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  • Question 1 - Which of the following statements is true for prostate cancer? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is true for prostate cancer?

      Your Answer: It is the third most common cancer in men.

      Correct Answer: There is currently no screening programme for prostate cancer in the UK.

      Explanation:

      Prostate Cancer: Facts and Controversies

      Prostate cancer is the second most common cancer in men in developed countries, with an estimated one in six men being diagnosed with it in their lifetime. However, there is currently no screening programme for prostate cancer in the UK due to the controversial nature of PSA testing. PSA tests can yield unreliable results and may lead to unnecessary treatment for slow-growing tumours that may never cause symptoms or shorten life. Although treating prostate cancer in its early stages can be beneficial, the potential side effects of treatment may cause men to delay treatment until it is absolutely necessary.

      The 5-year relative survival rates for prostate cancer vary depending on the stage of the cancer at diagnosis, with local or regional prostate cancer having a survival rate of over 99%, while distant disease has a survival rate of 29%. The Gleason grade, tumour volume, and presence of capsular penetration or margin positivity are important indicators of prognosis for prostate cancer.

      Prostate cancer is also the second most common cause of cancer death in men, accounting for 8% of cancer deaths. Advanced prostate cancer may not involve pain, but can result in a range of symptoms including weight loss, anorexia, bone pain, neurological deficits, and lower extremity pain and oedema.

      Overall, prostate cancer remains a complex and controversial disease, with ongoing debates surrounding screening and treatment options.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      46.7
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old woman with a dichorionic twin pregnancy is concerned about the possibility...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman with a dichorionic twin pregnancy is concerned about the possibility of her twins having Down's syndrome. What is the most suitable investigation to perform in this case?

      Your Answer: Triple screen (maternal serum biochemistry)

      Correct Answer: Nuchal translucency ultrasonography on each twin

      Explanation:

      There are several methods for screening and diagnosing Down’s syndrome in pregnancy. The nuchal translucency scan, which measures fluid in the fetal neck, is best done between 11 and 14 weeks and can detect an increased risk of genetic syndromes. The triple screen, which measures levels of certain hormones in the mother’s blood, is done in the second trimester and can detect up to 69% of cases in singleton pregnancies, but may have a higher false positive or false negative in twin pregnancies. Amniocentesis and chorionic villous sampling are invasive diagnostic tests that can detect chromosomal disorders with high accuracy, but carry a small risk of pregnancy loss. The routine anomaly scan should not be used for Down’s syndrome screening. Cell-free fetal DNA screening is a newer method that can detect about 99% of Down’s syndrome pregnancies, but is currently only offered by private clinics at a high cost. A positive screening result suggests an increased risk for Down’s syndrome, and definitive testing with chorionic villous sampling or amniocentesis is indicated.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      43.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 63-year-old man visits your clinic for his regular asthma inhaler prescription. During...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old man visits your clinic for his regular asthma inhaler prescription. During the consultation, he mentions experiencing difficulty in sustaining his erections and requests a prescription for sildenafil. What is the most prevalent side effect of sildenafil?

      Your Answer: Priapism

      Correct Answer: Headaches

      Explanation:

      Sildenafil is frequently prescribed in primary care. Adverse effects of sildenafil consist of headaches, facial flushing, indigestion, and temporary visual disturbances with a blue-green tint.

      Understanding Phosphodiesterase Type V Inhibitors

      Phosphodiesterase type V (PDE5) inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. These drugs work by increasing the levels of cGMP, which leads to the relaxation of smooth muscles in the blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which was the first drug of its kind. It is a short-acting medication that is usually taken one hour before sexual activity.

      Other PDE5 inhibitors include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra). Tadalafil is longer-acting than sildenafil and can be taken on a regular basis, while vardenafil has a similar duration of action to sildenafil. However, these drugs are not suitable for everyone. Patients taking nitrates or related drugs, those with hypotension, and those who have had a recent stroke or myocardial infarction should not take PDE5 inhibitors.

      Like all medications, PDE5 inhibitors can cause side effects. These may include visual disturbances, blue discolouration, non-arteritic anterior ischaemic neuropathy, nasal congestion, flushing, gastrointestinal side-effects, headache, and priapism. It is important to speak to a healthcare professional before taking any medication to ensure that it is safe and appropriate for you.

      Overall, PDE5 inhibitors are an effective treatment for erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. However, they should only be used under the guidance of a healthcare professional and with careful consideration of the potential risks and benefits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following medications is most likely to cause a rash when...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following medications is most likely to cause a rash when exposed to sunlight?

      Your Answer: Amoxicillin

      Correct Answer: Tetracycline

      Explanation:

      Drugs that can cause sensitivity to light

      Photosensitivity is a condition where the skin becomes more sensitive to light, resulting in rashes, blisters, and other skin irritations. Certain drugs can cause photosensitivity, making it important to be aware of the medications that can cause this condition. Some of the drugs that can cause photosensitivity include thiazides, tetracyclines, sulphonamides, ciprofloxacin, amiodarone, NSAIDs like piroxicam, psoralens, and sulphonylureas.

      Thiazides are a type of diuretic that can cause photosensitivity, while tetracyclines, sulphonamides, and ciprofloxacin are antibiotics that can also cause this condition. Amiodarone is a medication used to treat heart rhythm problems, but it can also cause photosensitivity. NSAIDs like piroxicam are pain relievers that can cause photosensitivity, while psoralens are used to treat skin conditions like psoriasis and can also cause photosensitivity. Sulphonylureas are medications used to treat diabetes that can cause photosensitivity as well.

      It is important to note that not everyone who takes these medications will experience photosensitivity, but it is still important to be aware of the potential side effects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      6.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A nurse updates you on a 29-year-old woman who is 24 weeks pregnant....

    Incorrect

    • A nurse updates you on a 29-year-old woman who is 24 weeks pregnant. The nurse reports that her blood pressure reading is 155/90 mmHg, which has increased from her previous reading of 152/85 mmHg taken 2 days ago. The woman had no health issues before her pregnancy. What is the initial course of action in this scenario?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral labetalol

      Explanation:

      Oral labetalol is the recommended initial treatment for this woman with moderate gestational hypertension, as per the current guidelines.

      Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.

      There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.

      The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 6 - A 25-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner concerned about a red, itchy...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner concerned about a red, itchy rash that developed while she was on holiday in Spain. On examination, she has an inflamed eczematous rash on her face, neck, arms and legs, with a few blisters. She has sparing of skin in areas that have been covered by her swimwear. She is currently being treated for acne and takes no other regular medications. She has no other known medical conditions.
      Which of the following medications is most likely to have caused this patient’s rash?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral lymecycline

      Explanation:

      Understanding Photosensitivity and Acne Treatments

      Photosensitivity is a common side-effect of certain medications used to treat acne. This abnormal reaction to ultraviolet (UV) radiation can cause a rash, particularly when exposed to UVA rays. Primary photosensitive conditions include polymorphic light eruption or solar urticaria, while secondary photosensitivity may be caused by medications such as tetracyclines or retinoids, or exposure to psoralens released by plants.

      Lymecycline, a tetracycline antibiotic commonly used to treat acne, is known to cause photosensitivity. Oral erythromycin, a macrolide antibiotic used to treat acne, does not typically cause photosensitive skin reactions. Topical azelaic acid and clindamycin are also used to treat acne but are not known to cause photosensitivity. Topical benzoyl peroxide may cause local skin reactions but is not associated with photosensitivity. It is important to be aware of the potential side-effects of acne treatments and to take precautions to protect the skin from UV radiation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
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  • Question 7 - A 32-year-old construction worker visits his doctor complaining of hay fever symptoms. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old construction worker visits his doctor complaining of hay fever symptoms. He is experiencing frequent sneezing and a runny nose and is seeking medication to alleviate his discomfort. Considering his job, which antihistamine would be safe for him to use?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Loratadine

      Explanation:

      Loratadine is an antihistamine that does not cause drowsiness. It works by targeting histamine H1 receptors to relieve allergy symptoms like sneezing and runny nose. As the patient is a heavy goods vehicle driver, it is advisable to recommend a non-sedating antihistamine like loratadine. Chlorphenamine, on the other hand, is a sedating antihistamine used in anaphylaxis treatment and is not suitable for the patient’s occupation. Cimetidine inhibits stomach acid production and does not help with allergy symptoms. Cinnarizine is a sedating antihistamine used for nausea and vomiting and may not be effective for the patient’s condition. Diphenhydramine is also a sedating antihistamine and not recommended for the patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      0
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  • Question 8 - A 40-year-old male visits his GP complaining of pain in his foot and...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old male visits his GP complaining of pain in his foot and lower limb that worsens at night. He reports that the pain alleviates when he dangles his leg over the bed's edge. Upon further inquiry, he mentions experiencing 'pins and needles' in his fingers, which feel cold. The patient has no medical history but is a heavy smoker, consuming 25 cigarettes per day. What is the probable diagnosis based on the given information?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Buerger's disease

      Explanation:

      Buerger’s disease (thromboangiitis obliterans) is the likely diagnosis for a young male smoker experiencing symptoms similar to limb ischaemia. This non-atherosclerotic vasculitis primarily affects medium-sized arteries and is most common in young male smokers. Symptoms include cold sensation or paraesthesia in the limbs or fingers, rest pain, and possible ulceration or gangrene. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis and peripheral vascular disease are important differentials to consider, but unlikely in this case. Sickle cell anaemia and vitamin B12 deficiency are also less likely explanations for the symptoms.

      Understanding Buerger’s Disease

      Buerger’s disease, also known as thromboangiitis obliterans, is a type of vasculitis that affects the small and medium-sized blood vessels. This condition is strongly linked to smoking and can cause a range of symptoms, including extremity ischemia, intermittent claudication, ischaemic ulcers, superficial thrombophlebitis, and Raynaud’s phenomenon.

      Individuals with Buerger’s disease may experience reduced blood flow to their limbs, which can lead to pain, numbness, and tingling sensations. This can make it difficult to walk or perform other activities, and may even result in the development of ulcers or sores on the skin.

      Superficial thrombophlebitis, or inflammation of the veins close to the surface of the skin, is another common symptom of Buerger’s disease. This can cause redness, swelling, and tenderness in the affected area.

      Raynaud’s phenomenon, which is characterized by the narrowing of blood vessels in the fingers and toes, is also associated with Buerger’s disease. This can cause the affected areas to turn white or blue and feel cold and numb.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      0
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  • Question 9 - A 32-year-old patient with a history of psoriasis complains of redness in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old patient with a history of psoriasis complains of redness in the groin and genital region, as well as in the axilla. The patient has previously mentioned a distaste for creams that are messy or difficult to use. What is the best course of treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Topical steroid

      Explanation:

      Topical steroids are effective in treating flexural psoriasis in this patient.

      NICE recommends a step-wise approach for chronic plaque psoriasis, starting with regular emollients and then using a potent corticosteroid and vitamin D analogue separately, followed by a vitamin D analogue twice daily, and then a potent corticosteroid or coal tar preparation if there is no improvement. Phototherapy, systemic therapy, and topical treatments are also options for management. Topical steroids should be used cautiously and vitamin D analogues may be used long-term. Dithranol and coal tar have adverse effects but can be effective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      0
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  • Question 10 - How many units of alcohol are in a 750ml bottle of red wine...

    Incorrect

    • How many units of alcohol are in a 750ml bottle of red wine with an alcohol by volume of 12%?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 9 units

      Explanation:

      To calculate alcohol units, multiply the volume in milliliters by the alcohol by volume (ABV) and divide by 1,000.

      Alcohol consumption guidelines were revised in 2016 by the Chief Medical Officer, based on recommendations from an expert group report. The most significant change was a reduction in the recommended maximum number of units of alcohol for men from 21 to 14, aligning with the guidelines for women. The government now advises that both men and women should not exceed 14 units of alcohol per week, and if they do, it is best to spread it evenly over three or more days. Pregnant women are advised not to drink alcohol at all, as it can cause long-term harm to the baby. One unit of alcohol is equivalent to 10 mL of pure ethanol, and the strength of a drink is determined by its alcohol by volume (ABV). Examples of one unit of alcohol include a 25ml single measure of spirits with an ABV of 40%, a third of a pint of beer with an ABV of 5-6%, and half a 175ml standard glass of red wine with an ABV of 12%. To calculate the number of units in a drink, multiply the number of millilitres by the ABV and divide by 1,000.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      0
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  • Question 11 - A 49-year-old woman comes in with worries about her elbow pain after spending...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old woman comes in with worries about her elbow pain after spending the weekend painting her house. During examination, there is noticeable pain around the lateral epicondyle, leading to a possible diagnosis of lateral epicondylitis. Which of the following movements would typically exacerbate the pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Resisted wrist extension with the elbow extended

      Explanation:

      Lateral epicondylitis is aggravated when the wrist is extended or supinated against resistance while the elbow is extended.

      Understanding Lateral Epicondylitis

      Lateral epicondylitis, commonly known as tennis elbow, is a condition that often occurs after engaging in activities that the body is not accustomed to, such as painting or playing tennis. It is most prevalent in individuals aged 45-55 years and typically affects the dominant arm. The primary symptom of this condition is pain and tenderness localized to the lateral epicondyle. The pain is often exacerbated by wrist extension against resistance with the elbow extended or supination of the forearm with the elbow extended. Episodes of lateral epicondylitis can last between 6 months and 2 years, with patients experiencing acute pain for 6-12 weeks.

      To manage lateral epicondylitis, it is essential to avoid muscle overload and engage in simple analgesia. Steroid injections and physiotherapy are also viable options for managing the condition. By understanding the symptoms and management options for lateral epicondylitis, individuals can take the necessary steps to alleviate pain and discomfort associated with this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      0
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  • Question 12 - A 25-year-old woman is seeking your assistance in getting a referral to a...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman is seeking your assistance in getting a referral to a clinical geneticist. She has a family history of Huntington's disease, with her grandfather having died from the condition and her father recently diagnosed. She wants to learn more about the disease and its genetic inheritance. Which of the following statements is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Huntington's disease is caused by a defect on chromosome 4

      Explanation:

      The cause of Huntington’s disease is a flaw in the huntingtin gene located on chromosome 4, resulting in a degenerative and irreversible neurological disorder. It is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern and affects both genders equally.

      Understanding Huntington’s Disease

      Huntington’s disease is a progressive and incurable neurodegenerative condition that is inherited through an autosomal dominant pattern. It is caused by a trinucleotide repeat disorder, specifically an expansion of CAG. This results in the degeneration of cholinergic and GABAergic neurons in the striatum of the basal ganglia due to a defect in the huntingtin gene on chromosome 4.

      One notable feature of Huntington’s disease is the phenomenon of anticipation, where the disease presents at an earlier age in successive generations. Symptoms typically develop after the age of 35 and include chorea, dystonia, saccadic eye movements, personality changes such as irritability, apathy, and depression, as well as intellectual impairment.

      It is important to note that there is currently no cure for Huntington’s disease, and treatment is focused on managing symptoms and improving quality of life. Early diagnosis and genetic counseling can be helpful for individuals and families affected by this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      0
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  • Question 13 - A 60-year-old woman has blood tests done by her primary care physician during...

    Incorrect

    • A 60-year-old woman has blood tests done by her primary care physician during a routine check-up. The results show a decline in her renal function. Upon further examination, she reports experiencing ankle swelling and increased fatigue. The renal team suspects she may have amyloidosis. What diagnostic test could be used to confirm this diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Renal biopsy

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Methods for Renal Amyloidosis

      Renal amyloidosis is a condition that can be challenging to diagnose. It is caused by the accumulation of proteinaceous material in tissues, which can be identified through a biopsy. Congo-red staining extracellular fibrillar material is a characteristic feature of amyloid protein in the kidney. While a urine dip may show proteinuria, a renal biopsy is necessary for a definitive diagnosis as proteinuria can be caused by other conditions. A bone marrow biopsy can confirm amyloidosis if there is suspicion of bone marrow infiltration. CT scans of the abdomen may reveal abnormalities in the kidneys or lymph nodes, but a renal biopsy is still required for a definitive diagnosis. As amyloidosis can affect other organs, a lung biopsy may not be the most targeted approach for diagnosing renal amyloidosis. Overall, a renal biopsy is the most reliable method for diagnosing renal amyloidosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 14 - A 67-year-old woman presents with a 2-week history of frequent loose stools, left...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman presents with a 2-week history of frequent loose stools, left iliac fossa discomfort and fever without rectal bleeding.

      Three months ago she was treated for confirmed Clostridium difficile infection with oral vancomycin, with a resolution of symptoms.

      On examination, her heart rate is 90 bpm, respiratory rate of 18 breaths/min, temperature 37.6ºC and blood pressure of 130/86 mmHg. Her abdomen is generally mildly tender, without guarding.

      A repeat stool culture confirms Clostridium difficile infection.

      What is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral fidaxomicin

      Explanation:

      If a patient experiences a recurrent episode of C. difficile within 12 weeks of symptom resolution, it is recommended to treat them with oral fidaxomicin. However, the use of bezlotoxumab to prevent recurrences is not currently supported by NICE due to cost-effectiveness concerns. Faecal microbiota transplant may be considered for patients who have had two or more previous episodes, but not on the first recurrence. In cases of life-threatening Clostridium difficile infection, both oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole should be used for treatment.

      Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It is a Gram positive rod that produces an exotoxin which can cause damage to the intestines, leading to a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is suppressed by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause of C. difficile. Other risk factors include proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale, which ranges from mild to life-threatening.

      To diagnose C. difficile, a stool sample is tested for the presence of C. difficile toxin (CDT). Treatment for a first episode of C. difficile infection typically involves oral vancomycin for 10 days, with fidaxomicin or a combination of oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole being used as second and third-line therapies. Recurrent infections occur in around 20% of patients, increasing to 50% after their second episode. In such cases, oral fidaxomicin is recommended within 12 weeks of symptom resolution, while oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin can be used after 12 weeks. For life-threatening C. difficile infections, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole are used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 15 - Which of the following is most commonly linked to male infertility? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is most commonly linked to male infertility?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Varicoceles

      Explanation:

      Infertility may be linked to varicoceles.

      Understanding Varicocele: Symptoms, Diagnosis, and Management

      Varicocele is a medical condition characterized by the abnormal enlargement of the veins in the testicles. Although it is often asymptomatic, it can lead to infertility, making it an important condition to address. Varicoceles are more commonly found on the left side of the testicles, with over 80% of cases occurring on this side. The condition is often described as a bag of worms due to the appearance of the affected veins.

      Diagnosis of varicocele is typically done through ultrasound with Doppler studies. This allows doctors to visualize the affected veins and determine the extent of the condition. While conservative management is often recommended, surgery may be necessary if the patient experiences pain or discomfort. However, there is ongoing debate regarding the effectiveness of surgery in treating infertility associated with varicocele.

      Overall, understanding varicocele is important for men who may be experiencing infertility or other symptoms related to the condition. With proper diagnosis and management, it is possible to address the issue and improve overall reproductive health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 16 - A 63-year-old woman presents to the gastroenterology ward with a 4-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old woman presents to the gastroenterology ward with a 4-day history of profuse, foul-smelling diarrhoea. Stool cultures are taken and reveal a positive Clostridium difficile toxin. She is treated with oral vancomycin for 10 days and discharged home. However, she returns to the hospital 4 days later with ongoing diarrhoea. On examination, she has a temperature of 38.2ºC, heart rate of 99 beats/min, and blood pressure of 120/68 mmHg. Her abdomen is tender but soft with no guarding. What is the next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Oral fidaxomicin

      Explanation:

      If the initial treatment with vancomycin fails to treat Clostridioides difficile, the next recommended option is oral fidaxomicin, unless the infection is life-threatening. In such cases, other treatment options should be considered. Faecal transplant is not typically used until after second and third-line treatments have been attempted. Intravenous cefuroxime and metronidazole is not recommended for treating Clostridioides difficile, as cephalosporins can increase the risk of infection. Intravenous vancomycin is also not recommended for treating Clostridioides difficile, as it is not as effective as oral vancomycin.

      Clostridioides difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It is a Gram positive rod that produces an exotoxin which can cause damage to the intestines, leading to a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is suppressed by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause of C. difficile. Other risk factors include proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale, which ranges from mild to life-threatening.

      To diagnose C. difficile, a stool sample is tested for the presence of C. difficile toxin (CDT). Treatment for a first episode of C. difficile infection typically involves oral vancomycin for 10 days, with fidaxomicin or a combination of oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole being used as second and third-line therapies. Recurrent infections occur in around 20% of patients, increasing to 50% after their second episode. In such cases, oral fidaxomicin is recommended within 12 weeks of symptom resolution, while oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin can be used after 12 weeks. For life-threatening C. difficile infections, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole are used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 17 - A 19-year-old visits her GP the day after having unprotected sex and requests...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old visits her GP the day after having unprotected sex and requests emergency contraception to prevent pregnancy. After a negative pregnancy test, what is the next best course of action for the GP to take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Levonorgestrel

      Explanation:

      When taken correctly, the pill is an effective method of preventing pregnancy, but it cannot prevent implantation if taken after engaging in unprotected sexual intercourse.

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 18 - A 21-year-old student is brought by his flatmates to the University Health Service...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old student is brought by his flatmates to the University Health Service with headache, neck stiffness and a petechial rash. There is a history of infection with Neisseria meningitidis four and ten years earlier. He is immediately referred to the local general hospital.
      Investigations reveal the following:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 131 g/l 135–175 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 14.2 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
      Platelets (PLT) 310 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Sodium (Na+) 140 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
      Potassium (K+) 5.4 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
      Creatinine (Cr) 190 μmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
      Lumbar puncture: neutrophils +++
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Membrane attack complex (MAC) formation deficiency

      Explanation:

      Overview of Complement Deficiencies and Associated Infections

      Membrane Attack Complex (MAC) Formation Deficiency
      MAC is the final stage of complement activation that leads to the formation of a hole in the bacterial cell membrane, causing cell lysis. Patients with MAC formation deficiency are prone to recurrent bacterial infections, particularly with Neisseria meningitidis or Neisseria gonorrhoeae.

      C1 Deficiency
      Deficiencies of components of the classical pathway (C1, C2, and C4) are associated with immune complex diseases such as systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and an increased risk for bacterial infection. C2 deficiency is associated with an increased risk for bacterial infection, while C3 deficiency increases the risk for infections by encapsulated organisms (e.g., pneumococci, Haemophilus, and meningococci).

      C2 Deficiency
      Deficiencies of components of the classical pathway (C1, C2, and C4) are associated with immune complex diseases such as SLE and an increased risk for bacterial infection. C2 deficiency is associated with an increased risk for bacterial infection, while C3 deficiency increases the risk for infections by encapsulated organisms (e.g., pneumococci, Haemophilus, and meningococci).

      C4 Deficiency
      Deficiencies of components of the classical pathway (C1, C2, and C4) are associated with immune complex diseases such as SLE and an increased risk for bacterial infection. C2 deficiency is associated with an increased risk for bacterial infection, while C3 deficiency increases the risk for infections by encapsulated organisms (e.g., pneumococci, Haemophilus, and meningococci).

      Immunoglobulin A (IgA) Deficiency
      IgA deficiency results in autoimmune diseases, respiratory infections, urinary tract infections, and gastrointestinal infections.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
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  • Question 19 - A 67-year-old man with worsening dyspnea is suspected to have idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis....

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man with worsening dyspnea is suspected to have idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis. What is the preferred diagnostic test to confirm the diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: High-resolution CT scan

      Explanation:

      Understanding Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis

      Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) is a chronic lung condition that causes progressive fibrosis of the interstitium of the lungs. Unlike other causes of lung fibrosis, IPF has no underlying cause. It is typically seen in patients aged 50-70 years and is more common in men.

      The symptoms of IPF include progressive exertional dyspnoea, dry cough, clubbing, and bibasal fine end-inspiratory crepitations on auscultation. Diagnosis is made through spirometry, impaired gas exchange tests, and imaging such as chest x-rays and high-resolution CT scans.

      Management of IPF includes pulmonary rehabilitation, but very few medications have been shown to be effective. Some evidence suggests that pirfenidone, an antifibrotic agent, may be useful in selected patients. Many patients will eventually require supplementary oxygen and a lung transplant.

      The prognosis for IPF is poor, with an average life expectancy of around 3-4 years. CT scans can show advanced pulmonary fibrosis, including honeycombing. While there is no cure for IPF, early diagnosis and management can help improve quality of life and potentially prolong survival.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 20 - A 6-year-old girl has a 2-year history of progressive weakness, finding it more...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl has a 2-year history of progressive weakness, finding it more difficult to stand from a sitting position at home and climb stairs at school. She had measles when she was 3-years-old and received all her childhood immunisations as normal. Apparently, her maternal grandmother suffered from a similar condition but died in a car accident at the age of 28. On examination, the girl is of normal height and appearance. Cranial nerves and higher mental function are normal. She has normal tone and reflexes in her limbs, with weakness proximally in her arms and legs. On repeated stimulation, there is no change. Cranial nerve and sensory examinations are entirely normal.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Becker’s muscular dystrophy

      Explanation:

      The patient is likely suffering from Becker’s muscular dystrophy, a milder form of the condition compared to Duchenne muscular dystrophy (DMD). Both conditions are caused by mutations in the DMD gene, but Becker’s tends to present later in childhood or adolescence with slower progression of symptoms. The patient’s normal childhood development followed by slow onset of proximal weakness fits the typical picture of Becker’s. Limb-girdle muscular dystrophy (LGMD) is a possibility, but less likely given the patient’s presentation. DMD is unlikely as it typically presents in early childhood with rapid progression of symptoms. Facioscapulohumeral dystrophy is characterized by weakness and wasting of the face, scapula, and upper arms, and would not typically present with gait disturbance or lower limb weakness in childhood. Myasthenia gravis is also unlikely given the patient’s history.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 21 - A 54-year-old man presented to the Emergency Department with a 1-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man presented to the Emergency Department with a 1-day history of blurring of vision and headache. He does not complain of any pain when touching the scalp or any pain when eating and chewing food.
      Past medical history includes hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus, which is well controlled with metformin.
      On further history taking, he tells you that he has a family history of brain cancer and he is afraid that this could be relevant to his symptoms.
      On examination, his visual acuity is 6/18 in both eyes. On dilated fundoscopy, you could see some arterioles narrower than others. You also see venules being compressed by arterioles. There are also some dot-and-blot and flame-shaped haemorrhages, as well as some cotton-wool spots. There is no optic disc swelling.
      His vital observations are as follows:
      Heart rate 80 bpm
      Blood pressure 221/119 mmHg
      Oxygen saturation 98% on room air
      Respiratory rate 14 per minute
      Temperature 37 °C
      According to the Keith-Wagener-Barker classification of hypertensive retinopathy, what grade of hypertensive retinopathy is this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Grade 3

      Explanation:

      Stages of Diabetic Retinopathy

      Diabetic retinopathy is a condition that affects the eyes of people with diabetes. It is important to detect and treat it early to prevent vision loss. There are different stages of diabetic retinopathy, each with its own set of features.

      Grade 1 is characterized by arteriolar narrowing. Grade 2 includes features of grade 1 and arteriovenous nipping. Grade 3 includes features of grade 2 and microaneurysms, dot-and-blot haemorrhages, flame-shaped haemorrhages, cotton-wool spots, and hard exudates. Grade 4 includes features of grade 3 and optic disc swelling.

      It is important to have regular eye exams if you have diabetes to detect any signs of diabetic retinopathy early. With proper management and treatment, vision loss can be prevented or delayed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 22 - A 56-year-old Caucasian man presents with a rash on the face. He first...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old Caucasian man presents with a rash on the face. He first noticed this six months ago when he experienced episodes of flushing on the face. This has often occurred after he had alcohol or in situations where he felt stressful. A month ago, he started noticing a rash on his cheeks which came on intermittently until three weeks ago when the rash has become permanent. There has been no pain or itch associated with the rash. He is otherwise fit and well. He does not smoke.

      On examination of the face, there is marked erythema with papules, pustules and telangiectasia. There are no comedones seen. The rash is distributed across the cheeks and nose. There is no per-oral or peri-orbital involvement.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acne rosacea

      Explanation:

      The features described suggest acne rosacea, with episodic flushing, papules and pustules with telangiectasia on the nose, cheeks and forehead. Other conditions such as acne vulgaris, systemic lupus erythematosus, seborrhoeic dermatitis and shingles are unlikely based on the described symptoms.

      Understanding Rosacea: Symptoms and Management

      Rosacea, also known as acne rosacea, is a chronic skin condition that has no known cause. It typically affects the nose, cheeks, and forehead, and the first symptom is often flushing. Over time, telangiectasia (visible blood vessels) may appear, followed by persistent redness with papules and pustules. In some cases, rhinophyma (enlarged nose) may develop, and there may be ocular involvement, such as blepharitis. Sunlight can exacerbate symptoms.

      Mild cases of rosacea may be treated with topical metronidazole, while topical brimonidine gel may be used for patients with predominant flushing but limited telangiectasia. More severe cases may require systemic antibiotics like oxytetracycline. Patients are advised to apply high-factor sunscreen daily and use camouflage creams to conceal redness. Laser therapy may be appropriate for those with prominent telangiectasia, and patients with rhinophyma should be referred to a dermatologist.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms and management of rosacea can help individuals manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 23 - A mother brings her 8-year-old daughter to her General Practitioner, who is acutely...

    Incorrect

    • A mother brings her 8-year-old daughter to her General Practitioner, who is acutely unwell and has a high temperature, runny nose and inflamed eyes. The mother explains that her daughter has not had her vaccinations as she is worried about the long-term effects of the measles, mumps and rubella (MMR) jab.
      Which of the following best reflects the current understanding of measles infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It is more dangerous in overcrowded households

      Explanation:

      Measles: Symptoms, Complications, and Prevention

      Measles is a highly contagious viral infection that can lead to serious respiratory complications such as pneumonia, bronchiolitis, and bronchiectasis. While it does not cause recurrent pneumothoraces, severe infection from prolonged exposure to infected siblings in overcrowded households can be fatal.

      Koplik’s spots, small red spots with bluish-white centers, are a characteristic late sign of measles infection that may appear on the mucous membranes of the mouth 1-2 days before the rash appears.

      Contrary to popular belief, lifelong immunity is often established after natural infection with measles. This is also the mechanism by which the MMR vaccine prevents measles infection in later life.

      Measles can also lead to corneal ulceration, especially in cases of vitamin A deficiency. High-dose oral vitamin A supplementation is recommended for all children with measles in developing countries to prevent this complication.

      Overall, prevention through vaccination is the best way to avoid the serious complications of measles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 24 - A 65-year-old man was diagnosed with angina after experiencing chest pain during physical...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man was diagnosed with angina after experiencing chest pain during physical activity. He underwent an exercise test at the cardiology clinic and was prescribed aspirin, bisoprolol, atorvastatin, and a glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) spray.
      After six months, he returned with an increase in the frequency of anginal episodes, which were relieved by GTN spray and did not occur at rest.
      What medication would be the most suitable addition to his current treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      If a beta-blocker is not effective in controlling angina, it is recommended to add a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker such as amlodipine. Diltiazem and verapamil should not be used in combination with a beta-blocker due to the risk of life-threatening bradycardia and heart failure. Ivabradine and nicorandil can be used as alternatives if a dihydropyridine CCB is not suitable, but should only be initiated under specialist advice.

      Angina pectoris is a condition that can be managed through various methods, including lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. The first-line medication should be either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If the initial treatment is not effective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, other drugs such as long-acting nitrates, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. Nitrate tolerance is a common issue, and patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate should use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. This effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 25 - A 35-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of a headache that she describes...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of a headache that she describes as worsening over the past three weeks. She reports that the headache wakes her during the night, and is worse when she coughs.

      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Brain tumour

      Explanation:

      The patient’s symptoms suggest a headache caused by increased pressure within the skull, which is often associated with a space-occupying lesion such as a brain tumor. This type of headache is typically worse in the morning and aggravated by bending forward, coughing, or sneezing. As the tumor grows, other symptoms such as vomiting, seizures, and neurological deficits may develop. Brain tumors can be primary or metastatic, with the most common types being astrocytoma, glioblastoma, oligodendroglioma, ependymoma, meningioma, and primary CNS lymphoma.

      The patient’s history does not support a diagnosis of giant cell arteritis, which typically affects individuals over 50 years old and presents with an abrupt-onset headache, scalp tenderness, jaw pain, visual disturbances, and constitutional symptoms such as fever and weight loss. The diagnosis of GCA requires specific criteria, including age at onset, new headache, temporal artery abnormality, elevated erythrocyte sedimentation rate, and abnormal artery biopsy.

      The patient’s symptoms are also not consistent with cluster headaches, which typically affect younger males and present with severe, unilateral pain around the eye, accompanied by lacrimation and nasal congestion. Cluster headaches have a circadian pattern and occur in episodes, followed by symptom-free periods.

      Migraine is another type of headache that is not likely in this case, as the patient’s symptoms do not fit the typical pattern of unilateral, pulsating pain lasting 4-72 hours, accompanied by nausea/vomiting and photophobia.

      Finally, subarachnoid hemorrhage is a medical emergency that presents with a sudden, severe headache, often described as the worst headache of one’s life, along with other symptoms such as vomiting, loss of consciousness, seizures, and neurological deficits. However, the patient’s headache has been progressing over weeks, which is not consistent with SAH.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 26 - A 48-year-old man comes back to the clinic for a blood pressure check...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man comes back to the clinic for a blood pressure check following an increase in his ramipril dosage. During the check, his blood pressure is recorded as 152/96 mmHg, and he reports getting similar readings on his home monitor. Which medication would be the most suitable to initiate for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      If a patient in this age group has poorly controlled hypertension despite taking an ACE inhibitor (or angiotensin II receptor blocker), the next step is to consider adding a calcium channel blocker or a thiazide-like diuretic. In this case, adding a calcium channel blocker would be the appropriate choice. Beta blockers are not recommended in the NICE guidelines for hypertension management. While a thiazide-like diuretic could also be an option, furosemide, a loop diuretic, is not suitable. It is important to note that adding another ACE inhibitor is not recommended since the patient is already taking one.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 27 - A 38-year-old man visits his General Practitioner complaining of a sore throat. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man visits his General Practitioner complaining of a sore throat. He has a Centor score of 4 due to the presence of a fever, cervical lymphadenopathy, absence of cough, and white exudate on his tonsils. He is allergic to penicillin and takes simvastatin as his only medication. What is the most suitable antibiotic to prescribe for his sore throat?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Doxycycline

      Explanation:

      A patient with a Centor score of 4 likely has acute group A streptococcal tonsillitis and requires antibiotics. However, the patient is allergic to penicillins and takes simvastatin, which is metabolized by the cytochrome P450 enzymes. Phenoxymethylpenicillin, the usual first-line treatment, cannot be used due to the allergy. Macrolides such as clarithromycin and erythromycin should also be avoided as they inhibit the cytochrome P450 enzymes and can increase the risk of statin-induced myopathy. Co-amoxiclav is not an option either. Therefore, doxycycline is the best choice as it is not a penicillin and does not affect the cytochrome P450 enzymes, allowing for concurrent use with simvastatin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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  • Question 28 - A 32-year-old man with a past medical history of polyarthralgia, back pain, and...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man with a past medical history of polyarthralgia, back pain, and diarrhea presents with a 3 cm red lesion on his shin that is beginning to ulcerate. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pyoderma gangrenosum

      Explanation:

      It is probable that this individual is suffering from ulcerative colitis, a condition that is commonly linked to arthritis in large joints, sacroiliitis, and pyoderma gangrenosum.

      Understanding Pyoderma Gangrenosum

      Pyoderma gangrenosum is a rare inflammatory disorder that causes painful skin ulceration. While it can affect any part of the skin, it is most commonly found on the lower legs. This condition is classified as a neutrophilic dermatosis, which means that it is characterized by the infiltration of neutrophils in the affected tissue. The exact cause of pyoderma gangrenosum is unknown in 50% of cases, but it can be associated with inflammatory bowel disease, rheumatological conditions, haematological disorders, and other diseases.

      The initial symptoms of pyoderma gangrenosum may start suddenly with a small pustule, red bump, or blood-blister. The skin then breaks down, resulting in an ulcer that is often painful. The edge of the ulcer is typically described as purple, violaceous, and undermined. In some cases, systemic symptoms such as fever and myalgia may also be present. Diagnosis is often made by the characteristic appearance, associations with other diseases, the presence of pathergy, histology results, and ruling out other potential causes.

      Management of pyoderma gangrenosum typically involves oral steroids as first-line treatment due to the potential for rapid progression. Other immunosuppressive therapies such as ciclosporin and infliximab may also be used in difficult cases. It is important to note that any surgery should be postponed until the disease process is controlled on immunosuppression to avoid worsening the condition. Understanding pyoderma gangrenosum and seeking prompt medical attention can help manage this rare and painful condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 29 - A 55-year-old man is referred to the Haematology Clinic under the 2-week-wait rule...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man is referred to the Haematology Clinic under the 2-week-wait rule with significant fatigue and frequent infections over the past six months. His blood results confirm a diagnosis of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia (CLL) with a 17p chromosome deletion.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate first-line treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acalabrutinib

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Chronic Lymphocytic Leukaemia (CLL)

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has released new guidelines for managing newly diagnosed CLL in adults. Acalabrutinib is recommended as a monotherapy option if the patient has a 17p deletion or TP53 mutation, or if fludarabine plus cyclophosphamide and rituximab (FCR) or bendamustine plus rituximab (BR) are unsuitable. Prednisolone, a glucocorticoid commonly used in treating lymphoma, has no role in managing CLL. If there is no 17p deletion or TP53 mutation, FCR or BR would be the most appropriate first-line treatment. Conservative management is not recommended as the patient has developed signs of bone marrow dysfunction. Imatinib, the first-line treatment for CML, would not be useful for CLL.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 30 - A 55-year-old woman presents to your clinic with complaints of hot flashes that...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman presents to your clinic with complaints of hot flashes that are disrupting her sleep. She is experiencing irregular and lighter periods. She has not undergone a hysterectomy and is interested in hormone replacement therapy (HRT). What would be the most suitable HRT regimen for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Systemic combined cyclical HRT

      Explanation:

      What are the main factors to consider when determining the appropriate HRT regime? How would you classify a patient who is still having periods? What is the recommended HRT regime for this patient?

      To determine the correct HRT regime, it is important to consider whether the patient has a uterus, whether they are perimenopausal or menopausal, and whether a systemic or local effect is needed. A patient who is still having periods is considered perimenopausal, as menopause is defined as 12 months after the last menstrual period. For this patient, the recommended HRT regime would be combined oestrogen and progestogen cyclical HRT. Cyclical HRT is preferred in perimenopausal women as it produces predictable withdrawal bleeding, while continuous regimens can cause unpredictable bleeding. Systemic oestrogen-only HRT is not appropriate for a woman with a uterus as it increases the risk of endometrial cancer. Oestrogen cream or pessary would only provide a local effect and would be useful for urogenital symptoms such as vaginal dryness or dyspareunia.

      Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) involves a small dose of oestrogen and progestogen to alleviate menopausal symptoms. The indications for HRT have changed due to the long-term risks, and it is primarily used for vasomotor symptoms and preventing osteoporosis in younger women. HRT consists of natural oestrogens and synthetic progestogens, and can be taken orally or transdermally. Transdermal is preferred for women at risk of venous thromboembolism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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  • Question 31 - A 55-year-old woman seeks guidance on managing her menopausal symptoms. She has experienced...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman seeks guidance on managing her menopausal symptoms. She has experienced cessation of her menstrual cycle and is bothered by hot flashes and night sweats. Due to her sister's breast cancer, she is not interested in hormone replacement therapy. What is the most suitable treatment option to suggest?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Citalopram

      Explanation:

      Managing Menopause: Lifestyle Modifications, Hormone Replacement Therapy, and Non-Hormone Replacement Therapy

      Menopause is a natural biological process that marks the end of a woman’s reproductive years. It is diagnosed when a woman has not had a period for 12 consecutive months. Menopausal symptoms are common and can last for up to 7 years, with varying degrees of severity and duration. The management of menopause can be divided into three categories: lifestyle modifications, hormone replacement therapy (HRT), and non-hormone replacement therapy.

      Lifestyle modifications can help manage menopausal symptoms such as hot flushes, sleep disturbance, mood changes, and cognitive symptoms. Regular exercise, weight loss, stress reduction, and good sleep hygiene are recommended. For women who cannot or do not want to take HRT, non-hormonal treatments such as fluoxetine, citalopram, or venlafaxine for vasomotor symptoms, vaginal lubricants or moisturizers for vaginal dryness, and cognitive behavior therapy or antidepressants for psychological symptoms can be prescribed.

      HRT is a treatment option for women with moderate to severe menopausal symptoms. However, it is contraindicated in women with current or past breast cancer, any estrogen-sensitive cancer, undiagnosed vaginal bleeding, or untreated endometrial hyperplasia. HRT brings certain risks, including venous thromboembolism, stroke, coronary heart disease, breast cancer, and ovarian cancer. Women should be advised of these risks and the fact that symptoms typically last for 2-5 years.

      When stopping HRT, it is important to gradually reduce the dosage to limit recurrence of symptoms in the short term. However, in the long term, there is no difference in symptom control. Women who experience ineffective treatment, ongoing side effects, or unexplained bleeding should be referred to secondary care. Overall, managing menopause requires a personalized approach that takes into account a woman’s medical history, preferences, and individual symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 32 - A 45-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department feeling very sick. He reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department feeling very sick. He reports having flu-like symptoms for the past few days and is having difficulty keeping anything down. He feels weak, drowsy, and disoriented. He experiences dizziness when he stands up. Upon observation, he is found to be tachycardic and hypotensive with a fever. He reports taking only hydrocortisone 10 mg PO bidaily for Addison's disease. What is the most crucial management step in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give 100 mg hydrocortisone intravenous (IV) STAT

      Explanation:

      Managing Addisonian Crisis: Treatment Options and Considerations

      Addisonian crisis is a life-threatening condition that requires prompt intervention. Patients with Addison’s disease are at risk of developing an Addisonian crisis if they forget to take their steroids or if steroids have not been increased appropriately during an accompanying illness. In such cases, the first-line treatment is to administer 100 mg hydrocortisone intravenously (IV) STAT. This should be followed by fluid resuscitation and IV glucose if hypoglycemia is present.

      It is important to note that treatment should be initiated before biochemical results are obtained. Patients with Addison’s disease should carry an IM autoinjector in case of an emergency. If an Addisonian crisis is suspected, hydrocortisone should be administered immediately, and blood tests for cortisol, ACTH, urea and electrolytes, and glucose should be carried out urgently.

      Oral hydrocortisone is not recommended in cases where the patient is vomiting. In such cases, IM hydrocortisone injection is the preferred treatment option. Additionally, glucose gel sublingually may be given for hypoglycemia, but the primary focus should be on restoring cortisol levels.

      Fludrocortisone may be of use if the cause of the Addisonian crisis is adrenal disease. However, it should be noted that hydrocortisone is the first-line treatment as it acts mainly on glucocorticoid receptors to increase blood sugar levels and counteract insulin. Fludrocortisone, on the other hand, acts mainly at mineralocorticoid receptors.

      In conclusion, managing Addisonian crisis requires prompt intervention and careful consideration of treatment options. Administering hydrocortisone, fluid resuscitation, and IV glucose if necessary should be the primary focus, with fludrocortisone being considered only if the cause is adrenal disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 33 - A 10-year-old boy is being seen in the paediatric asthma clinic for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 10-year-old boy is being seen in the paediatric asthma clinic for a review of his asthma. He was diagnosed with asthma 6 months ago and has been using a salbutamol 100mcg metered dose inhaler with a spacer. According to his mother, he has been using his inhaler about 4 times a week and has had 1 episode of waking up at night with difficulty breathing. There have been no recent respiratory infections or changes in his environment. On examination, he appears to be in good health. His inhaler technique is satisfactory. Do you recommend any changes to his asthma medication?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paediatric low-dose ICS

      Explanation:

      Managing Asthma in Children: NICE Guidelines

      Asthma management in children has been updated by NICE in 2017, following the 2016 BTS guidelines. The new guidelines for children aged 5-16 are similar to those for adults, with a stepwise approach for treatment. For newly-diagnosed asthma, short-acting beta agonist (SABA) is recommended. If symptoms persist, a combination of SABA and paediatric low-dose inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) is used. Leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA) is added if symptoms still persist, followed by long-acting beta agonist (LABA) if necessary. Maintenance and reliever therapy (MART) is used as a combination of ICS and LABA for daily maintenance therapy and symptom relief. For children under 5 years old, clinical judgement plays a greater role in diagnosis. The stepwise approach is similar to that for older children, with an 8-week trial of paediatric moderate-dose ICS before adding LTRA. If symptoms persist, referral to a paediatric asthma specialist is recommended.

      It should be noted that NICE does not recommend changing treatment for well-controlled asthma patients simply to adhere to the latest guidelines. The definitions of low, moderate, and high-dose ICS have also changed, with different definitions for adults and children. For children, <= 200 micrograms budesonide or equivalent is considered a paediatric low dose, 200-400 micrograms is a moderate dose, and > 400 micrograms is a high dose. Overall, the new NICE guidelines provide a clear and concise approach to managing asthma in children.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 34 - A 38-year-old man complains of dyspepsia without any alarm symptoms. He has no...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man complains of dyspepsia without any alarm symptoms. He has no significant medical history and this is his first episode. The plan is to use a test-and-treat approach. What is the most suitable test to detect Helicobacter pylori?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 13C-urea breath test

      Explanation:

      The urea breath test is a non-invasive, highly specific and sensitive method. Therefore, there is no need for an endoscopy. Instead, an alternative option is to use stool antigen instead of culture.

      Tests for Helicobacter pylori

      There are several tests available to diagnose Helicobacter pylori infection. One of the most common tests is the urea breath test, where patients consume a drink containing carbon isotope 13 (13C) enriched urea. The urea is broken down by H. pylori urease, and after 30 minutes, the patient exhales into a glass tube. Mass spectrometry analysis calculates the amount of 13C CO2, which indicates the presence of H. pylori. However, this test should not be performed within four weeks of treatment with an antibacterial or within two weeks of an antisecretory drug.

      Another test is the rapid urease test, also known as the CLO test. This involves mixing a biopsy sample with urea and a pH indicator. If there is a color change, it indicates the presence of H. pylori urease activity. Serum antibody tests can also be used, but they remain positive even after eradication. Culture of gastric biopsy can provide information on antibiotic sensitivity, while histological evaluation alone can be done through gastric biopsy. Lastly, the stool antigen test has a sensitivity of 90% and specificity of 95%.

      Overall, these tests have varying levels of sensitivity and specificity, and the choice of test depends on the patient’s clinical presentation and the availability of resources.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 35 - A 35-year-old pregnant woman and her husband are informed at the 20-week antenatal...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old pregnant woman and her husband are informed at the 20-week antenatal scan of the presence of echogenic bowel in the male fetus. They had been trying to conceive unsuccessfully for three years until investigations revealed oligospermia and this pregnancy was a result of intrauterine insemination. Both parents are aged 35 years old. The father has had several episodes of upper respiratory tract infections that have required antibiotics and he has been admitted to hospital in the past with acute gastritis. The mother is fit and well without any significant past medical history.
      Which of the following would be the most appropriate next investigation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Testing for the CFTR gene mutation in both parents

      Explanation:

      Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a genetic condition that requires two copies of a faulty CFTR gene, one from each parent. If symptoms are present, it is important to confirm the diagnosis in the father and determine if the mother is a carrier of the faulty gene before pursuing further testing. While a sweat test can diagnose CF in the father, it cannot determine carrier status in the mother. Invasive procedures such as amniocentesis and chorionic villous sampling should only be performed if there is strong suspicion of a chromosomal or genetic abnormality, and less invasive genetic testing of both parents should be considered first. Karyotyping is not a useful diagnostic tool for CF, as it only detects chromosomal abnormalities and not genetic ones.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
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  • Question 36 - A 64-year-old woman presents to her GP complaining of worsening dyspnea. Upon taking...

    Incorrect

    • A 64-year-old woman presents to her GP complaining of worsening dyspnea. Upon taking a detailed medical history and conducting a thorough physical examination, the GP orders an outpatient chest CT scan. The results reveal lung fibrosis as the likely cause of the patient's symptoms. The patient has a medical history of gout and rheumatoid arthritis. Which medication prescribed to the patient is most likely responsible for causing lung fibrosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sulfasalazine

      Explanation:

      Drugs that can lead to lung fibrosis

      Lung fibrosis is a condition where the lung tissue becomes scarred and thickened, making it difficult for the lungs to function properly. There are several drugs that can cause lung fibrosis as a side effect. These drugs include amiodarone, which is used to treat heart rhythm problems, cytotoxic agents such as busulphan and bleomycin, which are used to treat cancer, and anti-rheumatoid drugs like methotrexate and sulfasalazine. Nitrofurantoin, an antibiotic used to treat urinary tract infections, and ergot-derived dopamine receptor agonists like bromocriptine, cabergoline, and pergolide, which are used to treat Parkinson’s disease, can also cause lung fibrosis. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of these drugs and to discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider. Proper monitoring and management can help prevent or minimize the risk of lung fibrosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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  • Question 37 - A 28-year-old woman returns from a holiday in Kenya with symptoms of foul-smelling...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman returns from a holiday in Kenya with symptoms of foul-smelling loose stools, abdominal cramps and frequent flatulence. She has had the symptoms for five days when she presents to her General Practitioner for advice. A diagnosis of giardiasis is suspected.
      What would be the most useful investigation to request for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Send stool culture for microscopy and culture (MC+S)

      Explanation:

      Diagnostic Tests for Giardiasis: Which Ones Are Necessary?

      Giardiasis is a common parasitic infection that can cause gastrointestinal symptoms such as diarrhoea, abdominal pain, and bloating. If a patient presents with these symptoms and has a history of recent foreign travel, giardiasis should be considered as a possible cause. Here are some diagnostic tests that may be ordered to confirm the diagnosis:

      Stool Culture for Microscopy and Culture (MC+S)
      This test is specific for detecting giardia and other potential parasitic causes of gastrointestinal symptoms. It involves sending three stool specimens 2-3 days apart to a laboratory for analysis.

      Colonoscopy
      A colonoscopy is not necessary to diagnose giardiasis, as the patient’s symptoms and travel history are usually sufficient to suggest the diagnosis. A stool culture is a more appropriate test.

      Duodenal Biopsy
      A duodenal biopsy is not necessary to diagnose giardiasis, as it is an invasive test that is typically reserved for investigating malabsorption, iron-deficiency anaemia, or neoplasia.

      Full Blood Count
      A full blood count is not useful for diagnosing giardiasis, as it typically does not cause peripheral leukocytosis or eosinophilia.

      In summary, a stool culture for MC+S is the most appropriate test for diagnosing giardiasis in a patient with gastrointestinal symptoms and a history of recent foreign travel. Other tests, such as colonoscopy, duodenal biopsy, and full blood count, are not necessary for making the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 38 - You assess a 23-year-old man who has recently been released from the local...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 23-year-old man who has recently been released from the local hospital after having a pneumothorax drained. This is his second admission in two years for the same issue. Upon examination today, his chest is clear with good air entry in all fields. However, you observe that he has pectus excavatum. He is 1.83m tall and weighs 72 kg. The only other relevant medical history is joint hypermobility, for which he was referred to a physiotherapist last year. What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Marfan's syndrome

      Explanation:

      The presence of recurrent pneumothoraces and joint hypermobility suggests the possibility of Marfan’s syndrome.

      Understanding Marfan’s Syndrome

      Marfan’s syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the connective tissue in the body. It is caused by a defect in the FBN1 gene on chromosome 15, which codes for the protein fibrillin-1. This disorder is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern, meaning that a person only needs to inherit one copy of the defective gene from one parent to develop the condition. Marfan’s syndrome affects approximately 1 in 3,000 people.

      The features of Marfan’s syndrome include a tall stature with an arm span to height ratio greater than 1.05, a high-arched palate, arachnodactyly (long, slender fingers), pectus excavatum (sunken chest), pes planus (flat feet), and scoliosis (curvature of the spine). In addition, individuals with Marfan’s syndrome may experience cardiovascular problems such as dilation of the aortic sinuses, mitral valve prolapse, and aortic aneurysm. They may also have lung issues such as repeated pneumothoraces. Eye problems are also common, including upwards lens dislocation, blue sclera, and myopia. Finally, dural ectasia, or ballooning of the dural sac at the lumbosacral level, may also occur.

      In the past, the life expectancy of individuals with Marfan’s syndrome was around 40-50 years. However, with regular echocardiography monitoring and the use of beta-blockers and ACE inhibitors, this has improved significantly in recent years. Despite these improvements, aortic dissection and other cardiovascular problems remain the leading cause of death in individuals with Marfan’s syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 39 - A geriatric patient presents to the Emergency Department with a fast, irregular pulse,...

    Incorrect

    • A geriatric patient presents to the Emergency Department with a fast, irregular pulse, chest pain, weakness and palpitations. Upon arrival, investigations were carried out, including the following:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      PaO2 11.9 kPa
      pH 7.35 7.40 ± 0.05
      PaCO2 27 mmHg
      Sodium (Na+) 125 mmol
      Potassium (K+) 6.7 mmol
      HCO3− 15 mmol
      Chloride (Cl−) 107 mmol
      Normal anion gap 10–18 mmol/l
      With which of the following are the results consistent?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Addisonian crisis

      Explanation:

      Causes of Metabolic Acidosis with Normal Anion Gap

      Metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap can be caused by various medical conditions. One such condition is an Addisonian crisis, which occurs due to severe adrenal insufficiency. This results in reduced activity of aldosterone, causing sodium loss and potassium retention, leading to hyperkalaemia and metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap.

      Burns can also cause hyperkalaemia due to rhabdomyolysis, resulting in a raised anion gap metabolic acidosis. Diabetic ketoacidosis is another condition that presents with hyperkalaemia and metabolic acidosis, but with an increased anion gap due to ketone bodies.

      Diarrhoea can cause hypokalaemia, hyponatraemia, loss of bicarbonate, and metabolic acidosis with a normal anion gap. However, excessive thiazide treatment would result in hypokalaemia and not hyperkalaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 40 - A 29-year-old woman comes to see her GP due to feeling down and...

    Incorrect

    • A 29-year-old woman comes to see her GP due to feeling down and lonely. She reports being a naturally shy person and experiencing intense anxiety about being judged or rejected by others for her perceived inadequacies. This has led her to avoid forming close relationships and she has even stopped seeing the few friends she had. Her social anxiety affects all aspects of her life, including her choice of a solitary job, solo hobbies, and never having been in a romantic relationship. She finds it challenging to deviate from her limited daily routine, although she feels unfulfilled by it. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Avoidant personality disorder

      Explanation:

      The patient’s description of feeling lonely and avoiding social situations due to fear of negative evaluation and criticism suggests a diagnosis of avoidant personality disorder. This disorder is characterized by chronic patterns of interpersonal inhibition, fear of rejection, and social inhibition. The patient’s symptoms are pervasive and have been present since childhood or adolescence, indicating a personality disorder rather than a transient condition. While other disorders such as autism spectrum disorder, generalized anxiety disorder, and schizoid personality disorder may also involve social difficulties, they do not have the same fear of rejection and feelings of inadequacy that are characteristic of avoidant personality disorder.

      Personality disorders are a set of personality traits that are maladaptive and interfere with normal functioning in life. It is estimated that around 1 in 20 people have a personality disorder, which are typically categorized into three clusters: Cluster A, which includes Odd or Eccentric disorders such as Paranoid, Schizoid, and Schizotypal; Cluster B, which includes Dramatic, Emotional, or Erratic disorders such as Antisocial, Borderline (Emotionally Unstable), Histrionic, and Narcissistic; and Cluster C, which includes Anxious and Fearful disorders such as Obsessive-Compulsive, Avoidant, and Dependent.

      Paranoid individuals exhibit hypersensitivity and an unforgiving attitude when insulted, a reluctance to confide in others, and a preoccupation with conspirational beliefs and hidden meanings. Schizoid individuals show indifference to praise and criticism, a preference for solitary activities, and emotional coldness. Schizotypal individuals exhibit odd beliefs and magical thinking, unusual perceptual disturbances, and inappropriate affect. Antisocial individuals fail to conform to social norms, deceive others, and exhibit impulsiveness, irritability, and aggressiveness. Borderline individuals exhibit unstable interpersonal relationships, impulsivity, and affective instability. Histrionic individuals exhibit inappropriate sexual seductiveness, a need to be the center of attention, and self-dramatization. Narcissistic individuals exhibit a grandiose sense of self-importance, lack of empathy, and excessive need for admiration. Obsessive-compulsive individuals are occupied with details, rules, and organization to the point of hampering completion of tasks. Avoidant individuals avoid interpersonal contact due to fears of criticism or rejection, while dependent individuals have difficulty making decisions without excessive reassurance from others.

      Personality disorders are difficult to treat, but a number of approaches have been shown to help patients, including psychological therapies such as dialectical behavior therapy and treatment of any coexisting psychiatric conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 41 - You are an F2 treating an 8 year-old patient with acute epiglottitis in...

    Incorrect

    • You are an F2 treating an 8 year-old patient with acute epiglottitis in the emergency department. Which is the most appropriate initial management?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Call for an anaesthetist

      Explanation:

      Acute epiglottitis is a medical emergency that requires prompt management to prevent airway obstruction. It is caused by inflammation of the epiglottis and is most common in children. Symptoms include fever, sore throat, difficulty swallowing, and respiratory distress. The most severe cases can lead to complete airway obstruction, which can be fatal.

      The most important initial step in management is to call for an anaesthetist to intubate the child. Attempting to administer treatment via a facemask or examining the child’s throat can cause distress and increase the risk of complete airway obstruction. The anaesthetist should be present during any examination or treatment to ensure the safety of the child.

      In summary, acute epiglottitis is a medical emergency that requires prompt management to prevent airway obstruction. Calling for an anaesthetist to intubate the child is the most important initial step in management. Any examination or treatment should be done with the anaesthetist present to ensure the safety of the child.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 42 - A 25-year-old homeless man presents to the emergency department with altered consciousness and...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old homeless man presents to the emergency department with altered consciousness and abdominal pain after being intoxicated a few hours prior. He has a history of alcohol and overdose admissions.

      On examination:
      A - Airway is clear.
      B - Respiratory rate is 34 breaths per minute with deep labored inspiration. Oxygen saturation is 100%.
      C - Heart rate is 124 beats per minute, blood pressure is 95/62 mmHg, and capillary refill is 4 seconds. Mucous membranes are dry.
      D - Glasgow Coma Scale score is 10.

      Lab results show a pH of 7.18 (normal range: 7.35-7.45), pCO2 of 4.3kPa (normal range: 4.5-6.0kPa), bicarbonate of 14 mmol/L (normal range: 22-28 mmol/L), glucose of 22.3mmol/L, and ketones of 4.5mmol/L.

      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diabetic ketoacidosis

      Explanation:

      Abdominal pain can be an initial symptom of DKA, which stands for diabetic ketoacidosis. In this particular case, a young man is showing signs of DKA, such as dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and a significantly elevated capillary glucose level. DKA patients lose around 5-8 liters of fluids, which require immediate correction. The diagnostic criteria for DKA include a pH level of less than 7.3 and/or bicarbonate level of less than 15mmol/L, blood glucose level of over 11mmol/L or known diabetes mellitus, and ketonaemia level of over 3mmol/L or significant ketonuria ++ on urine dipstick. Alcoholic ketoacidosis is not the correct diagnosis as it usually presents with low or normal glucose levels and occurs due to starvation. Hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state is also incorrect as it typically presents with marked hyperglycemia without ketoacidosis. Opioid overdose is not the correct diagnosis either as it usually presents with respiratory depression, pinpoint pupils, and a lowered GCS, while this patient has a raised respiratory rate and abnormal respirations consistent with Kussmaul respirations.

      Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of type 1 diabetes mellitus, accounting for around 6% of cases. It can also occur in rare cases of extreme stress in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. However, mortality rates have decreased from 8% to under 1% in the past 20 years. DKA is caused by uncontrolled lipolysis, resulting in an excess of free fatty acids that are ultimately converted to ketone bodies. The most common precipitating factors of DKA are infection, missed insulin doses, and myocardial infarction. Symptoms include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and acetone-smelling breath. Diagnostic criteria include glucose levels above 13.8 mmol/l, pH below 7.30, serum bicarbonate below 18 mmol/l, anion gap above 10, and ketonaemia.

      Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, insulin, and correction of electrolyte disturbance. Most patients with DKA are depleted around 5-8 litres, and isotonic saline is used initially, even if the patient is severely acidotic. Insulin is administered through an intravenous infusion, and correction of electrolyte disturbance is necessary. Long-acting insulin should be continued, while short-acting insulin should be stopped. DKA resolution is defined as pH above 7.3, blood ketones below 0.6 mmol/L, and bicarbonate above 15.0mmol/L. Complications may occur from DKA itself or the treatment, such as gastric stasis, thromboembolism, arrhythmias, acute respiratory distress syndrome, acute kidney injury, and cerebral oedema. Children and young adults are particularly vulnerable to cerebral oedema following fluid resuscitation in DKA and often need 1:1 nursing to monitor neuro-observations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 43 - A 42-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner for investigation as she and...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner for investigation as she and her male partner have not become pregnant after 24 months of trying to conceive. Her ovarian reserve is normal and pelvic examination is normal. She has no other medical problems and is not on any medication. Her male partner has also had normal investigations and has had no other sexual partners.
      What investigation should be arranged for this patient in primary care?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Test for chlamydia

      Explanation:

      Investigations for Male Infertility: Which Tests are Necessary?

      Testing for chlamydia is an important part of the initial screening investigations for primary infertility, according to The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidance. This test should be carried out in primary care prior to referring the couple to secondary care fertility services. On the other hand, screening for gonorrhoea does not form part of these investigations, as it does not tend to affect a patient’s ability to conceive and does not usually remain asymptomatic in affected individuals. Anti-sperm antibodies can be used in secondary care as part of the investigation for couples who are struggling to conceive. However, it would not usually be done in primary care. The NICE guidance on fertility management in men advises that couples who have been trying to conceive after one year of regular intercourse should be referred to fertility services. Watching and waiting would not be appropriate in this situation, as the couple has been trying to conceive for 24 months. Finally, a testicular biopsy is indicated for investigation of potential testicular carcinoma or for sperm retrieval for in-vitro fertilisation procedures. This patient has a normal testicular examination and there is no indication for a testicular biopsy at this point.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 44 - A 42 year old undergoes a thyroidectomy and is informed about the potential...

    Incorrect

    • A 42 year old undergoes a thyroidectomy and is informed about the potential impact on her parathyroid glands. What is a possible sign of parathyroid damage after the surgery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tingling around the hands, feet or mouth, and unusual muscle movements

      Explanation:

      Symptoms and Complications of Thyroidectomy

      Thyroidectomy is a common surgical procedure that involves the removal of the thyroid gland. However, it can lead to various complications, including hypoparathyroidism and hyperparathyroidism. Here are some symptoms to watch out for:

      Acute hypocalcaemia, characterized by tingling around the hands, feet, or mouth, and unusual muscle movements, is a common complication of hypoparathyroidism post-thyroidectomy. Intravenous calcium may be necessary to correct the hypocalcaemia.

      Headache, sweating, and tachycardia are classic symptoms of phaeochromocytoma, which can occur in patients at risk of hypoparathyroidism post-thyroidectomy.

      Dry, thick skin, coarse hair, and brittle nails are signs of hypothyroidism, not hypoparathyroidism.

      Feeling thirsty and passing a lot of urine are signs of hypercalcaemia, which may be caused by hyperparathyroidism. Hypoparathyroidism post-thyroidectomy is a common complication that can lead to hypercalcaemia.

      Hyperactivity and mood swings are more indicative of hyperthyroidism, but patients at risk of hypoparathyroidism post-thyroidectomy should still be monitored for these symptoms.

      In summary, patients who undergo thyroidectomy should be aware of the potential complications and symptoms that may arise. Regular monitoring and prompt medical attention can help manage these issues effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 45 - What is a factor that leads to cyanotic congenital heart disease? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a factor that leads to cyanotic congenital heart disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transposition of the great arteries

      Explanation:

      Congenital heart disease can be categorized into two types: acyanotic and cyanotic. Acyanotic heart diseases are more common and include ventricular septal defects (VSD), atrial septal defect (ASD), patent ductus arteriosus (PDA), coarctation of the aorta, and aortic valve stenosis. VSD is the most common acyanotic heart disease, accounting for 30% of cases. ASDs are less common than VSDs, but they are more frequently diagnosed in adult patients as they tend to present later. On the other hand, cyanotic heart diseases are less common and include tetralogy of Fallot, transposition of the great arteries (TGA), and tricuspid atresia. Fallot’s is more common than TGA, but TGA is the more common lesion at birth as patients with Fallot’s generally present at around 1-2 months. The presence of cyanosis in pulmonary valve stenosis depends on the severity and any other coexistent defects.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 46 - Sophie is a 30-year-old female who presents with a 3 day history of...

    Incorrect

    • Sophie is a 30-year-old female who presents with a 3 day history of muscle weakness and pins and needles in both her feet which has now started to spread up into her legs. She reports having a stomach bug 3 weeks ago.

      During examination, Sophie is apyrexial. There is reduced tone in both lower limbs with reduced knee jerk reflexes and altered sensation. However, upper limb neurological examination is unremarkable.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Guillain-Barré syndrome

      Explanation:

      Stephen’s symptoms of progressive peripheral polyneuropathy and hyporeflexia strongly suggest Guillain-Barre syndrome, likely triggered by a recent gastrointestinal infection. Myasthenia gravis, on the other hand, presents with muscle fatigue and ocular manifestations, but normal tone, sensation, and reflexes. Polymyositis causes proximal muscle weakness, while acute transverse myelitis presents with paralysis of both legs, sensory loss, and bladder/bowel dysfunction. However, Stephen’s lack of bladder/bowel dysfunction and back pain, as well as the history of gastrointestinal infection, make Guillain-Barre syndrome the most likely diagnosis.

      Understanding Guillain-Barre Syndrome: Symptoms and Features

      Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition that affects the peripheral nervous system and is caused by an immune-mediated demyelination. It is often triggered by an infection, with Campylobacter jejuni being a common culprit. The initial symptoms of the illness include back and leg pain, which is experienced by around 65% of patients. The characteristic feature of Guillain-Barre syndrome is a progressive, symmetrical weakness of all the limbs, with the weakness typically starting in the legs and ascending upwards. Reflexes are reduced or absent, and sensory symptoms tend to be mild, with very few sensory signs.

      Other features of Guillain-Barre syndrome may include a history of gastroenteritis, respiratory muscle weakness, cranial nerve involvement, diplopia, bilateral facial nerve palsy, oropharyngeal weakness, and autonomic involvement. Autonomic involvement may manifest as urinary retention or diarrhea. Less common findings may include papilloedema, which is thought to be secondary to reduced CSF resorption.

      To diagnose Guillain-Barre syndrome, a lumbar puncture may be performed, which can reveal a rise in protein with a normal white blood cell count (albuminocytologic dissociation) in 66% of cases. Nerve conduction studies may also be conducted, which can show decreased motor nerve conduction velocity due to demyelination, prolonged distal motor latency, and increased F wave latency. Understanding the symptoms and features of Guillain-Barre syndrome is crucial for prompt diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 47 - An 18-year-old girl is referred to the Endocrine Clinic with primary amenorrhoea. On...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old girl is referred to the Endocrine Clinic with primary amenorrhoea. On examination, her height and weight are normal. She has moderate hirsutism and acne, small breast buds and an enlarged clitoris. Bimanual pelvic examination is normal. A male cousin was seen in the clinic at the age of nine years with precocious puberty.
      Which is the most likely cause of her primary amenorrhoea?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

      Explanation:

      Congenital adrenal hyperplasia is a genetic disorder that affects cortisol production, leading to an increase in adrenocorticotrophic hormone and enlargement of the adrenal glands. There are different types, with classic/severe presenting at birth with ambiguous genitalia or in an acute salt-losing crisis, and milder forms causing hyperandrogenism. The patient and her cousin are likely to have the milder form. Imperforate hymen, hyperprolactinaemia, and Sheehan syndrome are unlikely causes of the patient’s primary amenorrhoea, while Turner syndrome is ruled out due to the absence of characteristic features.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 48 - A 32-year-old woman complains of pressure-type headache and brief visual disturbance upon standing....

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman complains of pressure-type headache and brief visual disturbance upon standing.
      What is the most indicative feature that supports the diagnosis of idiopathic intracranial hypertension (IIH)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An enlarged blind spot and constriction of the visual field

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Symptoms of Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension (IIH)

      Idiopathic Intracranial Hypertension (IIH) is a headache syndrome that is characterized by raised cerebrospinal fluid pressure in the absence of an intracranial mass lesion or ventricular dilatation. While IIH is associated with visual field defects, reduced visual acuity is not a common presenting feature. Instead, an enlarged blind spot and constriction of the visual field are the classic findings in a patient with papilloedema. Additionally, IIH does not typically present with motor weakness or a raised erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR).

      It is important to note that a past history of deep venous thrombosis or lateralized motor weakness would raise suspicions about the possibility of cranial venous thrombosis, which can also cause raised intracranial pressure and papilloedema. Reduced visual acuity, on the other hand, is more consistent with an optic nerve lesion such as optic neuritis.

      In summary, understanding the symptoms of IIH can help healthcare professionals differentiate it from other conditions and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 49 - A 16-year-old female comes in for a follow-up. Three days ago she visited...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old female comes in for a follow-up. Three days ago she visited her physician with complaints of a severe sore throat, fatigue, and headache. The doctor prescribed amoxicillin to treat an upper respiratory tract infection. However, two days ago she developed a pruritic maculopapular rash that has spread throughout her body. Additionally, her initial symptoms have not improved. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Infectious mononucleosis

      Explanation:

      Patients with infectious mononucleosis should not be prescribed amoxicillin. Instead, supportive treatment is recommended for their care.

      Understanding Infectious Mononucleosis

      Infectious mononucleosis, also known as glandular fever, is a viral infection caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) in 90% of cases. It is most commonly seen in adolescents and young adults. The classic triad of symptoms includes sore throat, pyrexia, and lymphadenopathy, which are present in around 98% of patients. Other symptoms include malaise, anorexia, headache, palatal petechiae, splenomegaly, hepatitis, lymphocytosis, haemolytic anaemia, and a maculopapular rash. The symptoms typically resolve after 2-4 weeks.

      The diagnosis of infectious mononucleosis is confirmed through a heterophil antibody test (Monospot test) in the second week of the illness. Management is supportive and includes rest, drinking plenty of fluids, avoiding alcohol, and taking simple analgesia for any aches or pains. It is recommended to avoid playing contact sports for 4 weeks after having glandular fever to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.

      Interestingly, there is a correlation between EBV and socioeconomic groups. Lower socioeconomic groups have high rates of EBV seropositivity, having frequently acquired EBV in early childhood when the primary infection is often subclinical. However, higher socioeconomic groups show a higher incidence of infectious mononucleosis, as acquiring EBV in adolescence or early adulthood results in symptomatic disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 50 - A 68-year-old male is prescribed colchicine to alleviate his gout symptoms that are...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old male is prescribed colchicine to alleviate his gout symptoms that are not responding to diclofenac. What is the most crucial side effect to caution him about?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Diarrhoea

      Explanation:

      Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with an initial dose of 100 mg od and titrated to aim for a serum uric acid of < 300 µmol/l. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Consideration should be given to stopping precipitating drugs and losartan may be suitable for patients with coexistent hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 51 - A 68-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with worsening back pain over...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with worsening back pain over a period of several months. She also feels generally unwell. She is exhausted, has a dry mouth and is constipated.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 93 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 6.4 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
      Platelets (PLT) 380 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 100 fl 80–100 fl
      Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 94 mm/h < 15 mm/h
      Estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) 32 ml/min per 1.73 m2 > 90 ml/min per 1.73 m2
      Corrected calcium (Ca2+) 2.8 mmol/l 2.2–2.6 mmol/l
      What is the most appropriate initial investigation to confirm the diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum electrophoresis

      Explanation:

      Tumor Markers and Serum Electrophoresis: Their Role in Diagnosing Multiple Myeloma

      Multiple myeloma is a malignant disease of plasma cells that can cause renal failure, normocytic anemia, hypercalcemia, and raised ESR. To diagnose multiple myeloma, serum electrophoresis, serum-free light-chain assay, and assessment of urinary Bence Jones protein are recommended. Serum electrophoresis confirms the presence of a paraprotein, which may be due to myeloma or MGUS. Further tests, such as bone marrow biopsy, magnetic resonance imaging, and immunofixation of serum and urine, are usually carried out in secondary care to confirm the diagnosis.

      Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA), CA 19-9, serum lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), and CA125 are tumor markers used to monitor disease progression in various cancers. However, there is no role for these markers in diagnosing multiple myeloma. CEA is mainly used to monitor the progress of treatment for colonic cancer, while CA 19-9 is used to monitor disease progression in pancreatic cancer. LDH is raised in lymphoma and certain types of testicular cancer, and CA125 is used in the diagnosis of ovarian cancer. Therefore, these markers are not useful in diagnosing multiple myeloma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 52 - Among the following options, which condition is considered a restrictive lung disease/condition? ...

    Incorrect

    • Among the following options, which condition is considered a restrictive lung disease/condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Severe scoliosis

      Explanation:

      Different Types of Lung Diseases and their Spirometry Patterns

      Scoliosis and Lung Function
      Severe scoliosis can affect the respiratory muscles and the natural movements of the thoracic cage, leading to a restrictive pattern in pulmonary function tests. This can prevent the lungs from expanding correctly, compromising their function.

      Cystic Fibrosis and Lung Function
      In early stage cystic fibrosis, the presence of inflammation and thick secretions in the airways can cause an obstructive pattern in spirometry tests. As damage to the lung tissue occurs, a restrictive component can also develop, resulting in a combined obstructive and restrictive pattern.

      Emphysema and Lung Function
      Emphysema is a type of obstructive lung disease characterized by abnormal and irreversible enlargement of air spaces and alveolar wall destruction. This leads to airflow limitation and a spirometry pattern typical of obstructive lung disease.

      Asthma and Lung Function
      Asthma is an inflammatory disorder of the airways that causes hyperresponsiveness and constriction of the airways in response to various stimuli. This leads to airflow limitation and a spirometry pattern typical of obstructive lung disease.

      Bronchiectasis and Lung Function
      Bronchiectasis is characterized by abnormal and irreversible dilatation of the bronchial walls, leading to accumulation of secretions and recurrent inflammation of the airways. This produces an obstructive pattern in pulmonary function tests.

      In summary, different types of lung diseases can affect lung function in various ways, leading to different spirometry patterns. Understanding these patterns can help in the diagnosis and management of these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 53 - A 25-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with blurred vision. She mentions...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with blurred vision. She mentions that she has been having recurrent painful ulcers in her mouth and genital area for the past four months. Her blood tests reveal elevated inflammatory markers.
      Which of the following features points towards a diagnosis of Behçet’s disease?
      Select the SINGLE best answer from the list below.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Positive pathergy test

      Explanation:

      Clinical Signs and Tests for Behçet’s Disease: Understanding the Differences

      Behçet’s disease is a rare autoimmune disorder that can be difficult to diagnose due to its non-specific symptoms. However, there are several clinical signs and tests that can help differentiate it from other conditions. Here are some of the key differences:

      Positive Pathergy Test

      The pathergy test involves inserting a needle into the skin and observing the site for the formation of a papule after 24-48 hours. A positive result is suggestive of Behçet’s disease. This is different from the Koebner phenomenon, which involves the appearance of new lesions on previously unaffected skin that are identical to the patient’s existing skin condition.

      Auspitz Sign

      The Auspitz sign is the presence of small bleeding points when layers of scales are removed. This is a hallmark of psoriasis, but not Behçet’s disease.

      Koebner Phenomenon

      As mentioned, the Koebner phenomenon involves the appearance of new lesions on previously unaffected skin that are identical to the patient’s existing skin condition. This is seen in psoriasis, vitiligo, and lichen planus, but not typically in Behçet’s disease.

      Nikolsky Sign

      The Nikolsky sign is used to differentiate between intra-epidermal and subepidermal blisters. It is a hallmark of certain skin conditions, such as pemphigus, toxic epidermal necrolysis, and staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome, but not Behçet’s disease.

      Positive Mantoux Test

      The Mantoux test is used to detect past infection with Mycobacterium tuberculosis. A positive result is not indicative of Behçet’s disease.

      In summary, while there are some similarities between Behçet’s disease and other skin conditions, these clinical signs and tests can help differentiate it from other diagnoses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 54 - As a junior doctor in an inpatient psychiatric unit, you have assessed a...

    Incorrect

    • As a junior doctor in an inpatient psychiatric unit, you have assessed a 25-year-old patient who has recently been diagnosed with paranoid schizophrenia. Your consultant has initiated treatment with olanzapine and baseline blood tests have been conducted. According to NICE guidelines, what further investigation is recommended for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ECG

      Explanation:

      Patients starting antipsychotic medications should have a baseline ECG, along with weight, waist circumference, pulse and BP measurements, blood tests (including fasting glucose, HbA1c, lipids and prolactin), assessment of movement disorders and nutritional status. An ECG may also be necessary if the medication’s summary of product characteristics recommends it, if the patient has a high risk of cardiovascular disease, has a personal history of cardiovascular disease, or is being admitted as an inpatient. As olanzapine is a second-generation antipsychotic that can cause QT prolongation, an ECG is particularly important for this patient because she is currently hospitalized.

      Monitoring patients who are taking antipsychotic medication is a crucial aspect of their treatment. In addition to regular clinical follow-ups, extensive monitoring is required to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the medication. The British National Formulary (BNF) recommends a range of tests and assessments to be carried out at various intervals. At the start of therapy, a full blood count (FBC), urea and electrolytes (U&E), and liver function tests (LFT) should be conducted. Clozapine, in particular, requires more frequent monitoring of FBC, initially on a weekly basis. Lipids and weight should be measured at the start of therapy, after three months, and annually thereafter. Fasting blood glucose and prolactin levels should be checked at the start of therapy, after six months, and annually thereafter. Blood pressure should be measured at baseline and frequently during dose titration. An electrocardiogram should be conducted at baseline, and cardiovascular risk assessment should be carried out annually. For more detailed information, please refer to the BNF, which also provides specific recommendations for individual drugs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 55 - A 68-year-old woman with chronic osteoarthritis to multiple joints has been managed on...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman with chronic osteoarthritis to multiple joints has been managed on morphine modified-release for several months. She currently takes 30 mg morphine modified-release twice daily. She has also been using Oramorph 10 mg four times daily for the past week because the twice-daily, 30-mg morphine modified-release has not been helping. You decide to increase the total dose of modified-release morphine.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate dose of morphine modified-release?
      Select the SINGLE most appropriate dose from the list below. Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Morphine modified-release 50 mg twice daily

      Explanation:

      Understanding Opioid Conversion and Dosage Adjustments

      When managing pain in patients with advanced and progressive disease, strong opioids such as morphine are often used. However, as the patient’s condition changes, adjustments to the dosage and type of opioid may be necessary.

      For example, if a patient is using a total of 100 mg of morphine in 24 hours and requires increased use of Oramorph PRN, it may be appropriate to increase the total daily dose of morphine modified-release. To calculate the new dose, simply add the total amount of morphine used in 24 hours and divide by 2, which gives a twice-daily dose for morphine modified-release.

      It is important to note that transdermal patch formulations should not be routinely offered to patients for whom oral opioids are suitable. If a patient requires additional pain relief, other options such as adding a fentanyl patch may be considered.

      When converting between different opioids, it is important to consult the BNF or local guidance for equi-analgesic potencies. For example, 10 mg of oral morphine is equivalent to 100 mg of codeine phosphate or dihydrocodeine, 1.3 mg of hydromorphone, 5 mg of oxycodone, 25 mg of tapentadol, or 67 mg of tramadol.

      Dosage adjustments should always be undertaken with specialist advice, especially when converting to or from methadone. Transdermal opioids also require careful consideration, with buprenorphine and fentanyl patches available in various strengths and corresponding oral morphine equivalents.

      In summary, understanding opioid conversion and dosage adjustments is crucial for effective pain management in patients with advanced and progressive disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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  • Question 56 - A 68-year-old psychiatric patient is brought to the Emergency Room, complaining of excessive...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old psychiatric patient is brought to the Emergency Room, complaining of excessive thirst. He is carrying multiple shopping bags and has spent a significant amount of money. Blood tests reveal a urea level of 20.5 mmol/l (reference range 2.5–7.1 mmol/l), a creatinine level of 190 μmol/l (reference range 53–106 μmol/l) and a sodium level of 144 mmol/l (reference range 135–145 mmol/l). Urinary osmolality is low.
      What is the most likely diagnosis based on this clinical presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus (DI)

      Explanation:

      Medical Conditions Explained: Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus, Cranial Diabetes Insipidus, Chronic Reflux Nephropathy, Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone Secretion, and Psychogenic Polydipsia

      Nephrogenic Diabetes Insipidus (DI)
      Nephrogenic DI is a condition where the kidneys are unable to concentrate urine due to resistance to the action of antidiuretic hormone (ADH). This can be caused by lithium toxicity, which is commonly used to treat bipolar affective disorder. Symptoms include passing large volumes of dilute urine and a urinary specific gravity of 1.005 or less. Treatment involves replacing fluid losses with dextrose and water or hypo-osmolar intravenous fluids, as well as a low-protein, low-sodium diet. Alternative medication to lithium may be considered after consultation with a psychiatrist.

      Cranial Diabetes Insipidus
      Cranial DI, also known as central or neurogenic DI, is caused by decreased secretion of ADH, resulting in polyuria and polydipsia. Urine osmolality will be less than 300 mOsm/kg after a water deprivation test, and will rise to over 750 mOsm/kg after ADH administration.

      Chronic Reflux Nephropathy
      Reflux nephropathy is a condition where urine flows back from the bladder to the kidneys, causing renal damage. It is typically seen in children with urinary tract abnormalities, but can also occur with conditions that obstruct urine flow. Symptoms include those of nephrotic syndrome and urinary tract infections, but this diagnosis is not consistent with the clinical presentation in this scenario.

      Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone Secretion (SIADH)
      SIADH is characterized by hyponatremia and hypo-osmolality due to excessive secretion or action of ADH, resulting in impaired water excretion. However, the patient in this scenario is presenting with hypernatremia, which is not consistent with SIADH.

      Psychogenic Polydipsia
      Psychogenic polydipsia is excessive fluid intake without physiological stimuli, often caused by psychiatric disorders such as schizophrenia or bipolar affective disorder. It is accompanied by the sensation of dry mouth.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 57 - A 28-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a one week history...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a one week history of cough and increasing shortness of breath over the past 48 hours. She also reports fever, headache, anorexia, and chills. Upon examination, she appears slightly pale and confused. Her vital signs reveal a pulse of 136/min, blood pressure of 96/64 mmHg, respiratory rate of 32/min, and oxygen saturation of 89% on room air. Lung auscultation reveals reduced breath sounds in the left lower lung with some coarse crackles. Blood cultures are taken and the patient is cannulated. High flow oxygen is administered and a fluid challenge is ordered by the nurse. What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prescribe broad spectrum intravenous antibiotics

      Explanation:

      If the patient’s condition worsens, ITU may be consulted. However, before referring the patient, it is important to determine if she has already received basic sepsis care. Although studies have explored the use of steroids in sepsis, they are not presently recommended due to an increase in mortality.

      Understanding Sepsis: Classification and Management

      Sepsis is a life-threatening condition caused by a dysregulated host response to an infection. In recent years, the classification of sepsis has changed, with the old category of severe sepsis no longer in use. Instead, the Surviving Sepsis Guidelines now recognize sepsis as life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by a dysregulated host response to infection, and septic shock as a more severe form of sepsis. The term ‘systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)’ has also fallen out of favor.

      To manage sepsis, it is important to identify and treat the underlying cause of the infection and support the patient regardless of the cause or severity. However, if any red flags are present, the ‘sepsis six’ should be started immediately. This includes administering oxygen, taking blood cultures, giving broad-spectrum antibiotics, giving intravenous fluid challenges, measuring serum lactate, and measuring accurate hourly urine output.

      NICE released its own guidelines in 2016, which focus on the risk stratification and management of patients with suspected sepsis. For risk stratification, NICE recommends using red flag and amber flag criteria. If any red flags are present, the sepsis six should be started immediately. If any amber flags are present, the patient should be closely monitored and managed accordingly.

      To help identify and categorize patients, the Sequential (Sepsis-Related) Organ Failure Assessment Score (SOFA) is increasingly used. The score grades abnormality by organ system and accounts for clinical interventions. A SOFA score of 2 or more reflects an overall mortality risk of approximately 10% in a general hospital population with suspected infection. Even patients presenting with modest dysfunction can deteriorate further, emphasizing the seriousness of this condition and the need for prompt and appropriate intervention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 58 - A 44-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with sudden onset abdominal pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with sudden onset abdominal pain and vomiting for the past 5 days. She feels nauseated and cannot tolerate any food and only minimal liquid. She denies diarrhoea and has not had a bowel movement for 4 days.

      Her past medical history includes chronic lower back pain for which she takes regular co-codamol. The last time she was in hospital was for her cesarean section 10 years ago.

      Upon examination, she appears clammy and dehydrated. Her abdomen is distended and tender throughout. Bowel sounds are inaudible.

      What is the most probable underlying cause of this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Adhesions

      Explanation:

      The most common cause of small bowel obstruction is adhesions. This patient is experiencing symptoms such as abdominal pain, distention, and constipation, which are similar to those of large bowel obstruction. However, the onset of nausea and vomiting is an early sign of small bowel obstruction, indicating a proximal lesion. Adhesions are scar tissue that can form due to inflammation or manipulation of the abdominal contents during surgery, and they are often present in patients who are asymptomatic for years before experiencing symptoms. Given the patient’s history of a previous cesarean section, adhesional small bowel obstruction is a likely diagnosis.

      Large bowel obstruction is most commonly caused by colorectal cancer, and symptoms include abdominal pain, distention, and constipation. However, nausea and vomiting are later signs compared to small bowel obstruction.

      Gallstone ileus is a rare complication of cholecystitis where a gallstone passes through a fistula between the gallstone and small bowel before becoming impacted, leading to small bowel obstruction.

      Inguinal hernias can also cause small bowel obstruction, as they involve a protrusion of abdominal contents through a defect in the abdominal wall. However, the patient’s history of previous abdominal surgery makes adhesions a more likely cause.

      While regular opioid use can lead to constipation, it is not a cause of obstruction. In this case, the patient’s bilious vomiting and positive findings of abdominal tenderness and distension suggest intestinal obstruction rather than simple constipation.

      Small bowel obstruction occurs when the small intestines are blocked, preventing the passage of food, fluids, and gas. The most common cause of this condition is adhesions, which can develop after previous surgeries, followed by hernias. Symptoms of small bowel obstruction include diffuse, central abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting (often bilious), constipation, and abdominal distension. Tinkling bowel sounds may also be present in early stages of obstruction. Abdominal x-ray is typically the first-line imaging for suspected small bowel obstruction, showing distended small bowel loops with fluid levels. CT is more sensitive and considered the definitive investigation, particularly in early obstruction. Management involves initial steps such as NBM, IV fluids, and nasogastric tube with free drainage. Some patients may respond to conservative management, but others may require surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 59 - A 27-year-old woman has been given a single dose of 1.5mg LevonelleTM (levonorgestrel)...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman has been given a single dose of 1.5mg LevonelleTM (levonorgestrel) as emergency contraception after having unprotected sexual intercourse (UPSI) 24 hours ago. She wants to start taking oral combined hormonal contraception (‘the pill’) as ongoing contraception immediately as she anticipates having further UPSI. What is the appropriate time to begin ongoing contraception after taking emergency contraception?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Immediately

      Explanation:

      According to FSRH guidelines, it is acceptable to begin hormonal contraception immediately after taking levonorgestrel (Levonelle) for emergency contraception. It is important to wait 5 days after taking ulipristal acetate (Ella-OneTM) before starting ongoing hormonal contraception. Waiting until the start of the next menstrual period is not necessary for quick-starting hormonal contraception, which can be done if the patient prefers it or if there is ongoing risk of pregnancy. While a negative pregnancy test at 21 days post-UPSI can reasonably exclude pregnancy, it is still recommended to take a pregnancy test 21 days after the episode of UPSI in case emergency contraception has failed.

      Emergency contraception is available in the UK through two methods: emergency hormonal contraception and intrauterine device (IUD). Emergency hormonal contraception includes two types of pills: levonorgestrel and ulipristal. Levonorgestrel works by stopping ovulation and inhibiting implantation, while ulipristal primarily inhibits ovulation. Levonorgestrel should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sexual intercourse, within 72 hours, and is 84% effective when used within this time frame. The dose should be doubled for those with a BMI over 26 or weight over 70kg. Ulipristal should be taken within 120 hours of intercourse and may reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraception. The most effective method of emergency contraception is the copper IUD, which can be inserted within 5 days of unprotected intercourse or up to 5 days after the likely ovulation date. It may inhibit fertilization or implantation and is 99% effective regardless of where it is used in the cycle. Prophylactic antibiotics may be given if the patient is at high risk of sexually transmitted infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 60 - A 50-year-old male comes to the emergency department complaining of malaise, yellowing sclera,...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old male comes to the emergency department complaining of malaise, yellowing sclera, and increasing abdominal girth. He admits to drinking 80 cl of whisky daily and has had several unsuccessful attempts at community detoxification. The patient has a medical history of liver cirrhosis. During the examination, a significantly distended abdomen with a shifting dullness and an enlarged mass in the right upper quadrant are observed.

      What is the most suitable medication to prescribe for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      For patients with ascites caused by liver cirrhosis, it is recommended to prescribe an aldosterone antagonist, such as spironolactone, as the preferred diuretic to combat sodium retention. A low-salt diet should also be implemented. While furosemide can be useful in combination with spironolactone, it is not effective in blocking aldosterone and should not be used as a single agent. Nephrotoxic medications, including naproxen, should be avoided. ACE inhibitors, like ramipril, can induce renal failure and should be used with caution and careful monitoring of blood pressure and renal function. Restricting high sodium concentration fluids will not be beneficial, but a low sodium diet is recommended to prevent water retention.

      Understanding Ascites: Causes and Management

      Ascites is a medical condition characterized by the accumulation of abnormal fluid in the abdomen. The causes of ascites can be classified into two groups based on the serum-ascites albumin gradient (SAAG) level. A SAAG level greater than 11g/L indicates portal hypertension, which is commonly caused by liver disorders such as cirrhosis, alcoholic liver disease, and liver metastases. On the other hand, a SAAG level less than 11g/L is caused by hypoalbuminaemia, malignancy, infections, and other factors such as bowel obstruction and biliary ascites.

      The management of ascites involves reducing dietary sodium and fluid restriction, especially if the sodium level is less than 125 mmol/L. Aldosterone antagonists like spironolactone and loop diuretics are often prescribed to patients. In some cases, drainage through therapeutic abdominal paracentesis is necessary. Large-volume paracentesis requires albumin cover to reduce the risk of paracentesis-induced circulatory dysfunction and mortality. Prophylactic antibiotics are also recommended to prevent spontaneous bacterial peritonitis. In severe cases, a transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPS) may be considered.

      Understanding the causes and management of ascites is crucial in providing appropriate medical care to patients. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help alleviate symptoms and improve the patient’s quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 61 - A 43-year-old woman is diagnosed with premature ovarian failure and prescribed HRT for...

    Incorrect

    • A 43-year-old woman is diagnosed with premature ovarian failure and prescribed HRT for symptom relief and bone health. What other medical condition is she at a higher risk for?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ischaemic heart disease

      Explanation:

      Premature menopause is linked to higher mortality rates, including an increased risk of osteoporosis and cardiovascular disease, specifically ischaemic heart disease. Oestrogen is known to have protective effects on bone health and cardiovascular disease, making the increased risks associated with premature menopause particularly concerning. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) is often recommended until the normal age of menopause, with a discussion of the risks and benefits of continuing HRT beyond that point. A 2015 NICE review found that the baseline risk of coronary heart disease and stroke for menopausal women varies based on individual cardiovascular risk factors. HRT with oestrogen alone is associated with no or reduced risk of coronary heart disease, while HRT with oestrogen and progestogen is linked to little or no increase in the risk of coronary heart disease. However, taking oral (but not transdermal) oestrogen is associated with a small increase in the risk of stroke.

      Premature Ovarian Insufficiency: Causes and Management

      Premature ovarian insufficiency is a condition where menopausal symptoms and elevated gonadotrophin levels occur before the age of 40. It affects approximately 1 in 100 women and can be caused by various factors such as idiopathic reasons, family history, bilateral oophorectomy, radiotherapy, chemotherapy, infection, autoimmune disorders, and resistant ovary syndrome. The symptoms of premature ovarian insufficiency are similar to those of normal menopause, including hot flushes, night sweats, infertility, secondary amenorrhoea, raised FSH and LH levels, and low oestradiol.

      Management of premature ovarian insufficiency involves hormone replacement therapy (HRT) or a combined oral contraceptive pill until the age of the average menopause, which is 51 years. It is important to note that HRT does not provide contraception in case spontaneous ovarian activity resumes. Early diagnosis and management of premature ovarian insufficiency can help alleviate symptoms and improve quality of life for affected women.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 62 - A 72-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of fatigue, back pain, and frequent...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of fatigue, back pain, and frequent urination and thirst for the past 3 months. Upon examination, the doctor orders a urine protein electrophoresis and a serum-free light-chain assay, which confirm the diagnosis. What is the most probable result on the patient's blood film?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Rouleaux formation

      Explanation:

      Rouleaux formation is a characteristic finding in multiple myeloma, which is a condition that presents with symptoms such as hypercalcaemia, anaemia, and back pain. Diagnosis of myeloma involves urine protein electrophoresis and serum-free light-chain assay. Rouleaux formation is observed as stacked RBCs on a blood film, resulting from an increase in acute-phase proteins that are positively charged and attract negatively charged RBCs. It is important to note that rouleaux formation is not exclusive to myeloma and can be seen in various inflammatory conditions. The erythrocyte sedimentation rate blood test measures this mechanism clinically. Heinz bodies, which are caused by oxidative stress and denaturation of haemoglobin, are not associated with myeloma but are seen in G6PD deficiency. Howell-Jolly bodies, which are present in hyposplenic or asplenic disorders, and an increased number of reticulocytes, which indicate increased RBC turnover, are also not characteristic of myeloma.

      Understanding Multiple Myeloma: Features and Investigations

      Multiple myeloma is a type of blood cancer that occurs due to genetic mutations in plasma cells. It is commonly diagnosed in individuals over the age of 70. The disease is characterized by the acronym CRABBI, which stands for Calcium, Renal, Anaemia, Bleeding, Bones, and Infection. Patients with multiple myeloma may experience hypercalcemia, renal damage, anaemia, bleeding, bone pain, and increased susceptibility to infections. Other symptoms may include amyloidosis, carpal tunnel syndrome, neuropathy, and hyperviscosity.

      To diagnose multiple myeloma, doctors may perform a variety of tests, including blood tests, protein electrophoresis, bone marrow aspiration, and imaging studies. Blood tests may reveal anaemia, elevated levels of M protein in the blood or urine, and renal failure. Protein electrophoresis can detect raised concentrations of monoclonal IgA/IgG proteins in the serum or urine. Bone marrow aspiration confirms the diagnosis if the number of plasma cells is significantly raised. Imaging studies, such as whole-body MRI or X-rays, can detect osteolytic lesions or the characteristic rain-drop skull pattern.

      The diagnostic criteria for multiple myeloma require one major and one minor criteria or three minor criteria in an individual who has signs or symptoms of the disease. Major criteria include plasmacytoma, 30% plasma cells in a bone marrow sample, and elevated levels of M protein in the blood or urine. Minor criteria include 10% to 30% plasma cells in a bone marrow sample, minor elevations in the level of M protein in the blood or urine, osteolytic lesions, and low levels of antibodies not produced by the cancer cells in the blood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 63 - A 59-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of severe dizziness, double...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man comes to his General Practitioner complaining of severe dizziness, double vision and tinnitus whenever he lifts weights. He is a non-smoker and is in good health otherwise. During the examination, there is a difference of 35 mmHg between the systolic blood pressure (BP) in his left and right arms. His cardiovascular examination is otherwise unremarkable. His neurological examination is also normal.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Subclavian steal syndrome

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Subclavian Steal Syndrome from Other Conditions

      Subclavian steal syndrome is a condition that occurs when the subclavian artery is narrowed or blocked, leading to reversed blood flow in the vertebral artery. This can cause arm claudication and transient neurological symptoms when the affected arm is exercised. A key diagnostic feature is a systolic blood pressure difference of at least 15 mmHg between the affected and non-affected arms. However, other conditions can also cause discrepancies in blood pressure or similar symptoms, making it important to differentiate subclavian steal syndrome from other possibilities.

      Aortic dissection is a medical emergency that can cause a sudden onset of chest pain and rapidly deteriorating symptoms. Benign paroxysmal positional vertigo (BPPV) is characterized by vertigo triggered by head movements, but does not involve blood pressure differences or diplopia. Buerger’s disease is a rare condition that can cause blood pressure discrepancies, but also involves skin changes and tissue ischemia. Carotid sinus hypersensitivity (CSH) can cause syncope when pressure is applied to the neck, but does not explain the other symptoms reported by the patient.

      In summary, a thorough evaluation is necessary to distinguish subclavian steal syndrome from other conditions that may present with similar symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 64 - A 30-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of fatigue and sudden...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner complaining of fatigue and sudden shortness of breath. An urgent full blood count is performed and the patient is diagnosed with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL).
      What is the most probable first-line treatment option for this patient's leukemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chemotherapy

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Acute Leukaemia: Chemotherapy, Stem-Cell Transplant, Blood Transfusion, Intravenous Immunoglobulins, and Radiotherapy

      Acute leukaemias, such as acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL), are characterized by an increase in primitive undifferentiated blast cells in the bone marrow and blood, leading to marrow failure. The traditional treatment for ALL involves four components: induction, consolidation, maintenance, and central nervous system (CNS) prophylaxis. The first-line therapy for ALL is combination chemotherapy, which aims to eradicate the blast cells. Once remission is induced, maintenance chemotherapy is given to eliminate the disease that cannot be detected under the microscope.

      Stem-cell transplants can be used to treat ALL once remission is induced using chemotherapy. This treatment can be allogeneic (the patient receives stem cells from a matched or partially mismatched related or unrelated donor) or autologous (the patient receives their own stem cells). The goal of a stem-cell transplant is to restore the body’s ability to produce normal blood cells. While it can be a curative treatment for patients with this disease, it is not used as a first-line treatment.

      Blood transfusions are not a treatment for acute leukaemia, but they may be necessary to treat anaemia or platelet deficiency. Patients with leukaemia are at risk of graft-versus-host disease, so they are typically given irradiated blood components. Intravenous immunoglobulins are not used to treat acute leukaemia but may be used prophylactically against infection in patients with hypogammaglobulinaemia due to cancer treatment.

      Radiotherapy is not a first-line treatment for acute leukaemia, but it may be used to treat the brain or spinal cord if the disease has spread there. Total body radiotherapy may also be used before a stem-cell transplant to suppress the immune system and reduce the risk of transplant rejection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 65 - You are in the emergency department assessing a 68-year-old man who has arrived...

    Incorrect

    • You are in the emergency department assessing a 68-year-old man who has arrived with a fractured femur. He is currently taking anticoagulants for his atrial fibrillation and you have been requested to reverse the anticoagulation to prepare him for surgery. Can you match the correct anticoagulant with its corresponding reversal agent?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Dabigatran - Idarucizumab

      Explanation:

      Vitamin K is the antidote for warfarin.
      Idarucizumab is the antidote for dabigatran.
      Protamine sulfate is the antidote for heparin.

      Understanding Direct Oral Anticoagulants

      Direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) are medications used for various indications such as preventing stroke in non-valvular atrial fibrillation, preventing venous thromboembolism (VTE) after hip or knee surgery, and treating deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism (PE). To be prescribed DOACs for stroke prevention in non-valvular AF, certain risk factors must be present, such as prior stroke or transient ischaemic attack, age 75 years or older, hypertension, diabetes mellitus, or heart failure.

      There are four DOACs available, namely dabigatran, rivaroxaban, apixaban, and edoxaban, which differ in their mechanism of action and excretion. Dabigatran is a direct thrombin inhibitor, while rivaroxaban, apixaban, and edoxaban are direct factor Xa inhibitors. The majority of dabigatran is excreted through the kidneys, while rivaroxaban is metabolized in the liver, and apixaban and edoxaban are excreted through the feces.

      In terms of reversal agents, idarucizumab is available for dabigatran, while andexanet alfa is available for rivaroxaban and apixaban. However, there is currently no authorized reversal agent for edoxaban, although andexanet alfa has been studied. Understanding the differences between DOACs is important for healthcare professionals to make informed decisions when prescribing these medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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  • Question 66 - Which one of the following is not a first-rank symptom of schizophrenia for...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is not a first-rank symptom of schizophrenia for individuals?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Catatonia

      Explanation:

      Schizophrenia is a mental disorder that is characterized by various symptoms. Schneider’s first rank symptoms are divided into four categories: auditory hallucinations, thought disorders, passivity phenomena, and delusional perceptions. Auditory hallucinations can include hearing two or more voices discussing the patient in the third person, thought echo, or voices commenting on the patient’s behavior. Thought disorders can involve thought insertion, thought withdrawal, or thought broadcasting. Passivity phenomena can include bodily sensations being controlled by external influence or actions/impulses/feelings that are imposed on the individual or influenced by others. Delusional perceptions involve a two-stage process where a normal object is perceived, and then there is a sudden intense delusional insight into the object’s meaning for the patient.

      Other features of schizophrenia include impaired insight, incongruity/blunting of affect (inappropriate emotion for circumstances), decreased speech, neologisms (made-up words), catatonia, and negative symptoms such as incongruity/blunting of affect, anhedonia (inability to derive pleasure), alogia (poverty of speech), and avolition (poor motivation). It is important to note that schizophrenia can manifest differently in each individual, and not all symptoms may be present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
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  • Question 67 - A 55-year-old woman has been diagnosed with Bell's palsy. What is the current...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman has been diagnosed with Bell's palsy. What is the current evidence-based approach to managing this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Understanding Bell’s Palsy

      Bell’s palsy is a sudden, one-sided facial nerve paralysis of unknown cause. It is more common in individuals aged 20-40 years and pregnant women. The condition is characterized by lower motor neuron facial nerve palsy, which affects the forehead. Unlike upper motor neuron lesions, the upper face is spared. Patients may also experience post-auricular pain, altered taste, dry eyes, and hyperacusis.

      The management of Bell’s palsy has been a subject of debate. However, it is now widely accepted that all patients should receive oral prednisolone within 72 hours of onset. The addition of antiviral medications is still a matter of discussion, but it may be beneficial for severe facial palsy. Eye care is also crucial to prevent exposure keratopathy, and patients should be prescribed artificial tears and eye lubricants. If they are unable to close their eyes at bedtime, they should tape them closed using microporous tape.

      If the paralysis shows no sign of improvement after three weeks, an urgent referral to ENT is necessary. Patients with long-standing weakness may require a referral to plastic surgery. The prognosis for Bell’s palsy is generally good, with most patients making a full recovery within 3-4 months. However, untreated patients may experience permanent moderate to severe weakness in around 15% of cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 68 - A 32-year-old taxi driver presents with a frontal headache that has been ongoing...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old taxi driver presents with a frontal headache that has been ongoing for the past 2 weeks. After taking 3 blood pressure readings, the lowest of which is 168/98 mmHg, a 24-hour tape reveals an average blood pressure reading of 158/88mmHg. The patient is open to starting medication for hypertension but expresses concern about how this diagnosis will affect his job. What advice would you give him?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Advise him that he may continue driving as long as is blood pressure is not consistently above 180mmHg systolic or above 100mmHg diastolic

      Explanation:

      Drivers of cars and motorcycles are not required to inform the DVLA of their hypertension, but they must refrain from driving if their symptoms would impair their ability to drive safely. The same guidelines apply to bus and lorry drivers, but if their resting blood pressure consistently exceeds 180 mmHg systolic or 100mmHg diastolic, they must cease driving and notify the DVLA.

      DVLA Guidelines for Cardiovascular Disorders and Driving

      The DVLA has specific guidelines for individuals with cardiovascular disorders who wish to drive a car or motorcycle. For those with hypertension, driving is permitted unless the treatment causes unacceptable side effects, and there is no need to notify the DVLA. However, for those with Group 2 Entitlement, a resting blood pressure consistently at 180 mmHg systolic or more and/or 100 mm Hg diastolic or more disqualifies them from driving.

      Individuals who have undergone elective angioplasty must refrain from driving for one week, while those who have undergone CABG or acute coronary syndrome must refrain from driving for four weeks. However, if successfully treated by angioplasty, driving is permitted after one week. Those with angina must cease driving if symptoms occur at rest or while driving.

      For individuals who have undergone pacemaker insertion, they must refrain from driving for one week. If they have an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) for sustained ventricular arrhythmia, they must cease driving for six months. If the ICD is implanted prophylactically, they must cease driving for one month, and having an ICD results in a permanent bar for Group 2 drivers. Successful catheter ablation for an arrhythmia requires two days off driving.

      Individuals with an aortic aneurysm of 6cm or more must notify the DVLA, and licensing will be permitted subject to annual review. However, an aortic diameter of 6.5 cm or more disqualifies patients from driving. Those who have undergone a heart transplant must refrain from driving for six weeks, but there is no need to notify the DVLA.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 69 - What is a risk factor for the development of surfactant deficient lung disease...

    Incorrect

    • What is a risk factor for the development of surfactant deficient lung disease in a neonate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Maternal diabetes mellitus

      Explanation:

      Surfactant Deficient Lung Disease in Premature Infants

      Surfactant deficient lung disease (SDLD), previously known as hyaline membrane disease, is a condition that affects premature infants. It occurs due to the underproduction of surfactant and the immaturity of the lungs’ structure. The risk of SDLD decreases with gestation, with 50% of infants born at 26-28 weeks and 25% of infants born at 30-31 weeks being affected. Other risk factors include male sex, diabetic mothers, Caesarean section, and being the second born of premature twins.

      The clinical features of SDLD are similar to those of respiratory distress in newborns, including tachypnea, intercostal recession, expiratory grunting, and cyanosis. Chest x-rays typically show a ground-glass appearance with an indistinct heart border.

      Prevention during pregnancy involves administering maternal corticosteroids to induce fetal lung maturation. Management of SDLD includes oxygen therapy, assisted ventilation, and exogenous surfactant given via an endotracheal tube. With proper management, the prognosis for infants with SDLD is generally good.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
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  • Question 70 - An elderly man aged 76 visits the surgery after a visit to his...

    Incorrect

    • An elderly man aged 76 visits the surgery after a visit to his optician who noted raised intra-ocular pressure and decreased peripheral vision. He has a medical history of asthma and type 2 diabetes mellitus. The patient is referred to ophthalmology. What is the probable treatment he will receive for his likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Latanoprost

      Explanation:

      Patients with a history of asthma should be prescribed a prostaglandin analogue as the first-line treatment.

      Glaucoma is a condition where the optic nerve is damaged due to increased pressure in the eye. Primary open-angle glaucoma is a type where the iris is clear of the trabecular meshwork, which is responsible for draining aqueous humour from the eye. This results in increased resistance to outflow and raised intraocular pressure. The condition affects 0.5% of people over 40 years old and increases with age. Genetics also play a role, with first-degree relatives having a 16% chance of developing the disease. Symptoms are usually absent, and diagnosis is made through routine eye examinations. Investigations include visual field tests, tonometry, and slit lamp examinations. Treatment involves eye drops to lower intraocular pressure, with prostaglandin analogues being the first line of treatment. Surgery may be considered in refractory cases. Regular reassessment is necessary to monitor progression and prevent visual field loss.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
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  • Question 71 - Which of the following medications does not lead to galactorrhea? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following medications does not lead to galactorrhea?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bromocriptine

      Explanation:

      Bromocriptine is used to treat galactorrhoea, not to induce it.

      Understanding Prolactin and Galactorrhoea

      Prolactin is a hormone produced by the anterior pituitary gland, and its release is regulated by various physiological factors. Dopamine is the primary inhibitor of prolactin release, and dopamine agonists like bromocriptine can be used to manage galactorrhoea. Galactorrhoea is a condition characterized by the production of breast milk in individuals who are not breastfeeding. It is important to distinguish the causes of galactorrhoea from those of gynaecomastia, which is the enlargement of male breast tissue.

      Excess prolactin can lead to different symptoms in men and women. Men may experience impotence, loss of libido, and galactorrhoea, while women may have amenorrhoea and galactorrhoea. Several factors can cause raised prolactin levels, including prolactinoma, pregnancy, oestrogens, stress, exercise, sleep, acromegaly, polycystic ovarian syndrome, and primary hypothyroidism. Additionally, certain medications like metoclopramide, domperidone, phenothiazines, haloperidol, SSRIs, and opioids can also increase prolactin levels.

      In summary, understanding prolactin and its effects on the body is crucial in diagnosing and managing conditions like galactorrhoea. Identifying the underlying causes of raised prolactin levels is essential in providing appropriate treatment and improving patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 72 - A nurse updates you on a 32-year-old woman who is 38 weeks pregnant....

    Incorrect

    • A nurse updates you on a 32-year-old woman who is 38 weeks pregnant. The patient's blood pressure reading is 155/90 mmHg, up from 152/85 mmHg two days ago. A 24-hour urine collection shows a urinary protein excretion of 0.7g / 24 hours. The patient was previously healthy before pregnancy. Following oral labetalol administration, what is the next step in managing this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Plan delivery of the foetus within 48 hours

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women who have mild or moderate gestational hypertension, are beyond 37 weeks of pregnancy, and exhibit pre-eclampsia symptoms, should be advised to deliver their baby within 24 to 48 hours as per the existing recommendations.

      Hypertension during pregnancy is a common occurrence that requires careful management. In normal pregnancies, blood pressure tends to decrease in the first trimester and then gradually increase to pre-pregnancy levels by term. However, in cases of hypertension during pregnancy, the systolic blood pressure is usually above 140 mmHg or the diastolic blood pressure is above 90 mmHg. Additionally, an increase of more than 30 mmHg systolic or 15 mmHg diastolic from the initial readings may also indicate hypertension.

      There are three categories of hypertension during pregnancy: pre-existing hypertension, pregnancy-induced hypertension (PIH), and pre-eclampsia. Pre-existing hypertension refers to a history of hypertension before pregnancy or elevated blood pressure before 20 weeks gestation. PIH occurs in the second half of pregnancy and resolves after birth. Pre-eclampsia is characterized by hypertension and proteinuria, and may also involve edema.

      The management of hypertension during pregnancy involves the use of antihypertensive medications such as labetalol, nifedipine, and hydralazine. In cases of pre-existing hypertension, ACE inhibitors and angiotensin II receptor blockers should be stopped immediately and alternative medications should be prescribed. Women who are at high risk of developing pre-eclampsia should take aspirin from 12 weeks until the birth of the baby. It is important to carefully monitor blood pressure and proteinuria levels during pregnancy to ensure the health of both the mother and the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 73 - An 85-year-old man has just undergone an emergency repair for a ruptured abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • An 85-year-old man has just undergone an emergency repair for a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm. Preoperatively he was taking aspirin and warfarin; intraoperatively he received unfractionated heparin prior to application of the aortic cross-clamp. His observation findings are heart rate 120 bpm, BP 100/60 mmHg, respiratory rate 23/min, oxygen saturation 98% on air, temperature 38ºC. His blood results on admission to the critical care unit are as follows:

      Hb 110 g/L
      Male: (135-180)
      Female: (115 - 160)

      Platelets 30 * 109/L
      (150 - 400)

      WBC 15 * 109/L
      (4.0 - 11.0)

      Fibrinogen 0.5 g/L
      (2-4 g/L)

      PT 20 seconds
      (10-12 seconds)

      APTT 60 seconds
      (35-45 seconds)

      FDP 60 ug/mL
      (<10 ug/mL)

      What is the most likely explanation for the blood abnormalities seen in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Disseminated intravascular coagulation

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for the patient’s deranged vital signs after a major operation and suspected sepsis is disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). This is characterized by low platelets, increased clotting time, and raised fibrin degradation products (FDPs). DIC is often caused by the release of tissue factor (TF) in response to cytokines, tumor necrosis factor, and endotoxin. Anastomotic leak, heparin-induced thrombocytopenia, warfarin use, and aspirin use are unlikely causes based on the patient’s history and blood results.

      Understanding Disseminated Intravascular Coagulation (DIC) Diagnosis

      Under normal conditions, coagulation and fibrinolysis work together to maintain homeostasis. However, in DIC, these processes become dysregulated, leading to widespread clotting and bleeding. One key factor in the development of DIC is the release of tissue factor (TF), a glycoprotein found on the surface of various cell types. Normally, TF is not in contact with the general circulation, but it is exposed after vascular damage or in response to certain cytokines. Once activated, TF triggers the extrinsic pathway of coagulation, which then triggers the intrinsic pathway. DIC can be caused by various factors, including sepsis, trauma, obstetric complications, and malignancy.

      To diagnose DIC, a typical blood picture will show decreased platelets and fibrinogen, increased fibrinogen degradation products, and the presence of schistocytes due to microangiopathic hemolytic anemia. Additionally, both the prothrombin time and activated partial thromboplastin time are prolonged, while bleeding time and platelet count are often low. Understanding the diagnosis of DIC is crucial for prompt and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 74 - What potential complication is associated with an increased risk when using combined oral...

    Incorrect

    • What potential complication is associated with an increased risk when using combined oral contraceptives?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Breast cancer

      Explanation:

      The Benefits and Risks of Oral Contraceptives in Relation to Cancer

      Oral contraceptives have been a topic of controversy when it comes to their association with cancer in women. However, various studies have shown that they can have both positive and negative effects on different types of cancer.

      Breast Cancer:
      The Collaborative Group on Hormonal Factors in Breast Cancer conducted a comprehensive analysis and found that current oral contraceptive users and those who had used them within the past 1-4 years had a slightly increased risk of breast cancer. However, the risk is small and resulting tumors spread less aggressively than usual.

      Dysmenorrhoea:
      For women with primary dysmenorrhoea who do not wish to conceive, a 3-6 month trial of hormonal contraception is reasonable. Monophasic combined oral contraceptives containing 30-35 μg of ethinylestradiol and norethisterone, norgestimate or levonorgestrel are usually the first choice.

      Ovarian Cancer:
      Oral contraceptives have been noted to prevent epithelial ovarian carcinoma, with studies showing an approximately 40% reduced risk of malignant and borderline ovarian epithelial cancer. This protection lasts for at least 15 years after discontinuation of use and increases with duration of use.

      Endometrial Cancer:
      Use of oral contraceptives is associated with a 50% reduction of risk of endometrial adenocarcinoma. Protection appears to persist for at least 15 years following discontinuation of use.

      Colorectal Cancer:
      Women who take combined oral contraceptives are 19% less likely to develop colorectal cancer.

      In conclusion, while there are some risks associated with oral contraceptives, they also have benefits in reducing the risk of certain types of cancer. It is important for women to discuss their individual risks and benefits with their healthcare provider when considering the use of oral contraceptives.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 75 - A 70-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with abrupt onset of numbness...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with abrupt onset of numbness on the right side of his body, without any other accompanying symptoms. He has a medical history of uncontrolled hypertension and diabetes mellitus. A CT scan of his head was conducted, which revealed no signs of bleeding or tumors. The diagnosis is a lacunar stroke. Which area of the brain is impacted by a lacunar stroke?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The basal ganglia, thalamus and internal capsule

      Explanation:

      The basal ganglia, thalamus, and internal capsule are common sites for lacunar strokes. Amaurosis fugax affects (1), ‘locked-in’ syndrome affects (2), Wallenberg syndrome affects (4), and lateral pontine syndrome affects (5).

      When a stroke occurs, the location of the lesion in the brain can determine the specific effects on the body. Depending on which artery is affected, different symptoms may arise. For example, a stroke in the anterior cerebral artery can lead to contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, with the lower extremity being more affected than the upper. On the other hand, a stroke in the middle cerebral artery can cause contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, with the upper extremity being more affected than the lower, as well as contralateral homonymous hemianopia and aphasia.

      If the stroke occurs in the posterior cerebral artery, the individual may experience contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing and visual agnosia. In the case of Weber’s syndrome, which involves branches of the posterior cerebral artery that supply the midbrain, the person may have an ipsilateral CN III palsy and contralateral weakness of the upper and lower extremities.

      Other types of strokes include those affecting the posterior inferior cerebellar artery, which can lead to ipsilateral facial pain and temperature loss and contralateral limb/torso pain and temperature loss, as well as ataxia and nystagmus. A stroke in the anterior inferior cerebellar artery can cause similar symptoms to Wallenberg’s syndrome, but with the addition of ipsilateral facial paralysis and deafness.

      Finally, lacunar strokes are small, localized strokes that often occur in individuals with hypertension. They typically present with isolated hemiparesis, hemisensory loss, or hemiparesis with limb ataxia, and commonly affect the basal ganglia, thalamus, and internal capsule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 76 - A 38-year-old, overweight woman presents to the clinic with complaints of occasional abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old, overweight woman presents to the clinic with complaints of occasional abdominal pain for the past few months. She experienced a constant pain episode two days ago that started in the epigastric region and then moved to the right upper quadrant, accompanied by vomiting.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Biliary colic

      Explanation:

      Biliary Colic and Other Abdominal Conditions: A Brief Overview

      Biliary colic, diverticulitis, chronic pancreatitis, ulcerative colitis, and coeliac disease are all conditions that can cause abdominal pain and discomfort. Understanding the risk factors, symptoms, and diagnostic criteria for each can help healthcare professionals make accurate diagnoses and provide appropriate treatment. Biliary colic, for example, is characterized by severe, constant pain in the epigastrium or right upper quadrant, often accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Diverticulitis, on the other hand, typically presents with left lower quadrant pain and changes in bowel habits. Chronic pancreatitis is associated with intermittent attacks of severe pain in the mid-abdomen or left upper abdomen, while ulcerative colitis is characterized by rectal bleeding, frequent stools, and mucus discharge. Coeliac disease, the most common food intolerance worldwide, can present with a range of gastrointestinal and extraintestinal symptoms. By understanding the unique features of each condition, healthcare professionals can provide effective care and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 77 - A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor worried that she may have been in...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman visits her doctor worried that she may have been in contact with a child who has chickenpox. She is currently 20 weeks pregnant and unsure if she has ever had chickenpox before. Upon examination, no rash is present. Her blood test results show that she is Varicella Zoster IgG negative. What is the best course of action to take next?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Give varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG)

      Explanation:

      If a pregnant woman is exposed to chickenpox before 20 weeks and has a negative IgG test, it indicates that she is not immune to the virus or has not been previously exposed to it. In such cases, it is recommended to administer varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) as soon as possible, which can be effective up to 10 days after exposure. It is not necessary to inform public health as chickenpox is not a notifiable disease.

      If a pregnant woman develops a chickenpox rash, VZIG has no therapeutic benefit and should not be used. However, antiviral agents like aciclovir can be given within 24 hours of the rash onset. It is important to note that antiviral agents are recommended for post-exposure prophylaxis for immunosuppressed individuals.

      Women who are not immune to varicella-zoster can receive the vaccine before pregnancy or after delivery, but it should not be administered during pregnancy. Therefore, option D cannot be correct in any situation.

      Chickenpox exposure in pregnancy can pose risks to both the mother and fetus, including fetal varicella syndrome. Post-exposure prophylaxis (PEP) with varicella-zoster immunoglobulin (VZIG) or antivirals should be given to non-immune pregnant women, with timing dependent on gestational age. If a pregnant woman develops chickenpox, specialist advice should be sought and oral aciclovir may be given if she is ≥ 20 weeks and presents within 24 hours of onset of the rash.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 78 - A 58-year-old woman visits her GP urgently, reporting a 10-minute episode where she...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman visits her GP urgently, reporting a 10-minute episode where she experienced vision loss in her right eye. The GP suspects a transient ischaemic attack (TIA) and prescribes 300mg aspirin while referring her to the TIA clinic. The diagnosis is amaurosis fugax. Which area of the brain anatomy is impacted by this type of stroke?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Retinal/ophthalmic artery

      Explanation:

      It is unlikely that the patient experienced a stroke as her symptoms resolved completely after 10 minutes and there were no ongoing symptoms. Different types of strokes affect different arteries in the brain. For example, a lesion in the anterior cerebral artery would result in contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, with the lower extremities being more affected than the upper. On the other hand, a lesion in the posterior cerebral artery would cause contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing. If the posterior inferior cerebellar artery is affected, the patient may experience ipsilateral facial pain and temperature loss, as well as contralateral limb and torso pain and temperature loss, along with ataxia and nystagmus. A middle cerebral artery stroke would cause contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, with the upper extremity being more affected than the lower, as well as contralateral homonymous hemianopia and aphasia.

      When a stroke occurs, the location of the lesion in the brain can determine the specific effects on the body. Depending on which artery is affected, different symptoms may arise. For example, a stroke in the anterior cerebral artery can lead to contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, with the lower extremity being more affected than the upper. On the other hand, a stroke in the middle cerebral artery can cause contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, with the upper extremity being more affected than the lower, as well as contralateral homonymous hemianopia and aphasia.

      If the stroke occurs in the posterior cerebral artery, the individual may experience contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing and visual agnosia. In the case of Weber’s syndrome, which involves branches of the posterior cerebral artery that supply the midbrain, the person may have an ipsilateral CN III palsy and contralateral weakness of the upper and lower extremities.

      Other types of strokes include those affecting the posterior inferior cerebellar artery, which can lead to ipsilateral facial pain and temperature loss and contralateral limb/torso pain and temperature loss, as well as ataxia and nystagmus. A stroke in the anterior inferior cerebellar artery can cause similar symptoms to Wallenberg’s syndrome, but with the addition of ipsilateral facial paralysis and deafness.

      Finally, lacunar strokes are small, localized strokes that often occur in individuals with hypertension. They typically present with isolated hemiparesis, hemisensory loss, or hemiparesis with limb ataxia, and commonly affect the basal ganglia, thalamus, and internal capsule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 79 - A 54-year-old diabetic patient visits your clinic with a complaint of painless difficulty...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old diabetic patient visits your clinic with a complaint of painless difficulty in swallowing that has been ongoing for the past two months. The patient reports that the difficulty has been getting worse, but is unsure if there has been any weight loss. On examination, there are no notable findings.

      What would be your next course of action considering the possible diagnoses?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Referral for gastroscopy

      Explanation:

      If a patient experiences new-onset dysphagia, urgent endoscopy is necessary regardless of age or other symptoms. In the case of progressive dysphagia, it is crucial to rule out oesophageal or stomach cancer with a two week wait referral for gastroscopy. Gastroparesis, a delay in gastric emptying associated with diabetes, can be treated with metoclopramide. Plummer-vinson syndrome, which is characterized by iron deficiency anaemia and oesophageal webs, can also cause dysphagia along with glossitis and stomatitis. Gaviscon is not a suitable treatment for dysphagia as it only helps with dyspepsia. While a stroke can cause difficulties in initiating swallowing, it is typically sudden onset rather than progressive.

      Understanding Dysphagia and its Causes

      Dysphagia, or difficulty in swallowing, can be caused by various conditions affecting the esophagus, such as oesophageal cancer, oesophagitis, oesophageal candidiasis, achalasia, pharyngeal pouch, systemic sclerosis, and myasthenia gravis. Each condition has its own characteristic features, which can help in identifying the underlying cause of dysphagia. For instance, dysphagia associated with weight loss, anorexia, or vomiting during eating may indicate oesophageal cancer, while dysphagia of both liquids and solids from the start may suggest achalasia.

      To determine the cause of dysphagia, patients usually undergo an upper GI endoscopy, which allows doctors to examine the esophagus and detect any abnormalities. Fluoroscopic swallowing studies may also be done to evaluate motility disorders. Additionally, a full blood count and ambulatory oesophageal pH and manometry studies may be required for certain conditions.

      It’s important to note that new-onset dysphagia is a red flag symptom that requires urgent endoscopy, regardless of age or other symptoms. Therefore, understanding the different causes of dysphagia and their characteristic features can aid in prompt diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 80 - An 80-year-old man complains of lower back pain and right hip pain. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man complains of lower back pain and right hip pain. Upon conducting blood tests, the following results were obtained:
      Calcium 2.20 mmol/l
      Phosphate 0.8 mmol/l
      ALP 890 u/L
      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paget's disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Paget’s Disease of the Bone

      Paget’s disease of the bone is a condition characterized by increased and uncontrolled bone turnover. It is believed to be caused by excessive osteoclastic resorption followed by increased osteoblastic activity. Although it is a common condition, affecting 5% of the UK population, only 1 in 20 patients experience symptoms. The most commonly affected areas are the skull, spine/pelvis, and long bones of the lower extremities. Predisposing factors include increasing age, male sex, northern latitude, and family history.

      Symptoms of Paget’s disease include bone pain, particularly in the pelvis, lumbar spine, and femur. The stereotypical presentation is an older male with bone pain and an isolated raised alkaline phosphatase (ALP). Classical, untreated features include bowing of the tibia and bossing of the skull. Diagnosis is made through blood tests, which show raised ALP, and x-rays, which reveal osteolysis in early disease and mixed lytic/sclerotic lesions later.

      Treatment is indicated for patients experiencing bone pain, skull or long bone deformity, fracture, or periarticular Paget’s. Bisphosphonates, either oral risedronate or IV zoledronate, are the preferred treatment. Calcitonin is less commonly used now. Complications of Paget’s disease include deafness, bone sarcoma (1% if affected for > 10 years), fractures, skull thickening, and high-output cardiac failure.

      Overall, understanding Paget’s disease of the bone is important for early diagnosis and management of symptoms and complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 81 - A 26-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis presents to the GP...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old man with a history of ulcerative colitis presents to the GP with symptoms of feeling unwell. He has been experiencing up to 8 bowel movements a day for the past 3 days, with blood present in his stool each time. He denies having a fever. Urgent blood tests reveal the following results:

      Hb 110 g/L Male: (135-180) Female: (115 - 160)
      Platelets 384 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      WBC 16 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      Na+ 138 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      K+ 4.2 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      Urea 2.4 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      Creatinine 58 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      CRP 109 mg/L (< 5)

      What is the initial treatment plan for this patient, given the severity of his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Admit to hospital for IV steroids

      Explanation:

      When dealing with a severe flare of ulcerative colitis, it is important to evaluate the severity of the condition. In this case, the patient is experiencing more than six bloody stools per day, as well as systemic upset indicated by raised inflammatory markers and anaemia. This places him in the severe category. The first line of treatment would be IV corticosteroids, with IV ciclosporin as a second-line option if the steroids do not induce remission. Hospital admission for IV steroids is the appropriate course of action to induce remission, after which maintenance treatment can be assessed. For moderate extensive disease, oral aminosalicylate and oral steroids can be used. It would be inappropriate to send this patient home without any treatment, as he is clearly unwell and experiencing a flare of UC.

      Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools and presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Extensive disease may require a high-dose oral aminosalicylate and topical treatment. Severe colitis should be treated in a hospital with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin. Maintaining remission can involve using a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate or oral azathioprine/mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended, but probiotics may prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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  • Question 82 - A 12-month-old boy is due to receive his vaccinations today.
    Which of the following...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-month-old boy is due to receive his vaccinations today.
      Which of the following vaccines are most likely to be given to a child at 12 months old?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: MMR, Hib/meningitis C, meningitis B and pneumococcal

      Explanation:

      Vaccination Schedule for Infants in the UK

      In the UK, infants are recommended to receive a series of vaccinations to protect them from various diseases. Here is a breakdown of the vaccination schedule and when each vaccine is given.

      UK Infant Vaccination Schedule

      MMR, Hib/Men C, Men B, and Pneumococcal Vaccines

      At one year of age, infants are given the MMR, Hib/Men C, and the third dose of both the Men B and pneumococcal vaccines.

      Pneumococcal, Rotavirus, Men B, and MMR Vaccines

      The pneumococcal and rotavirus vaccines are given at eight weeks, while the Men B vaccine is given at 8 weeks, 16 weeks, and one year. The MMR vaccine is given at 12-14 months.

      MMR, Rotavirus, and Pneumococcal Vaccines

      The MMR vaccine is given at 12-14 months, while the rotavirus and pneumococcal vaccines are given at eight weeks, 16 weeks, and one year.

      Rotavirus, MMR, Six-in-One, and Men B Vaccines

      The rotavirus and six-in-one vaccines are given at eight weeks, while the Men B vaccine is given at 8 weeks, 16 weeks, and one year. The MMR vaccine is given at 12-14 months.

      Six-in-One Vaccine

      The six-in-one vaccine is given at eight weeks, 12 weeks, and 16 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
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  • Question 83 - A 67-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with haematemesis. Upon reviewing his...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with haematemesis. Upon reviewing his medical history, it is discovered that he has been taking dabigatran since being diagnosed with pulmonary embolism. Due to the severity of the bleeding, it is necessary to reverse the effects of the anticoagulant. What medication is used for this purpose?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Idarucizumab

      Explanation:

      Understanding Direct Oral Anticoagulants

      Direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) are medications used for various indications such as preventing stroke in non-valvular atrial fibrillation, preventing venous thromboembolism (VTE) after hip or knee surgery, and treating deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and pulmonary embolism (PE). To be prescribed DOACs for stroke prevention in non-valvular AF, certain risk factors must be present, such as prior stroke or transient ischaemic attack, age 75 years or older, hypertension, diabetes mellitus, or heart failure.

      There are four DOACs available, namely dabigatran, rivaroxaban, apixaban, and edoxaban, which differ in their mechanism of action and excretion. Dabigatran is a direct thrombin inhibitor, while rivaroxaban, apixaban, and edoxaban are direct factor Xa inhibitors. The majority of dabigatran is excreted through the kidneys, while rivaroxaban is metabolized in the liver, and apixaban and edoxaban are excreted through the feces.

      In terms of reversal agents, idarucizumab is available for dabigatran, while andexanet alfa is available for rivaroxaban and apixaban. However, there is currently no authorized reversal agent for edoxaban, although andexanet alfa has been studied. Understanding the differences between DOACs is important for healthcare professionals to make informed decisions when prescribing these medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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  • Question 84 - A 63-year-old male presents to the Emergency Department with chest pain and shortness...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old male presents to the Emergency Department with chest pain and shortness of breath. He reports that the pain started after he slipped and fell in his home. The pain is rated at 7/10 but increases to 9/10 when he takes a deep breath.
      The doctor suspects a possible pulmonary embolism (PE) based on the patient's medical history. The doctor calculates a 2-level PE Wells score of 1.0 (for recent surgery) and orders a D-dimer test. The patient is started on anticoagulation while waiting for the test results, which are expected to take over 4 hours to return.
      The patient's chest x-ray appears normal, and the D-dimer test comes back negative.
      What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Stop the anticoagulation and consider an alternative diagnosis

      Explanation:

      When investigating a suspected pulmonary embolism (PE), a low Wells score of ≤ 4 and a negative D-dimer result suggest that an alternative diagnosis should be considered and anticoagulation should be stopped. In this case, the patient’s symptoms and history of trauma suggest a musculoskeletal injury may be the cause of their chest pain and shortness of breath. An urgent CTPA would only be necessary if the Wells score was 4 or higher or if the D-dimer test was positive. As neither of these occurred, repeating the D-dimer test is unnecessary. Continuing anticoagulation without a confirmed PE would increase the risk of bleeding. If a PE is confirmed, anticoagulation with warfarin or a direct oral anticoagulant would be appropriate.

      Investigating Pulmonary Embolism: Key Features and Diagnostic Criteria

      Pulmonary embolism (PE) can be challenging to diagnose as it can present with a wide range of cardiorespiratory symptoms and signs depending on its location and size. The PIOPED study in 2007 found that tachypnea, crackles, tachycardia, and fever were the most common clinical signs associated with PE. To aid in the diagnosis of PE, NICE updated their guidelines in 2020 to include the use of the pulmonary embolism rule-out criteria (PERC) and the 2-level PE Wells score. The PERC rule should be used when there is a low pre-test probability of PE, and a negative PERC result reduces the probability of PE to less than 2%. The 2-level PE Wells score should be performed if a PE is suspected, with a score of more than 4 points indicating a likely PE and a score of 4 points or less indicating an unlikely PE.

      If a PE is likely, an immediate computed tomography pulmonary angiogram (CTPA) should be arranged, and interim therapeutic anticoagulation should be given if there is a delay in getting the CTPA. If a PE is unlikely, a D-dimer test should be arranged, and if positive, an immediate CTPA should be performed. The consensus view from the British Thoracic Society and NICE guidelines is that CTPA is the recommended initial lung-imaging modality for non-massive PE. However, V/Q scanning may be used initially if appropriate facilities exist, the chest x-ray is normal, and there is no significant symptomatic concurrent cardiopulmonary disease.

      Other diagnostic tools include age-adjusted D-dimer levels, ECG, chest x-ray, V/Q scan, and CTPA. It is important to note that a chest x-ray is recommended for all patients to exclude other pathology, but it is typically normal in PE. While investigating PE, it is crucial to consider other differential diagnoses and to tailor the diagnostic approach to the individual patient’s clinical presentation and risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
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  • Question 85 - A 16-year-old female comes to the clinic complaining of a painful and itchy...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old female comes to the clinic complaining of a painful and itchy rash that has rapidly worsened in the last 12 hours. She has a history of atopic dermatitis and hayfever, which have been treated with emollients. Upon examination, she has a monomorphic rash with punched out erosions on her cheeks and bilateral dorsal wrists. The doctors admit her for observation and IV antivirals. What is the most likely pathogen responsible for her condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Herpes simplex 1

      Explanation:

      Eczema herpeticum is a skin infection primarily caused by herpes simplex virus (HSV) and, in rare cases, coxsackievirus. Herpes zoster leads to chickenpox, roseola is caused by HHV 6, and molluscum contagiosum is caused by poxvirus.

      Understanding Eczema Herpeticum

      Eczema herpeticum is a serious skin infection caused by herpes simplex virus 1 or 2. It is commonly observed in children with atopic eczema and is characterized by a rapidly progressing painful rash. The infection can be life-threatening, which is why it is important to seek medical attention immediately.

      During examination, doctors typically observe monomorphic punched-out erosions, which are circular, depressed, and ulcerated lesions that are usually 1-3 mm in diameter. Due to the severity of the infection, children with eczema herpeticum should be admitted to the hospital for intravenous aciclovir treatment. It is important to understand the symptoms and seek medical attention promptly to prevent any complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
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  • Question 86 - A 30-year-old woman who is 10 weeks postpartum and currently breastfeeding presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman who is 10 weeks postpartum and currently breastfeeding presents with a complaint of a foul odor in her vaginal area. Upon examination, clue cells are detected. What treatment option would you suggest for this probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Metronidazole 400mg bd for 5 days

      Explanation:

      The recommended treatment for bacterial vaginosis in this patient is metronidazole, but high doses of this medication are not safe for breastfeeding. Fluconazole is used to treat thrush, while azithromycin is used for Chlamydia. Clarithromycin is prescribed for pneumonia, strep throat, and H. pylori infections.

      Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a condition where there is an overgrowth of anaerobic organisms, particularly Gardnerella vaginalis, in the vagina. This leads to a decrease in the amount of lactobacilli, which produce lactic acid, resulting in an increase in vaginal pH. BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but it is commonly seen in sexually active women. Symptoms include a fishy-smelling vaginal discharge, although some women may not experience any symptoms at all. Diagnosis is made using Amsel’s criteria, which includes the presence of thin, white discharge, clue cells on microscopy, a vaginal pH greater than 4.5, and a positive whiff test. Treatment involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, with a cure rate of 70-80%. However, relapse rates are high, with over 50% of women experiencing a recurrence within 3 months. Topical metronidazole or clindamycin may be used as alternatives.

      Bacterial vaginosis during pregnancy can increase the risk of preterm labor, low birth weight, chorioamnionitis, and late miscarriage. It was previously recommended to avoid oral metronidazole in the first trimester and use topical clindamycin instead. However, recent guidelines suggest that oral metronidazole can be used throughout pregnancy. The British National Formulary (BNF) still advises against using high-dose metronidazole regimes. Clue cells, which are vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria, can be seen on microscopy in women with BV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
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  • Question 87 - A 55-year-old woman has been diagnosed with acute cholecystitis and is set to...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman has been diagnosed with acute cholecystitis and is set to undergo a cholecystectomy in 4 days. She is currently managing her type 1 diabetes with a daily dose of 20 units of long acting insulin in the morning. What is the appropriate once-daily dose of insulin for her to take the day before her surgery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 16 Units

      Explanation:

      Preparation for surgery varies depending on whether the patient is undergoing an elective or emergency procedure. For elective cases, it is important to address any medical issues beforehand through a pre-admission clinic. Blood tests, urine analysis, and other diagnostic tests may be necessary depending on the proposed procedure and patient fitness. Risk factors for deep vein thrombosis should also be assessed, and a plan for thromboprophylaxis formulated. Patients are advised to fast from non-clear liquids and food for at least 6 hours before surgery, and those with diabetes require special management to avoid potential complications. Emergency cases require stabilization and resuscitation as needed, and antibiotics may be necessary. Special preparation may also be required for certain procedures, such as vocal cord checks for thyroid surgery or bowel preparation for colorectal cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 88 - As a general practice doctor, you are attending to a 55-year-old man who...

    Incorrect

    • As a general practice doctor, you are attending to a 55-year-old man who has come in as a same-day emergency with new pain in his right leg and foot. The pain has been present for the past 48 hours and is worse at night. He reports that the pain is in the outer side of his calf and the top of his foot and toes. The patient has a medical history of osteoarthritis, gout, and hypertension, and is currently taking paracetamol, amlodipine, naproxen, allopurinol, and omeprazole.

      Upon examination, there is no tenderness or joint deformity in the ankle or foot. The patient has limited movement of the ankle and experiences pain when dorsiflexing his foot. There is slightly altered sensation over the dorsum of his foot, but sensation in the rest of his leg is normal. Bilateral palpable dorsalis pedis pulses are present.

      What is the most likely cause of this man's leg pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: L5 radiculopathy

      Explanation:

      Nerve root pain can be identified by its distribution along the lateral calf and dorsum of the foot, as well as the presence of a neurological deficit such as sensory changes and weakness. This suggests that the L5 nerve is affected.

      In contrast, joint diseases like gout and osteoarthritis typically cause pain localized to the affected joint, without any specific distribution on the foot. There is also no associated sensory loss, and movement of the joint is limited in all directions, not just dorsiflexion.

      Peripheral vascular disease or deep vein thrombosis can cause symptoms throughout the entire limb, without any discernible distribution. While arterial disease may cause calf pain, it does not lateralize to the medial or lateral side of the calf. Additionally, if the foot is affected, the pain and sensory changes will be present on both the dorsum and sole.

      Understanding Prolapsed Disc and its Features

      A prolapsed lumbar disc is a common cause of lower back pain that can lead to neurological deficits. It is characterized by clear dermatomal leg pain, which is usually worse than the back pain. The pain is often aggravated when sitting. The features of the prolapsed disc depend on the site of compression. For instance, L3 nerve root compression can cause sensory loss over the anterior thigh, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test. On the other hand, L4 nerve root compression can lead to sensory loss in the anterior aspect of the knee, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test.

      The management of prolapsed disc is similar to that of other musculoskeletal lower back pain. It involves analgesia, physiotherapy, and exercises. According to NICE, the first-line treatment for back pain without sciatica symptoms is NSAIDs +/- proton pump inhibitors, rather than neuropathic analgesia. If the symptoms persist after 4-6 weeks, referral for consideration of MRI is appropriate. Understanding the features of prolapsed disc can help in the diagnosis and management of this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 89 - A 58-year-old woman from India visits her doctor complaining of numbness and tingling...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old woman from India visits her doctor complaining of numbness and tingling in her feet that has been present for a week. She reports starting new medications recently and has a medical history of tuberculosis and hypertension. Which of the following medications is the most likely culprit for her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Isoniazid

      Explanation:

      Peripheral neuropathy is a well-known side effect of isoniazid, while paraesthesia is not a common side effect of amlodipine according to the BNF. Therefore, it is more likely that isoniazid is the cause in this case. Rifampicin is associated with orange bodily fluids, rash, hepatotoxicity, and drug interactions, while isoniazid is known to cause peripheral neuropathy, psychosis, and hepatotoxicity.

      Side-Effects and Mechanism of Action of Tuberculosis Drugs

      Rifampicin is a drug that inhibits bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase, which prevents the transcription of DNA into mRNA. However, it is a potent liver enzyme inducer and can cause hepatitis, orange secretions, and flu-like symptoms.

      Isoniazid, on the other hand, inhibits mycolic acid synthesis. It can cause peripheral neuropathy, which can be prevented with pyridoxine (Vitamin B6). It can also cause hepatitis and agranulocytosis. Additionally, it is a liver enzyme inhibitor.

      Pyrazinamide is converted by pyrazinamidase into pyrazinoic acid, which in turn inhibits fatty acid synthase (FAS) I. However, it can cause hyperuricaemia, leading to gout, as well as arthralgia, myalgia, and hepatitis.

      Lastly, Ethambutol inhibits the enzyme arabinosyl transferase, which polymerizes arabinose into arabinan. It can cause optic neuritis, so it is important to check visual acuity before and during treatment. Additionally, the dose needs adjusting in patients with renal impairment.

      In summary, these tuberculosis drugs have different mechanisms of action and can cause various side-effects. It is important to monitor patients closely and adjust treatment accordingly to ensure the best possible outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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  • Question 90 - A 61-year-old man with a known history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, atrial...

    Incorrect

    • A 61-year-old man with a known history of type 2 diabetes mellitus, atrial fibrillation and epilepsy presents with a complaint of feeling generally unwell. He reports a blue tinge to his vision. Which medication is most likely responsible for this symptom?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sildenafil

      Explanation:

      Drug-induced visual alterations
      Viagra, also known as ‘the blue pill’, can cause blue-tinted vision. Digoxin, on the other hand, may result in yellow-green vision.

      Understanding Phosphodiesterase Type V Inhibitors

      Phosphodiesterase type V (PDE5) inhibitors are medications used to treat erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. These drugs work by increasing the levels of cGMP, which leads to the relaxation of smooth muscles in the blood vessels supplying the corpus cavernosum. The most well-known PDE5 inhibitor is sildenafil, also known as Viagra, which was the first drug of its kind. It is a short-acting medication that is usually taken one hour before sexual activity.

      Other PDE5 inhibitors include tadalafil (Cialis) and vardenafil (Levitra). Tadalafil is longer-acting than sildenafil and can be taken on a regular basis, while vardenafil has a similar duration of action to sildenafil. However, these drugs are not suitable for everyone. Patients taking nitrates or related drugs, those with hypotension, and those who have had a recent stroke or myocardial infarction should not take PDE5 inhibitors.

      Like all medications, PDE5 inhibitors can cause side effects. These may include visual disturbances, blue discolouration, non-arteritic anterior ischaemic neuropathy, nasal congestion, flushing, gastrointestinal side-effects, headache, and priapism. It is important to speak to a healthcare professional before taking any medication to ensure that it is safe and appropriate for you.

      Overall, PDE5 inhibitors are an effective treatment for erectile dysfunction and pulmonary hypertension. However, they should only be used under the guidance of a healthcare professional and with careful consideration of the potential risks and benefits.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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  • Question 91 - A 25-year-old female presents to her GP complaining of pain in her right...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female presents to her GP complaining of pain in her right knee. She is an avid runner and reports that the pain is most noticeable after exercise. She denies any swelling or redness in the joint and has not experienced any locking of the knee. Upon examination, the knee has a full range of motion, but there is sharp pain when palpating the lateral epicondyle of the femur, especially when the knee is flexed at 30 degrees. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Iliotibial band syndrome

      Explanation:

      Iliotibial band syndrome is a prevalent reason for knee pain, especially among runners. A typical history and examination for this condition involves assessing lateral knee pain in avid runners. In contrast, Osgood-Schlatter disease, also known as tibial apophysitis, would result in pain and swelling around the tibial tubercle. Osteochondritis dissecans would cause joint locking, swelling, and tenderness. Patellar tendonitis would also cause post-exercise pain, but it would typically be located at the lower part of the patella.

      Understanding Iliotibial Band Syndrome

      Iliotibial band syndrome is a prevalent condition that causes lateral knee pain in runners. It affects approximately 10% of people who engage in regular running. The condition is characterized by tenderness 2-3 cm above the lateral joint line.

      To manage iliotibial band syndrome, activity modification and iliotibial band stretches are recommended. These measures can help alleviate the pain and discomfort associated with the condition. However, if the symptoms persist, it is advisable to seek physiotherapy referral for further assessment and treatment.

      In summary, iliotibial band syndrome is a common condition that affects runners. It is important to recognize the symptoms and seek appropriate management to prevent further complications. With the right treatment, individuals can continue to engage in running and other physical activities without experiencing pain and discomfort.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 92 - Which factors affect water excretion in the kidneys? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which factors affect water excretion in the kidneys?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vasopressin

      Explanation:

      The Renal Tubules: Functions and Regulation

      The kidneys play a crucial role in maintaining the body’s fluid and electrolyte balance. This is achieved through the intricate workings of the renal tubules, which are responsible for filtering and reabsorbing various substances from the blood.

      Vasopressin, also known as antidiuretic hormone, regulates water excretion in the distal convoluted tubule and collecting ducts. Its receptor, vasopressin 2, triggers the insertion of aquaporin-2 channels, allowing water to be reabsorbed down an osmotic gradient.

      The distal convoluted tubule regulates pH by absorbing bicarbonate and secreting protons, as well as controlling sodium and potassium levels through aldosterone-mediated ion transport. It also participates in calcium regulation by reabsorbing it in response to parathyroid hormone.

      The proximal convoluted tubule reabsorbs the majority of ions and water in the urinary space back into the body.

      The ascending limb of the loop of Henle is impermeable to water, but actively reabsorbs sodium, potassium, and chloride ions. This generates a positive electrochemical potential difference in the lumen, driving more paracellular reabsorption of sodium and other cations.

      The collecting ducts continue the work of water reabsorption and electrolyte balance initiated in the collecting tubules. Progenitor cells within the collecting duct epithelium respond to tubular injury by proliferating and expanding the principal cell population to maintain epithelial integrity, or by committing to a myofibroblastic phenotype and forming peritubular collars in response to increased intraluminal pressure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 93 - A 45-year-old man of Afro-Caribbean descent has been diagnosed with hypertension after ruling...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man of Afro-Caribbean descent has been diagnosed with hypertension after ruling out secondary causes. What is the best initial medication for treatment?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      For black African or African-Caribbean patients newly diagnosed with hypertension, a calcium channel blocker should be added as first-line treatment instead of ACE inhibitors, which have shown lower effectiveness in this population.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 94 - An 18-year-old woman who is sexually active presents to her General Practitioner (GP)...

    Incorrect

    • An 18-year-old woman who is sexually active presents to her General Practitioner (GP) complaining of dysuria and abdominal pain. A urine dipstick test is positive for leukocytes and a pregnancy test is negative. The GP prescribes a course of trimethoprim, but the patient returns one week later with persistent symptoms. Despite negative results from a high vaginal swab and urine culture taken during the first visit, what is the most likely cause of her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chlamydia trachomatis

      Explanation:

      Differential Diagnosis of a Female Patient with Dysuria and Abdominal Pain

      A female patient presents with dysuria and abdominal pain, but a negative urine culture and lack of response to trimethoprim suggest an alternative diagnosis to urinary tract infection. Here are some possible differential diagnoses:

      Chlamydia trachomatis: This sexually transmitted micro-organism can cause cervicitis, salpingitis, endometritis, and urethritis. Many carriers are asymptomatic, but nucleic acid amplification can diagnose the infection from a urine sample, endocervical or vulvovaginal swab.

      Trichomonas vaginalis: This protozoan causes trichomoniasis, a sexually transmitted infection that commonly presents with abnormal vaginal discharge, odour, itching, burning, soreness, and dyspareunia. Abdominal pain and dysuria are not typical symptoms.

      Escherichia coli: This bacterium is the most common cause of uncomplicated UTIs, but negative urine cultures and trimethoprim resistance suggest an alternative diagnosis.

      Candida albicans: This fungus can cause vulvovaginal thrush, which may present with dysuria and vulval pruritus, but not abdominal pain. A high vaginal swab can diagnose the infection.

      Bacterial vaginosis: This overgrowth of bacteria in the vagina affects vaginal pH and causes a fishy smelling discharge, but not abdominal pain or dysuria. A high vaginal swab can diagnose the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 95 - A 62-year-old woman complains of blood in her stool and unintentional weight loss....

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman complains of blood in her stool and unintentional weight loss. During rectal examination, you notice a suspicious lesion below the pectinate line, which raises concern for cancer. You proceed to check for any signs of lymphadenopathy.
      Where would you anticipate discovering enlarged lymph nodes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inguinal

      Explanation:

      Lymph Node Drainage in the Pelvic Region

      The lymphatic drainage in the pelvic region is an important aspect of the body’s immune system. There are several lymph nodes in this area that drain different parts of the body. Here is a breakdown of the lymph node drainage in the pelvic region:

      1. Inguinal: The inguinal lymph nodes drain the anal canal inferior to the pectinate line. These nodes then drain into the lateral pelvic nodes.

      2. External iliac: The external iliac nodes drain the adductor region of the upper thigh, glans, clitoris, cervix, and upper bladder.

      3. Inferior mesenteric: The inferior mesenteric nodes drain the sigmoid, upper rectum, and descending colon.

      4. Internal iliac: The internal iliac nodes drain the rectum and the part of the anal canal superior to the pectinate line.

      5. Superior mesenteric: The superior mesenteric nodes drain parts of the upper gastrointestinal tract, specifically the duodenum and jejunum.

      Understanding the lymph node drainage in the pelvic region is important for diagnosing and treating certain conditions. By knowing which lymph nodes drain which parts of the body, healthcare professionals can better identify the source of an infection or cancer and provide appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology/Allergy
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  • Question 96 - A 47-year-old man is seen by his General Practitioner for his annual hypertension...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old man is seen by his General Practitioner for his annual hypertension review. He agrees to be referred to the local smoking cessation service, as he is currently experiencing chest pain.
      Which of the following medications will need to be monitored closely on cessation of smoking?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Theophylline

      Explanation:

      The Effect of Smoking Cessation on Asthma Medications

      Smoking cessation can have a significant impact on the management of asthma and the use of certain medications. Here is a breakdown of how smoking cessation affects different asthma medications:

      Theophylline: Smoking induces the hepatic enzyme CYP1A2, which plays a major role in metabolizing theophylline. Therefore, quitting smoking can lead to higher plasma levels of theophylline and potentially fatal arrhythmias. Patients need to have their plasma theophylline concentration levels monitored closely and may require a reduced dose after quitting smoking.

      Budesonide/formoterol: Neither budesonide nor formoterol are metabolized by CYP1A2, so there is no need for close monitoring following smoking cessation. Asthma control should improve after quitting smoking, and the inhaler dose should be reviewed as part of stepwise management.

      Montelukast: Montelukast is metabolized by the cytochrome P450 system but not CYP1A2, so smoking cessation does not affect its level.

      Prednisolone: Prednisolone is metabolized by the cytochrome P450 system, but CYP1A2 is not involved. Therefore, smoking cessation does not affect its metabolism.

      Salbutamol: Smoking cessation can improve asthma control, leading to less frequent use of salbutamol or other reliever inhalers. There is no need to monitor this closely as reducing the as-required use of this medication poses no risk.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
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  • Question 97 - A 75-year-old man comes to the Medical Team after routine blood tests showed...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man comes to the Medical Team after routine blood tests showed an acute kidney injury. He has a history of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and is currently taking steroids. The renal team suspects acute interstitial nephritis (AIN). He has not been sick recently and is not taking any new medications.
      What is the most appropriate investigation to perform for this patient's diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum creatinine and urine eosinophilia

      Explanation:

      Investigating Acute Interstitial Nephritis: Diagnostic Tests and Considerations

      Acute interstitial nephritis (AIN) can present with nonspecific symptoms of acute kidney dysfunction, such as nausea, vomiting, and malaise. A decline in kidney function is typical, and AIN is commonly caused by drugs, autoimmune disorders, or systemic diseases. A raised creatinine and eosinophilia levels are diagnostic in virtually all patients with AIN. A renal biopsy can confirm the diagnosis, but it is not always necessary if there is a history of underlying autoimmune conditions. A dipstick test for protein is not useful, as patients with AIN usually do not have protein in their urine. A renal ultrasound scan is not helpful in diagnosing AIN but may be used to investigate other causes of acute kidney injury. A chest X-ray may be necessary to exclude sarcoidosis as the cause of AIN in patients without a history of autoimmune disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 98 - A 70-year-old with chronic kidney disease stage 4 and metastatic prostate cancer is...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old with chronic kidney disease stage 4 and metastatic prostate cancer is experiencing uncontrolled pain despite taking co-codamol. Considering his impaired renal function, which opioid would be the most suitable option to alleviate his pain?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Buprenorphine

      Explanation:

      Patients with chronic kidney disease are recommended to use alfentanil, buprenorphine, and fentanyl as their preferred opioids.

      Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting treatment with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, such as nausea and drowsiness, but constipation can persist. In addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy, denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain.

      Overall, the guidelines recommend starting with regular oral morphine and adjusting the dose as needed. Laxatives should be prescribed to prevent constipation, and antiemetics may be needed for nausea. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and referral to a clinical oncologist should be considered. Conversion factors between opioids are provided, and the next dose should be increased by 30-50% when adjusting the dose. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, but constipation can persist. Denosumab may also be used to treat metastatic bone pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
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  • Question 99 - You assess a 79-year-old woman who is on digoxin for atrial fibrillation. What...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 79-year-old woman who is on digoxin for atrial fibrillation. What factor is most likely to increase her risk of developing digoxin toxicity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Patients with hypokalaemia are more likely to experience digoxin toxicity.

      Understanding Digoxin and Its Toxicity

      Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure patients. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, it has a narrow therapeutic index and requires monitoring for toxicity.

      Toxicity may occur even when the digoxin concentration is within the therapeutic range. Symptoms of toxicity include lethargy, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, confusion, yellow-green vision, arrhythmias, and gynaecomastia. Hypokalaemia is a classic precipitating factor, as it allows digoxin to more easily bind to the ATPase pump and increase its inhibitory effects. Other factors that may contribute to toxicity include increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, electrolyte imbalances, hypoalbuminaemia, hypothermia, hypothyroidism, and certain medications such as amiodarone, quinidine, and verapamil.

      Management of digoxin toxicity involves the use of Digibind, correction of arrhythmias, and monitoring of potassium levels. It is important to recognize the potential for toxicity and monitor patients accordingly to prevent adverse outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
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  • Question 100 - A client is observed to have a missing biceps reflex. To which nerve...

    Incorrect

    • A client is observed to have a missing biceps reflex. To which nerve root does this correspond?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: C5-C6

      Explanation:

      Understanding Common Reflexes

      Reflexes are automatic responses of the body to certain stimuli. These responses are controlled by the nervous system and do not require conscious thought. Common reflexes include the ankle reflex, knee reflex, biceps reflex, and triceps reflex. Each reflex is associated with a specific root in the spinal cord.

      The ankle reflex is associated with the S1-S2 root, which is located in the lower part of the spinal cord. This reflex is elicited by tapping the Achilles tendon with a reflex hammer. The resulting contraction of the calf muscle indicates the integrity of the spinal cord and the peripheral nerves.

      The knee reflex is associated with the L3-L4 root, which is located in the middle part of the spinal cord. This reflex is elicited by tapping the patellar tendon with a reflex hammer. The resulting contraction of the quadriceps muscle indicates the integrity of the spinal cord and the peripheral nerves.

      The biceps reflex is associated with the C5-C6 root, which is located in the upper part of the spinal cord. This reflex is elicited by tapping the biceps tendon with a reflex hammer. The resulting contraction of the biceps muscle indicates the integrity of the spinal cord and the peripheral nerves.

      The triceps reflex is associated with the C7-C8 root, which is located in the upper part of the spinal cord. This reflex is elicited by tapping the triceps tendon with a reflex hammer. The resulting contraction of the triceps muscle indicates the integrity of the spinal cord and the peripheral nerves.

      Understanding these common reflexes can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat various neurological conditions. By testing these reflexes, they can determine if there is any damage or dysfunction in the nervous system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
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  • Question 101 - A 75-year-old woman presents to the breast clinic with a painless lump in...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old woman presents to the breast clinic with a painless lump in her left breast. After undergoing triple assessment, she is diagnosed with oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer and her oncologist prescribes anastrozole as treatment. What potential risks may this medication pose for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Osteoporosis

      Explanation:

      Anastrozole, an aromatase inhibitor, may lead to the development of osteoporosis. This medication is commonly used to treat oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer in postmenopausal women by reducing the production of peripheral oestrogen. However, patients taking this medication are at an increased risk of developing osteoporosis. On the other hand, selective oestrogen receptor modulators (SERM) like tamoxifen may cause amenorrhoea, endometrial cancer, vaginal bleeding, and venous thromboembolism. Tamoxifen is typically used to treat oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer in pre-menopausal women.

      Anti-oestrogen drugs are used in the management of oestrogen receptor-positive breast cancer. Selective oEstrogen Receptor Modulators (SERM) such as Tamoxifen act as an oestrogen receptor antagonist and partial agonist. However, Tamoxifen can cause adverse effects such as menstrual disturbance, hot flushes, venous thromboembolism, and endometrial cancer. On the other hand, aromatase inhibitors like Anastrozole and Letrozole reduce peripheral oestrogen synthesis, which is important in postmenopausal women. Anastrozole is used for ER +ve breast cancer in this group. However, aromatase inhibitors can cause adverse effects such as osteoporosis, hot flushes, arthralgia, myalgia, and insomnia. NICE recommends a DEXA scan when initiating a patient on aromatase inhibitors for breast cancer.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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  • Question 102 - Treatment of an acute attack of gout with allopurinol may result in which...

    Incorrect

    • Treatment of an acute attack of gout with allopurinol may result in which of the following?

      Select the SINGLE result from the list below.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Exacerbation and prolongation of the attack

      Explanation:

      To effectively treat gout, it is important to understand the proper use of allopurinol. Starting prophylactic treatment with allopurinol should be delayed until 1-2 weeks after the inflammation has settled to avoid exacerbating and prolonging the attack. It may take several weeks to reduce uric acid levels to normal, and the dose should be titrated every few weeks until sUA levels are below 300 mmol/l. It is not recommended to start allopurinol during an acute attack, as it is unlikely to lead to complete remission of symptoms. Allopurinol use is not associated with an increased risk of acute pyelonephritis, but renal impairment may occur if the starting dose is too high. In mild cases, self-care may be considered, but if drug treatment is necessary, NSAIDs or colchicine can be prescribed. It is important to measure the baseline sUA level and consider prophylaxis in high-risk patients. When starting allopurinol, a low dose of NSAID or colchicine should be co-prescribed for at least 1 month to prevent acute attacks of gout.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 103 - A 12-year-old girl presents to the clinic with complaints of anterior knee pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old girl presents to the clinic with complaints of anterior knee pain for a few weeks, which worsens while walking downstairs. During the examination, a positive shrug test is observed, and she has a valgus knee deformity.
      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Chondromalacia patellae

      Explanation:

      Common Causes of Knee Pain in Adolescents and Young Adults

      Knee pain is a common complaint among adolescents and young adults. There are several conditions that can cause knee pain, including chondromalacia patellae, osteoarthritis, Osgood-Schlatter disease, osteochondritis dissecans, and patellar subluxation.

      Chondromalacia patellae is characterized by abnormal softening of the cartilage on the underside of the patella. It is more common in females, those with valgus knee deformity, and those who are flat-footed. Patients may experience anterior knee pain that worsens with prolonged sitting or activities such as walking down stairs, jumping, running, or climbing. Treatment involves physiotherapy to alter patella-femoral alignment, along with analgesics and ice for symptom relief.

      Osteoarthritis is a disease of older patients caused by cartilage breakdown in weight-bearing joints. Osgood-Schlatter disease is a common cause of knee pain in young adolescents, particularly sporty boys, and is caused by overuse of quadriceps. Osteochondritis dissecans is caused by separation of subchondral bone articular cartilage from the joint surface and tends to present in teenagers and young adults with vague and achy joint pain. Patellar subluxation describes the temporary but recurring lateral subluxation of the patella, which can cause anterior patellar pain and joint stiffness.

      It is important to note that knee pain in children could be due to hip pathology, such as slipped upper femoral epiphysis. Diagnosis and treatment for these conditions may involve clinical examination, radiographs, and MRI. Treatment may include physiotherapy, analgesics, ice packs, knee braces, and in some cases, surgery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
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  • Question 104 - A 55-year-old woman has been prescribed simvastatin for primary prevention of cardiovascular disease...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman has been prescribed simvastatin for primary prevention of cardiovascular disease (CVD).
      Which of the following should be the NEXT step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Check LFTs and lipid profiles at 3 months

      Explanation:

      Monitoring Statin Therapy: Recommended Blood Tests and Timing

      Statin therapy is a common treatment for patients with high cholesterol levels, both for primary and secondary prevention of cardiovascular disease. However, regular monitoring is necessary to ensure the treatment is effective and safe. Here are some recommended blood tests and their timing for monitoring statin therapy:

      Recommended Blood Tests and Timing for Monitoring Statin Therapy

      Check LFTs and lipid profiles at 3 months

      Within three months of starting high-intensity statin treatment, it is recommended to measure total cholesterol, HDL-cholesterol, and non-HDL cholesterol. The aim is to achieve a >40% reduction in non-HDL-cholesterol. LFTs should also be checked at this time and again at 12 months, unless clinically indicated.

      Check LFTs and lipid profiles at 12 months

      Both LFTs and the lipid profile should be checked at 12 months, but it is important to assess whether a suitable cholesterol level reduction has been achieved earlier in the process. This allows for discussion of adherence to medication, diet, and lifestyle measures, and consideration of increasing the dose.

      Check LFTs at 1 week

      Checking LFTs within a week of starting treatment is