-
Question 1
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old woman presents to her GP with a complaint of general malaise. Upon conducting blood tests, the following results were obtained:
Adjusted calcium: 2.3 mmol/L (2.2-2.4)
Phosphate: 0.9 mmol/L (0.7-1.0)
PTH: 8.09 pmol/L (1.05-6.83)
Urea: 7.8 mmol/L (2.5-7.8)
Creatinine: 145 μmol/L (60-120)
25 OH Vit D: 48 nmol/L (optimal >75)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Acute renal failure
Correct Answer: Chronic kidney disease
Explanation:Creatinine and Calcium Homeostasis in CKD 3 Patients
In patients with CKD 3, elevated creatinine levels indicate a decline in kidney function. However, interpreting creatinine levels can be challenging without considering factors such as body habitus and muscle mass. To determine the severity of CKD 3, an eGFR calculation can be performed, which typically results in a value of 30-59 ml/min/1.73m2.
Patients with CKD 3 may experience multiple abnormalities in calcium homeostasis. While plasma concentrations of calcium and phosphate are usually normal at this stage, subtle changes may occur as CKD3 progresses towards CKD 4. For example, reduced hydroxylation of vitamin D by the kidney enzyme 1-alpha hydroxylase can lead to a slight increase in PTH levels.
Vitamin D insufficiency is common in CKD3 patients and can be caused by various risk factors such as old age, immobility, institutionalization, and darker skin color. While suboptimal levels of vitamin D may contribute to calcium homeostasis abnormalities, it is not the only factor to consider in CKD3 management.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
-
-
Question 2
Correct
-
Dr. Patel is a nephrologist who has five patients attending his clinic. The patients' results are as follows:
Adam Ahmed Bella Brownie Charlie Chen David Davis
Urine protein mg/24 hrs: 150 4000 3000 200 300
Haematuria: Present Absent Present Present Absent
Oedema: Absent Present Present Absent Absent
Serum albumin g/l: 24 18 26 17 32
Serum creatinine µmol/l: 430 110 280 560 120
Which patient is diagnosed with nephrotic syndrome?Your Answer: Bella Barnard
Explanation:Nephrotic Syndrome
Nephrotic syndrome is a condition characterized by low serum albumin levels, high urinary protein levels, and marked pitting edema. Only individuals who meet all three criteria are diagnosed with this syndrome. Other features of nephrotic syndrome include little or no hematuria, glomerular pathology as the cause, marked hyperlipidemia that increases cardiovascular risk, reduced immunoglobulins that increase the risk of infection, and loss of certain proteins that increase the risk of thrombosis, including renal vein thrombosis. Creatinine levels can be normal or elevated.
The causes of nephrotic syndrome include glomerulonephritis, such as minimal change disease and membranous glomerulonephritis, focal segmental glomerulosclerosis, diabetic nephropathy, amyloid (AL form), and connective tissue disease such as systemic lupus erythematosus. the diagnostic criteria and features of nephrotic syndrome is crucial for early detection and management of this condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
A 70-year-old patient receiving haemodialysis three times a week through a tunnelled internal jugular line arrives at the dialysis unit feeling well.
However, 15 minutes after starting haemodialysis he develops a fever, his blood pressure drops rapidly and he becomes unwell. He is sweaty and appears confused.
He still passes small volumes of urine and has a history of diverticular disease.
What could be the possible reason for his symptoms?Your Answer: Haemodialysis line infection
Explanation:Rapidly Unwell Patient on Haemodialysis: Consider Line Infection
When a patient who was previously healthy becomes rapidly unwell after starting haemodialysis, it is crucial to consider the possibility of a line infection. Symptoms may include low blood pressure, sweating, and a fever. Although haemodialysis lines are silver-coated to reduce the risk of infection, line infection remains a significant problem. During haemodialysis, blood is returned to the patient through the infected line, causing a rapid bacteraemia and systemic inflammatory response that can lead to a sudden drop in blood pressure.
While other conditions such as urinary tract or lower respiratory tract infections and perforated diverticulum are possible, they are less likely to present as rapidly as a line infection. Patients with end-stage renal failure are at higher risk of cardiovascular disease, including myocardial infarction, but chest pain that develops after a drop in blood pressure may indicate a secondary rather than primary cause. Although a fever is more suggestive of infection, it is important to obtain an ECG and check for signs of myocardial infarction. In summary, when a patient on haemodialysis becomes rapidly unwell, line infection should be considered as a potential cause.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
-
-
Question 4
Incorrect
-
A 59-year-old man is undergoing his routine dialysis treatment when he suddenly experiences intense chest pain and difficulty breathing. He has been on dialysis for the past nine years and uses a fistula for the procedure. So far, there have been no issues with the dialysis machine or circuit. After the session, his blood pressure is 150/85 mmHg, and an ECG is performed. What could be the probable reason for his chest pain?
Your Answer: Air embolism
Correct Answer: Acute coronary syndrome
Explanation:Acute coronary syndrome is the most common cause of chest pain and shortness of breath in dialysis patients due to their increased risk of coronary disease. Air embolism, hypotension, massive haemolysis, and pulmonary embolism are also possible causes but are less likely. Air embolism is rare but can occur in patients with central lines, while hypotension is more common in the elderly and new starters on dialysis. Massive haemolysis is rare but serious, and pulmonary embolism can occur if there is a known thrombus in the fistula.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
A 25-year-old man is brought to the Emergency department by his friends after being found on the floor following a night out. There are suspicions that he may have taken drugs, although the exact substance is unknown. Upon examination, he is found to be semi-conscious with a rapid respiratory rate. A catheterisation procedure yields 25 mls of dark brown coloured urine which tests positive for haemoglobin using urinalysis.
What potential blood and electrolyte imbalances should be anticipated in this patient?Your Answer: Hyperuricaemia with acidosis
Explanation:Rhabdomyolysis: Symptoms and Treatment
Rhabdomyolysis is a medical condition that occurs when there is a rapid breakdown of skeletal muscle. This condition is associated with several biochemical abnormalities, including elevated levels of creatine kinase (CK), potassium, urate, and myoglobinuria. Additionally, calcium levels may be elevated intracellularly in myocytes, but normal or low in the blood during the early stages of the disease. However, as the disease progresses, calcium levels in the blood may increase. Acidosis is also a common symptom of rhabdomyolysis.
Early and aggressive treatment is crucial in managing rhabdomyolysis. Rehydration and managing hyperkalemia can help reduce the likelihood of developing complications such as arrhythmias due to electrolyte disturbance, renal failure, disseminated intravascular coagulation, and compartment syndrome. By the symptoms and seeking prompt medical attention, individuals with rhabdomyolysis can receive the necessary treatment to manage the condition and prevent further complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
-
-
Question 6
Incorrect
-
A 67-year-old man presents to the hospital with acute chest pain. He reports experiencing increasing shortness of breath on exertion, a widespread itchy rash, palpitations over the past few days, and ankle swelling. He has not seen his GP in many years due to a lack of trust in doctors. Upon examination, he has a pericardial rub and crackles at both lung bases. Blood tests reveal abnormalities in haemoglobin, white cell count, potassium, urea, creatinine, and CRP levels, as well as baseline troponin. A chest radiograph shows blunting of both costophrenic angles, and an ECG shows widespread ST elevation. What is the most likely cause of his chest pain?
Your Answer: Myocardial infarction
Correct Answer: Uraemic pericarditis
Explanation:Diagnosis and Differential Diagnosis of a Patient with Severe Renal Impairment
This patient has presented with severe renal impairment and a rash that is indicative of either uraemia or hyperphosphataemia, both of which are consequences of renal impairment. The patient’s low haemoglobin levels and long history suggest that this may be a chronic condition. The patient’s ECG changes and borderline troponin levels are consistent with pericarditis, which is likely to be uraemic pericarditis rather than viral myocarditis due to the patient’s high urea levels. While a myocardial infarction is possible, ECG changes are typically limited to one coronary territory. Pulmonary emboli could cause ECG changes, but usually present with sinus tachycardia or signs of right heart strain. An atypical pneumonia is unlikely to cause ECG changes or a rise in troponin, and the patient’s clinical presentation does not support this diagnosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
What is the primary role of the kidneys in eliminating waste in a person who is in good health?
Your Answer: Excretion of nitrogenous waste
Explanation:The Kidney’s Role in Excretion of Nitrogenous Waste and Urate
In healthy individuals, the kidney’s primary function is to eliminate toxic nitrogen-containing waste resulting from the breakdown of excess protein. Urea, the primary nitrogenous waste product, is formed through the deamination of excess amino acids. Additionally, the kidney plays a role in the excretion of urate, which comes from the breakdown of nucleic acids from both endogenous and exogenous sources.
However, in diabetic patients with hyperglycemia, glucose is often found in the urine. In normoglycemic individuals, the kidney does not play a role in regulating blood sugar levels. Similarly, the kidney has little involvement in the excretion of fat-soluble substances and lipids.
The liver, on the other hand, plays a significant role in rendering compounds water-soluble to facilitate renal excretion. Substances that remain relatively insoluble are excreted in the bile.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
-
-
Question 8
Correct
-
As a locum GP, you are tasked with reviewing blood results for five patients you have never met before. The following results have been provided for each patient:
Patient A: Adjusted calcium - 2.3 mmol/L, Phosphate - 0.9 mmol/L, PTH - 8.09 pmol/L, Urea - 7.8 mmol/L, Creatinine - 132 μmol/L, Albumin - 36 g/L
Patient B: Adjusted calcium - 2.9 mmol/L, Phosphate - 0.5 mmol/L, PTH - 7.2 pmol/L, Urea - 5 mmol/L, Creatinine - 140 μmol/L, Albumin - 38 g/L
Patient C: Adjusted calcium - 2.0 mmol/L, Phosphate - 2.8 mmol/L, PTH - 12.53 pmol/L, Urea - 32.8 mmol/L, Creatinine - 540 μmol/L, Albumin - 28 g/L
Patient D: Adjusted calcium - 2.5 mmol/L, Phosphate - 1.6 mmol/L, PTH - 2.05 pmol/L, Urea - 32.8 mmol/L, Creatinine - 190 μmol/L, Albumin - 40 g/L
Patient E: Adjusted calcium - 2.2 mmol/L, Phosphate - 0.7 mmol/L, PTH - 5.88 pmol/L, Urea - 4.6 mmol/L, Creatinine - 81 μmol/L, Albumin - 18 g/L
Your task is to identify which patient is likely to have CKD 5.Your Answer: Patient C
Explanation:Interpretation of Patient C’s Lab Results
Patient C’s lab results indicate chronic kidney disease (CKD) rather than acute renal failure (ARF). The creatinine result corresponds to an eGFR of less than 15 ml/min/1.73m2, which is consistent with CKD 5 in a male or female aged 20-80-years-old. Additionally, the patient has hypocalcaemia, hyperphosphataemia, and an elevation of parathyroid hormone, which are metabolic changes commonly seen in CKD 4-5 but not in ARF of short duration. The relatively higher creatinine result compared to urea also suggests CKD rather than ARF, where dehydration can lead to even higher urea levels.
It is likely that this patient is already dialysis-dependent or will require regular review by a nephrology team. The decision to start dialysis is based on various factors, including fluid overload, hyperkalaemia, uraemic symptoms, life expectancy, and patient/clinician preference. Most patients start dialysis with an eGFR of around 10 ml/min/1.73m2.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
What are the expected urinalysis results for a 23-year-old patient with abdominal pain, dehydration, anorexia, and marked hyperglycemia who may have a new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes?
A) Haemoglobin: Negative
Urobilinogen: Negative
Bilirubin: Negative
Protein: Positive
Glucose: Positive (+++)
Nitrites: Negative
Leucocytes: Positive
B) Haemoglobin: Negative
Urobilinogen: Negative
Bilirubin: Negative
Protein: Negative
Glucose: Positive
Nitrites: ++
Leucocytes: ++
C) Haemoglobin: Negative
Urobilinogen: Negative
Bilirubin: Negative
Protein: Negative
Glucose: +
Nitrites: +++
Leucocytes: +++
D) Haemoglobin: Negative
Urobilinogen: Negative
Bilirubin: Negative
Protein: Negative
Glucose: Negative
Nitrites: Negative
Leucocytes: Negative
E) Haemoglobin: +++
Urobilinogen: +
Bilirubin: +
Protein: Negative
Glucose: Negative
Nitrites: Negative
Leucocytes: NegativeYour Answer: C
Correct Answer: B
Explanation:Diabetic Ketoacidosis and Urinary Tract Infection
This patient is exhibiting symptoms that are commonly associated with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), a serious complication of diabetes. The presence of high levels of glucose and ketones in the urine, as indicated by the urinalysis, further supports this diagnosis. DKA can occur in both new and established type 1 diabetic patients and is often triggered by an infection. In this case, it is likely that a urinary tract infection (UTI) was the precipitating factor.
It is important to recognize the signs and symptoms of DKA, as prompt treatment is necessary to prevent serious complications. Patients with DKA may experience symptoms such as excessive thirst, frequent urination, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, and confusion. If left untreated, DKA can lead to coma or even death. In addition to treating the underlying infection, treatment for DKA typically involves insulin therapy, fluid replacement, and electrolyte management.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
A 50-year-old woman presents to the rheumatology clinic with joint pain, weight loss, a vasculitic rash, and overall fatigue. Upon examination, she has elevated inflammatory markers, blood and protein in her urine, and positive MPO ANCA antibodies. She is urgently referred to renal physicians and undergoes a renal biopsy, which reveals crescentic glomerulonephritis. The diagnosis is microscopic polyangiitis. What is the most suitable initial treatment?
Your Answer: IV methylprednisolone
Explanation:Treatment Options for ANCA Vasculitis
In patients with a new diagnosis of ANCA vasculitis and multi-organ involvement, it is crucial to start reducing inflammation as soon as possible. The most appropriate initial therapy is IV steroids due to their rapid onset of action. Azathioprine is used for maintenance therapy and preventing relapse, but it takes several weeks to have its full effect and is not suitable for organ-threatening disease. Cyclophosphamide is the next choice of treatment and is often used in combination with IV steroids. Plasma exchange is used in severe cases, but its benefit over other therapies is still unclear. Rituximab is becoming more popular as an alternative to cyclophosphamide and has been shown to be as effective at inducing remission. However, all patients will receive IV steroids before receiving a definitive agent such as cyclophosphamide or rituximab. In patients with pulmonary haemorrhage or rapid deterioration, plasma exchange should be considered as a means of reducing antibody titres. Proper treatment is essential for managing ANCA vasculitis and preventing further complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
-
-
Question 11
Correct
-
A 50-year-old man is struggling with hypertension that is not responding to his current medications. His GP added ramipril to his amlodipine and doxazosin two months ago, but his blood pressure remains high at 162/75 mmHg. The GP decides to increase the ramipril dose to 1.25 mg once daily. However, the patient already has mild renal impairment due to his hypertension, so the GP follows NICE guidance and orders further renal function testing in two weeks. Unfortunately, the patient's creatinine level has increased from 150 to 210 μmol/L. What should the GP's next course of action be?
Your Answer: Refer to renal services for further investigation
Explanation:Possible Renal Artery Stenosis in Resistant Hypertension
When a patient experiences a rise in their serum creatinine of more than 30% after starting an ACE inhibitor, it may suggest that they have underlying renal artery stenosis causing their resistant hypertension. However, a rise of less than 23% can be considered normal, and it is recommended to repeat blood tests in two weeks to ensure that the creatinine levels are not increasing.
A renal ultrasound may not provide a clear answer, and it is ideal to perform an angiogram to confirm the diagnosis. This can be done as a CT or MR angiogram for planning purposes, or as a combined angiogram with or without angioplasty if renal artery stenosis is found. Therefore, it is important to consider the possibility of renal artery stenosis in patients with resistant hypertension and a significant rise in serum creatinine after starting an ACE inhibitor.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
-
-
Question 12
Incorrect
-
A 40-year-old man has just finished a round of chemotherapy for leukemia. During a routine check-up, he is discovered to have proteinuria with a level of 1000 mg/24 hours. Upon examination, there are no red cell casts present in his urine. What could be the probable reason for his proteinuria?
Your Answer: Glomerular proteinuria
Correct Answer: Tubular proteinuria
Explanation:Causes of Tubular Proteinuria
Tubular proteinuria is a condition where proteins are excreted in the urine due to damage to the renal tubules. One common cause of this condition is chemotherapy, particularly ifosphamide and platinum-based agents. Other causes include Fanconi’s syndrome, heavy metal poisoning, tubulointerstitial disease, and the use of certain drugs such as gentamicin. Diabetes, infections, and transplant rejection can also lead to tubular proteinuria.
In summary, there are various factors that can cause tubular proteinuria, and it is important to identify the underlying cause in order to provide appropriate treatment. Patients who have undergone chemotherapy should be monitored for signs of renal tubular damage, and any medication that may contribute to the condition should be reviewed. Early detection and management of tubular proteinuria can help prevent further kidney damage and improve patient outcomes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
-
-
Question 13
Incorrect
-
As a locum GP, you have been presented with blood results for five patients you have never met before. The results are as follows:
Patient A: Adjusted calcium - 2.8 mmol/L, Phosphate - 0.9 mmol/L, PTH - 8.09 pmol/L, Urea - 7.8 mmol/L, Creatinine - 132 μmol/L, Albumin - 36 g/L.
Patient B: Adjusted calcium - 2.9 mmol/L, Phosphate - 0.5 mmol/L, PTH - 7.2 pmol/L, Urea - 5 mmol/L, Creatinine - 140 μmol/L, Albumin - 38 g/L.
Patient C: Adjusted calcium - 2.0 mmol/L, Phosphate - 2.8 mmol/L, PTH - 12.53 pmol/L, Urea - 32.8 mmol/L, Creatinine - 540 μmol/L, Albumin - 28 g/L.
Patient D: Adjusted calcium - 2.5 mmol/L, Phosphate - 1.6 mmol/L, PTH - 2.05 pmol/L, Urea - 32.8 mmol/L, Creatinine - 190 μmol/L, Albumin - 40 g/L.
Patient E: Adjusted calcium - 2.2 mmol/L, Phosphate - 0.7 mmol/L, PTH - 5.88 pmol/L, Urea - 4.6 mmol/L, Creatinine - 81 μmol/L, Albumin - 18 g/L.
Your task is to identify which patient is likely to have acute kidney injury (AKI). Take your time to carefully review the results and make an informed decision.Your Answer: Patient C
Correct Answer: Patient D
Explanation:Biochemical Indicators of Dehydration and Kidney Function
The biochemical indicators in a patient’s blood can provide insight into their kidney function and hydration status. In cases of dehydration leading to acute renal failure (ARF) or acute kidney injury (AKI), there may be slight elevations in calcium and phosphate levels, indicating some haemoconcentration. However, the urea level is typically significantly higher compared to a more modest increase in creatinine. A urea level of 32 mmol/L is commonly seen in AKI, whereas in stable chronic kidney disease (CKD), it would typically be associated with a much higher creatinine level.
CKD often presents with multiple biochemical abnormalities that are not typically seen in AKI. These include hypocalcaemia, increased levels of parathyroid hormone (PTH) as a compensatory response to hypocalcaemia, and anemia due to erythropoietin and iron deficiency. Patients with primary hyperparathyroidism, such as Patient A and B, may have inappropriately high PTH levels with mild hypercalcaemia. Patient C, on the other hand, has CKD with secondary hyperparathyroidism. Finally, Patient E has normal blood indicators, suggesting no significant kidney or hydration issues.
Overall, the biochemical indicators of dehydration and kidney function can aid in diagnosing and managing ARF, AKI, and CKD.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
-
-
Question 14
Incorrect
-
A 67-year-old man has been diagnosed with multiple myeloma. His serum protein electrophoresis reveals an IgA paraprotein of 60 g/l. Upon diagnosis, his urine shows protein levels of approximately 900 mg/24 hours. However, after undergoing chemotherapy, his urinary protein excretion returns to normal levels. What is the probable reason for his proteinuria?
Your Answer: Nephrogenic proteinuria
Correct Answer: Pre-renal proteinuria
Explanation:Causes of Overflow Proteinuria
Overflow proteinuria is a condition where there is an excessive amount of protein in the urine due to elevated levels of protein in the serum. This condition is often caused by pre-renal factors such as paraproteins or Bence Jones protein in multiple myeloma, myoglobin in rhabdomyolysis and after excessive exercise, amylase in pancreatitis, haemoglobin in intravascular haemolysis, and lysozyme in haematological malignancies.
While myeloma can also cause intrinsic renal damage, in cases where the proteinuria has normalized, overflow proteinuria is the most likely cause. This condition can be identified through urine tests and is often treated by addressing the underlying cause. the causes of overflow proteinuria can help in the diagnosis and management of this condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
-
-
Question 15
Correct
-
A 65-year-old woman with known CKD stage 4 due to type 2 diabetes and obesity is admitted with cellulitis that has not responded to oral antibiotics. MRSA is detected in swabs, and she is started on IV vancomycin. She is also taking carbamazepine, omeprazole, warfarin, and chloramphenicol eye drops. Three days later, the laboratory urgently calls to report her vancomycin level is 54 (therapeutic range 10-20), and regular dosing is immediately stopped. What is the most likely cause of her elevated levels?
Your Answer: Inadequate renal clearance
Explanation:Vancomycin and its Clearance in CKD Patients
Vancomycin is a drug that is primarily cleared through the kidneys. In patients with stage 4 chronic kidney disease (CKD), the drug may accumulate in the body due to regular dosing in excess of what the kidneys can handle. This can lead to high levels of vancomycin in the bloodstream. However, liver enzyme inhibitors such as omeprazole and carbamazepine do not affect vancomycin clearance. Therefore, they are unlikely to increase the drug levels in the body.
Warfarin, on the other hand, does not affect liver enzymes but may be altered by enzyme inducers or inhibitors. It is important to monitor warfarin levels in patients taking vancomycin to avoid any potential drug interactions. Although obesity may affect the volume of distribution of vancomycin, dosing for normal renal function is unlikely to lead to high levels in obese patients. Overall, it is crucial to consider the patient’s renal function and adjust the vancomycin dose accordingly to prevent toxicity.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
-
-
Question 16
Correct
-
What is not a cause of haematuria in children?
Your Answer: Measles
Explanation:Causes of Haematuria
Haematuria, or blood in the urine, can be caused by various factors. Measles is not one of them. However, conditions such as meatal ulcer and urinary tract infection can lead to haematuria. Additionally, an advanced Wilms’ tumour can also cause this symptom. Another cause of haematuria is Schistosomiasis, which is a parasitic infection caused by Schistosoma haematobium. In this case, the blood in the urine is due to bladder involvement. It is important to identify the underlying cause of haematuria in order to provide appropriate treatment and prevent further complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
-
-
Question 17
Incorrect
-
A 26-year-old man with chronic renal failure received a renal transplant from a matched related donor. After being discharged with a functioning graft, he returned to the nephrology clinic a month later with a high fever and was admitted for further investigation. During his first evening in the hospital, his condition rapidly worsened, and he became dyspneic. A full blood count revealed significant leukopenia, and his liver function tests were severely abnormal. What is the probable cause of his illness?
Your Answer: Parvovirus B19
Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus
Explanation:CMV Infection and Organ Transplantation
Cytomegalovirus (CMV) infection is a significant cause of morbidity and mortality in patients who have undergone organ transplantation. The likelihood of developing CMV infection after transplantation depends on two primary factors: whether the donor or recipient has a latent virus that can reactivate after transplantation and the degree of immunosuppression after the procedure.
The most severe type of post-transplant CMV infection is primary disease, which occurs in individuals who have never been infected with CMV and receive an allograft that contains latent virus from a CMV-seropositive donor. This type of infection is the most common and can be particularly dangerous for patients who have undergone organ transplantation. Proper monitoring and management of CMV infection are essential for ensuring the best possible outcomes for these patients.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
-
-
Question 18
Incorrect
-
A patient who has been on peritoneal dialysis for three weeks has reported that despite instilling a full 2 litre bag of fluid, he only gets 1.9 litres back. Additionally, he has noticed swelling in his abdomen and tenderness upon palpation. What could be the probable cause of these issues?
Your Answer: Absorption of fluid
Correct Answer: Leak from catheter site
Explanation:Common Issues with Peritoneal Dialysis Catheters
Leakage is a common issue with peritoneal dialysis catheters, especially in patients who have had previous abdominal surgery. It can be noticed as fluid leaking around the exit site or causing mild swelling. Reducing fluid volumes may help, but catheter repair or replacement may be necessary. If patients show signs of fluid overload, a higher concentration of osmotic agent may be required. Catheter malposition is often painful and occurs early after insertion. Constipation is the most common cause of outflow obstruction, which tends to be consistent or worsening. Kinking of the catheter also occurs early after insertion and can cause problems with fluid inflow and outflow. Proper management of these issues is important for the success of peritoneal dialysis treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
-
-
Question 19
Incorrect
-
A 67-year-old woman presents to her GP with a four month history of general malaise, weight loss, night sweats and fevers.
Examination shows a non-blanching rash across her lower legs, feet and hands. She has mild widespread wheeze and a systolic murmur consistent with her known COPD and aortic stenosis.
Temperature is 38°C, BP 150/100 mmHg. Urine dipstick is positive for blood and protein. Bloods show a raised creatinine at 140 umol/l, CRP of 230 mg/l, ESR of 45 mm/hr, with mild anaemia and mild leucocytosis. Her autoimmune screen is pending.
She is admitted for further investigation. What would be the next investigation of choice?Your Answer: Renal biopsy
Correct Answer: Peripheral blood cultures
Explanation:Diagnosis and Investigation of a Patient with Chronic Symptoms
The most probable diagnosis for a patient presenting with constitutional symptoms, a known valve lesion, fever, vasculitic rash, and raised inflammatory markers is subacute bacterial endocarditis (SBE). Therefore, the most appropriate investigation would be blood cultures. Although her symptoms are consistent with a chronic infection, inflammatory process, or malignancy, the combination of her symptoms makes bacterial endocarditis the most likely diagnosis. A false positive ANCA test can be seen in chronic infections, and it is well described in SBE.
A chest radiograph would be appropriate to look for malignancy or infection in a woman with a smoking history and known COPD. However, the examination findings are not consistent with a lung malignancy, and the history is too chronic for pneumonia. It is important to consider the patient’s symptoms and medical history when determining the appropriate investigation and diagnosis. Proper diagnosis and investigation can lead to effective treatment and management of the patient’s condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
-
-
Question 20
Incorrect
-
A 67-year-old man with diabetes comes in for his annual check-up. He reports occasional cramping in his calf after walking about a mile on flat ground, but is otherwise feeling well. He admits to smoking five cigarettes a day. During the exam, his blood pressure is measured at 166/98 mmHg, with a pulse of 86 bpm and a BMI of 30.2. Neurological exam is normal and his fundi appear normal. However, examination of his peripheral circulation reveals absent feet pulses and weak popliteal pulses. He is started on antihypertensive therapy and his U+Es are measured over a two-week period, with the following results:
Baseline:
Sodium - 138 mmol/L
Potassium - 4.6 mmol/L
Urea - 11.1 mmol/L
Creatinine - 138 µmol/L
2 weeks later:
Sodium - 140 mmol/L
Potassium - 5.0 mmol/L
Urea - 19.5 mmol/L
Creatinine - 310 µmol/L
Which class of antihypertensives is most likely responsible for this change?Your Answer: Beta blocker
Correct Answer: Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor therapy
Explanation:Renal Artery Stenosis and ACE Inhibitors
This individual with diabetes is experiencing hypertension and arteriopathy, as indicated by mild claudication symptoms and absent pulses in the feet. These factors, combined with macrovascular disease and mild renal impairment, suggest a potential diagnosis of renal artery stenosis (RAS). The introduction of an antihypertensive medication, specifically an ACE inhibitor, resulted in a decline in renal function, further supporting the possibility of RAS. In RAS, hypertension occurs due to the activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system in an attempt to maintain renal perfusion. However, ACE inhibition can lead to relative renal ischemia, exacerbating the condition. This highlights the importance of considering RAS as a potential cause of hypertension and carefully monitoring the use of ACE inhibitors in individuals with this condition.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
-
-
Question 21
Correct
-
A patient is admitted from clinic eight weeks following a renal transplant. Despite feeling well, his creatinine has increased from a baseline of 120 umol/l to 170 umol/l in just one week. After a normal ultrasound scan, he undergoes a transplant biopsy which reveals linear C4d staining along the peritubular capillaries and widespread glomerulitis with neutrophil and macrophage infiltration. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Antibody mediated rejection
Explanation:C4d Staining as a Marker for Antibody Mediated Rejection
Linear staining for C4d is a useful tool in detecting complement activation via the classical pathway, which is mediated by antibodies. C4d is a breakdown component of C4 that binds to the basement membrane, indicating antibody mediated complement activation. In cases where antibody mediated rejection is suspected, C4d staining is highly sensitive for acute rejection. A serum sample for donor specific antibodies should be sent off urgently to confirm the diagnosis.
Chronic background antibody mediated rejection can also show C4d staining, but the presence of C4d along the peritubular capillaries is a strong indicator of acute antibody mediated rejection. This, along with the presence of glomerulitis and acute inflammatory infiltrate, supports the diagnosis of acute antibody mediated rejection.
Other conditions, such as acute tubular necrosis, bacterial pyelonephritis, acute viral infection, and acute cellular rejection, can be ruled out based on their distinct features. Acute tubular necrosis shows flattening of the tubular epithelium with sloughing of the cells, while bacterial pyelonephritis tends to cause a tubulointerstitial nephritis. Acute viral infection and acute cellular rejection both show lymphocytic infiltration rather than granulocyte infiltration, but can be distinguished through blood viral PCR and virus specific stains.
In summary, C4d staining is a valuable tool in detecting antibody mediated complement activation and can aid in the diagnosis of acute antibody mediated rejection. Other conditions can be ruled out based on their distinct features, and further testing may be necessary to confirm the diagnosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
-
-
Question 22
Correct
-
Are there any immunosuppressant drugs that can cause severe myelosuppression along with unpleasant gastrointestinal side effects? It is important to note that while all immunosuppressants have potential side effects such as increased risk of infection and malignancy, certain drugs may have specific side effects due to their unique mechanisms of action.
Your Answer: Mycophenolate mofetil
Explanation:Myelosuppression and Gastrointestinal Side Effects of Immunosuppressive Drugs
Immunosuppressive drugs are commonly used in the treatment of autoimmune diseases and organ transplantation. However, they can cause myelosuppression, a condition where the bone marrow is suppressed and the production of blood cells is reduced. Mycophenolate mofetil (MMF) is known to cause myelosuppression even at low doses, so it is important to monitor patients’ full blood count (FBC) after starting treatment with MMF or azathioprine. Azathioprine is also associated with myelosuppression, but it is more commonly linked to abnormal liver function tests (LFTs) than gastrointestinal (GI) upset.
Patients taking MMF often experience diarrhea, which can be managed by starting with a low dose and gradually increasing it over several weeks. It is crucial to monitor patients for myelosuppression and other side effects of immunosuppressive drugs to ensure their safety and well-being. By doing so, healthcare providers can adjust the dosage or switch to a different medication if necessary. Proper monitoring and management of side effects can help patients achieve better outcomes and improve their quality of life.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
-
-
Question 23
Incorrect
-
A 50-year-old man visits his doctor with symptoms of a vasculitic rash, joint pains, and swollen ankles. He reports feeling unwell, fatigued, and experiencing weight loss. During the visit, his urine dipstick shows blood and protein, and urgent blood tests reveal worsening kidney function with elevated inflammatory markers. The doctor suspects microscopic polyangiitis and requests an autoimmune screening. What autoantibody is expected to be positive in this case?
Your Answer: c-ANCA with MPO specificity
Correct Answer: p-ANCA with MPO specificity
Explanation:ANCA and its association with small vessel vasculitides
Antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA) are a characteristic feature of small vessel vasculitides such as microscopic polyangiitis (MPA) and granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA). These antibodies can also be seen in eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (eGPA), previously known as Churg-Strauss syndrome. ANCA has two staining patterns, cytoplasmic (c-ANCA) and perinuclear (p-ANCA), which are detected through immunofluorescence. These antibodies are directed against proteins within the cytoplasmic granules of neutrophils. In most cases, c-ANCA has specificity for proteinase 3 (PR3) and p-ANCA has specificity for myeloperoxidase (MPO).
In patients with GPA, ANCA positivity is observed in approximately 90% of cases, with 80-90% being c-ANCA positive with PR3 specificity. In contrast, in patients with MPA, approximately 60% are p-ANCA positive with MPO specificity, and around 35% have c-ANCA.
The history of the patient in question is more consistent with MPA, and therefore, the most likely test to be positive is p-ANCA with MPO specificity. ANA is usually associated with systemic lupus erythematosus, which could present with similar symptoms, but the patient’s age and sex are more in line with ANCA vasculitis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
-
-
Question 24
Incorrect
-
In the treatment of autoimmunity and to prevent rejection following solid organ transplantation, various immunosuppressant drugs are used, each with its own mechanism of action and specific side effects. However, all of them carry the risk of increased susceptibility to infection and malignancy. At what age is new onset of diabetes after transplantation (NODAT) commonly associated with medication?
Your Answer: Cyclophosphamide
Correct Answer: Tacrolimus
Explanation:New Onset Diabetes After Transplantation (NODAT)
New onset diabetes after transplantation (NODAT) is a condition that is becoming increasingly common among transplant recipients. It is estimated that between 5-20% of recipients develop NODAT within the first year after transplantation, and up to 30% in the longer term. The use of prednisolone is often associated with NODAT, especially in patients who had impaired glucose tolerance before the transplant. However, calcineurin inhibitors such as ciclosporin and tacrolimus are also known to increase the risk of NODAT. The risk of NODAT with ciclosporin is around 5%, while it can be as high as 20% with tacrolimus. Sirolimus, another immunosuppressive drug, is also believed to be diabetogenic, with similar rates to ciclosporin. It is worth noting that cyclophosphamide is not used in transplantation immunotherapy, while azathioprine and mycophenolate mofetil are not associated with NODAT.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
-
-
Question 25
Correct
-
A 63-year-old man was diagnosed with granulomatosis with polyangiitis (GPA) two years ago and achieved remission after receiving pulsed cyclophosphamide. He has been maintained on oral azathioprine and a low dose of prednisolone since then. Recently, he returned to the clinic before his scheduled appointment with worsening ENT symptoms, haemoptysis, and declining renal function. Two months prior, he had a superficial bladder cancer (stage Ta, no invasion, single lesion) that was resected, followed by a single dose of postoperative chemotherapy. Given his new diagnosis, what is the most appropriate treatment for his vasculitis flare?
Your Answer: Rituximab therapy
Explanation:Treatment Dilemma for a Patient with Vasculitis
This patient is facing a difficult situation as he requires immunosuppressive therapy to manage his vasculitis, which is organ-threatening, but most immunosuppressants increase the risk of cancer. Increasing oral steroids would provide short-term relief but come with significant side effects. Azathioprine and mycophenolate mofetil are unlikely to control his disease in time and are associated with an increased risk of malignancy. Cyclophosphamide should be avoided as it is known to cause bladder cancer.
However, there is a potential solution in rituximab, a monoclonal antibody that targets CD20, a surface marker on most B cells. Rituximab has been shown to be as effective as cyclophosphamide in treating ANCA vasculitis, but with a much better side effect profile. A two-year course of rituximab therapy can even allow for the withdrawal of other immunosuppressants, which would be particularly helpful in this patient’s case. Overall, while the patient’s situation is challenging, rituximab may provide a viable treatment option.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
-
-
Question 26
Incorrect
-
A 49-year-old man underwent a kidney transplant two years ago due to end stage renal failure caused by ANCA associated vasculitis. He recently visited the clinic with complaints of sweating palms, weight loss, insomnia, and tremors. Upon conducting thyroid function tests, an undetectable TSH and a free T4 of 25 mg/dL (NR 4.5-11.5) were observed. The patient was diagnosed with Graves' disease after testing positive for thyroid stimulating hormone receptor (TSH-R) antibodies. Which medication could have potentially contributed to this condition?
Your Answer: Ciclosporin
Correct Answer: Alemtuzumab
Explanation:Alemtuzumab is a monoclonal antibody used to treat autoimmune diseases and can cause lymphocyte depletion. However, it is associated with autoimmunity after treatment, particularly autoimmune thyroid disease. Regular thyroid function screening is important for patients who have received alemtuzumab. Other monoclonal antibodies, such as adalimumab, basiliximab, rituximab, and ciclosporin, are not known to be associated with autoimmunity.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
-
-
Question 27
Incorrect
-
A 32-year-old smoker presents with acute shortness of breath and oxygen saturation of 84% on air. He has been feeling unwell and fatigued for a week, with worsening shortness of breath over the past 24 hours and two episodes of haemoptysis. On examination, he has sinus tachycardia, a blood pressure of 140/85 mmHg, normal JVP, and widespread coarse crackles on chest auscultation. Blood tests reveal a haemoglobin level of 92 g/L (130-180), urea level of 40 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), and creatinine level of 435 μmol/L (60-110). The urine dipstick shows +++ blood and ++ protein. A chest radiograph shows widespread patchy opacification. What is the most likely cause of his presentation?
Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus
Correct Answer: Goodpasture's syndrome
Explanation:Pulmonary Renal Syndrome and Anti-GBM Disease
This medical condition is also known as anti-GBM disease and is characterized by a pulmonary renal syndrome. It is commonly seen in patients with anti-GBM disease. Smokers are more likely to experience pulmonary hemorrhage, and the presence of blood and protein on urine dipstick suggests renal inflammation, which is consistent with this diagnosis. Although pulmonary renal syndrome can also occur with systemic lupus erythematosus, this is less likely in this patient due to his sex and lack of systemic symptoms.
Pulmonary edema is a significant differential diagnosis for pulmonary hemorrhage, especially in the context of acute kidney injury. However, the patient’s normal JVP makes fluid overload less likely. Atypical or opportunistic infections can also present with renal impairment, but the low hemoglobin level suggests hemorrhage rather than infection. Overall, this patient’s presentation is consistent with pulmonary renal syndrome and anti-GBM disease.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
-
-
Question 28
Correct
-
As an Emergency department doctor, a 24-year-old man comes to the department with a complaint of blood in his urine that started yesterday. He is typically healthy but recently had a throat infection. Upon conducting a urinalysis, the results are as follows: Haemoglobin +++, Urobilinogen Negative, Bilirubin Negative, Protein +, Glucose Negative, Nitrites Negative, Leucocytes Negative, and Ketones +. What could be the probable reason for these findings?
Your Answer: Nephritic syndrome
Explanation:Nephritic Syndrome and its Underlying Conditions
Nephritic syndrome is a medical condition characterized by blood in the urine, which is likely to be of renal origin. However, it is not a diagnosis in itself and can occur with various underlying renal conditions. The main differential diagnosis for nephritic syndrome is renal stones, which are usually associated with pain.
The underlying conditions that can cause nephritic syndrome include many types of glomerulonephritis, haemolytic uraemic syndrome, Henoch-Schönlein purpura, Goodpasture syndrome, infective endocarditis, systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) or lupus nephritis, vasculitis, and viral diseases such as hepatitis B or C, EBV, measles, and mumps.
When diagnosing nephritic syndrome, urinalysis is crucial as it will show abundant haemoglobin. However, it is important to note that this can sometimes lead to false positives for bilirubin and urobilinogen, which are related substances. the underlying conditions that can cause nephritic syndrome is essential for proper diagnosis and treatment.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
-
-
Question 29
Incorrect
-
An 80-year-old man arrives at the Emergency department feeling generally ill. The laboratory contacts you to report dangerously low serum sodium levels before you can see him. After diagnosis, it is discovered that he has a hormone excess. Which hormone could be the cause?
Your Answer: Aldosterone
Correct Answer: Antidiuretic hormone
Explanation:Hormonal Imbalances and Their Effects on Sodium Levels
Hormones play a crucial role in regulating various bodily functions, including water and sodium balance. Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) allows for water reabsorption in the collecting ducts, independent of sodium. However, an excess of ADH can lead to hyponatraemia, a condition characterized by low levels of sodium in the blood. This is commonly caused by dehydration, but can also be due to medications, tumours, or lung diseases.
On the other hand, aldosterone is responsible for tubular Na+ and Cl- reabsorption, water retention, and K+ excretion. In excess, one would expect hypernatraemia, or high levels of sodium in the blood. However, the elevation in plasma sodium is usually mild, as the increased sodium is balanced by water retention.
When ADH is excessively produced, it is known as the syndrome of inappropriate ADH (SIADH). This results in net retention of water and a decrease in sodium levels. In mild cases, this can cause confusion and unsteadiness, but in severe cases, it can lead to coma and even death.
It is important to note that hyponatraemia is a common finding in hospitalized patients, and inappropriate ADH secretion is often blamed. However, this should only be considered in the context of a euvolaemic patient, meaning they are not dehydrated or overloaded. Correction of this imbalance should be prioritized before seeking other potential causes.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
-
-
Question 30
Incorrect
-
A 65-year-old man undergoing haemodialysis experiences leg cramps towards the end of his three-hour session. These cramps persist throughout the evening after dialysis and gradually subside. What substance are we removing excessively that could be causing these cramps?
Your Answer: Aluminium
Correct Answer: Fluid
Explanation:The patient is likely experiencing cramps due to too much fluid being removed during dialysis, leading to hypoperfusion of muscles. Hypokalaemia, hyponatraemia, and hypocalcaemia can also cause cramps, but are less likely to be the cause in this case. Removal of urea is unlikely to cause any symptoms.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Secs)