmHg and his heart rate is 100 bpm.
His past medical history includes amputation of the big toe on the left lower limb and femoral-popliteal bypass on the right. He smokes around 20 cigarettes daily.
Which of the following tests should be done urgently to determine the underlying cause of his symptomatology?Your Answer: Computed tomography (CT) scan of the abdomen
Correct Answer: Bedside abdominal ultrasound (US)
Explanation:Bedside Abdominal Ultrasound for Ruptured Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm: Diagnosis and Management
This patient is likely experiencing a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA), a life-threatening medical emergency. Bedside abdominal ultrasound (US) is the best initial diagnostic test for ruling out AAA as a cause of abdominal or back pain, as it provides an instant, objective measurement of aortic diameter. An AAA is a dilatation of the abdominal aorta greater than 3 cm in diameter, with a significant risk of rupture at diameters greater than 5 cm. Risk factors for AAA include smoking and co-existing vascular disease. Symptoms of a ruptured AAA include pain, cardiovascular failure, and distal ischemia. Once diagnosed, a CT angiogram is the gold-standard imaging for planning surgery to repair the aneurysm. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography and liver function tests are not indicated in this case, while serum amylase or lipase should be measured in all patients presenting with acute abdominal or upper back pain to exclude acute pancreatitis as a differential diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old male with COPD presents to the hospital with worsening cough, difficulty breathing, and heavy green sputum production. He is placed on a 35% venturi mask with target oxygen saturations of 88-92% due to his known hypoxic drive. Despite receiving nebulised salbutamol, nebulised ipratropium, intravenous hydrocortisone, and intravenous theophylline, there is minimal improvement. The patient is becoming fatigued and his oxygen saturations remain at 87%. An arterial blood gas is ordered and empirical intravenous antibiotics are started. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Your Answer: Intravenous magnesium sulphate
Correct Answer: BiPAP (bilevel positive airway pressure)
Explanation:When medical therapy fails to improve COPD exacerbations, patients should be given BiPAP non-invasive ventilation. Before starting non-invasive ventilation, an arterial blood gas should be taken. BiPAP delivers two different pressures for inhalation and exhalation, making it a useful tool for patients who need help with ventilation, such as those in type II respiratory failure. On the other hand, CPAP delivers one pressure setting and is more helpful in increasing oxygen saturation and intrathoracic pressure to reduce preload and cardiac workload in chronic heart failure or sleep apnea. While intravenous magnesium sulfate is part of the management for severe asthma exacerbation, there is currently insufficient evidence to support its use in COPD exacerbation. If non-invasive ventilatory support fails, intubation and ventilation may be necessary.
Acute exacerbations of COPD are a common reason for hospital visits in developed countries. The most common causes of these exacerbations are bacterial infections, with Haemophilus influenzae being the most common culprit, followed by Streptococcus pneumoniae and Moraxella catarrhalis. Respiratory viruses also account for around 30% of exacerbations, with human rhinovirus being the most important pathogen. Symptoms of an exacerbation include an increase in dyspnea, cough, and wheezing, as well as hypoxia and acute confusion in some cases.
NICE guidelines recommend increasing the frequency of bronchodilator use and giving prednisolone for five days. Antibiotics should only be given if sputum is purulent or there are clinical signs of pneumonia. Admission to the hospital is recommended for patients with severe breathlessness, acute confusion or impaired consciousness, cyanosis, oxygen saturation less than 90%, social reasons, or significant comorbidity.
For severe exacerbations requiring secondary care, oxygen therapy should be used with an initial saturation target of 88-92%. Nebulized bronchodilators such as salbutamol and ipratropium should also be administered, along with steroid therapy. IV hydrocortisone may be considered instead of oral prednisolone, and IV theophylline may be used for patients not responding to nebulized bronchodilators. Non-invasive ventilation may be used for patients with type 2 respiratory failure, with bilevel positive airway pressure being the typical method used.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man complains of vertigo and loss of hearing on the left side. Which test is most likely to suggest the presence of an acoustic neuroma?
Your Answer: Left homonymous hemianopia
Correct Answer: Absent corneal reflex
Explanation:Consider acoustic neuroma if there is a loss of corneal reflex.
Understanding Vestibular Schwannoma (Acoustic Neuroma)
Vestibular schwannoma, also known as acoustic neuroma, is a type of brain tumor that accounts for 5% of intracranial tumors and 90% of cerebellopontine angle tumors. The condition is characterized by a combination of symptoms such as vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus, and an absent corneal reflex. The affected cranial nerves can predict the features of the condition. For instance, cranial nerve VIII can cause vertigo, unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, and unilateral tinnitus. On the other hand, cranial nerve V can lead to an absent corneal reflex, while cranial nerve VII can cause facial palsy.
Bilateral vestibular schwannomas are often seen in neurofibromatosis type 2. The diagnosis of vestibular schwannoma is made through an MRI of the cerebellopontine angle, and audiometry is also important since only 5% of patients have a normal audiogram.
The management of vestibular schwannoma involves surgery, radiotherapy, or observation. The choice of treatment depends on the size and location of the tumor, the patient’s age and overall health, and the severity of symptoms. In conclusion, understanding vestibular schwannoma is crucial in managing the condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman was urgently referred for investigation (2-week wait) via the cancer referral pathway by her General Practitioner after presenting with a 2-month history of weight loss and fatigue. Blood tests reveal a carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) level of 300 μg/l (Normal range: 2.5–5.0 μg/l).
Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Colorectal cancer
Explanation:Overview of Common Cancers and Tumor Markers
Colorectal Cancer, Hepatocellular Cancer, Lung Cancer, Prostate Cancer, and Testicular Cancer are some of the most common types of cancer. Each type presents with different symptoms and may require different diagnostic tests. Tumor markers, such as carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA) for colorectal cancer, alpha-fetoprotein for hepatocellular and testicular cancer, and bombesin for lung cancer, can be used to screen high-risk groups, assess prognosis, detect recurrence, and monitor treatment. Digital rectal examination (DRE) is often used in conjunction with prostate-specific antigen (PSA) as a screening test for prostate cancer. Early detection and treatment can improve outcomes for patients with cancer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 50-year old-man comes to see you saying that his father recently passed away due to an abdominal aortic aneurysm. He inquires if he will be screened for this condition and when should he start screening?
Your Answer: No current screening programme in place
Correct Answer: Single abdominal ultrasound at 65
Explanation:Understanding Abdominal Aortic Aneurysms
Abdominal aortic aneurysms occur when the elastic proteins within the extracellular matrix fail, causing dilation of all layers of the arterial wall. This degenerative disease is most commonly seen in individuals over the age of 50, with diameters of 3 cm or greater considered aneurysmal. The development of aneurysms is a complex process involving the loss of the intima and elastic fibers from the media, which is associated with increased proteolytic activity and lymphocytic infiltration.
Smoking and hypertension are major risk factors for the development of aneurysms, while rare causes include syphilis and connective tissue diseases such as Ehlers Danlos type 1 and Marfan’s syndrome. It is important to understand the pathophysiology of abdominal aortic aneurysms in order to identify and manage risk factors, as well as to provide appropriate treatment for those affected. By recognizing the underlying causes and risk factors, healthcare professionals can work to prevent the development of aneurysms and improve outcomes for those affected.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 14
Correct
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A 17-year-old female patient presents with concerns about her acne and its impact on her self-esteem. She has been experiencing acne for a few years and is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill, which has provided some relief. After a thorough discussion, you decide to initiate treatment with topical isotretinoin. What other side effect, in addition to its teratogenic effects, should you inform her about?
Your Answer: Erythema
Explanation:The initial approach to treating acne involves the use of a topical retinoid (such as tretinoin, isotretinoin, or adapalene) or benzoyl peroxide, particularly if there are papules and pustules present. Patients should be informed of the potential side effects of topical retinoids, which may include burning, redness, and dryness of the skin, as well as eye irritation and swelling. However, topical retinoids are not associated with aggravating acne, causing headaches or nausea, or leading to yellowing of the skin.
Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that typically affects adolescents, with the face, neck, and upper trunk being the most commonly affected areas. It is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, leading to the formation of comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the presence and extent of inflammatory lesions, papules, and pustules.
The management of acne vulgaris typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy such as topical retinoids or benzoyl peroxide. If this is not effective, topical combination therapy may be used, which includes a topical antibiotic, benzoyl peroxide, and topical retinoid. Oral antibiotics such as tetracyclines may also be prescribed, but they should be avoided in pregnant or breastfeeding women and children under 12 years of age. Erythromycin may be used in pregnancy, while minocycline is now considered less appropriate due to the possibility of irreversible pigmentation. Oral antibiotics should be used for a maximum of three months and always co-prescribed with a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance.
Combined oral contraceptives (COCP) are an alternative to oral antibiotics in women, and Dianette (co-cyrindiol) may be used as it has anti-androgen properties. However, it has an increased risk of venous thromboembolism compared to other COCPs, so it should generally be used second-line and for only three months. Oral isotretinoin is a potent medication that should only be used under specialist supervision, and it is contraindicated in pregnancy. Finally, there is no evidence to support dietary modification in the management of acne vulgaris.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 15
Correct
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A 26-year-old construction worker visits his GP complaining of elbow swelling that has been present for three weeks. He reports that it started gradually and has no known triggers. The area is painful and warm to the touch, but he has no swelling in other parts of his body and feels generally well. The patient has a history of well-managed rheumatoid arthritis and is taking methotrexate, and has no other medical conditions. During the examination, the doctor detects a tender, soft, fluctuant mass on the back of the patient's elbow. Based on these findings, what is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Olecranon bursitis
Explanation:Olecranon bursitis is a condition that occurs when the olecranon bursa, a fluid-filled sac located over the olecranon process at the proximal end of the ulna, becomes inflamed. This bursa serves to reduce friction between the elbow joint and the surrounding soft tissues. Inflammation can be caused by trauma, infection, or systemic conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis or gout. It is also commonly known as student’s elbow due to the repetitive mild trauma of leaning on a desk using the elbows. The condition can be categorized as septic or non-septic depending on whether an infection is present.
The condition is more common in men and typically presents between the ages of 30 and 60. Causes of olecranon bursitis include repetitive trauma, direct trauma, infection, gout, rheumatoid arthritis, and idiopathic reasons. Patients with non-septic olecranon bursitis typically present with swelling over the olecranon process, while some may also experience tenderness and erythema over the bursa. Patients with septic bursitis are more likely to have pain and fever.
Signs of olecranon bursitis include swelling over the posterior aspect of the elbow, tenderness on palpation of the swollen area, redness and warmth of the overlying skin, fever, skin abrasion overlying the bursa, effusions in other joints if associated with rheumatoid arthritis, and tophi if associated with gout. Movement at the elbow joint should be painless until the swollen bursa is compressed in full flexion.
Investigations are not always needed if a clinical diagnosis can be made and there is no concern about septic arthritis. However, if septic bursitis is suspected, aspiration of bursal fluid for microscopy and culture is essential. Purulent fluid suggests infection, while straw-colored bursal fluid favors a non-infective cause.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 16
Correct
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A 50-year-old woman is discovered in cardiac arrest and her blood test shows:
Sodium 130 mmol/l (135-145)
Potassium 7.3mmol/l (3.5-5.0)
Urea 9.1mmol/l (2.5-7.0)
Creatinine 167 mmol/l (60-110)
To begin with, she is administered IV calcium gluconate.
What effect does this medication have on the electrolyte levels?Your Answer: No change
Explanation:To stabilize the cardiac membrane in cases of hyperkalemia with ECG changes, IV calcium gluconate is administered. This is done to prevent further increase in potassium levels. The removal of potassium from the extracellular space to the intracellular space is achieved through a combination of insulin and dextrose or nebulized salbutamol. Calcium resonium is then used to excrete potassium from the body.
Managing Hyperkalaemia
Hyperkalaemia, if left untreated, can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias. It is important to address any precipitating factors, such as acute kidney injury, and stop any aggravating drugs, such as ACE inhibitors. The management of hyperkalaemia can be categorised by the aims of treatment, which include stabilising the cardiac membrane, shifting potassium from extracellular to intracellular fluid compartments, and removing potassium from the body.
The severity of hyperkalaemia can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, with the latter being defined as a serum potassium level of 6.5 mmol/L or higher. It is important to note that the presence of ECG changes is crucial in determining the appropriate management. ECG changes associated with hyperkalaemia include peaked or ‘tall-tented’ T waves, loss of P waves, broad QRS complexes, and a sinusoidal wave pattern.
The principles of treatment modalities for hyperkalaemia involve stabilising the cardiac membrane with IV calcium gluconate, shifting potassium from extracellular to intracellular fluid compartments with a combined insulin/dextrose infusion or nebulised salbutamol, and removing potassium from the body with calcium resonium, loop diuretics, or dialysis. In practical treatment, all patients with severe hyperkalaemia or ECG changes should receive emergency treatment with IV calcium gluconate, insulin/dextrose infusion, and other temporary measures to lower serum potassium levels. Further management involves stopping exacerbating drugs, treating any underlying cause, and lowering total body potassium with calcium resonium, loop diuretics, or dialysis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 17
Correct
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An informal inpatient who is believed to pose a risk to themselves or others can be detained in hospital for 72 hours for further evaluation under which section of the Mental Health Act (MHA)?
Your Answer: Section 5 (2)
Explanation:The Mental Health Act (MHA) has several sections that allow for compulsory admission and treatment of individuals with mental disorders. Section 5(2) can only be used for inpatients and is implemented by the Responsible Clinician or their designated deputy. It lasts for 72 hours and should be followed by a formal Mental Health Act assessment for consideration of detention under Section 2 or 3. Section 2 allows for compulsory admission and assessment of individuals who cannot be safely assessed in the community and refuse voluntary admission. It requires an application from the patient’s nearest relative or an Approved Mental Health Professional (AMHP) and two medical recommendations. It lasts up to 28 days and can be appealed within 14 days of admission. Section 136 allows the police to remove individuals from public places and take them to a place of safety, such as a Mental Health Unit or Accident and Emergency. Section 3 allows for compulsory admission and treatment of individuals who pose risks to self or others and refuse voluntary admission. It requires an application from the patient’s nearest relative or an AMHP and two medical recommendations. It lasts up to 6 months and can be appealed within the first 6 months and then once a year. Section 4 is an emergency section that allows for detention in hospital for up to 72 hours and requires an application from an AMHP or the patient’s nearest relative and one medical recommendation. It can be converted to Section 2 if a second medical recommendation is obtained within 72 hours and should only be used in urgent cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 18
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man presents to ophthalmology with complaints of progressive vision loss over the past few months, which has worsened suddenly in the last week. On visual field testing, a central scotoma is noted, and fundoscopy reveals well-defined red patches on the retina. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Retinal detachment
Correct Answer: Wet age-related macular degeneration
Explanation:If a patient experiences a gradual decline in vision over several months, along with metamorphopsia and a central scotoma, it is highly likely that they have wet age-related macular degeneration (ARMD). This condition is characterized by a sudden deterioration in vision, red patches on the retina during fundoscopy, and leakage of serous fluid and blood. Acute angle-closure glaucoma, on the other hand, presents with severe headaches, vomiting, and mid-dilated or irregularly shaped pupils. Dry ARMD also causes a slow decline in vision, but it does not result in sudden deterioration or red patches on the retina. Retinal detachment causes a painless loss of vision that starts peripherally and progresses centrally, while vitreous hemorrhage is a common cause of sudden visual loss in diabetics, characterized by dark spots in the vision and a hemorrhage within the vitreous cavity during fundoscopy.
Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD) is a common cause of blindness in the UK, characterized by the degeneration of the central retina (macula) and the formation of drusen. It is more prevalent in females and is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, family history, and conditions that increase the risk of ischaemic cardiovascular disease. ARMD can be classified into two forms: dry and wet. Dry ARMD is more common and is characterized by drusen, while wet ARMD is characterized by choroidal neovascularisation and carries a worse prognosis. Clinical features of ARMD include subacute onset of visual loss, difficulties in dark adaptation, and visual disturbances such as photopsia and glare.
To diagnose ARMD, slit-lamp microscopy and color fundus photography are used to identify any pigmentary, exudative, or haemorrhagic changes affecting the retina. Fluorescein angiography and indocyanine green angiography may also be used to visualize changes in the choroidal circulation. Treatment for dry ARMD involves a combination of zinc with anti-oxidant vitamins A, C, and E, which has been shown to reduce disease progression by around one third. For wet ARMD, anti-VEGF agents such as ranibizumab, bevacizumab, and pegaptanib are used to limit disease progression and stabilize or reverse visual loss. Laser photocoagulation may also be used to slow progression, but anti-VEGF therapies are usually preferred due to the risk of acute visual loss after treatment.
In summary, ARMD is a common cause of blindness in the UK that is strongly associated with advancing age, smoking, and family history. It can be classified into dry and wet forms, with wet ARMD carrying a worse prognosis. Diagnosis involves the use of various imaging techniques, and treatment options include a combination of zinc and anti-oxidant vitamins for dry ARMD and anti-VEGF agents or laser photocoagulation for wet ARMD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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Which of the following statements about routine prenatal care is false?
Your Answer: All women are offered a HIV test
Correct Answer: The early ultrasound scan and nuchal scan should not be done at the same time
Explanation:Nowadays, numerous facilities combine the early ultrasound scan and nuchal scan into a single procedure.
NICE guidelines recommend 10 antenatal visits for first pregnancies and 7 for subsequent pregnancies if uncomplicated. The purpose of each visit is outlined, including booking visits, scans, screening for Down’s syndrome, routine care for blood pressure and urine, and discussions about labour and birth plans. Rhesus negative women are offered anti-D prophylaxis at 28 and 34 weeks. The guidelines also recommend discussing options for prolonged pregnancy at 41 weeks.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 20
Correct
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A 32-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner complaining of occasional abdominal distension and bloating, which varies with her menstrual cycle and is accompanied by episodes of constipation. She works as a teacher and finds work stressful; she has previously taken a course of sertraline for depression/anxiety. On examination, bloods and colonoscopy are normal.
Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)
Explanation:Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a gastrointestinal disorder that causes abdominal pain, bloating, and changes in bowel habits without any identifiable organic pathology. It is more common in women and can be worsened by stress and the perimenstrual period. Diagnosis is made by ruling out other potential causes of symptoms. Management includes dietary changes, such as increasing fiber intake and avoiding trigger foods, as well as psychological support. Medications may also be used to alleviate symptoms. This patient’s symptoms are not consistent with chronic pancreatitis, ulcerative colitis, peptic ulcer disease, or diverticulitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old woman with a four year history of ulcerative colitis is prescribed azathioprine to prevent relapses. What vaccine should she avoid during this treatment?
Your Answer: Pertussis
Correct Answer: Yellow fever
Explanation:Patients who are immunosuppressed, such as those taking azathioprine, should not receive live attenuated vaccines including BCG, MMR, oral polio, yellow fever, and oral typhoid.
Types of Vaccines and Their Characteristics
Vaccines are essential in preventing the spread of infectious diseases. However, it is crucial to understand the different types of vaccines and their characteristics to ensure their safety and effectiveness. Live attenuated vaccines, such as BCG, MMR, and oral polio, may pose a risk to immunocompromised patients. In contrast, inactivated preparations, including rabies and hepatitis A, are safe for everyone. Toxoid vaccines, such as tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis, use inactivated toxins to generate an immune response. Subunit and conjugate vaccines, such as pneumococcus, haemophilus, meningococcus, hepatitis B, and human papillomavirus, use only part of the pathogen or link bacterial polysaccharide outer coats to proteins to make them more immunogenic. Influenza vaccines come in different types, including whole inactivated virus, split virion, and sub-unit. Cholera vaccine contains inactivated strains of Vibrio cholerae and recombinant B-subunit of the cholera toxin. Hepatitis B vaccine contains HBsAg adsorbed onto aluminium hydroxide adjuvant and is prepared from yeast cells using recombinant DNA technology. Understanding the different types of vaccines and their characteristics is crucial in making informed decisions about vaccination.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Immunology/Allergy
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Question 22
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman with diagnosed irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is currently taking loperamide, movicol and hyoscine butylbromide (Buscopan) for management. However, she is still experiencing bloating and abdominal pain.
What would be the next treatment option from the list below?Your Answer: Tricyclic antidepressant (eg amitriptyline)
Explanation:Understanding and Managing Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS)
Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a common functional gastrointestinal disorder that affects 10-20% of the population, with women being more susceptible than men. It is characterized by abdominal pain, bloating, and altered bowel habits without any specific organic pathology. Diagnosis is based on the presence of symptoms for at least 6 months, and physical examination and investigations are used to exclude other differential diagnoses.
Management of IBS involves psychological support and dietary measures, such as fibre supplementation, low FODMAP diets, increased water intake, and avoiding trigger foods. Pharmacological treatment is adjunctive and should be directed at symptoms. Antispasmodics, antidiarrhoeals, and antidepressants may have a positive effect on symptoms. However, the choice of medication should be based on the nature and severity of symptoms, with the option of single or combination medication determined by the predominant symptom(s).
It is important to note that certain medications, such as aspirin and NSAIDs, can worsen IBS symptoms, and laxatives like lactulose should be discouraged. Patients should be made aware of these potential risks and advised accordingly. Overall, a multidisciplinary approach involving healthcare professionals and patients is essential for the effective management of IBS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A feature of a severe acute asthma exacerbation in an adult is:
Your Answer: Peak expiratory flow rate (PEFR) 29% predicted
Correct Answer: Cannot complete full sentences
Explanation:Understanding the Indicators of Acute Asthma Exacerbations
Acute asthma exacerbations can range from mild to life-threatening, and it is important to recognize the indicators of each level of severity. In a severe exacerbation, the individual may not be able to complete full sentences, have a peak expiratory flow rate of 33-50% best or predicted, a respiratory rate of ≥25 breaths/min, a heart rate of ≥110 beats/min, use of accessory muscles, and oxygen saturation of ≥92%. A life-threatening exacerbation is characterized by a peak expiratory flow rate of <33% best or predicted, oxygen saturation of <92%, silent chest, cyanosis, cardiac arrhythmia or hypotension, confusion, coma, or altered consciousness. A moderate exacerbation may include talking in full sentences, a peak expiratory flow rate of >50-75% best or predicted, a respiratory rate of <25 breaths per minute, and a heart rate of <110 beats/min. Finally, a life-threatening exacerbation may also include a peak expiratory flow rate of <33% best or predicted, oxygen saturation of <92%, silent chest, cyanosis, cardiac arrhythmia or hypotension, confusion, coma, or altered consciousness, as well as exhaustion and poor respiratory effort. It is important to understand these indicators in order to properly assess and treat acute asthma exacerbations.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old man presents with complaints of weight loss and fatigue that have been ongoing for several months. Upon examination, the only notable finding is pallor. A blood film reveals the presence of immature blasts, and genetic testing shows the presence of a chromosomal translocation t(9;22) - the Philadelphia chromosome. Further investigations reveal the following results: Hb of 95 g/l (normal range: 135-175 g/l), leukocytes of 62 × 109/l (normal range: 4.0-11.0 × 109/l), and PLT of 101 × 109/l (normal range: 150-400 × 109/l). What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Acute lymphocytic leukaemia (ALL)
Correct Answer: Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML)
Explanation:Chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML) is a rare form of cancer that occurs due to the abnormal growth of myeloid precursors or blasts. This leads to an increase in white blood cells and a decrease in the normal functions of the bone marrow, resulting in anaemia and thrombocytopenia. CML is most commonly seen in people between the ages of 60 and 70 and has a slow onset that can last for months or even years. The majority of cases are caused by a genetic mutation called the Philadelphia chromosome, which produces a protein that promotes the growth of cancer cells. Symptoms of CML include fatigue, weight loss, night sweats, abdominal distension, and left upper quadrant pain. Treatment for CML involves inhibiting the genetic mutation with a drug called imatinib.
Acute lymphocytic leukaemia (ALL) is a type of cancer that occurs due to the abnormal growth of immature lymphocytes, which replace the normal cells of the bone marrow and lead to a decrease in blood cell production. ALL is most commonly seen in children and presents with symptoms such as anaemia, fever, and abdominal pain. Diagnosis is made through bone marrow biopsy and genetic analysis, which can reveal chromosomal abnormalities associated with the disease.
Hodgkin’s lymphoma (HL) is a type of cancer that typically presents with enlarged lymph nodes and is associated with the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells, which are abnormal B cells. Multiple myeloma (MM) is a cancer that affects plasma cells in the bone marrow, leading to a decrease in blood cell production and other symptoms such as hypercalcemia and kidney dysfunction. Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma (NHL) is a type of cancer that arises from the abnormal growth of B cells, T cells, or natural killer cells and can be caused by genetic mutations, infections, or chronic inflammation. Symptoms of NHL include enlarged lymph nodes throughout the body.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 25
Correct
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A 24-year-old man presents to his GP with right-sided facial weakness. He complains of weakness on the right side of his face, especially when smiling or chewing. He also reports occasional twitching of his right cheek, which started 3 days ago after a flu-like illness. However, he notes that it is already starting to improve.
During examination, the GP observes mild impairment of the facial muscles on the entire right side of the patient's face, including his forehead. Otoscopy is normal, and examination of the eye is unremarkable. The rest of the cranial nerve exam and upper limb neurological exam is normal.
What is the recommended management for this likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Oral prednisolone and artificial tears
Explanation:Patients with Bell’s palsy should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset, regardless of the severity of their symptoms or any improvement since onset. This is important to differentiate Bell’s palsy from other conditions such as cerebral events and Ramsay-Hunt syndrome. Eye protection with lid taping or lubricating eye drops should also be considered. Therefore, the correct answer is oral prednisolone and artificial tears. Oral aciclovir alone is not sufficient as it does not provide steroids or eye protection. Reassurance only and advice to return if symptoms persist after 2 weeks is not appropriate as treatment should be offered within the 72-hour window. Urgent referral to ENT is not necessary as the diagnosis can be made and managed in primary care, but non-urgent referral may be necessary in severe or prolonged cases or where the diagnosis is unclear.
Understanding Bell’s Palsy
Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It is more common in individuals aged 20-40 years and pregnant women. The condition is characterized by lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy, which affects the forehead. Unlike upper motor neuron lesions, the upper face is spared. Patients may also experience post-auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.
The management of Bell’s palsy has been a subject of debate. However, it is now widely accepted that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, but it may be beneficial for severe facial palsy. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients should be prescribed artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eyes at bedtime, they should tape them closed using microporous tape.
If the paralysis shows no sign of improvement after three weeks, an urgent referral to ENT is necessary. Patients with long-standing weakness may require a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within 3-4 months. However, untreated patients may experience permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old farm worker is admitted to hospital with a 5-day history of headache, fever, severe myalgia and a petechial rash. He is jaundiced, febrile, has tachycardia and has not passed urine for over 14 hours. His urea level is raised and liver function tests indicate hepatocellular damage.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Lyme disease
Correct Answer: Weil’s disease
Explanation:Comparing Zoonotic Infections: Symptoms and Characteristics
Weil’s Disease, Brucellosis, Lyme Disease, Orf, and Rat-bite Fever are all zoonotic infections that can be transmitted from animals to humans. However, each infection has its own unique symptoms and characteristics.
Weil’s Disease is a severe form of leptospirosis caused by Leptospira icterohaemorrhagiae. It is transmitted via direct or indirect contact with animals, especially rodents. Symptoms include flu-like symptoms, severe headache, petechial or purpuric rashes, epistaxis, jaundice, renal failure, meningism, and multiorgan failure.
Brucellosis is caused by the bacterial genus Brucella and is transmitted from animals to humans by ingestion of infected food products, direct contact with an infected animal, or inhalation of aerosols. Symptoms include fever, myalgia, weight loss, coughing, vomiting, lymphadenopathy, and splenomegaly. Males may develop epididymo-orchitis.
Lyme Disease is caused by Borrelia burgdorferi and is transmitted to humans via tick bites from infected ticks. Symptoms include isolated erythema migrans, the characteristic skin rash which has the appearance of a ‘bull’s eye’ and a febrile illness. Untreated patients may go on to develop cardiac, neurological or rheumatological symptoms months after the initial bite.
Orf is a zoonotic mucocutaneous lesion caused by a pox virus and is most commonly seen in workers who handle sheep. Symptoms include firm red papules that develop, enlarge, and become painful before spontaneously resolving. Systemic illness is rare with orf.
Rat-bite Fever is an acute, febrile illness caused by bacteria transmitted by rodents. Symptoms include fever, a rash, and polyarthritis. The rash is usually widespread and may be maculopapular, petechial, or purpuric.
In summary, each zoonotic infection has its own unique symptoms and characteristics, making it important to accurately diagnose and treat each infection accordingly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 27
Correct
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A 33-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with acute chest pain described as tearing in nature. Upon clinical examination, a diastolic murmur consistent with aortic regurgitation is detected. Further investigation with chest computerised tomography (CT) confirms the presence of an ascending aortic dissection. The patient has a medical history of spontaneous pneumothorax and upward lens dislocation, but no significant family history. What is the probable underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Marfan syndrome
Explanation:Common Genetic and Neurological Syndromes: Symptoms and Characteristics
Marfan Syndrome, Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome, Homocystinuria, Korsakoff Syndrome, and Loffler Syndrome are all genetic and neurological syndromes that affect individuals in different ways.
Marfan Syndrome is caused by a mutation in the fibrillin gene, resulting in weakened elastic fibers and aortic dissection. Ehlers-Danlos Syndrome is characterized by fragile blood vessels, hyperelastic skin, and aneurysm formation. Homocystinuria is an autosomal recessive condition that causes downward lens dislocation, thrombotic episodes, osteoporosis, and intellectual disability. Korsakoff Syndrome occurs after Wernicke’s encephalopathy and results in the inability to acquire new memories. Finally, Loffler Syndrome is a transient respiratory condition caused by the allergic infiltration of the lungs by eosinophils.
Understanding the symptoms and characteristics of these syndromes is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 28
Correct
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A 42-year-old man presents to your clinic with concerns of feeling excessively fatigued. He is anxious that he may have developed diabetes, similar to his father. Upon conducting a blood test, his HbA1c levels are found to be 45 mmol/mol. What would be the most appropriate step to take next?
Your Answer: Discuss diet and exercise
Explanation:An HbA1c level ranging from 42-47 mmol/mol suggests the presence of prediabetes. Individuals with this condition should be motivated to enhance their physical activity, shed excess weight, and adopt a healthier diet by consuming more dietary fiber and reducing fat intake. Metformin may be an option for those with prediabetes, but the initial dose should be 500mg once daily. Regular HbA1c monitoring is necessary for individuals diagnosed with prediabetes as they are at a heightened risk of developing diabetes.
Type 2 diabetes mellitus can be diagnosed through a plasma glucose or HbA1c sample. The diagnostic criteria vary depending on whether the patient is experiencing symptoms or not. If the patient is symptomatic, a fasting glucose level of 7.0 mmol/l or higher or a random glucose level of 11.1 mmol/l or higher (or after a 75g oral glucose tolerance test) indicates diabetes. If the patient is asymptomatic, the same criteria apply but must be demonstrated on two separate occasions.
In 2011, the World Health Organization released supplementary guidance on the use of HbA1c for diagnosing diabetes. A HbA1c level of 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) or higher is diagnostic of diabetes mellitus. However, a HbA1c value of less than 48 mmol/mol (6.5%) does not exclude diabetes and may not be as sensitive as fasting samples for detecting diabetes. For patients without symptoms, the test must be repeated to confirm the diagnosis. It is important to note that increased red cell turnover can cause misleading HbA1c results.
There are certain conditions where HbA1c cannot be used for diagnosis, such as haemoglobinopathies, haemolytic anaemia, untreated iron deficiency anaemia, suspected gestational diabetes, children, HIV, chronic kidney disease, and people taking medication that may cause hyperglycaemia (such as corticosteroids).
Impaired fasting glucose (IFG) is defined as a fasting glucose level of 6.1 mmol/l or higher but less than 7.0 mmol/l. Impaired glucose tolerance (IGT) is defined as a fasting plasma glucose level less than 7.0 mmol/l and an OGTT 2-hour value of 7.8 mmol/l or higher but less than 11.1 mmol/l. People with IFG should be offered an oral glucose tolerance test to rule out a diagnosis of diabetes. A result below 11.1 mmol/l but above 7.8 mmol/l indicates that the person does not have diabetes but does have IGT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 29
Correct
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A 79-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of a painless leg ulcer that has been present for a few weeks. Upon examination, the GP observes a superficial erythematous oval-shaped ulcer above her medial malleolus, with hyperpigmentation of the surrounding skin. The patient's ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) is 0.95. What is the initial management strategy that should be employed?
Your Answer: Compression bandaging
Explanation:The recommended treatment for venous ulceration is compression bandaging, which is appropriate for this patient who exhibits typical signs of the condition such as hyperpigmentation and an ulcer located above the medial malleolus. Before initiating compression treatment, an ABPI was performed to rule out arterial disease, which was normal. Hydrocolloid dressings have limited benefit for venous ulceration, while flucloxacillin is used to treat cellulitis. Diabetic foot ulcers are painless and tend to occur on pressure areas, while arterial ulcers have distinct characteristics and are associated with an abnormal ABPI.
Venous Ulceration and its Management
Venous ulceration is a type of ulcer that is commonly seen above the medial malleolus. To assess for poor arterial flow that could impair healing, an ankle-brachial pressure index (ABPI) is important in non-healing ulcers. A normal ABPI is usually between 0.9 – 1.2, while values below 0.9 indicate arterial disease. Interestingly, values above 1.3 may also indicate arterial disease, particularly in diabetics, due to false-negative results caused by arterial calcification.
The only treatment that has been shown to be of real benefit for venous ulceration is compression bandaging, usually four-layer. Oral pentoxifylline, a peripheral vasodilator, can also improve the healing rate. There is some small evidence supporting the use of flavonoids, but little evidence to suggest benefit from hydrocolloid dressings, topical growth factors, ultrasound therapy, and intermittent pneumatic compression. Proper management of venous ulceration is crucial to promote healing and prevent complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 7-year-old boy who has recently arrived from India complains of fever. During examination, extensive cervical lymphadenopathy is observed and a grey coating is seen surrounding the tonsils. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Actinomycosis
Correct Answer: Diphtheria
Explanation:Understanding Diphtheria: Causes, Symptoms, and Treatment
Diphtheria is a bacterial infection caused by the Gram positive bacterium Corynebacterium diphtheriae. The pathophysiology of this disease involves the release of an exotoxin encoded by a β-prophage, which inhibits protein synthesis by catalyzing ADP-ribosylation of elongation factor EF-2. This toxin commonly causes a ‘diphtheric membrane’ on tonsils, resulting in a grey, pseudomembrane on the posterior pharyngeal wall. Systemic distribution may produce necrosis of myocardial, neural, and renal tissue.
Possible presentations of diphtheria include sore throat with a ‘diphtheric membrane’, bulky cervical lymphadenopathy, and neuritis of cranial nerves. It may also result in a ‘bull neck’ appearance and heart block. People who have recently visited Eastern Europe, Russia, or Asia are at a higher risk of contracting this disease.
To diagnose diphtheria, a culture of throat swab is taken using tellurite agar or Loeffler’s media. The treatment for diphtheria involves intramuscular penicillin and diphtheria antitoxin.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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