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Question 1
Correct
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A 22-year-old man presents to his GP complaining of ankle pain. He has been training for a marathon and running up to 60 miles per week. During the examination, he experiences difficulty flexing his four lateral toes. The GP suspects tenosynovitis affecting his flexor digitorium longus.
Which other muscles are part of the affected leg compartment?Your Answer: Tibialis posterior, flexor hallucis longus, and popliteus
Explanation:The muscles located in the deep posterior compartment include the Tibialis posterior, Flexor hallucis longus, Flexor digitorum longus, and Popliteus. The Flexor digitorum longus muscle is specifically affected in this compartment.
Muscular Compartments of the Lower Limb
The lower limb is composed of different muscular compartments that perform various actions. The anterior compartment includes the tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum longus, peroneus tertius, and extensor hallucis longus muscles. These muscles are innervated by the deep peroneal nerve and are responsible for dorsiflexing the ankle joint, inverting and evert the foot, and extending the toes.
The peroneal compartment, on the other hand, consists of the peroneus longus and peroneus brevis muscles, which are innervated by the superficial peroneal nerve. These muscles are responsible for eversion of the foot and plantar flexion of the ankle joint.
The superficial posterior compartment includes the gastrocnemius and soleus muscles, which are innervated by the tibial nerve. These muscles are responsible for plantar flexion of the foot and may also flex the knee.
Lastly, the deep posterior compartment includes the flexor digitorum longus, flexor hallucis longus, and tibialis posterior muscles, which are innervated by the tibial nerve. These muscles are responsible for flexing the toes, flexing the great toe, and plantar flexion and inversion of the foot, respectively.
Understanding the muscular compartments of the lower limb is important in diagnosing and treating injuries and conditions that affect these muscles. Proper identification and management of these conditions can help improve mobility and function of the lower limb.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 2
Correct
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A 25-year-old woman visits the clinic with a rash on her right ankle. She suspects it was triggered by a new anklet gifted by her friend. What category of hypersensitivity response does this fall under?
Your Answer: Type 4
Explanation:The Gell and Coombs classification divides hypersensitivity reactions into four types. Type 1 is immediate and IgE mediated, type 2 is mediated by IgG and IgM causing cell death, type 3 is mediated by immune complexes, and type 4 is delayed and mediated by T lymphocytes causing contact dermatitis. Examples of each type include allergic rhinitis, Goodpasture syndrome, and rheumatoid arthritis. Nickel is a common cause of contact dermatitis.
Understanding Contact Dermatitis
Contact dermatitis is a skin condition that can be caused by two main types of reactions. The first type is irritant contact dermatitis, which is a non-allergic reaction that occurs due to exposure to weak acids or alkalis, such as detergents. This type of dermatitis is commonly seen on the hands and is characterized by erythema, but crusting and vesicles are rare.
The second type of contact dermatitis is allergic contact dermatitis, which is a type IV hypersensitivity reaction. This type of dermatitis is uncommon and is often seen on the head following hair dyes. It presents as an acute weeping eczema that predominantly affects the margins of the hairline rather than the hairy scalp itself. Topical treatment with a potent steroid is indicated for this type of dermatitis.
Cement is a frequent cause of contact dermatitis. The alkaline nature of cement may cause an irritant contact dermatitis, while the dichromates in cement can also cause an allergic contact dermatitis. It is important to understand the different types of contact dermatitis and their causes to effectively manage and treat this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 3
Incorrect
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Which one of the following does not pass through the greater sciatic foramen?
Your Answer: Inferior gluteal nerve
Correct Answer: Obturator nerve
Explanation:The obturator foramen is the exit point for the obturator nerve.
The Greater Sciatic Foramen and its Contents
The greater sciatic foramen is a space in the pelvis that is bounded by various ligaments and bones. It serves as a passageway for several important structures, including nerves and blood vessels. The piriformis muscle is a landmark for identifying these structures as they pass through the sciatic notch. Above the piriformis muscle, the superior gluteal vessels can be found, while below it are the inferior gluteal vessels, the sciatic nerve (which passes through it in only 10% of cases), and the posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh.
The boundaries of the greater sciatic foramen include the greater sciatic notch of the ilium, the sacrotuberous ligament, the sacrospinous ligament, and the ischial spine. The anterior sacroiliac ligament forms the superior boundary. Structures passing through the greater sciatic foramen include the pudendal nerve, the internal pudendal artery, and the nerve to the obturator internus.
In contrast, the lesser sciatic foramen is a smaller space that contains the tendon of the obturator internus, the pudendal nerve, the internal pudendal artery and vein, and the nerve to the obturator internus. Understanding the contents and boundaries of these foramina is important for clinicians who may need to access or avoid these structures during surgical procedures or other interventions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl is brought to the clinic by her mother who is worried about her daughter's hearing loss. The girl has a history of frequent bone fractures. During the examination, the doctor observes that the external ear canal and tympanic membrane appear normal and there is no discharge or swelling. However, the girl's sclera has a bluish tint. What type of collagen is most likely affected in this case?
Your Answer: Type 3
Correct Answer: Type 1
Explanation:Osteogenesis imperfecta is caused by a defect in type 1 collagen, which is found in the skin, tendons, vasculature, and bones. This abnormality results in fragile bones, leading to multiple fractures, as seen in a child with deafness, blue sclera, and fractures. Type 2 collagen is present in cartilage and is not typically affected in osteogenesis imperfecta. Type 3 collagen is the primary component of reticular fibers, which are also not typically affected in this condition. Type 4 collagen makes up basement membranes, which are also not typically affected in osteogenesis imperfecta.
Understanding Osteogenesis Imperfecta
Osteogenesis imperfecta, also known as brittle bone disease, is a group of disorders that affect collagen metabolism, leading to bone fragility and fractures. The most common type of osteogenesis imperfecta is type 1, which is inherited in an autosomal dominant manner and is caused by decreased synthesis of pro-alpha 1 or pro-alpha 2 collagen polypeptides.
This condition typically presents in childhood, with individuals experiencing fractures following minor trauma. Other common features include blue sclera, deafness secondary to otosclerosis, and dental imperfections. Despite these symptoms, adjusted calcium, phosphate, parathyroid hormone, and ALP results are usually normal in individuals with osteogenesis imperfecta.
Overall, understanding the symptoms and underlying causes of osteogenesis imperfecta is crucial for proper diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 5
Correct
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A 29-year-old male presents to his primary care physician complaining of lower back pain. He reports that he has been experiencing this pain for the past year and has found little relief from over-the-counter ibuprofen and paracetamol. The pain is worse in the morning and he has noticed that swimming helps to alleviate his symptoms. He denies any history of trauma and works as a tax analyst, preferring to run for exercise rather than engage in heavy lifting. He has no significant medical history and no known drug allergies.
What is the most probable radiographic finding in this patient?Your Answer: Sacroiliitis
Explanation:Ankylosing spondylitis is a chronic inflammatory disease that typically affects young men and presents with lower back pain and stiffness that is worse in the mornings. The condition is associated with HLA B27 and is characterized by a progressive loss of spinal movement. While radiological features may not be present initially, sacroiliitis is the earliest feature seen on x-ray and will show erosion and sclerosis of the sacroiliac joints. In contrast, psoriatic arthritis is characterized by skin plaques, dactylitis, and nail pitting, as well as a ‘pencil in cup’ deformity in severe cases. Osteophytes, on the other hand, are a hallmark feature of osteoarthritis, which is unlikely to occur in a young man. Finally, the bamboo spine appearance is a very late x-ray characteristic in ankylosing spondylitis and is due to calcification of the ligaments.
Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more commonly seen in young males, with a sex ratio of 3:1, and typically presents with lower back pain and stiffness that develops gradually. The stiffness is usually worse in the morning and improves with exercise, while the patient may experience night pain that improves upon getting up.
Clinical examination of patients with ankylosing spondylitis may reveal reduced lateral and forward flexion, as well as reduced chest expansion. The Schober’s test, which involves drawing a line 10 cm above and 5 cm below the back dimples and measuring the distance between them when the patient bends forward, may also be used to assess the condition. Other features associated with ankylosing spondylitis include apical fibrosis, anterior uveitis, aortic regurgitation, Achilles tendonitis, AV node block, amyloidosis, cauda equina syndrome, and peripheral arthritis (which is more common in females).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 6
Correct
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A 70-year-old man is being examined on the geriatric ward during the morning ward round. He reports feeling fine this morning. He has a medical history of atrial fibrillation, recurrent falls, severe asthma and diverticulosis.
During the examination, the doctor notices twitching of the facial muscles when tapping his face. Other than that, no abnormalities are found.
What could be causing the facial muscle twitching in this patient?Your Answer: Denosumab
Explanation:Denosumab has been known to cause hypocalcaemia, which can be identified through the examination finding of facial twitching upon tapping of the face, also known as Chvostek’s sign. This is due to the drug’s ability to inhibit the formation, function, and survival of osteoclasts, which are responsible for releasing calcium into the blood through bone resorption.
On the other hand, lithium is a mood stabilizer that can cause hypercalcaemia by resetting the setpoint for PTH. However, since there is no mention of the patient being on lithium in their medical history, this is unlikely to be the cause of their condition.
Rhabdomyolysis, which can result in hypercalcaemia, is often seen in patients who have experienced falls or prolonged bed rest, particularly in geriatric wards where patients may be less mobile.
Thiazide-like diuretics, such as indapamide, can also cause hypercalcaemia by increasing urinary calcium resorption. However, this usually resolves once the diuretic is discontinued.
Finally, milk-alkali syndrome is a condition characterized by high blood calcium levels caused by excessive intake of calcium and absorbable alkali, often through dietary supplements or antacids taken to prevent osteoporosis.
Denosumab for Osteoporosis: Uses, Side Effects, and Safety Concerns
Denosumab is a human monoclonal antibody that inhibits the development of osteoclasts, the cells that break down bone tissue. It is given as a subcutaneous injection every six months to treat osteoporosis. For patients with bone metastases from solid tumors, a larger dose of 120mg may be given every four weeks to prevent skeletal-related events. While oral bisphosphonates are still the first-line treatment for osteoporosis, denosumab may be used as a next-line drug if certain criteria are met.
The most common side effects of denosumab are dyspnea and diarrhea, occurring in about 1 in 10 patients. Other less common side effects include hypocalcemia and upper respiratory tract infections. However, doctors should be aware of the potential for atypical femoral fractures in patients taking denosumab and should monitor for unusual thigh, hip, or groin pain.
Overall, denosumab is generally well-tolerated and may have an increasing role in the management of osteoporosis, particularly in light of recent safety concerns regarding other next-line drugs. However, as with any medication, doctors should carefully consider the risks and benefits for each individual patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old woman complains of throbbing hip pain that has been gradually developing for 2 months. She had a fall during gardening a year ago that resulted in a fracture of the neck of her right femur.
During examination, she displays a decent range of motion at the hip, but she is experiencing a considerable amount of pain.
Based on the probable reason for her persistent pain, which blood vessel is most likely affected?Your Answer: Lateral femoral circumflex artery
Correct Answer: Medial femoral circumflex artery
Explanation:The primary supplier of blood to the femoral head is the medial femoral circumflex artery. If this artery is compromised, it can lead to avascular necrosis, a condition where the bone’s blood supply is disrupted, causing ischemic and necrotic changes. This can slow down recovery and increase the risk of arthritis and bone collapse. In children, the artery of ligamentum teres is the main blood supply to the femoral head and is commonly compromised due to dislocations. The internal iliac artery supplies much of the pelvis but is unlikely to be damaged in a neck of femur fracture, while the lateral femoral circumflex artery supplies the muscles of the anterior thigh.
Anatomy of the Femur: Structure and Blood Supply
The femur is the longest and strongest bone in the human body, extending from the hip joint to the knee joint. It consists of a rounded head that articulates with the acetabulum and two large condyles at its inferior aspect that articulate with the tibia. The superior aspect of the femur comprises a head and neck that pass inferolaterally to the body and the two trochanters. The neck meets the body of the femur at an angle of 125o and is demarcated from it by a wide rough intertrochanteric crest. The greater trochanter has discernible surfaces that form the site of attachment of the gluteal muscles, while the linea aspera forms part of the origin of the attachments of the thigh adductors.
The femur has a rich blood supply, with numerous vascular foramina existing throughout its length. The blood supply to the femoral head is clinically important and is provided by the medial circumflex femoral and lateral circumflex femoral arteries, which are branches of the profunda femoris. The inferior gluteal artery also contributes to the blood supply. These arteries form an anastomosis and travel up the femoral neck to supply the head. It is important to note that the neck is covered by synovial membrane up to the intertrochanteric line, and the posterior aspect of the neck is demarcated from the shaft by the intertrochanteric crest. Understanding the anatomy of the femur, including its structure and blood supply, is crucial for medical professionals in diagnosing and treating injuries and conditions related to this bone.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 8
Correct
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Samantha, a 65-year-old female, visits a vascular clinic and complains of leg pain while walking, which subsides when she rests. However, she has recently experienced night pain in her leg that wakes her up. She has a medical history of hypertension, diabetes, and hypercholesterolemia, and her BMI is 29kg/m².
The surgeon suspects peripheral vascular disease and conducts a peripheral vascular exam. During the exam, the surgeon finds it difficult to palpate the posterior tibial pulse.
Where is the posterior tibial pulse located anatomically?Your Answer: Inferior posteriorly to the medial malleolus
Explanation:The posterior tibial pulse is located inferiorly and posteriorly to the medial malleolus. It is not found superiorly or anteriorly to the medial malleolus, nor is it located posterior to the lateral malleolus. It is important to accurately locate the pulse for proper assessment and diagnosis.
Anatomy of the Posterior Tibial Artery
The posterior tibial artery is a major branch of the popliteal artery that terminates by dividing into the medial and lateral plantar arteries. It is accompanied by two veins throughout its length and its position corresponds to a line drawn from the lower angle of the popliteal fossa to a point midway between the medial malleolus and the most prominent part of the heel.
The artery is located anteriorly to the tibialis posterior and flexor digitorum longus muscles, and posteriorly to the surface of the tibia and ankle joint. The posterior tibial nerve is located 2.5 cm distal to its origin. The proximal part of the artery is covered by the gastrocnemius and soleus muscles, while the distal part is covered by skin and fascia. The artery is also covered by the fascia overlying the deep muscular layer.
Understanding the anatomy of the posterior tibial artery is important for medical professionals, as it plays a crucial role in the blood supply to the foot and ankle. Any damage or blockage to this artery can lead to serious complications, such as peripheral artery disease or even amputation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 9
Correct
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A 68-year-old man presents to an orthopedic surgeon with a two-month history of dull pain in his left knee that is worse at night and unresponsive to over-the-counter pain relievers. Both knees appear normal with no swelling, tendon or ligament abnormalities, and no limited range of motion. The patient has a history of Paget disease of the bone and takes alendronic acid. The orthopedic surgeon notes a Codman triangle on knee X-ray due to periosteum elevation. What is the most likely condition affecting this patient?
Your Answer: Osteosarcoma
Explanation:The presence of a Codman triangle on an X-ray is a strong indication of osteosarcoma, a bone tumor that can cause night pain and is unresponsive to analgesics. This condition is often associated with Paget disease of the bone, which increases the risk of developing osteosarcoma. Giant cell tumor is another bone tumor that can occur in young adults and has a characteristic ‘soap bubble’ appearance on X-ray. Osteochondroma is a common benign bone tumor that can rarely transform into a malignant chondrosarcoma. Osteoarthritis is a painful joint condition caused by mechanical destruction of the cartilage, often worsened by factors such as obesity and age. Treatment options for osteoarthritis include pain relief medication and joint replacement surgery.
Types of Bone Tumours
Benign and malignant bone tumours are two types of bone tumours. Benign bone tumours are non-cancerous and do not spread to other parts of the body. Osteoma is a benign overgrowth of bone that usually occurs on the skull and is associated with Gardner’s syndrome. Osteochondroma, the most common benign bone tumour, is a cartilage-capped bony projection on the external surface of a bone. Giant cell tumour is a tumour of multinucleated giant cells within a fibrous stroma that occurs most frequently in the epiphyses of long bones.
Malignant bone tumours are cancerous and can spread to other parts of the body. Osteosarcoma is the most common primary malignant bone tumour that mainly affects children and adolescents. It occurs most frequently in the metaphyseal region of long bones prior to epiphyseal closure. Ewing’s sarcoma is a small round blue cell tumour that mainly affects children and adolescents. It occurs most frequently in the pelvis and long bones and is associated with t(11;22) translocation. Chondrosarcoma is a malignant tumour of cartilage that most commonly affects the axial skeleton and is more common in middle-age.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man falls and injures his left hip. He is given paracetamol by a junior doctor and sent home. After a few months, he returns with persistent pain and discomfort in the hip. The doctors suspect avascular necrosis of the femoral head. Which of the following features is least likely to be present?
Your Answer: Osteochondritis dissecans
Correct Answer: Apoptosis of osteoblasts
Explanation:Necrotic cell death does not involve apoptosis. Instead, the body typically attempts to repair the damage by promoting angiogenesis and the proliferation of fibroblasts. These cells may even differentiate into osteoblasts, which can then lay down new matrix.
Avascular necrosis (AVN) is a condition where bone tissue dies due to a loss of blood supply, resulting in bone destruction and joint dysfunction. This commonly affects the femur’s epiphysis, which is a long bone. The causes of AVN include long-term steroid use, chemotherapy, alcohol excess, and trauma. Initially, AVN may not show any symptoms, but pain in the affected joint may develop over time. Plain x-rays may not show any abnormalities at first, but osteopenia and microfractures may be visible early on. The crescent sign may appear due to the collapse of the articular surface. MRI is the preferred diagnostic tool as it is more sensitive than radionuclide bone scanning. Joint replacement may be necessary for management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 11
Correct
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A 65-year-old female presents to the emergency department with a three-week history of gradual-onset left knee pain. She has a known history of hyperparathyroidism, but is not on any regular medications.
Upon examination, there are no visible changes to the joint and the temperature over the knee is normal. However, she experiences tenderness over passive and active movement, but no restriction of joint movement.
A joint radiograph reveals no fracture but chondrocalcinosis. Further, a joint aspiration under polarised light shows positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals.
What is the underlying pathology, given the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate deposition
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis for this patient is pseudogout, which is characterized by the deposition of calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals in the synovium, resulting in pain during movement. The knee joint is commonly affected, and the presence of rhomboid-shaped crystals that are positively birefringent in polarised-light microscopy of joint aspirate confirms the diagnosis. Radiography may also reveal chondrocalcinosis.
A fracture would require a history of trauma and would be visible on the radiograph, neither of which is present in this case, making it an unlikely diagnosis.
Reactive arthritis is associated with immune-mediated destruction of the joint, but there is no recent history of diarrhoea, coryza, conjunctivitis, or urethritis, which are commonly associated with this condition. The light microscopy of joint aspirate and radiography findings do not support this diagnosis.
Joint infection typically presents with a hot, swollen joint that rapidly develops after a history of trauma. The joint aspirate would be expected to contain turbid fluid and grow organisms. However, none of these features are present in this patient, making joint infection an unlikely diagnosis.
Understanding Pseudogout
Pseudogout, also known as acute calcium pyrophosphate crystal deposition disease, is a type of microcrystal synovitis that occurs when calcium pyrophosphate dihydrate crystals are deposited in the synovium. This condition is commonly associated with increasing age, but younger patients who develop pseudogout usually have an underlying risk factor such as haemochromatosis, hyperparathyroidism, low magnesium or phosphate levels, acromegaly, or Wilson’s disease.
The knee, wrist, and shoulders are the most commonly affected joints in pseudogout. Diagnosis is made through joint aspiration, which reveals weakly-positively birefringent rhomboid-shaped crystals, and x-rays, which show chondrocalcinosis. In the knee, linear calcifications of the meniscus and articular cartilage can be seen.
Management of pseudogout involves joint fluid aspiration to rule out septic arthritis, followed by treatment with NSAIDs or intra-articular, intra-muscular, or oral steroids, similar to the treatment for gout. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms of pseudogout can help with early diagnosis and effective management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 12
Incorrect
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From which of the following structures does the long head of the triceps muscle arise?
Your Answer: Coraco-humeral ligament
Correct Answer: Infraglenoid tubercle
Explanation:The infraglenoid tubercle is the origin of the long head, while the lateral and medial heads are connected to the back of the humerus, specifically between the teres minor insertion and the olecranon fossa.
Anatomy of the Triceps Muscle
The triceps muscle is a large muscle located on the back of the upper arm. It is composed of three heads: the long head, lateral head, and medial head. The long head originates from the infraglenoid tubercle of the scapula, while the lateral head originates from the dorsal surface of the humerus, lateral and proximal to the groove of the radial nerve. The medial head originates from the posterior surface of the humerus on the inferomedial side of the radial groove and both of the intermuscular septae.
All three heads of the triceps muscle insert into the olecranon process of the ulna, with some fibers inserting into the deep fascia of the forearm and the posterior capsule of the elbow. The triceps muscle is innervated by the radial nerve and supplied with blood by the profunda brachii artery.
The primary action of the triceps muscle is elbow extension. The long head can also adduct the humerus and extend it from a flexed position. The radial nerve and profunda brachii vessels lie between the lateral and medial heads of the triceps muscle. Understanding the anatomy of the triceps muscle is important for proper diagnosis and treatment of injuries or conditions affecting this muscle.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 13
Correct
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A patient in his 50s has undergone a muscle biopsy for progressive muscle weakness. During his clinic visit, the doctor presents a histological specimen and indicates the sarcomere. What is the doctor referring to?
Your Answer: The region between two Z-lines on the myofibril
Explanation:The area between Z lines is known as the sarcomere. The skeletal muscle is composed of the following elements, as shown in the diagram.
The Process of Muscle Contraction
Muscle contraction is a complex process that involves several steps. It begins with an action potential reaching the neuromuscular junction, which causes a calcium ion influx through voltage-gated calcium channels. This influx leads to the release of acetylcholine into the extracellular space, which activates nicotinic acetylcholine receptors, triggering an action potential. The action potential then spreads through the T-tubules, activating L-type voltage-dependent calcium channels in the T-tubule membrane, which are close to calcium-release channels in the adjacent sarcoplasmic reticulum. This causes the sarcoplasmic reticulum to release calcium, which binds to troponin C, causing a conformational change that allows tropomyosin to move, unblocking the binding sites. Myosin then binds to the newly released binding site, releasing ADP and pulling the Z bands towards each other. ATP binds to myosin, releasing actin.
The components involved in muscle contraction include the sarcomere, which is the basic unit of muscles that gives skeletal and cardiac muscles their striated appearance. The I-band is the zone of thin filaments that is not superimposed by thick filaments, while the A-band contains the entire length of a single thick filament. The H-zone is the zone of the thick filaments that is not superimposed by the thin filaments, and the M-line is in the middle of the sarcomere, cross-linking myosin. The sarcoplasmic reticulum releases calcium ion in response to depolarization, while actin is the thin filaments that transmit the forces generated by myosin to the ends of the muscle. Myosin is the thick filaments that bind to the thin filament, while titin connects the Z-line to the thick filament, altering the structure of tropomyosin. Tropomyosin covers the myosin-binding sites on actin, while troponin-C binds with calcium ions. The T-tubule is an invagination of the sarcoplasmic reticulum that helps co-ordinate muscular contraction.
There are two types of skeletal muscle fibres: type I and type II. Type I fibres have a slow contraction time, are red in colour due to the presence of myoglobin, and are used for sustained force. They have a high mitochondrial density and use triglycerides as
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Which of the following is not found in the deep posterior compartment of the lower leg?
Your Answer: Tibialis posterior muscle
Correct Answer: Sural nerve
Explanation:The deep posterior compartment is located in front of the soleus muscle, and the sural nerve is not enclosed within it due to its superficial position.
Muscular Compartments of the Lower Limb
The lower limb is composed of different muscular compartments that perform various actions. The anterior compartment includes the tibialis anterior, extensor digitorum longus, peroneus tertius, and extensor hallucis longus muscles. These muscles are innervated by the deep peroneal nerve and are responsible for dorsiflexing the ankle joint, inverting and evert the foot, and extending the toes.
The peroneal compartment, on the other hand, consists of the peroneus longus and peroneus brevis muscles, which are innervated by the superficial peroneal nerve. These muscles are responsible for eversion of the foot and plantar flexion of the ankle joint.
The superficial posterior compartment includes the gastrocnemius and soleus muscles, which are innervated by the tibial nerve. These muscles are responsible for plantar flexion of the foot and may also flex the knee.
Lastly, the deep posterior compartment includes the flexor digitorum longus, flexor hallucis longus, and tibialis posterior muscles, which are innervated by the tibial nerve. These muscles are responsible for flexing the toes, flexing the great toe, and plantar flexion and inversion of the foot, respectively.
Understanding the muscular compartments of the lower limb is important in diagnosing and treating injuries and conditions that affect these muscles. Proper identification and management of these conditions can help improve mobility and function of the lower limb.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 15
Correct
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A 28-year-old man visits his GP with complaints of ongoing stiffness and pain in his lower back for the past 6 months. He reports no specific injury that could have caused his symptoms and mentions that he leads an active lifestyle. The pain is particularly severe in the morning but improves with physical activity. Following imaging tests, he is diagnosed with ankylosing spondylitis. What is the gene linked to this condition?
Your Answer: Human leucocyte antigen- B27
Explanation:Ankylosing spondylitis is associated with the HLA-B27 serotype, with approximately 90% of patients with the condition testing positive for it. Adrenal 21-hydroxylase deficiency is thought to be linked to HLA-B47, while HLA-DQ2 is associated with coeliac disease and the development of autoimmune diseases. HLA-DR4 is primarily linked to rheumatoid arthritis, while HLA-DR2 is associated with systemic lupus erythematosus, multiple sclerosis, and leprosy, but not ankylosing spondylitis.
Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It is more common in males aged 20-30 years old. Inflammatory markers such as ESR and CRP are often elevated, but normal levels do not rule out ankylosing spondylitis. HLA-B27 is not very useful in making the diagnosis as it is positive in 90% of patients with ankylosing spondylitis and 10% of normal patients. The most useful diagnostic tool is a plain x-ray of the sacroiliac joints, which may show subchondral erosions, sclerosis, squaring of lumbar vertebrae, bamboo spine, and syndesmophytes. If the x-ray is negative but suspicion for AS remains high, an MRI may be obtained to confirm the diagnosis. Spirometry may show a restrictive defect due to pulmonary fibrosis, kyphosis, and ankylosis of the costovertebral joints.
Management of ankylosing spondylitis includes regular exercise such as swimming, NSAIDs as first-line treatment, physiotherapy, and disease-modifying drugs such as sulphasalazine if there is peripheral joint involvement. Anti-TNF therapy such as etanercept and adalimumab may be given to patients with persistently high disease activity despite conventional treatments, according to the 2010 EULAR guidelines. Research is ongoing to determine whether anti-TNF therapies should be used earlier in the course of the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 33-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with complaints of decreased mobility. He reports experiencing difficulty walking due to weakness in his left foot. The patient has no significant medical history and is typically healthy, regularly participating in sports.
Upon examination, there is a decrease in sensation in the lateral aspect of the left foot and the posterior aspect of the left leg. The patient exhibits normal power on dorsiflexion but reduced power on plantarflexion of the left foot. Additionally, ankle reflexes are absent.
Which anatomical structure is likely to be damaged and causing the patient's symptoms?Your Answer: L4-L5 nerve roots
Correct Answer: S1 nerve root
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms suggest a lesion in the S1 nerve root, which supplies sensation to the posterolateral aspect of the leg and lateral aspect of the foot. This is supported by the presence of sensory loss, weakness in plantarflexion of the foot, reduced ankle reflex, and a positive sciatic nerve stretch test. The other options, such as Achilles tendon rupture, injury to the common fibular nerve, or L4-L5 nerve root compression, do not fully explain the patient’s symptoms.
Understanding Prolapsed Disc and its Features
A prolapsed disc in the lumbar region can cause leg pain and neurological deficits. The pain is usually more severe in the leg than in the back and worsens when sitting. The features of the prolapsed disc depend on the site of compression. For instance, compression of the L3 nerve root can cause sensory loss over the anterior thigh, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test. On the other hand, compression of the L4 nerve root can cause sensory loss in the anterior aspect of the knee, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test.
Similarly, compression of the L5 nerve root can cause sensory loss in the dorsum of the foot, weakness in foot and big toe dorsiflexion, intact reflexes, and a positive sciatic nerve stretch test. Lastly, compression of the S1 nerve root can cause sensory loss in the posterolateral aspect of the leg and lateral aspect of the foot, weakness in plantar flexion of the foot, reduced ankle reflex, and a positive sciatic nerve stretch test.
The management of prolapsed disc is similar to that of other musculoskeletal lower back pain, which includes analgesia, physiotherapy, and exercises. However, if the symptoms persist even after 4-6 weeks, referral for an MRI is appropriate. Understanding the features of prolapsed disc can help in early diagnosis and prompt management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old male with end stage critical ischaemia is scheduled for an axillo-femoral bypass. Which structure is not in close proximity to the axillary artery?
Your Answer: Lateral cord of the brachial plexus
Correct Answer: Scalenus anterior muscle
Explanation:The axillary artery originates from the subclavian artery and is flanked by the brachial plexus cords, which are named after it. The axillary vein runs parallel to the axillary artery for its entire course.
Anatomy of the Axilla
The axilla, also known as the armpit, is a region of the body that contains important structures such as nerves, veins, and lymph nodes. It is bounded medially by the chest wall and serratus anterior, laterally by the humeral head, and anteriorly by the lateral border of the pectoralis major. The floor of the axilla is formed by the subscapularis muscle, while the clavipectoral fascia forms its fascial boundary.
One of the important nerves that passes through the axilla is the long thoracic nerve, which supplies the serratus anterior muscle. The thoracodorsal nerve and trunk, on the other hand, innervate and vascularize the latissimus dorsi muscle. The axillary vein, which is the continuation of the basilic vein, lies at the apex of the axilla and becomes the subclavian vein at the outer border of the first rib. The intercostobrachial nerves, which provide cutaneous sensation to the axillary skin, traverse the axillary lymph nodes and are often divided during axillary surgery.
The axilla is also an important site of lymphatic drainage for the breast. Therefore, any pathology or surgery involving the breast can affect the lymphatic drainage of the axilla and lead to lymphedema. Understanding the anatomy of the axilla is crucial for healthcare professionals who perform procedures in this region, as damage to any of the structures can lead to significant complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 18
Correct
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A 26-year-old arrives at the emergency department with a dislocated shoulder after playing basketball. The joint is relocated, but he experiences pain and limited mobility in his affected arm. During the examination, it is observed that his right shoulder's flexion, extension, abduction, and external rotation are weakened. Additionally, he reports a loss of sensation in the lateral upper arm on the right side.
Which muscle/s receive innervation from the affected nerve in this case?Your Answer: Deltoid and teres minor
Explanation:The axillary nerve is responsible for supplying the deltoid and teres minor muscles, which allow for flexion, extension, abduction, and external rotation of the shoulder joint. Damage to this nerve can result in a loss of sensation over the ‘regimental badge’ area of the upper arm and impaired shoulder movement.
The biceps brachii, brachialis, and coracobrachialis muscles are innervated by the musculocutaneous nerve and are responsible for forearm flexion and shoulder adduction. Damage to this nerve would cause sensory impairment of the lateral aspect of the forearm.
The serratus anterior muscle is innervated by the long thoracic nerve and is responsible for stabilizing and upwardly rotating the scapula. Damage to this nerve would cause ‘winging’ of the scapula.
The supraspinatus and infraspinatus muscles are innervated by the suprascapular nerve and are responsible for initiating the first 15 degrees of abduction at the shoulder joint and externally rotating the shoulder, respectively.
The trapezius muscle is innervated by the accessory nerve and the ventral rami of the C3 and C4 spinal nerves. It acts to rotate and stabilize the scapula to enable movements of the upper limb.
Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old male visits his GP with blister-like skin alterations that have been bothering him for a few months on his body and inside his mouth. Upon biopsy, it is revealed that there are intra-epithelial blisters containing acantholytic keratinocytes.
What skin condition is known to present with these features?Your Answer: Bullous impetigo
Correct Answer: Pemphigus vulgaris
Explanation:Pemphigus vulgaris is likely the condition that a middle-aged man with acantholytic keratinocytes and involvement of the mouth (mucous membranes) would present with. This is because this condition is characterised by intra-epithelial blisters containing acantholytic keratinocytes.
Bullous pemphigoid, on the other hand, is characterised by damage to the hemidesmosomes and infiltration of white blood cells such as lymphocytes into the affected area. It does not demonstrate acantholytic keratinocytes and does not affect mucous membranes like the mouth.
Actinic keratosis does not cause blistering, and bullous impetigo typically affects babies.
Pemphigus vulgaris is an autoimmune condition that occurs when the body’s immune system attacks desmoglein 3, a type of cell adhesion molecule found in epithelial cells. This disease is more prevalent in the Ashkenazi Jewish population. The most common symptom is mucosal ulceration, which can be the first sign of the disease. Oral involvement is seen in 50-70% of patients. Skin blistering is also a common symptom, with easily ruptured vesicles and bullae. These lesions are typically painful but not itchy and may appear months after the initial mucosal symptoms. Nikolsky’s sign is a characteristic feature of pemphigus vulgaris, where bullae spread following the application of horizontal, tangential pressure to the skin. Biopsy results often show acantholysis.
The first-line treatment for pemphigus vulgaris is steroids, which help to reduce inflammation and suppress the immune system. Immunosuppressants may also be used to manage the disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 20
Correct
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A one-year-old is brought to the paediatric team for assessment. The parents report that the child's right arm hangs loosely and does not move in coordination with the other limbs.
Upon examination, an adducted, internally rotated right upper limb with an extended elbow is observed. However, movement of the right wrist appears normal.
Based on these findings, where is the most likely location of the lesion?Your Answer: C5 and C6
Explanation:The infant’s arm is observed to be hanging loosely after a difficult forceps delivery, with adduction and internal rotation and extension of the elbow, indicating an injury to the upper trunk of the brachial plexus involving nerve roots C5 and C6. This is known as Erb’s palsy, which is commonly associated with difficult forceps deliveries and requires specialized management. Lower brachial plexus injuries affecting nerve roots C7 and C8 are less frequent and would cause wrist and forearm pathology rather than shoulder and elbow weakness. Isolated damage to the C6 nerve root is unlikely, as it is typically affected alongside the C5 nerve root.
Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 21
Correct
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A 31-year-old man arrives at the emergency department following a skateboard accident. He reports experiencing intense pain in his left lower leg. The patient has no significant medical history and is typically self-sufficient and healthy.
During the examination, the physician notes palpable tenderness and significant bruising on the lateral side of the left leg, just below the knee. The patient is unable to dorsiflex his left foot.
Which anatomical structure is most likely to be impacted?Your Answer: Common peroneal nerve
Explanation:The patient is experiencing foot drop, which is characterized by the inability to dorsiflex the foot, following a fibular neck fracture. This injury commonly affects the common peroneal nerve, which supplies the dorsum of the foot and lower, lateral part of the leg. The patient’s history of falling from a skateboard and tenderness and bruising over the lower left leg support this diagnosis.
Achilles tendon rupture, on the other hand, presents with sudden-onset pain and a popping sensation at the back of the heel. It is more common in athletes or those taking certain medications. The deltoid ligament, which stabilizes the ankle against eversion injury, is less commonly injured and would not cause foot drop. The femoral nerve, which supplies the quadriceps muscles and plays a role in knee extension, is not affected by a fibular neck fracture and does not cause foot drop. The tibial nerve, responsible for foot plantarflexion and inversion, is not directly involved in foot drop, although its lack of opposing action from the anterior muscle group of the lower leg may contribute to the foot’s plantarflexed position.
Lower limb anatomy is an important topic that often appears in examinations. One aspect of this topic is the nerves that control motor and sensory functions in the lower limb. The femoral nerve controls knee extension and thigh flexion, and provides sensation to the anterior and medial aspect of the thigh and lower leg. It is commonly injured in cases of hip and pelvic fractures, as well as stab or gunshot wounds. The obturator nerve controls thigh adduction and provides sensation to the medial thigh. It can be injured in cases of anterior hip dislocation. The lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh provides sensory function to the lateral and posterior surfaces of the thigh, and can be compressed near the ASIS, resulting in a condition called meralgia paraesthetica. The tibial nerve controls foot plantarflexion and inversion, and provides sensation to the sole of the foot. It is not commonly injured as it is deep and well protected, but can be affected by popliteral lacerations or posterior knee dislocation. The common peroneal nerve controls foot dorsiflexion and eversion, and can be injured at the neck of the fibula, resulting in foot drop. The superior gluteal nerve controls hip abduction and can be injured in cases of misplaced intramuscular injection, hip surgery, pelvic fracture, or posterior hip dislocation. Injury to this nerve can result in a positive Trendelenburg sign. The inferior gluteal nerve controls hip extension and lateral rotation, and is generally injured in association with the sciatic nerve. Injury to this nerve can result in difficulty rising from a seated position, as well as difficulty jumping or climbing stairs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 22
Correct
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An 80-year-old white woman visits her GP with complaints of stiffness, pain, and swelling in her hands. The symptoms are more severe in the morning and gradually improve throughout the day. She has a medical history of hypertension and gout. She admits to taking her husband's prednisolone tablets occasionally to manage her symptoms.
What risk factors does this patient have for the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Female sex
Explanation:Rheumatoid arthritis is more prevalent in female patients, with a 3-fold higher incidence compared to males. It is characterized by symmetrical pain and stiffness, particularly in the morning. Rheumatoid arthritis can affect individuals of any age and is treated with medications such as prednisolone. Contrary to popular belief, gout does not increase the likelihood of developing rheumatoid arthritis. Additionally, ethnicity, specifically being of white descent, is not considered a risk factor for this condition.
Understanding the Epidemiology of Rheumatoid Arthritis
Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic autoimmune disease that affects people of all ages, but it typically peaks between the ages of 30 and 50. The condition is more common in women, with a female-to-male ratio of 3:1. The prevalence of rheumatoid arthritis is estimated to be around 1% of the population. However, there are some ethnic differences in the incidence of the disease, with Native Americans having a higher prevalence than other groups.
Researchers have identified a genetic link to rheumatoid arthritis, with the HLA-DR4 gene being associated with the development of the condition. This gene is particularly linked to a subtype of rheumatoid arthritis known as Felty’s syndrome. Understanding the epidemiology of rheumatoid arthritis is important for healthcare professionals to provide appropriate care and support to those affected by the disease. By identifying risk factors and understanding the prevalence of the condition, healthcare providers can better tailor their treatment plans to meet the needs of their patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 23
Incorrect
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Which of these nerves passes through the greater and lesser sciatic foramina?
Your Answer: Sciatic nerve
Correct Answer: Pudendal nerve
Explanation:The structures passing through the lesser and greater sciatic foramina, from medial to lateral, are the pudendal nerve, internal pudendal artery, and nerve to obturator internus. The pudendal nerve originates from the ventral rami of the second, third, and fourth sacral nerves and passes through the greater sciatic foramen before crossing the spine of the ischium and reentering the pelvis through the lesser sciatic foramen. It gives off the inferior rectal nerves and terminates into the perineal nerve and the dorsal nerve of the penis or clitoris.
The Greater Sciatic Foramen and its Contents
The greater sciatic foramen is a space in the pelvis that is bounded by various ligaments and bones. It serves as a passageway for several important structures, including nerves and blood vessels. The piriformis muscle is a landmark for identifying these structures as they pass through the sciatic notch. Above the piriformis muscle, the superior gluteal vessels can be found, while below it are the inferior gluteal vessels, the sciatic nerve (which passes through it in only 10% of cases), and the posterior cutaneous nerve of the thigh.
The boundaries of the greater sciatic foramen include the greater sciatic notch of the ilium, the sacrotuberous ligament, the sacrospinous ligament, and the ischial spine. The anterior sacroiliac ligament forms the superior boundary. Structures passing through the greater sciatic foramen include the pudendal nerve, the internal pudendal artery, and the nerve to the obturator internus.
In contrast, the lesser sciatic foramen is a smaller space that contains the tendon of the obturator internus, the pudendal nerve, the internal pudendal artery and vein, and the nerve to the obturator internus. Understanding the contents and boundaries of these foramina is important for clinicians who may need to access or avoid these structures during surgical procedures or other interventions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 24
Correct
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A 32-year-old man with a history of psoriasis visits his doctor complaining of new lesions on his back. He mentions that he has only ever had lesions on his knees and elbows before and is worried. Upon further inquiry, the patient discloses that he recently got a tattoo on his back, which is only a week old. He also notes that the new lesions appeared shortly after getting the tattoo. The doctor considers a phenomenon in which new psoriatic lesions develop after skin trauma in patients with psoriasis. What is the term for this phenomenon?
Your Answer: Koebner
Explanation:The Koebner phenomenon is a term used to describe the appearance of skin lesions at the site of injury. Patients with a history of psoriasis and recent skin trauma are at risk of developing this phenomenon, which can also occur in individuals with other skin conditions like warts and vitiligo. Lichen planus is another condition where the Koebner phenomenon is observed. In contrast, the Nikolsky phenomenon is a dermatological phenomenon seen in pemphigus vulgaris, where the epidermis can be moved over the dermis upon palpation. Psoriatic arthritis is a type of arthritis that affects some individuals with psoriasis, causing joint inflammation, pain, stiffness, and swelling.
The Koebner Phenomenon: Skin Lesions at the Site of Injury
The Koebner phenomenon refers to the occurrence of skin lesions at the site of injury. This phenomenon is commonly observed in various skin conditions such as psoriasis, vitiligo, warts, lichen planus, lichen sclerosus, and molluscum contagiosum. In other words, if a person with any of these skin conditions experiences trauma or injury to their skin, they may develop new lesions in the affected area.
This phenomenon is named after Heinrich Koebner, a German dermatologist who first described it in 1876. The exact mechanism behind the Koebner phenomenon is not fully understood, but it is believed to be related to the immune system’s response to injury. In some cases, the injury may trigger an autoimmune response, leading to the development of new lesions.
The Koebner phenomenon can be a frustrating and challenging aspect of managing skin conditions. It is important for individuals with these conditions to take precautions to avoid injury to their skin, such as wearing protective clothing or avoiding activities that may cause trauma. Additionally, prompt treatment of any new lesions that develop can help prevent further spread of the condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 25
Correct
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A 50-year-old male presents to the emergency department after sustaining a high-impact golf ball injury to his foot while playing golf. Upon examination, there is bruising around the lateral malleolus and loss of sensation to the lateral foot. Palpation reveals tenderness in the lateral malleolus. An X-ray confirms a posteriorly displaced fracture of the lateral malleolus. What structure is likely to have been affected by this displacement?
Your Answer: Sural nerve
Explanation:The sural nerve is situated behind the lateral malleolus, which is commonly fractured due to direct trauma. In this patient, the lateral malleolus fracture is displaced posteriorly, posing a risk of direct compression and potential injury to the sural nerve. Other structures located behind the lateral malleolus include the short saphenous vein, peroneus longus tendon, and peroneus brevis tendon. The anterior talofibular ligament is a flat band that extends from the front edge of the lateral malleolus to the neck of the talus, just ahead of the fibular facet. The remaining options are incorrect.
Anatomy of the Lateral Malleolus
The lateral malleolus is a bony prominence on the outer side of the ankle joint. Posterior to the lateral malleolus and superficial to the superior peroneal retinaculum are the sural nerve and short saphenous vein. These structures are important for sensation and blood flow to the lower leg and foot.
On the other hand, posterior to the lateral malleolus and deep to the superior peroneal retinaculum are the peroneus longus and peroneus brevis tendons. These tendons are responsible for ankle stability and movement.
Additionally, the calcaneofibular ligament is attached at the lateral malleolus. This ligament is important for maintaining the stability of the ankle joint and preventing excessive lateral movement.
Understanding the anatomy of the lateral malleolus is crucial for diagnosing and treating ankle injuries and conditions. Proper care and management of these structures can help prevent long-term complications and improve overall ankle function.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman comes in with a pigmented lesion measuring 1.5cm on her back. The surgeon suspects it may be a melanoma. What would be the best course of action?
Your Answer: 2mm punch biopsy from the centre of the lesion
Correct Answer: Excisional biopsy of the lesion
Explanation:It is not recommended to partially sample suspicious naevi as this can greatly compromise the accuracy of histological interpretation. Complete excision is necessary for lesions that meet diagnostic criteria. However, it may be acceptable to delay wide excision for margins until definitive histology results are available.
When dealing with suspicious melanomas, it is important to excise them with complete margins. Radical excision is not typically performed for diagnostic purposes, so if subsequent histopathological analysis confirms the presence of melanoma, further excision of margins may be necessary. Incisional punch biopsies of potential melanomas can make histological interpretation challenging and should be avoided whenever possible.
Malignant melanoma is a type of skin cancer that has four main subtypes: superficial spreading, nodular, lentigo maligna, and acral lentiginous. Nodular melanoma is the most aggressive, while the other forms spread more slowly. Superficial spreading melanoma typically affects young people on sun-exposed areas such as the arms, legs, back, and chest. Nodular melanoma appears as a red or black lump that bleeds or oozes and affects middle-aged people. Lentigo maligna affects chronically sun-exposed skin in older people, while acral lentiginous melanoma appears on nails, palms, or soles in people with darker skin pigmentation. Other rare forms of melanoma include desmoplastic melanoma, amelanotic melanoma, and melanoma arising in other parts of the body such as ocular melanoma.
The main diagnostic features of melanoma are changes in size, shape, and color. Secondary features include a diameter of 7mm or more, inflammation, oozing or bleeding, and altered sensation. Suspicious lesions should undergo excision biopsy, and the lesion should be completely removed to facilitate subsequent histopathological assessment. Once the diagnosis is confirmed, the pathology report should be reviewed to determine whether further re-excision of margins is required. The margins of excision are related to Breslow thickness, with lesions 0-1mm thick requiring a margin of 1 cm, lesions 1-2mm thick requiring a margin of 1-2 cm (depending on site and pathological features), lesions 2-4mm thick requiring a margin of 2-3 cm (depending on site and pathological features), and lesions over 4mm thick requiring a margin of 3 cm. Further treatments such as sentinel lymph node mapping, isolated limb perfusion, and block dissection of regional lymph node groups should be selectively applied.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 27
Correct
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A 67-year-old man is being evaluated by a vascular specialist for poor diabetes control. His HbA1c is 7.8% and he has a medical history of type II diabetes, hypertension, hyperlipidaemia, and hypothyroidism. During the examination, the specialist observes diminished posterior tibial pulses. Which area is likely to experience compromised blood supply due to reduced blood flow through the posterior tibial artery?
Your Answer: Posterior compartment of the leg and plantar surface of the foot
Explanation:The posterior tibial artery is responsible for supplying oxygenated blood to the posterior compartment of the leg as well as the plantar surface of the foot.
Anatomy of the Posterior Tibial Artery
The posterior tibial artery is a major branch of the popliteal artery that terminates by dividing into the medial and lateral plantar arteries. It is accompanied by two veins throughout its length and its position corresponds to a line drawn from the lower angle of the popliteal fossa to a point midway between the medial malleolus and the most prominent part of the heel.
The artery is located anteriorly to the tibialis posterior and flexor digitorum longus muscles, and posteriorly to the surface of the tibia and ankle joint. The posterior tibial nerve is located 2.5 cm distal to its origin. The proximal part of the artery is covered by the gastrocnemius and soleus muscles, while the distal part is covered by skin and fascia. The artery is also covered by the fascia overlying the deep muscular layer.
Understanding the anatomy of the posterior tibial artery is important for medical professionals, as it plays a crucial role in the blood supply to the foot and ankle. Any damage or blockage to this artery can lead to serious complications, such as peripheral artery disease or even amputation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 28
Correct
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A senior citizen trips and falls, injuring her hip. Upon examination, her hip is sensitive to touch and x-rays are ordered to check for a possible intertrochanteric fracture. What is the typical degree of the angle between the femoral neck and shaft?
Your Answer: 130o
Explanation:The femoral head and shaft typically form an angle of 130 degrees, but any deviations from this angle may indicate underlying disease or pathology and require further examination.
Anatomy of the Hip Joint
The hip joint is formed by the articulation of the head of the femur with the acetabulum of the pelvis. Both of these structures are covered by articular hyaline cartilage. The acetabulum is formed at the junction of the ilium, pubis, and ischium, and is separated by the triradiate cartilage, which is a Y-shaped growth plate. The femoral head is held in place by the acetabular labrum. The normal angle between the femoral head and shaft is 130 degrees.
There are several ligaments that support the hip joint. The transverse ligament connects the anterior and posterior ends of the articular cartilage, while the head of femur ligament (ligamentum teres) connects the acetabular notch to the fovea. In children, this ligament contains the arterial supply to the head of the femur. There are also extracapsular ligaments, including the iliofemoral ligament, which runs from the anterior iliac spine to the trochanteric line, the pubofemoral ligament, which connects the acetabulum to the lesser trochanter, and the ischiofemoral ligament, which provides posterior support from the ischium to the greater trochanter.
The blood supply to the hip joint comes from the medial circumflex femoral and lateral circumflex femoral arteries, which are branches of the profunda femoris. The inferior gluteal artery also contributes to the blood supply. These arteries form an anastomosis and travel up the femoral neck to supply the head of the femur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman is experiencing cubital tunnel syndrome in her left arm. Can you identify which muscle in her forearm may be impacted by this condition?
Your Answer: Flexor carpi radialis
Correct Answer: Flexor carpi ulnaris
Explanation:The ulnar nerve supplies the flexor carpi ulnaris muscle, while all other flexor muscles in the anterior compartment of the forearm are innervated by the median nerve. Therefore, the correct answer is flexor carpi ulnaris.
Upper limb anatomy is a common topic in examinations, and it is important to know certain facts about the nerves and muscles involved. The musculocutaneous nerve is responsible for elbow flexion and supination, and typically only injured as part of a brachial plexus injury. The axillary nerve controls shoulder abduction and can be damaged in cases of humeral neck fracture or dislocation, resulting in a flattened deltoid. The radial nerve is responsible for extension in the forearm, wrist, fingers, and thumb, and can be damaged in cases of humeral midshaft fracture, resulting in wrist drop. The median nerve controls the LOAF muscles and can be damaged in cases of carpal tunnel syndrome or elbow injury. The ulnar nerve controls wrist flexion and can be damaged in cases of medial epicondyle fracture, resulting in a claw hand. The long thoracic nerve controls the serratus anterior and can be damaged during sports or as a complication of mastectomy, resulting in a winged scapula. The brachial plexus can also be damaged, resulting in Erb-Duchenne palsy or Klumpke injury, which can cause the arm to hang by the side and be internally rotated or associated with Horner’s syndrome, respectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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Question 30
Incorrect
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You are observing a tarsal tunnel release surgery on a patient you had interviewed earlier that afternoon. Upon incision of the flexor retinaculum, you notice several structures that are visible.
Can you list the structural contents in order from anterior to posterior?Your Answer: Tibialis anterior tendon, flexor digitorum longus tendon, posterior tibial artery and vein, tibial nerve, flexor hallucis longus tendon
Correct Answer: Tibialis posterior tendon, flexor digitorum longus tendon, posterior tibial artery and vein, tibial nerve, flexor hallucis longus tendon
Explanation:The correct order of contents in the tarsal tunnel, from anterior to posterior, is as follows: tibialis posterior tendon, flexor digitorum longus tendon, posterior tibial artery and vein, tibial nerve, and flexor hallucis longus tendon. Therefore, the correct answer is 3. Answers 1 and 2 are incorrect as they include the tibialis anterior tendon, which is not located in the tarsal tunnel.
The foot has two arches: the longitudinal arch and the transverse arch. The longitudinal arch is higher on the medial side and is supported by the posterior pillar of the calcaneum and the anterior pillar composed of the navicular bone, three cuneiforms, and the medial three metatarsal bones. The transverse arch is located on the anterior part of the tarsus and the posterior part of the metatarsus. The foot has several intertarsal joints, including the sub talar joint, talocalcaneonavicular joint, calcaneocuboid joint, transverse tarsal joint, cuneonavicular joint, intercuneiform joints, and cuneocuboid joint. The foot also has various ligaments, including those of the ankle joint and foot. The foot is innervated by the lateral plantar nerve and medial plantar nerve, and it receives blood supply from the plantar arteries and dorsalis pedis artery. The foot has several muscles, including the abductor hallucis, flexor digitorum brevis, abductor digit minimi, flexor hallucis brevis, adductor hallucis, and extensor digitorum brevis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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