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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 62-year-old male presents to the liver clinic with persistently abnormal liver function tests over the past 2 months. He recently completed a course of co-amoxiclav for a respiratory tract infection. The patient has a history of intravenous drug use, hypertension, and type two diabetes mellitus. His BMI is 31 kg/m², and he consumes 15 units of alcohol per week. A liver ultrasound showed increased hepatic echogenicity. The following liver function tests and virology report were obtained:
- Bilirubin: 22 µmol/L (3 - 17)
- ALP: 118 u/L (30 - 100)
- ALT: 170 u/L (5 - 30)
- AST: 63 u/L (10 - 40)
- γGT: 52 u/L (8 - 60)
- Albumin: 32 g/L (35 - 50)
- HBsAg: Negative
- Anti-HBs: Positive
- Anti-HBc: Negative
- Anti-HCV: Negative
- HCV PCR: Negative
What is the most likely cause of this patient's abnormal liver function tests?Your Answer: Hepatitis B
Correct Answer: Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease
Explanation:Abnormal liver function tests in the context of obesity may suggest the presence of non-alcoholic fatty liver disease.
Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease: Causes, Features, and Management
Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is a prevalent liver disease in developed countries, primarily caused by obesity. It encompasses a range of conditions, from simple steatosis (fat accumulation in the liver) to steatohepatitis (fat with inflammation) and may progress to fibrosis and liver cirrhosis. Insulin resistance is believed to be the primary mechanism leading to steatosis, making NAFLD a hepatic manifestation of metabolic syndrome. Non-alcoholic steatohepatitis (NASH) is a type of liver damage similar to alcoholic hepatitis but occurs in the absence of alcohol abuse. It affects around 3-4% of the general population and may be responsible for some cases of cryptogenic cirrhosis.
NAFLD is usually asymptomatic, but hepatomegaly, increased echogenicity on ultrasound, and elevated ALT levels are common features. The enhanced liver fibrosis (ELF) blood test is recommended by NICE to check for advanced fibrosis in patients with incidental NAFLD. If the ELF blood test is not available, non-invasive tests such as the FIB4 score or NAFLD fibrosis score, in combination with a FibroScan, may be used to assess the severity of fibrosis. Patients with advanced fibrosis should be referred to a liver specialist for further evaluation, which may include a liver biopsy to stage the disease more accurately.
The mainstay of NAFLD treatment is lifestyle changes, particularly weight loss, and monitoring. Research is ongoing into the role of gastric banding and insulin-sensitizing drugs such as metformin and pioglitazone. While there is no evidence to support screening for NAFLD in adults, NICE guidelines recommend the management of incidental NAFLD findings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 72-year-old diabetic man presents to his General Practitioner complaining of poor vision, particularly while driving at night. He reports that his vision has been progressively worsening and he struggles with glare from oncoming vehicles. He also finds watching TV difficult and struggles to recognise his neighbour waving at him from across the street. He has had to have his glasses prescription changed three times in the past 18 months.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Retinal detachment
Correct Answer: Cataracts
Explanation:Common Eye Conditions and Their Symptoms
Cataracts: Gradual, painless reduced visual acuity, blurred vision, difficulty seeing at night-time, sensitivity to light due to glare and halos around light, inability to watch TV or recognise faces. Risk factors include increasing age, steroid use, alcohol excess, myotonic dystrophy, and diabetes. Treatment is with surgical replacement of the lens.
Open Angle Glaucoma: Increased intraocular pressure resulting in visual field defects, loss of peripheral vision, seeing halos around lights, and tunnel vision. Patients may report bumping into things or not seeing cars in their periphery.
Acute Closed Angle Glaucoma: Ophthalmological emergency presenting as a painful red eye, vomiting, headache, and reduced visual acuity. On examination, patients have a tender, hard eye with a semi-dilated, fixed pupil.
Presbyopia: Age-related condition causing trouble focusing on close-up vision, often requiring reading glasses.
Retinal Detachment: New-onset floaters and flashes, sudden-onset, painless visual field loss that may progress over hours to days, and a dark curtain or shadow over the field of vision in one eye only.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old man with a history of epilepsy presents with a complaint of numbness in his hands and feet after a recent change in medication. Upon examination, he exhibits reduced sensation in a glove-and-stocking distribution and a decreased ankle reflex. Additionally, he has lymphadenopathy in the cervical and inguinal region and bleeding gums. Which medication is most likely responsible for these symptoms?
Your Answer: Topiramate
Correct Answer: Phenytoin
Explanation:Phenytoin: Mechanism of Action and Adverse Effects
Phenytoin is a medication used to manage seizures. Its mechanism of action involves binding to sodium channels, which increases their refractory period. However, the drug is associated with a large number of adverse effects, which can be categorized as acute, chronic, idiosyncratic, and teratogenic. Acute effects include dizziness, diplopia, nystagmus, slurred speech, ataxia, confusion, and seizures. Chronic effects include gingival hyperplasia, hirsutism, coarsening of facial features, drowsiness, megaloblastic anemia, peripheral neuropathy, enhanced vitamin D metabolism causing osteomalacia, lymphadenopathy, and dyskinesia. Idiosyncratic effects include fever, rashes, hepatitis, Dupuytren’s contracture, aplastic anemia, and drug-induced lupus. Teratogenic effects are associated with cleft palate and congenital heart disease. Although routine monitoring of phenytoin levels is not necessary, trough levels should be checked before dosing in cases of dose adjustment, suspected toxicity, or non-adherence to the prescribed medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 4
Correct
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Samantha, 72, has a confirmed sigmoid colon tumor graded as T3N0M0. Surgery was recommended as the primary treatment and scheduled for next week. However, she was rushed to the emergency department with severe abdominal pain, which was diagnosed as a perforation. What is the most suitable surgical procedure for Samantha?
Your Answer: Hartmann's procedure
Explanation:The most suitable surgery for the patient in this case would be a Hartmann’s procedure. To determine the appropriate surgery, it is essential to consider the urgency of the operation and the location of the malignancy. As the patient has an emergency perforation resulting from the malignancy, the surgery needs to be appropriate for an emergency situation. Under normal circumstances, the patient would undergo surgery that involves resection of the relevant section of bowel and anastomosis of the two ends. However, in emergency situations, anastomosis is not the preferred surgical option.
A Hartmann’s procedure involves resection of the relevant portion of bowel and the formation of an end colostomy/ileostomy. In the future, patients can undergo a reversal of Hartmann’s procedure, where the end colostomy is closed following the formation of a colorectal anastomosis, restoring continuity of the bowels. This makes it the ideal surgical procedure for emergency situations. Additionally, this operation involves resection of the sigmoid colon, where the patient’s tumor is located.
Colorectal cancer is typically diagnosed through CT scans and colonoscopies or CT colonography. Patients with tumors below the peritoneal reflection should also undergo MRI to evaluate their mesorectum. Once staging is complete, a treatment plan is formulated by a dedicated colorectal MDT meeting.
For colon cancer, surgery is the primary treatment option, with resectional surgery being the only cure. The procedure is tailored to the patient and tumor location, with lymphatic chains being resected based on arterial supply. Anastomosis is the preferred method of restoring continuity, but in some cases, an end stoma may be necessary. Chemotherapy is often offered to patients with risk factors for disease recurrence.
Rectal cancer management differs from colon cancer due to the rectum’s anatomical location. Tumors can be surgically resected with either an anterior resection or an abdomino-perineal excision of rectum (APER). A meticulous dissection of the mesorectal fat and lymph nodes is integral to the procedure. Neoadjuvant radiotherapy is often offered to patients prior to resectional surgery, and those with obstructing rectal cancer should have a defunctioning loop colostomy.
Segmental resections based on blood supply and lymphatic drainage are the primary operations for cancer. The type of resection and anastomosis depend on the site of cancer. In emergency situations where the bowel has perforated, an end colostomy is often safer. Left-sided resections are more risky, but ileo-colic anastomoses are relatively safe even in the emergency setting and do not need to be defunctioned.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 5
Correct
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A 25-year-old man with difficult to control epilepsy is being evaluated by a surgeon, four months after switching his antiepileptic medication. Despite being seizure-free, he has gained 5 kg in weight since his last check-up. Which antiepileptic drug is commonly linked to weight gain?
Your Answer: Sodium valproate
Explanation:Weight gain can be a side effect of taking sodium valproate.
Sodium Valproate: Uses and Adverse Effects
Sodium valproate is a medication commonly used to manage epilepsy, particularly for generalised seizures. Its mechanism of action involves increasing the activity of GABA in the brain. However, the use of sodium valproate during pregnancy is strongly discouraged due to its teratogenic effects, which can lead to neural tube defects and neurodevelopmental delays in children. Women of childbearing age should only use this medication if it is absolutely necessary and under the guidance of a specialist neurological or psychiatric advisor.
Aside from its teratogenic effects, sodium valproate can also inhibit P450 enzymes, leading to gastrointestinal issues such as nausea, increased appetite, and weight gain. Other adverse effects include alopecia, ataxia, tremors, hepatotoxicity, pancreatitis, thrombocytopenia, hyponatremia, and hyperammonemic encephalopathy. In cases where hyperammonemic encephalopathy develops, L-carnitine may be used as a treatment option.
Overall, while sodium valproate can be an effective medication for managing epilepsy, its use should be carefully considered and monitored due to its potential adverse effects, particularly during pregnancy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 6
Correct
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A 45-year-old man with a chronic history of back pain visits his GP with complaints of left eye pain and sensitivity to light. Upon examination, the pupil appears small and oval-shaped, accompanied by ciliary congestion. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Anterior uveitis
Explanation:It is possible that his chronic back pain is related to HLA-B27, which is often associated with anterior uveitis. As for his red eye, it could be indicative of either glaucoma or uveitis. Glaucoma typically presents with severe pain, haloes, and a semi-dilated pupil, while uveitis is characterized by a small, fixed oval pupil and ciliary flush.
Understanding the Causes of Red Eye
Red eye is a common condition that can be caused by various factors. It is important to identify the underlying cause of red eye to determine the appropriate treatment. In some cases, urgent referral to an ophthalmologist may be necessary. Here are some of the key distinguishing features of the different causes of red eye:
Acute angle closure glaucoma is characterized by severe pain, decreased visual acuity, and haloes. The pupil may also be semi-dilated and the cornea hazy.
Anterior uveitis presents with acute onset, pain, blurred vision, and photophobia. The pupil is small and fixed, and there may be ciliary flush.
Scleritis is characterized by severe pain and tenderness, which may worsen with movement. It may also be associated with underlying autoimmune diseases such as rheumatoid arthritis.
Conjunctivitis may be bacterial or viral, with purulent or clear discharge, respectively.
Subconjunctival haemorrhage may be caused by trauma or coughing bouts.
Endophthalmitis typically occurs after intraocular surgery and presents with red eye, pain, and visual loss.
By understanding the different causes of red eye and their distinguishing features, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate management and referral when necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 12-year-old girl comes to her GP with a complaint of amenorrhoea. Her parents inform the doctor that she requires extra support at school due to learning difficulties. During the examination, the doctor observes sparse breast development, broad shoulders, a wide neck, and elevated blood pressure. What is the most probable chromosomal abnormality in this patient?
Your Answer: 45 XO
Explanation:Common Chromosomal Abnormalities and Their Associated Conditions
45 XO is a chromosomal abnormality associated with Turner syndrome, which is characterized by sparse breast development, broad shoulders, high blood pressure, and a wide neck.
46 XY is the normal karyotype for men, but genetic abnormalities involving other chromosomes can still occur.
46 XX is the normal karyotype for women, but genetic abnormalities involving other chromosomes can still occur.
47 XXX is the chromosomal abnormality associated with triple X syndrome, which can be asymptomatic or result in learning difficulties, tall stature, or microcephaly.
47 XXY is the chromosomal abnormality associated with Klinefelter syndrome, which is characterized by tall stature, gynaecomastia, and infertility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Genetics
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Question 8
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman is brought to the Emergency Department by her family. She has been experiencing increasing shortness of breath and low energy levels for the past 6 weeks. Upon arrival, an ECG reveals atrial fibrillation with a heart rate of 114 / min. Her blood pressure is 128/80 mmHg and a chest x-ray shows no abnormalities. What medication is recommended for controlling her heart rate?
Your Answer: Digoxin
Correct Answer: Bisoprolol
Explanation:When it comes to rate control in atrial fibrillation, beta blockers are now the preferred option over digoxin. This is an important point to remember, especially for exams. The patient’s shortness of breath may be related to her heart rate and not necessarily a sign of heart failure, as her chest x-ray was normal. For more information, refer to the NICE guidelines.
Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management to prevent complications. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend that patients presenting with AF should be assessed for haemodynamic instability, and if present, electrically cardioverted. For haemodynamically stable patients, the management depends on how acute the AF is. If the AF has been present for less than 48 hours, rate or rhythm control may be considered. However, if it has been present for 48 hours or more, or the onset is uncertain, rate control is recommended. If long-term rhythm control is being considered, cardioversion should be delayed until the patient has been maintained on therapeutic anticoagulation for at least 3 weeks.
Rate control is the first-line treatment strategy for AF, except in certain cases. Medications such as beta-blockers, calcium channel blockers, and digoxin can be used to control the heart rate. However, digoxin is no longer considered first-line as it is less effective at controlling the heart rate during exercise. Rhythm control agents such as beta-blockers, dronedarone, and amiodarone can be used to maintain sinus rhythm in patients with a history of AF. Catheter ablation is recommended for those who have not responded to or wish to avoid antiarrhythmic medication.
The aim of catheter ablation is to ablate the faulty electrical pathways that are causing AF. The procedure is performed percutaneously, typically via the groin, and can use radiofrequency or cryotherapy to ablate the tissue. Anticoagulation should be used 4 weeks before and during the procedure. It is important to note that catheter ablation controls the rhythm but does not reduce the stroke risk, so patients still require anticoagulation as per their CHA2DS2-VASc score. Complications of catheter ablation can include cardiac tamponade, stroke, and pulmonary vein stenosis. The success rate of the procedure is around 50% for early recurrence within 3 months, and around 55% of patients who’ve had a single procedure remain in sinus rhythm after 3 years. Of patients who’ve undergone multiple procedures, around 80% are in sinus rhythm.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to her GP with complaints of excessive thirst and frequent urination. She is currently 20 weeks pregnant and this is her first pregnancy. Her BMI is 30 kg/m². The GP decides to conduct an oral glucose tolerance test to investigate the possibility of gestational diabetes.
What finding would confirm the suspicion of gestational diabetes in this case?Your Answer: Fasting glucose 4.9 mmol/L
Correct Answer: Fasting glucose 5.9 mmol/L
Explanation:To diagnose gestational diabetes, a fasting glucose level of >= 5.6 mmol/L or a 2-hour glucose level of >= 7.8 mmol/L can be used. A patient with a BMI of >30 kg/m² and symptoms of polydipsia and polyuria should undergo an oral glucose tolerance test during 24-28 weeks of pregnancy. In this test, the patient fasts for 8-10 hours, then drinks a glucose solution and has blood samples taken before and 2 hours after. A fasting glucose level of 5.9mmol/L or higher confirms the diagnosis of gestational diabetes.
Gestational diabetes is a common medical disorder affecting around 4% of pregnancies. Risk factors include a high BMI, previous gestational diabetes, and family history of diabetes. Screening is done through an oral glucose tolerance test, and diagnostic thresholds have recently been updated. Management includes self-monitoring of blood glucose, diet and exercise advice, and medication if necessary. For pre-existing diabetes, weight loss and insulin are recommended, and tight glycemic control is important. Targets for self-monitoring include fasting glucose of 5.3 mmol/l and 1-2 hour post-meal glucose levels.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of itchy, violaceous papules on the flexor aspects of her wrists. She has no significant medical history and has never experienced a similar rash before. Based on the probable diagnosis, what other symptom is she most likely to exhibit?
Your Answer: Onycholysis
Correct Answer: Mucous membrane involvement
Explanation:Lichen planus is a skin condition characterized by a rash of purple, itchy, polygonal papules on the flexor surfaces of the body. The affected area may also have Wickham’s striae. Oral involvement is common. In addition, elderly women may experience itchy white spots on the vulva, known as lichen sclerosus. Mucous membrane involvement is also frequently observed in lichen planus.
Understanding Lichen Planus
Lichen planus is a skin condition that is believed to be caused by an immune response, although the exact cause is unknown. It is characterized by an itchy, papular rash that typically appears on the palms, soles, genitalia, and flexor surfaces of the arms. The rash often has a polygonal shape and a distinctive white-lines pattern on the surface, known as Wickham’s striae. In some cases, new skin lesions may appear at the site of trauma, a phenomenon known as the Koebner phenomenon.
Oral involvement is common in around 50% of patients, with a white-lace pattern often appearing on the buccal mucosa. Nail changes may also occur, including thinning of the nail plate and longitudinal ridging. Lichenoid drug eruptions can be caused by certain medications, such as gold, quinine, and thiazides.
The main treatment for lichen planus is potent topical steroids. For oral lichen planus, benzydamine mouthwash or spray is recommended. In more extensive cases, oral steroids or immunosuppression may be necessary.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 11
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman experiences weekly migraines despite making lifestyle changes and avoiding triggers. Her doctor has agreed to prescribe medication for migraine prevention. She is in good health and does not take any regular medications. Her blood pressure measures 130/83 mmHg.
Which medication would be the most appropriate for this patient?Your Answer: Propranolol
Explanation:For migraine treatment, the recommended acute options are a combination of triptan with NSAID or paracetamol. For prophylaxis, the recommended options are topiramate or propranolol. In a woman of childbearing age with no asthma history and requiring migraine prophylaxis, propranolol is the most appropriate option. Although it should be avoided during pregnancy, it does not carry the high risk of birth defects associated with topiramate. Carbamazepine is not recommended for migraine treatment but is licensed for trigeminal neuralgia. Gabapentin is not effective for migraine prophylaxis and is not recommended by NICE guidelines. Topiramate is an option for migraine prophylaxis, but it is not the most appropriate first-line option for a woman of childbearing age due to its teratogenic effects. Highly effective contraception is required if topiramate is used. The recommended safe options for contraception are the copper intrauterine device, levonorgestrel intrauterine system (Mirena), or Depo-Provera injections plus condoms, as per guidelines from the Faculty of Reproductive and Sexual Health (FSRH).
Managing Migraines: Guidelines and Treatment Options
Migraines can be debilitating and affect a significant portion of the population. To manage migraines, it is important to understand the different treatment options available. According to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines, acute treatment for migraines involves a combination of an oral triptan and an NSAID or paracetamol. For young people aged 12-17 years, a nasal triptan may be preferred. If these measures are not effective, non-oral preparations of metoclopramide or prochlorperazine may be considered, along with a non-oral NSAID or triptan.
Prophylaxis should be given if patients are experiencing two or more attacks per month. NICE recommends topiramate or propranolol, depending on the patient’s preference, comorbidities, and risk of adverse events. Propranolol is preferred in women of childbearing age as topiramate may be teratogenic and reduce the effectiveness of hormonal contraceptives. Acupuncture and riboflavin may also be effective in reducing migraine frequency and intensity for some people. For women with predictable menstrual migraines, frovatriptan or zolmitriptan may be recommended as a type of mini-prophylaxis.
Specialists may consider other treatment options, such as candesartan or monoclonal antibodies directed against the calcitonin gene-related peptide (CGRP) receptor, like erenumab. However, pizotifen is no longer recommended due to common adverse effects like weight gain and drowsiness. It is important to exercise caution with young patients as acute dystonic reactions may develop. By following these guidelines and considering various treatment options, migraines can be effectively managed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 62-year-old man presents with several months of right knee pain. A radiograph confirms mild osteoarthritis. What is the best initial treatment option?
Your Answer: Topical ibuprofen
Explanation:Treatment Options for Osteoarthritis: A Guide to Medications and Lifestyle Changes
When it comes to managing osteoarthritis (OA), there are a variety of treatment options available. However, not all treatments are created equal. According to NICE guidelines, the first-line treatment for OA to hands and knees is with a topical non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) or oral paracetamol. Oral NSAIDs are considered the second-line treatment choice, to be used only after inadequate response to oral paracetamol or topical NSAIDs.
It’s important to note that nutraceuticals, including oral glucosamine and chondroitin, should not be offered for OA management. Instead, other treatment options initially include weight loss and exercise encouragement.
If medication is necessary, topical ibuprofen and paracetamol should be considered first line, ahead of oral NSAIDs or opioids. Oral NSAIDs, such as diclofenac with omeprazole, ibuprofen, and naproxen, are second line and should be given at the lowest effective dose for the shortest duration possible. Proton pump inhibitor (PPI) cover may be indicated for oral NSAIDs.
In summary, managing OA requires a multifaceted approach that includes lifestyle changes and medication when necessary. By following NICE guidelines and working closely with a healthcare provider, individuals with OA can find relief and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 13
Correct
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A 75-year-old man has isolated systolic hypertension. He also has angina, gout and peripheral vascular disease.
Which of the following antihypertensives is best suited for him initially?
Your Answer: Amlodipine
Explanation:Antihypertensive Medications and NICE Guidelines
NICE guidelines recommend different antihypertensive medications based on age and ethnicity. For those under 55, an ACE inhibitor or ARB is advised, while calcium channel blockers are recommended for those over 55 and of Afro-Caribbean origin. Thiazide diuretics, such as bendroflumethiazide, are only third-line treatments and contraindicated in gout. Furosemide is not indicated for hypertension but can be used for oedema in heart failure. Beta blockers, like atenolol, are relatively contraindicated in peripheral vascular disease and not recommended for hypertension treatment. ACE inhibitors, such as ramipril, are the first-line treatment for patients under 55, while calcium channel blockers are advised for those over 55, like an 80-year-old patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 14
Correct
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A 68-year-old woman presents with a 2-week history of fatigue, pain and stiffness in her hips and shoulders, low mood, and loss of appetite. The pain and stiffness is worst first thing in the morning. Blood tests are shown below:
Hb 126 g/L
Male: (135-180)
Female: (115 - 160)
Platelets 288 * 109/L
(150 - 400)
WBC 9.8 * 109/L
(4.0 - 11.0)
ESR 78 mm/hr
Men: < (age / 2)
Women: < ((age + 10) / 2)
CRP 56 mg/L
(< 5)
The patient is suspected to have polymyalgia rheumatica and is started on prednisolone. However, after 3 weeks, her symptoms have not improved. What is the most appropriate next step?Your Answer: Consider an alternative diagnosis
Explanation:If a patient with polymyalgia rheumatica does not respond well to steroids, it is important to consider other possible diagnoses. Typically, patients with this condition experience a dramatic improvement in symptoms within two weeks of starting steroid treatment. Therefore, if there is no response, it is unlikely that polymyalgia rheumatica is the correct diagnosis. Other conditions that may be considered include rheumatoid arthritis, hypothyroidism, fibromyalgia, and polymyositis. Continuing with the same dose of prednisolone or increasing the dose is not recommended, as there should have been some response to the initial dose if polymyalgia rheumatica was present. Similarly, replacing oral prednisolone with IV methylprednisolone is not appropriate if there has been no response to the oral medication. Methotrexate is a second-line treatment option for polymyalgia rheumatica, but it is not the most appropriate next step if the diagnosis is uncertain.
Polymyalgia Rheumatica: A Condition of Muscle Stiffness in Older People
Polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR) is a common condition that affects older people. It is characterized by muscle stiffness and elevated inflammatory markers. Although it is closely related to temporal arteritis, the underlying cause is not fully understood, and it does not appear to be a vasculitic process. PMR typically affects patients over the age of 60 and has a rapid onset, usually within a month. Patients experience aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, along with mild polyarthralgia, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.
To diagnose PMR, doctors look for raised inflammatory markers, such as an ESR of over 40 mm/hr. Creatine kinase and EMG are normal. Treatment for PMR involves prednisolone, usually at a dose of 15mg/od. Patients typically respond dramatically to steroids, and failure to do so should prompt consideration of an alternative diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old woman comes to her General Practitioner with cough, fever and rash. She is tachycardic, tachypnoeic and has a blanching erythematous rash on her face, trunk and arms with scattered white/grey papular lesions on the buccal mucosa. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Parvovirus B19
Correct Answer: Measles
Explanation:Measles is a highly contagious disease that can affect people of all ages, although it is commonly associated with childhood. The disease is characterized by the appearance of Koplik spots, which are white-grey specks that develop on the buccal mucosa opposite the second molars about 1-2 days before the rash. The rash typically appears 14 days after exposure and consists of erythematous macules and papules that start on the face and spread to the trunk and extremities, including the palms and soles. The rash lasts for 5-7 days before fading into hyperpigmented patches that eventually desquamate.
Meningococcaemia is a condition where meningococci (Neisseria meningitidis) spread into the bloodstream. Patients with acute meningococcaemia may present with or without meningitis and typically have a non-blanching petechial rash that spreads rapidly and may develop into purpura. However, the rash described in this case is not typical for meningococcaemia.
Rubella is a communicable disease that is usually benign, with nearly half of infected individuals being asymptomatic. The disease can have teratogenic effects on pregnant women. The rash associated with rubella is a rose-pink maculopapular rash that may be pruritic in adults. The Forchheimer sign may be present on the soft palate, but the buccal lesions described in this case are typical of Koplik spots, which are pathognomonic for measles.
Parvovirus B19 infection typically occurs in young children and is characterized by a bright red macular exanthema that appears on the cheeks (known as slapped cheek) and may be associated with circumoral pallor. However, the buccal lesions described in this case are typical of Koplik spots, which are not a feature of parvovirus B19 infection.
Secondary syphilis usually presents with a cutaneous eruption within 2-10 weeks after the primary chancre and is most florid 3-4 months after infection. The rash is typically rough red or red/brown papules or plaques on the trunk, palms, and soles. While there may be red patches on mucosal surfaces, the white patches described in this case are typical of Koplik spots.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 16
Incorrect
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In a 40-year-old woman, what is the probability of having a child with Down syndrome? Please choose one option from the list provided.
Your Answer: 1 in 10000
Correct Answer: 1 in 100
Explanation:The chance of Down syndrome increases with maternal age:
Age (years) Chance
20 1:1500
30 1:800
35 1:270
40 1:100
>45 >1:50Therefore, the correct answer is 1 in 100.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 17
Correct
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A 12-year-old boy is suspected of suffering from insulin-dependent diabetes. He undergoes a glucose tolerance test following an overnight fast.
Which of the following results would most likely confirm the diagnosis?Your Answer: A peak of plasma glucose occurring between 1 and 2 hours that stays high
Explanation:Interpreting Glucose Tolerance Test Results in Insulin-Dependent Diabetes
Glucose tolerance tests are commonly used to diagnose and monitor diabetes. In insulin-dependent diabetes, the results of these tests can provide valuable information about the patient’s glucose metabolism. Here are some key points to consider when interpreting glucose tolerance test results in insulin-dependent diabetes:
– A peak of plasma glucose occurring between 1 and 2 hours that stays high: In insulin-dependent diabetes, the plasma glucose remains elevated throughout the 4 hours of the test. This is in contrast to normal individuals, who typically have a sharper and earlier peak that returns to basal levels.
– An ‘overshoot’ in the decline of plasma glucose at 3.5 hours: This phenomenon is seen in normal individuals but not in insulin-dependent diabetics.
– A plasma glucose level of 4 mmol/l at zero time: This is unlikely in diabetic patients, who typically have high basal glucose levels.
– A glucose concentration of 5.2 mmol/l at 4 hours: In insulin-dependent diabetes, the plasma glucose remains elevated throughout the 4 hours of the test.
– A low haemoglobin A1c (HbA1c): If the patient has been suffering from diabetes for some time without treatment, the HbA1c would likely be elevated rather than low.Overall, glucose tolerance tests can provide valuable insights into the glucose metabolism of insulin-dependent diabetics. By understanding the nuances of these test results, healthcare providers can better diagnose and manage this chronic condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 18
Correct
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A 35-year-old woman came to your GP clinic with a cold sore and left eye discomfort. She reported experiencing a red, painful eye with watering and sensitivity to light for the past 3 days. During fluorescein examination, you observed a dendritic ulcer on the cornea that was stained with fluorescein.
What is the primary treatment for this condition?Your Answer: Topical aciclovir drops
Explanation:The appropriate treatment for herpes simplex keratitis is the use of topical aciclovir. Antibiotics are ineffective against viral infections and should not be used. The use of steroids can worsen the condition and should be avoided. If the patient is already using topical steroids for another eye condition, the dosage should be decreased.
Understanding Herpes Simplex Keratitis
Herpes simplex keratitis is a condition that affects the cornea of the eye and is caused by the herpes simplex virus. The most common symptom of this condition is a dendritic corneal ulcer, which can cause a red, painful eye, photophobia, and epiphora. In some cases, visual acuity may also be decreased. Fluorescein staining may show an epithelial ulcer, which can help with diagnosis. One common treatment for this condition is topical aciclovir, which can help to reduce the severity of symptoms and prevent further damage to the cornea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents with facial and ankle swelling that has been gradually developing over the past week. He reports passing 'frothy' urine during the review of systems. A urine dipstick reveals protein +++ and a diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome is confirmed after a 24-hour urine sample. What is the probable cause of this presentation?
Your Answer: IgA nephropathy
Correct Answer: Minimal change disease
Explanation:Minimal change disease is a condition that typically presents as nephrotic syndrome, with children accounting for 75% of cases and adults accounting for 25%. While most cases are idiopathic, around 10-20% have a known cause, such as certain drugs, Hodgkin’s lymphoma, thymoma, or infectious mononucleosis. The pathophysiology of the disease involves T-cell and cytokine-mediated damage to the glomerular basement membrane, resulting in polyanion loss and reduced electrostatic charge, which increases glomerular permeability to serum albumin. The disease is characterized by nephrotic syndrome, normotension (hypertension is rare), and highly selective proteinuria, with only intermediate-sized proteins such as albumin and transferrin leaking through the glomerulus. Renal biopsy shows normal glomeruli on light microscopy, but electron microscopy reveals fusion of podocytes and effacement of foot processes.
Management of minimal change disease typically involves oral corticosteroids, which are effective in 80% of cases. For steroid-resistant cases, cyclophosphamide is the next step. The prognosis for the disease is generally good, although relapse is common. Approximately one-third of patients have just one episode, one-third have infrequent relapses, and one-third have frequent relapses that stop before adulthood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman presents with chronic diarrhoea. She says that her stools float and are difficult to flush away.
Investigations reveal the following:
Investigation Result Normal value
Potassium (K+) 3.1 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Corrected calcium (Ca2+) 2.08 mmol/l 2.20–2.60 mmol/l
Albumin 29 g/l 35–55 g/l
Haemoglobin (Hb) 91 g/l 115–155 g/l
Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 89 fl 76–98 fl
Coeliac disease is suspected.
Which of the following is the initial investigation of choice?Your Answer: Anti-tissue transglutaminase (anti-TTG)
Explanation:Diagnosis and Investigation of Coeliac Disease
Coeliac disease is a possible diagnosis in patients presenting with chronic diarrhoea and steatorrhoea. The initial investigation of choice is the anti-tissue transglutaminase (anti-TTG) test, which has a sensitivity of over 96%. However, it is important to check immunoglobulin A (IgA) levels concurrently, as anti-TTG is an IgA antibody and may not be raised in the presence of IgA deficiency.
The treatment of choice for coeliac disease is a lifelong gluten-free diet, avoiding gluten-containing foods such as wheat, barley, rye, and oats. Patients with coeliac disease are at increased risk of small bowel lymphoma and oesophageal carcinoma over the long term.
While faecal fat estimation may be useful in estimating steatorrhoea, small bowel biopsy is the gold standard investigation for coeliac disease. However, this would not be the initial investigation of choice as it is invasive. An anti-TTG test is more sensitive and specific than an anti-gliadin test in untreated coeliac disease. Magnesium (Mg2+) levels may be abnormal in coeliac disease, but this would not be diagnostic and therefore not the first investigation of choice.
In summary, the diagnosis of coeliac disease requires a combination of clinical presentation, laboratory investigations, and small bowel biopsy if necessary. The anti-TTG test is the initial investigation of choice, and a gluten-free diet is the treatment of choice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man undergoes a routine electrocardiogram (ECG) as part of an examination at his local general practice surgery.
On examination, his pulse is 64 bpm and his blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg. The clinician notes a delta wave on the ECG and refers him to the Cardiology Department.
What is the most likely cause of this irregularity?Your Answer: Sinus arrhythmia
Correct Answer: Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome
Explanation:Wolff-Parkinson-White (WPW) syndrome is a condition where there is an extra electrical pathway in the heart, making the patient more susceptible to developing supraventricular tachycardia (SVT). The presence of delta waves, which are a slurred upstroke in the QRS complex, and a shortened PR interval are characteristic of WPW syndrome. Atrial fibrillation (AF), on the other hand, is an irregularly irregular pulse that is diagnosed by the absence of P waves and irregular QRS complexes on an ECG. Delta waves are not typically seen in AF unless the patient also has WPW syndrome. Sinus arrhythmia, which is an irregular rhythm, does not show delta waves on an ECG. Acute myocardial infarction (MI) is not associated with delta waves, but rather with ST elevation or depression and T wave inversion. Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) is a regular narrow complex tachycardia that may or may not have delta waves, depending on whether the patient has underlying WPW syndrome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 22
Correct
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Which of the following is not a characteristic of Tetralogy of Fallot?
Your Answer: Atrial septal defect
Explanation:Understanding Tetralogy of Fallot
Tetralogy of Fallot (TOF) is a congenital heart disease that results from the anterior malalignment of the aorticopulmonary septum. It is the most common cause of cyanotic congenital heart disease, and it typically presents at around 1-2 months, although it may not be detected until the baby is 6 months old. The condition is characterized by four features, including ventricular septal defect (VSD), right ventricular hypertrophy, right ventricular outflow tract obstruction, and overriding aorta. The severity of the right ventricular outflow tract obstruction determines the degree of cyanosis and clinical severity.
Other features of TOF include cyanosis, which may cause episodic hypercyanotic ‘tet’ spells due to near occlusion of the right ventricular outflow tract. These spells are characterized by tachypnea and severe cyanosis that may occasionally result in loss of consciousness. They typically occur when an infant is upset, in pain, or has a fever, and they cause a right-to-left shunt. Additionally, TOF may cause an ejection systolic murmur due to pulmonary stenosis, and a right-sided aortic arch is seen in 25% of patients. Chest x-ray shows a ‘boot-shaped’ heart, while ECG shows right ventricular hypertrophy.
The management of TOF often involves surgical repair, which is usually undertaken in two parts. Cyanotic episodes may be helped by beta-blockers to reduce infundibular spasm. However, it is important to note that at birth, transposition of the great arteries is the more common lesion as patients with TOF generally present at around 1-2 months. Understanding the features and management of TOF is crucial for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and treatment for affected infants.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Which of the following is true when considering an exacerbation of chronic bronchitis in patients with COPD?
Your Answer: The clinical symptoms are usually severe.
Correct Answer: Moraxella catarrhalis is not commonly isolated on culture
Explanation:Exacerbations of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) are a common occurrence and can be caused by various factors, including bacterial infections. In a bacterial acute exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, the most common causative pathogens are Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, and Moraxella catarrhalis. Since the introduction of the pneumococcal conjugate vaccine, the most common bacterial pathogen may be changing from Streptococcus pneumoniae to Haemophilus influenzae and Moraxella catarrhalis. Mycoplasma pneumoniae and Chlamydia pneumoniae are also relatively common. An elevated white cell count may indicate exacerbation, but a lack of prominent leukocytosis is common. Clinical judgement is crucial, and a C-reactive protein (CRP) test may be useful, but it lags behind by 24-48 hours.
Exacerbations of COPD are characterized by episodes of acutely increased dyspnea and cough, often with a change in the characteristics of the sputum. Despite fever and other signs and symptoms, the clinical presentation is mild to moderate in most cases. Patients with COPD often develop type 2 respiratory failure, which can escalate into respiratory acidosis, a potentially serious complication that may require non-invasive or invasive ventilation. An arterial blood gas analysis should be performed early in every patient presenting with a possible exacerbation of COPD.
Treatment options for bacterial infections in exacerbations of COPD include trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Septrin) combinations. However, resistance to this combination has been frequently reported in cases of infection with M. catarrhalis. The vast majority of cases of infection with M. catarrhalis are also penicillin-resistant due to their production of beta-lactamase. Co-amoxiclav is usually the antibiotic of choice, with macrolides being good alternatives. In most cases, the initial antibiotic treatment is empirical and mainly guided by known local sensitivities and the patient’s previous history of exacerbations. Gram stain can be quite useful to identify broad classes of bacteria. If the gram stain is inconclusive, blood cultures should be performed if the patient is pyrexial.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 24
Incorrect
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As a junior doctor in psychiatry, you are evaluating a young man in the Emergency Department who was brought in by the police for carrying a knife. Your conversation with him goes as follows:
Doctor: I see that the police have brought you in from the town centre today. Can you tell me why, as a young man, you felt the need to carry a knife?Your Answer: Clang associations
Correct Answer: Tangentiality
Explanation:Tangentiality is when someone goes off on a tangent and does not return to the original topic. It is a type of formal thought disorder that is often seen in people with schizophrenia. The person may provide excessive and unnecessary details that are somewhat relevant to the question but never answer the central point. Circumstantiality is similar, but the person ultimately provides an answer. Clang associations involve using words that sound similar but have no logical connection, while perseveration is when someone continues to respond to a previous question even after a new one has been asked.
Thought disorders can manifest in various ways, including circumstantiality, tangentiality, neologisms, clang associations, word salad, Knight’s move thinking, flight of ideas, perseveration, and echolalia. Circumstantiality involves providing excessive and unnecessary detail when answering a question, but eventually returning to the original point. Tangentiality, on the other hand, refers to wandering from a topic without returning to it. Neologisms are newly formed words, often created by combining two existing words. Clang associations occur when ideas are related only by their similar sounds or rhymes. Word salad is a type of speech that is completely incoherent, with real words strung together into nonsensical sentences. Knight’s move thinking is a severe form of loosening of associations, characterized by unexpected and illogical leaps from one idea to another. Flight of ideas is a thought disorder that involves jumping from one topic to another, but with discernible links between them. Perseveration is the repetition of ideas or words despite attempts to change the topic. Finally, echolalia is the repetition of someone else’s speech, including the question that was asked.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 25
Correct
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Crohn's disease is characterized by which of the following features? Please select the ONE most characteristic feature from the list provided.
Your Answer: Skip lesions
Explanation:Comparison of Crohn’s Disease and Ulcerative Colitis
Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis are two types of inflammatory bowel disease that affect the gastrointestinal tract. Crohn’s disease can occur anywhere along the GI tract, while ulcerative colitis typically only affects the large intestine.
One characteristic of Crohn’s disease is the presence of skip lesions, or areas of inflammation discontinuity. The colon wall may also appear thickened and have a cobblestone appearance. In contrast, ulcerative colitis shows continuous inflammation in affected areas, with a thinner colon wall and ulcers limited to the mucous lining of the large intestine.
Both diseases can cause rectal bleeding, but it is more common in ulcerative colitis. Other symptoms of ulcerative colitis include frequent stools and mucus discharge from the rectum, while Crohn’s disease often presents with prolonged diarrhea and abdominal pain.
Pseudopolyps, or benign lesions originating from the mucosa, can occur in both diseases but are more prevalent in ulcerative colitis. Crypt abscess formation, characterized by intense infiltration of the mucosa and submucosa with neutrophils and crypt abscesses, is a hallmark of ulcerative colitis.
Management of these diseases includes medical therapy, endoscopy, and surgery for complications such as bleeding or obstruction. Understanding the differences between Crohn’s disease and ulcerative colitis is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 26
Correct
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A 30-year-old female patient complains of vision problems. Upon examination, a left inferior homonymous quadrantanopia is observed. What is the most probable location of the lesion?
Your Answer: Right parietal lobe
Explanation:A visual field defect known as left homonymous hemianopia indicates a loss of vision to the left side, which is caused by a lesion in the right optic tract. Homonymous quadrantanopias, which affect the parietal-inferior and temporal-superior areas, are also a type of visual field defect. Incongruous defects are caused by optic tract lesions, while congruous defects are caused by lesions in the optic radiation or occipital cortex.
Understanding Visual Field Defects
Visual field defects refer to the loss of vision in certain areas of the visual field. One common type of visual field defect is left homonymous hemianopia, which means that there is a visual field defect to the left due to a lesion of the right optic tract. Another type is homonymous quadrantanopias, which can be remembered using the acronym PITS (Parietal-Inferior, Temporal-Superior). Incongruous defects indicate an optic tract lesion, while congruous defects suggest a lesion of the optic radiation or occipital cortex. A congruous defect means complete or symmetrical visual field loss, while an incongruous defect is incomplete or asymmetric.
Homonymous hemianopia can also be caused by a lesion of the optic tract, with macula sparing indicating a lesion of the occipital cortex. Homonymous quadrantanopias can be caused by a lesion of the inferior optic radiations in the temporal lobe (Meyer’s loop) for superior defects, and a lesion of the superior optic radiations in the parietal lobe for inferior defects.
Bitemporal hemianopia, on the other hand, is caused by a lesion of the optic chiasm. An upper quadrant defect that is greater than the lower quadrant defect suggests inferior chiasmal compression, which is commonly caused by a pituitary tumor. Conversely, a lower quadrant defect that is greater than the upper quadrant defect suggests superior chiasmal compression, which is commonly caused by a craniopharyngioma. It is important to note that while this information is useful for exams, actual studies suggest that the majority of quadrantanopias are caused by occipital lobe lesions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A healthy toddler is 18 months old and was born in the breech position. The toddler's mother is concerned about developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH), as she has heard that this can be associated with breech delivery.
Which of the following is the most appropriate investigation for this toddler?Your Answer: Ultrasound scan of the hips only if they are found to be unstable at the 6-week baby check
Correct Answer: Ultrasound scan of the hips before six weeks of age
Explanation:An ultrasound scan of the hips is recommended for all babies born in the breech position after 36 weeks of pregnancy, even if they are not born in the breech position. It is also necessary for babies born before 36 weeks in the breech position or those with a family history of hip problems in early life. This is to detect developmental dysplasia of the hip (DDH) early, which can be treated with a Pavlik harness before six months of age. Surgery may be required if non-operative treatment is not successful. An ultrasound scan should be performed before six weeks of age to ensure early diagnosis and treatment. If a baby is found to have an unstable hip joint during their newborn examination, they should have an ultrasound of the hip before two weeks of age. X-rays are not recommended for detecting DDH in infants, and ultrasound is the preferred imaging modality.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman visits the GP clinic seeking emergency contraception after having unprotected sex last night, 14 days after giving birth. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Offer levonorgestrel 0.75mg
Correct Answer: Advice the patient that she does not require emergency contraception
Explanation:After giving birth, women need to use contraception only after 21 days.
As the woman in the question is only 14 days post-partum, she does not need emergency contraception. Therefore, the advice to her would be that emergency contraception is not necessary.
After giving birth, women need to use contraception after 21 days. The progestogen-only pill (POP) can be started at any time postpartum, according to the FSRH. Additional contraception should be used for the first two days after day 21. A small amount of progestogen enters breast milk, but it is not harmful to the infant. On the other hand, the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) is absolutely contraindicated (UKMEC 4) if breastfeeding is less than six weeks post-partum. If breastfeeding is between six weeks and six months postpartum, it is a UKMEC 2. The COCP may reduce breast milk production in lactating mothers. It should not be used in the first 21 days due to the increased venous thromboembolism risk post-partum. After day 21, additional contraception should be used for the first seven days. The intrauterine device or intrauterine system can be inserted within 48 hours of childbirth or after four weeks.
The lactational amenorrhoea method (LAM) is 98% effective if the woman is fully breastfeeding (no supplementary feeds), amenorrhoeic, and less than six months post-partum. It is important to note that an inter-pregnancy interval of less than 12 months between childbirth and conceiving again is associated with an increased risk of preterm birth, low birth weight, and small for gestational age babies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 29
Correct
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A 55 year old woman presents to the Emergency Department complaining of a cough with green sputum and palpitations. She reports feeling very sick, feverish, and tired. Upon examination, she exhibits bronchial breathing at her right base, with a respiratory rate of 25 breaths per minute and oxygen saturation of 95% on room air. Her heart sounds are normal, but her heartbeat is irregularly irregular, with a heart rate of 120 beats per minute and blood pressure of 90/40 mmHg. An ECG reveals atrial fibrillation with a fast ventricular rate. The patient has no prior history of atrial fibrillation. What is the initial treatment that should be administered?
Your Answer: Intravenous fluids
Explanation:Patient is septic from pneumonia and has developed atrial fibrillation. Treatment should focus on resolving the sepsis with IV fluids and antibiotics, which may also resolve the AF. If AF persists, other treatment options may be considered.
Understanding Sepsis: Classification and Management
Sepsis is a life-threatening condition caused by a dysregulated host response to an infection. In recent years, the classification of sepsis has changed, with the old category of severe sepsis no longer in use. Instead, the Surviving Sepsis Guidelines now recognize sepsis as life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by a dysregulated host response to infection, and septic shock as a more severe form of sepsis. The term ‘systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)’ has also fallen out of favor.
To manage sepsis, it is important to identify and treat the underlying cause of the infection and support the patient regardless of the cause or severity. However, if any red flags are present, the ‘sepsis six’ should be started immediately. This includes administering oxygen, taking blood cultures, giving broad-spectrum antibiotics, giving intravenous fluid challenges, measuring serum lactate, and measuring accurate hourly urine output.
NICE released its own guidelines in 2016, which focus on the risk stratification and management of patients with suspected sepsis. For risk stratification, NICE recommends using red flag and amber flag criteria. If any red flags are present, the sepsis six should be started immediately. If any amber flags are present, the patient should be closely monitored and managed accordingly.
To help identify and categorize patients, the Sequential (Sepsis-Related) Organ Failure Assessment Score (SOFA) is increasingly used. The score grades abnormality by organ system and accounts for clinical interventions. A SOFA score of 2 or more reflects an overall mortality risk of approximately 10% in a general hospital population with suspected infection. Even patients presenting with modest dysfunction can deteriorate further, emphasizing the seriousness of this condition and the need for prompt and appropriate intervention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man with a history of cytomegalovirus infection presented to the ED complaining of blurred vision, light sensitivity, floaters, and redness in his right eye for the past two weeks. Upon fundus examination, a combination of white and red retinal lesions were observed. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chorioretinitis
Explanation:Chorioretinitis can be identified through a pizza pie appearance on fundoscopy. This occurs when the choroid and retina become inflamed, typically in patients with cytomegalovirus. It is important to note that anterior uveitis will not show any fundal signs. While floaters may suggest retinal detachment, it does not present as a pizza pie appearance on fundoscopy.
Causes of Chorioretinitis
Chorioretinitis is a medical condition that affects the retina and choroid, which are the layers of tissue at the back of the eye. There are several causes of chorioretinitis, including syphilis, cytomegalovirus, toxoplasmosis, sarcoidosis, and tuberculosis.
Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Treponema pallidum. It can cause chorioretinitis as part of its secondary stage. Cytomegalovirus is a common virus that can cause chorioretinitis in people with weakened immune systems, such as those with HIV/AIDS. Toxoplasmosis is a parasitic infection that can be contracted from contaminated food or water, and it can cause chorioretinitis in some cases.
Sarcoidosis is a condition that causes inflammation in various parts of the body, including the eyes. It can lead to chorioretinitis in some cases. Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection that can affect the lungs, but it can also spread to other parts of the body, including the eyes. It can cause chorioretinitis as a rare complication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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