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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man complains of occasional joint pains affecting his elbows, hips and ankles for the past four months. He describes each episode as involving pain, swelling and redness in one of the mentioned joints, which usually resolves with anti-inflammatory medication within a day or two.
Lately, the frequency of attacks has increased to once or twice a week from the previous one or two attacks every month. The most recent episode, involving the left knee, occurred two days ago.
During the examination at the clinic, there were no signs of synovitis in any of the joints.
What is the most appropriate initial step to take?Your Answer: Synovial fluid aspiration and examination for urate and calcium pyrophosphate dehydrate (CPPD) crystals
Correct Answer: Give the patient open access to the rheumatology clinic when they have the next attack
Explanation:Diagnostic Approach for Palindromic Rheumatism
Palindromic rheumatism is a condition characterized by recurrent episodes of joint inflammation that last less than 72 hours before completely resolving. It can progress to rheumatoid arthritis in some patients. When a patient experiences an attack, it is important to consider crystal arthritis as the most common cause and perform synovial fluid aspiration to examine for urate and calcium pyrophosphate dehydrate crystals. Other diseases, such as periodic fever syndromes, Whipple’s disease, arthritis associated with hyperlipidemia, and intermittent hydrarthrosis, should also be considered in the differential diagnosis. ANCA testing is not necessary as vasculitis is unlikely. X-rays are not useful in the early stages, but an ultrasound or MRI can detect subclinical synovitis. ANA testing is non-specific, and anti-CCP antibody testing is more sensitive and specific for a diagnosis of RA. A bone scan is not justified for a patient with a 6-month history. To manage palindromic rheumatism, give the patient open access to the rheumatology clinic when they have the next attack.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 68-year-old woman presents to cardiology clinic after being referred by her GP. Her recent transthoracic echocardiogram revealed severe aortic stenosis with an aortic valve at 0.7cm2 and a mean pressure gradient of 62 mmHg, and a left ventricular ejection fraction of 43%. However, she denies experiencing any symptoms of chest pain, shortness of breath, or lightheadedness. Her medical history includes hypothyroidism, osteoarthritis, migraines, and two cesarean sections. She has never smoked. A chest X-ray taken two months ago was normal. What is the most appropriate course of action?
Your Answer: Review in six months
Correct Answer: Aortic valve replacement
Explanation:Aortic stenosis is a condition characterized by the narrowing of the aortic valve, which can lead to various symptoms. These symptoms include chest pain, dyspnea, syncope or presyncope, and a distinct ejection systolic murmur that radiates to the carotids. Severe aortic stenosis can cause a narrow pulse pressure, slow rising pulse, delayed ESM, soft/absent S2, S4, thrill, duration of murmur, and left ventricular hypertrophy or failure. The condition can be caused by degenerative calcification, bicuspid aortic valve, William’s syndrome, post-rheumatic disease, or subvalvular HOCM.
Management of aortic stenosis depends on the severity of the condition and the presence of symptoms. Asymptomatic patients are usually observed, while symptomatic patients require valve replacement. Surgical AVR is the preferred treatment for young, low/medium operative risk patients, while TAVR is used for those with a high operative risk. Balloon valvuloplasty may be used in children without aortic valve calcification and in adults with critical aortic stenosis who are not fit for valve replacement. If the valvular gradient is greater than 40 mmHg and there are features such as left ventricular systolic dysfunction, surgery may be considered even if the patient is asymptomatic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old female is admitted to the acute medical unit after experiencing a prolonged tonic-clonic seizure. She has been diagnosed with status epilepticus and treated with lorazepam and a phenytoin infusion. Two days later, you are consulted to assess her ongoing confusion. The patient has a history of depression and is currently taking fluoxetine.
Upon examination, her cardiorespiratory system appears normal, and her abdomen is soft and non-tender. However, you notice rapid blinking, which the nursing staff confirms has been ongoing for the past 24 hours.
The following are the results of her investigations:
- Hb 135 g/l
- Na+ 137 mmol/l
- Bilirubin 14 µmol/l
- CRP <4 mg/l
- Lactate 1.2 mmol/l
- Albumin 32 g/l
- Platelets 385 * 109/l
- K+ 4.2 mmol/l
- ALP 88 u/l
- WBC 6.6 * 109/l
- Urea 4.4 mmol/l
- ALT 44 u/l
- Neuts 4.2 * 109/l
- Creatinine 75 µmol/l
- γGT 68 u/l
- Lymphs 2.2 * 109/l
- Eosin 0.2 * 109/l
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Tardive dyskinesia
Correct Answer: Non-Convulsive status epilepticus
Explanation:Non-convulsive status epilepticus may manifest with subtle symptoms like twitching, blinking, or fluctuating mental status. It is characterized by prolonged electrographic seizure activity lasting more than 30 minutes. Diagnosis can be challenging and often requires confirmation through EEG. It is crucial to have a high level of suspicion in patients with risk factors and suggestive clinical features to ensure early recognition and treatment. NCSE is prevalent in patients who have experienced convulsive status epilepticus, comatose patients, and those in the ICU.
In this case, the patient’s prolonged post-ictal confusion and subtle motor signs strongly suggest NCSE, and an urgent EEG should be arranged. The normal inflammatory markers on examination make infection unlikely. While a psychogenic seizure is a possible differential diagnosis given the patient’s history of depression, ruling out NCSE is more critical.
Although tardive dyskinesia can cause blepharospasm, it is rare for SSRIs to cause it.
Status epilepticus is a medical emergency that occurs when a person experiences a single seizure lasting more than five minutes or two seizures within a five-minute period without returning to normal between them. It is crucial to terminate seizure activity as soon as possible to prevent irreversible brain damage.
The management of status epilepticus involves ensuring the patient’s airway is clear, providing oxygen, and checking their blood glucose levels. The first-line treatment is administering IV benzodiazepines, such as diazepam or lorazepam. In the prehospital setting, PR diazepam or buccal midazolam may be given. In the hospital, IV lorazepam is typically used and may be repeated once after 10-20 minutes.
If the status epilepticus continues or becomes established, a second-line agent such as phenytoin or phenobarbital infusion may be started. If there is no response within 45 minutes from onset, the best way to achieve rapid control of seizure activity is induction of general anesthesia. Overall, prompt and effective management of status epilepticus is crucial to prevent long-term neurological damage.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 4
Correct
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A 30-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by a friend and is generally unwell with a heart rate of 120/min, blood pressure of 139/58 mmHg, and shortness of breath with a respiratory rate of 25/min. His arterial blood gases on high-flow oxygen show a pH of 7.19, p(CO2) of 1.1 kPa, p(O2) of 29.6 kPa, HCO3– of 7.8 mmol/l, and base excess of –22.0 mmol/l. Biochemistry investigations reveal abnormal levels of sodium, creatinine, glucose, bicarbonate, chloride, and phosphate. The House Officer suspects poisoning as the cause of his symptoms. What is the most likely cause of his poisoning?
Your Answer: Methanol
Explanation:Causes of High Anion Gap Metabolic Acidosis
High anion gap metabolic acidosis is a condition where the body produces too much acid or loses too much base. In this condition, the anion gap, which is the difference between the measured cations and anions in the blood, is elevated. A normal anion gap is around 12-16 mmol/l, but in high anion gap metabolic acidosis, it can be higher.
There are several causes of high anion gap metabolic acidosis, including methanol, metformin, and isoniazid. Methanol is a common cause of this condition and can result in severe metabolic acidosis. Metoprolol overdose, on the other hand, is associated with marked hypotension and bradycardia. Lisinopril overdose can result in marked hypotension with kidney disease, but it doesn’t result in raised anion gap metabolic acidosis. Overdose of amiodarone is associated with extreme bradycardia, heart block, hypotension, and cardiogenic shock. Acetazolamide, on the other hand, is associated with a normal anion gap metabolic acidosis.
In conclusion, high anion gap metabolic acidosis is a serious condition that requires prompt medical attention. It can be caused by various factors, and identifying the underlying cause is crucial for effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Clinical Pharmacology And Therapeutics
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Question 5
Correct
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A 56 year old man with a history of heavy alcohol consumption presents with hematemesis. What is the most effective treatment approach for esophageal varices during endoscopy?
Your Answer: Endoscopic banding
Explanation:Management of acute upper gastrointestinal bleeding due to varices involves resuscitation, transfusion, and vasoactive agents like Terlipressin. Prophylactic measures include propanolol, endoscopic band ligation, and proton pump inhibitors. Common causes of upper GI bleeding include peptic ulcer disease, gastritis, and varices. In cases where endoscopy is delayed or difficult, a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube may be used.
Variceal haemorrhage is a serious condition that requires prompt and effective management. The initial treatment involves resuscitation of the patient, correction of clotting abnormalities, and administration of vasoactive agents such as terlipressin or octreotide. Prophylactic IV antibiotics are also recommended to reduce mortality in patients with liver cirrhosis. Endoscopic variceal band ligation is the preferred method for controlling bleeding, and the use of a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube or Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic Shunt (TIPSS) may be necessary if bleeding cannot be controlled. However, TIPSS can lead to exacerbation of hepatic encephalopathy, which is a common complication.
To prevent variceal haemorrhage, prophylactic measures such as propranolol and endoscopic variceal band ligation (EVL) are recommended. Propranolol has been shown to reduce rebleeding and mortality compared to placebo. EVL is superior to endoscopic sclerotherapy and should be performed at two-weekly intervals until all varices have been eradicated. Proton pump inhibitor cover is given to prevent EVL-induced ulceration. NICE guidelines recommend offering endoscopic variceal band ligation for the primary prevention of bleeding for people with cirrhosis who have medium to large oesophageal varices.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old woman was referred to a cardiologist by her general practitioner due to the discovery of a murmur. She did not report any symptoms. After undergoing echocardiography, she proceeded to cardiac catheterisation, and the following data was obtained:
Anatomical site: Superior vena cava
Oxygen saturation (%): 68
Pressure (mmHg): -
Anatomical site: Inferior vena cava
Oxygen saturation (%): 64
Pressure (mmHg): -
Anatomical site: Right atrium (mean)
Oxygen saturation (%): 79
Pressure (mmHg): 7
Anatomical site: Right ventricle
Oxygen saturation (%): 80
Pressure (mmHg): 28/3
Anatomical site: Pulmonary artery
Oxygen saturation (%): 81
Pressure (mmHg): 25/7
Anatomical site: Pulmonary capillary wedge pressure
Oxygen saturation (%): -
Pressure (mmHg): 9
Anatomical site: Left ventricle
Oxygen saturation (%): 96
Pressure (mmHg): 125/9
Anatomical site: Aorta
Oxygen saturation (%): 97
Pressure (mmHg): 120/70
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Patent ductus arteriosus
Correct Answer: Atrial septal defect
Explanation:Abnormal Connection between Right and Left Sides of the Heart
There is a question that is frequently asked in examinations regarding catheter data. The oxygen saturation in the right atrium (RA) and superior vena cava (SVC) should be the same. However, there is a noticeable increase in oxygen saturation at the level of the RA. This can only occur if oxygenated blood is added to the deoxygenated blood in the right heart circulation, which indicates an abnormal connection between the right and left sides of the heart. Since this is happening in the atria, it can only be due to an atrial septal defect (ASD).
In summary, an abnormal connection between the right and left sides of the heart is indicated by an increase in oxygen saturation at the level of the RA. This can only occur due to an ASD, which is a defect in the atria. This information is important for medical professionals to identify and treat this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 28-year-old Afro-Caribbean woman presents to the hospital with a three-day history of increasing pain and swelling in her left leg. She has also developed a low-grade fever over the past 24 hours. There is no recent history of trauma, immobilization, or prolonged travel by land or air. Two years ago, she was admitted with a similar episode of pain and swelling in her right calf, which was confirmed to be a deep vein thrombosis on Doppler scanning. She is married, works on a production line for a television company, and is a non-smoker and non-drinker. Her only medication is an antidepressant prescribed by her GP after a miscarriage six months ago. Her relationship with a previous partner ended after she miscarried his child.
Investigations reveal a hemoglobin level of 105 g/L (115-165), MCV of 94 fL (80-96), WCC of 7.5 ×109/L (4-11), platelets of 95 ×109/L (150-400), normal protein C and protein S activity, and a positive VDRL of 1:8.
What is the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Antiphospholipid syndrome
Explanation:Antiphospholipid Syndrome
Antiphospholipid syndrome is a medical condition that is characterized by the recurrence of venous and arterial thrombosis, recurrent abortions, or pregnancy complications such as pre-eclampsia. Laboratory tests can reveal thrombocytopenia, elevated activated partial thromboplastin time, and false positive VDRL. The diagnosis of this syndrome is based on both clinical findings and laboratory tests.
In simpler terms, antiphospholipid syndrome is a condition that causes blood clots and pregnancy complications. Doctors can diagnose it by looking at a patient’s symptoms and running some tests. It’s important to identify this syndrome early on so that appropriate treatment can be given to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 53-year-old man with no prior medical history presents to the Emergency Department with a dry cough, shortness of breath, abdominal discomfort, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and headache. He recently returned from a convention in Spain. On examination, he has bi-basal crackles, is pyrexial, and has a blood pressure of 123/67 mmHg, a pulse of 92/min, and a respiratory rate of 22/min. Investigations reveal a high white cell count, low sodium and potassium levels, elevated creatinine and C-reactive protein levels, and protein and blood in his urine. What is the likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Legionella pneumophila
Explanation:Legionella pneumophila is a bacterium that typically affects middle-aged or older men, with a higher severity in smokers. The incubation period is between 2 to 10 days, and the male to female ratio is 2:1. Symptoms include moderate leucocytosis, hyponatremia, deranged liver function tests, proteinuria, haematuria, and myoglobinuria. The infection is commonly acquired from infected water-based air-conditioning systems, which is why it was linked to a convention in Spain. Treatment options include fluoroquinolones, clarithromycin, and rifampicin for severe cases. Chlamydia pneumoniae is another type of pneumonia that has a more subacute course and is often seen in patients who keep or are in close proximity to birds. Streptococcal pneumoniae is less likely to cause hyponatremia or gastrointestinal upset, and the attendance at a convention is a stronger indicator of Legionnaire’s disease. Mycoplasma pneumoniae tends to have a more subacute course with pleuritic chest pain and a dry cough, and the appearance on chest X-ray may indicate a more severe pneumonia than initially thought. Viral pneumonia is more likely to cause generalised crackles on chest auscultation and a lesser rise in CRP.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old woman came in for a routine check-up after being treated for Hodgkin’s disease at the age of 18. She appeared healthy and had no unusual symptoms during the examination. Blood tests and biochemistry were within normal limits, and a standard chest X-ray showed no abnormalities. However, a breast MRI was ordered for further evaluation.
What additional test is necessary for this patient?Your Answer: ECHOcardiogram
Correct Answer: Thyroid function tests
Explanation:Long-Term Effects of Mantle Radiotherapy for Hodgkin’s Lymphoma
Mantle radiotherapy was introduced in the 1960s as a treatment for Hodgkin’s lymphoma. However, studies have shown that patients who received this treatment are at an increased risk of developing thyroid disease, with hyperthyroidism being the most common problem. Women who were treated with mantle radiotherapy are also at a greater risk of developing breast cancer, especially if they were treated at a younger age and with a higher dose of radiation. As a result, the Department of Health has arranged for radiotherapy centres to contact all women treated under the age of 35 years for Hodgkin’s lymphoma since 1962, to ensure they are enrolled on an appropriate screening programme. CT scanning of the chest involves a further large dose of radiation, so MRI imaging is preferred where possible. Bone marrow aspiration and trephine are important for evaluating the thyroid and breasts. While radiation-induced lung fibrosis is seen, radiotherapy is targeted to the mediastinum in Hodgkin’s, reducing the risk of significant pulmonary fibrosis. Constrictive pericarditis is a long-term effect of radiotherapy, but without any symptoms, it is less likely to be the diagnosis here.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman presented to the haematology day unit for evaluation. She reported experiencing lethargy, headaches, and visual disturbances for the past two weeks. Her daughter, who accompanied her, noticed that her mother had been slightly confused in the past 24 hours. Upon examination, the patient had a blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg and a heart rate of 88 beats per minute. Mild pitting oedema of her ankles and scattered bilateral basal fine crepitations were observed. The rest of the examination was unremarkable, and her mini mental score was 30.
Further investigations revealed a haemoglobin level of 72 g/L, MCV of 88 fL, white cell count of 9.0 ×109/L, and an IgA kappa monoclonal band with immune paresis. The patient was given three units of red cells, each unit running at an infusion rate of two hours. However, following the first unit, the patient became acutely short of breath, confused, and complained of a severe headache. Her blood pressure was recorded as 70/40 mmHg with a regular heart rate of 120 beats per minute. She was afebrile with oxygen saturation of 88% on air. Given this information, what is the most likely cause of her acute deterioration?Your Answer: Transfusion related acute lung injury (TRALI)
Correct Answer: Transfusion related fluid overload
Explanation:Transfusion Reactions and Hyperviscosity in IgA Myeloma
From the blood results, it is evident that the patient is suffering from anaemia with a high level of monoclonal IgA. While bacterial contamination of red cells is rare, bacterial contamination of platelet units is more common and presents with fever, skin flushing, and rigors. Transfusion-associated graft versus host disease (TA-GVHD) is a rare but fatal complication that occurs post bone marrow transplantation. It is caused by donor lymphocytes in transfused cellular components, which recognise the recipient as foreign and cause bone marrow failure, liver dysfunction, and gastrointestinal symptoms. However, this case does not fit the symptoms of TA-GVHD.
Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI) is characterised by respiratory distress, severe hypoxia, fever, and perihilar and nodular shadowing in the mid and lower zone of the CXR. It occurs soon after transfusion with no other apparent cause and is caused by preformed leucocyte antibodies. Cardiogenic causes of pulmonary oedema should be ruled out, but patients with TRALI have normal central venous pressure and normal/low pulmonary wedge pressure. However, the absence of fever and less severe hypoxia in this case make TRALI less likely.
The patient’s blood results indicate IgA myeloma, which can cause hyperviscosity. While IgM is most likely to cause hyperviscosity, IgA and IgG3 tend to aggregate and are more likely to be associated with hyperviscosity. This patient is showing symptoms of hyperviscosity, and their plasma volume increases with increasing viscosity, which can compromise cardiac function. Therefore, they should not be transfused until their viscosity has been lowered, as a rise in haematocrit can worsen their symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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You are requested to evaluate a 50-year-old man who has been diagnosed with low-risk myelodysplasia for the past six years. He has been receiving regular transfusions and has received more than 35 documented red cell concentrate transfusions. Despite his stable haemoglobin levels in the range of 80-90 g/L, he is asymptomatic. His ferritin level is found to be 2500 µg/L. What would be the most appropriate course of action in this case?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Iron chelation with oral deferasirox
Explanation:Treatment Options for Secondary Haemochromatosis
Deposition of iron in secondary haemochromatosis can cause tissue dysfunction, but phlebotomy may not be an option for anaemic patients. Fortunately, oral iron chelators like deferasirox have revolutionized treatment for this complication of chronic anaemia conditions. While desferrioxamine can be effective, its subcutaneous route and long infusion time can lead to compliance issues. Deferiprone is considered a second-line agent due to its side effect profile, which includes blood dyscrasias and liver dysfunction. As a result, liver function tests are essential while administering both deferiprone and deferasirox.
Overall, there are several treatment options available for secondary haemochromatosis, but the choice of treatment will depend on the patient’s individual circumstances and medical history. It is important to work closely with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of action for managing this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man presents to the rheumatology clinic with recurrent gout. He was previously started on allopurinol but developed a rash and gastrointestinal upset, and his eGFR limits an increase in dosage. On examination, he is obese and reports previous gout attacks in his left foot and right knee. He also has hypertension, type II diabetes mellitus, and a history of myocardial infarction. His current medications include aspirin, ramipril, amlodipine, atorvastatin, bisoprolol, and metformin. His recent blood work shows an increase in urea and creatinine levels. What are the available options for managing his gout in the long-term?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Initiate febuxostat 80 mg OD
Explanation:Febuxostat is a viable option for preventing gout in patients who cannot tolerate the side effects of allopurinol or have reduced renal function that prevents effective dose escalation. According to NICE and the British Society of Rheumatology, febuxostat can be used as an alternative to allopurinol in such cases. Unlike allopurinol, febuxostat is a non-purine selective xanthine oxidase inhibitor that inhibits both oxidized and reduced versions of the enzyme without affecting purine or pyrimidine metabolism. Although recent studies suggest an increased risk of cardiovascular events with febuxostat use, no changes have been made to the guidelines. While indomethacin, prednisolone, and colchicine are effective in treating acute gout, their preventive use is limited. Colchicine can be used as a temporary measure while a xanthine oxidase inhibitor is being prescribed to prevent acute gout attacks.
Gout is caused by chronic hyperuricaemia and is managed acutely with NSAIDs or colchicine. Urate-lowering therapy (ULT) is recommended for patients with >= 2 attacks in 12 months, tophi, renal disease, uric acid renal stones, or prophylaxis if on cytotoxics or diuretics. Allopurinol is first-line ULT, with a delayed start recommended until inflammation has settled. Lifestyle modifications include reducing alcohol intake, losing weight if obese, and avoiding high-purine foods. Other options for refractory cases include febuxostat, uricase, and pegloticase.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man presents with increasing shortness of breath and cough over the past two weeks during the holiday season. He has occasional joint pains and sinusitis episodes in the past year, but no significant family history. He smokes 10 cigarettes per day and recently acquired a dog with his partner. On examination, he is dyspnoeic and tachycardic with bilateral coarse crackles and oxygen saturation of 92% on 10 L oxygen. His lab results show elevated urea, creatinine, and CRP, as well as positive c-ANCA and negative anti-GBM antibodies and p-ANCA. Chest x-ray reveals bilateral infiltrates, denser at the bases. He deteriorates and requires intubation and renal replacement therapy.
What is the most likely diagnosis, and what treatment should be initiated?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Plasmapheresis, cyclophosphamide and prednisolone
Explanation:Granulomatosis with Polyangiitis: A Rare Autoimmune Disease
Granulomatosis with polyangiitis is a rare autoimmune disease that affects multiple systems in the body, including the upper airways, lungs, renal, and occasionally neurological system. Patients with this condition often present with upper respiratory tract symptoms, renal involvement, and pulmonary haemorrhage. A positive c-ANCA test is often used to diagnose the condition, although biopsies may also be required.
Treatment for Granulomatosis with polyangiitis involves the use of IV cyclophosphamide and steroids. However, in severe cases where the patient’s life is at risk or in patients with primarily renal involvement requiring dialysis, plasmapheresis is used to rapidly remove immune complexes. It is important to note that although cyclophosphamide has revolutionized the treatment of this condition, it has a number of reported side effects, including bladder cancer and infertility.
While Goodpasture’s can present similarly to Granulomatosis with polyangiitis, the inclusion of upper respiratory tract symptoms leans more towards a diagnosis of the latter. Although severe respiratory infections can result in acute kidney injury, the presence of other symptoms and urinalysis would be more consistent with a vasculitis. Overall, Granulomatosis with polyangiitis is a complex and challenging condition that requires careful management and monitoring.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old female intravenous drug user presents to the Emergency Department with a purplish rash on her arms and feet that has been progressively worsening for the past 2 weeks. The rash is not painful or itchy. Upon examination, she appears to be in mild distress and has mild jaundice. Her heart and lungs are normal, but there is tenderness in the right upper quadrant of her abdomen, and her liver edge is palpable 4 cm below the right costal margin. The skin examination reveals palpable purpura on both arms and her left foot, and her right lower limb has erythematous nodules and livedo reticularis. The CNS examination shows decreased strength in plantar flexion and decreased sensation in the left foot. Laboratory results show that she is HIV negative and hepatitis B surface antigen positive. Urine microscopy reveals the presence of red blood cells and protein, but no white blood cells. What is the most likely cause of her rash?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN)
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Skin Lesions, Proteinuria, and Neurological Symptoms
Polyarteritis nodosa (PAN) is a possible diagnosis for a patient presenting with erythematous nodules, livedo reticularis, mononeuritis multiplex, and kidney involvement. This condition is often associated with hepatitis B infection, which can be confirmed by the presence of hepatitis B surface antigen. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura, which typically presents with bruising, petechiae, and epistaxis, is less likely to explain the proteinuria and is more commonly seen in children. Henoch–Schönlein purpura (HSP) can cause a purpuric rash in the lower extremities and buttocks, as well as renal involvement, but it does not typically present with mononeuritis multiplex. Kaposi’s sarcoma is unlikely without HIV and would not explain the neurological symptoms. Impaired coagulation secondary to liver cirrhosis is an unlikely diagnosis in the absence of chronic liver disease and would not account for the neurological symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents to the medical admission unit with a heart rate of 180 bpm. An ECG shows a regular narrow-complex tachycardia. She reports palpitations but no chest pain, and her blood pressure is 140/95. Despite initial vagal maneuvers, including carotid massage, there is no improvement. The patient is given intravenous adenosine 6mg, followed by two more doses of adenosine 12mg, but there is no cardioversion or interpretable underlying rhythm.
What should be the next step in management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Verapamil
Explanation:The Resuscitation Council recommends administering Adenosine 6mg for supraventricular tachycardias, followed by two additional doses of Adenosine 12 mg if the initial dose does not work. If Adenosine is not suitable or fails to terminate a regular narrow-complex tachycardia without demonstrating atrial flutter, consider administering an intravenous calcium-channel blocker such as Verapamil 2.5 – 5mg over 2 minutes.
Most regular narrow-complex tachycardias can be terminated by combining vagal maneuvers with 6mg/12mg/12mg of Adenosine. Administering additional Adenosine is not believed to be beneficial. Digoxin and Amiodarone are not recommended for regular narrow-complex tachycardias, as they are used to treat atrial fibrillation. However, it is important to consider alternative diagnoses such as atrial flutter/fibrillation if the above rhythm fails to terminate after Adenosine.
The patient is stable and does not exhibit any adverse features that suggest DC cardioversion is necessary.
Understanding Supraventricular Tachycardia
Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) is a type of tachycardia that is not ventricular in origin. It is commonly associated with paroxysmal SVT, which is characterized by the sudden onset of a narrow complex tachycardia, usually an atrioventricular nodal re-entry tachycardia (AVNRT). Other causes include atrioventricular re-entry tachycardias (AVRT) and junctional tachycardias.
When it comes to acute management, there are several options available. Vagal maneuvers such as the Valsalva maneuver or carotid sinus massage can be used. Intravenous adenosine is also an option, with a rapid IV bolus of 6mg given initially, followed by 12mg and then 18mg if necessary. However, adenosine is contraindicated in asthmatics, and verapamil may be a better option for them. Electrical cardioversion is also an option.
Prevention of episodes can be achieved through the use of beta-blockers or radio-frequency ablation. Beta-blockers are a common choice for long-term management, while radio-frequency ablation is a more permanent solution that involves destroying the abnormal tissue causing the SVT.
In summary, SVT is a type of tachycardia that is not ventricular in origin and is commonly associated with paroxysmal SVT. Acute management options include vagal maneuvers, intravenous adenosine, and electrical cardioversion. Prevention of episodes can be achieved through the use of beta-blockers or radio-frequency ablation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man with a lengthy history of hypertension and chronic kidney disease (creatinine 190 μmol/l on admission) is admitted for angiography. He remains in the hospital over the weekend and you are requested to assess him three days after the procedure. The nursing staff has observed a purpuric rash on his feet and suspects that the blood supply to his lower limbs is compromised.
Blood tests show an ESR of 86, eosinophilia, and a creatinine level of 450 μmol/l.
What is the most probable diagnosis based on these findings?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cholesterol embolism
Explanation:Understanding Cholesterol Embolism and Differential Diagnosis
Cholesterol embolism is a condition commonly seen in patients with existing arterial disease who have undergone arterial manipulation. Patients may present with a peripheral purpuric rash and dusky lower limbs, and associated laboratory tests include eosinophilia, worsening kidney disease, raised erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), and low levels of complement. Unfortunately, there is no specific treatment shown to be of benefit.
When considering a differential diagnosis, contrast nephropathy can occur after a contrast load in patients with renal impairment, but it would not account for the eosinophilia in this case. Acute vasculitis is a systemic illness that presents with a palpable purpura that occurs in crops, along with other associated symptoms such as fever, weight loss, fatigue, and joint pains. Renal artery thrombosis can cause renal impairment due to complete occlusion of the renal artery from thromboemboli, atherosclerosis, or fibromuscular disease, but it would not cause an eosinophilia. Renal vein thrombosis, on the other hand, occurs most commonly in patients with nephrotic syndrome with heavy proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, hypercholesterolemia, and peripheral edema due to a hypercoagulable state.
In summary, understanding the presentation and associated laboratory tests of cholesterol embolism and considering differential diagnoses can aid in proper diagnosis and management of patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a three-day history of fever, muscle ache, retro-orbital headache, and a rash. He recently returned from a trip to Honduras. He has no significant medical history and takes no regular medications.
Observations:
Heart rate: 101 beats/min
Oxygen saturations: 97% on room air
Respiratory rate: 20 breaths/min
Temperature: 38.5ºC
Blood pressure: 124/82 mmHg
On examination, the patient's face appears flushed, and he has a maculopapular rash covering most of his body. There is no splenomegaly or synovitis.
Blood tests:
Hb: 121 g/L (Male: 135-180, Female: 115-160)
Platelets: 89 * 109/L (150-400)
WBC: 4.4 * 109/L (4.0-11.0)
Na+: 137 mmol/L (135-145)
K+: 4.2 mmol/L (3.5-5.0)
Urea: 5.2 mmol/L (2.0-7.0)
Creatinine: 88 µmol/L (55-120)
CRP: 22 mg/L (<5)
Bilirubin: 14 µmol/L (3-17)
ALP: 111 u/L (30-100)
ALT: 143 u/L (3-40)
Albumin: 34 g/L (35-50)
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Dengue
Explanation:The returning traveller symptoms of retro-orbital headache, fever, facial flushing, rash, and thrombocytopenia suggest a possible diagnosis of dengue. This virus is transmitted by the Aedes mosquito and is endemic to Honduras. Dengue is characterized by severe myalgia, thrombocytopenia, and deranged liver function tests.
Chikungunya is an incorrect answer as it also causes fever in returning travellers and is transmitted by the Aedes mosquito in Honduras. However, the presence of arthralgia and arthritis makes this diagnosis less likely.
Malaria is another incorrect answer as it can cause fever and thrombocytopenia but is not associated with a maculopapular rash and facial flushing.
Typhoid is also an incorrect answer as it typically presents with abdominal pain and constipation, and the rash is described as ‘rose spots’ on the lower chest and abdomen. Severe myalgia is also less common in typhoid. Therefore, dengue is the most likely diagnosis.
Understanding Dengue Fever
Dengue fever is a viral infection that can lead to viral haemorrhagic fever, which includes diseases like yellow fever, Lassa fever, and Ebola. The dengue virus is an RNA virus that belongs to the Flavivirus genus and is transmitted by the Aedes aegypti mosquito. The incubation period for dengue fever is seven days.
Patients with dengue fever can be classified into three categories: those without warning signs, those with warning signs, and those with severe dengue (dengue haemorrhagic fever). Symptoms of dengue fever include fever, headache (often retro-orbital), myalgia, bone pain, arthralgia (also known as ‘break-bone fever’), pleuritic pain, facial flushing, maculopapular rash, and haemorrhagic manifestations such as a positive tourniquet test, petechiae, purpura/ecchymosis, and epistaxis. Warning signs include abdominal pain, hepatomegaly, persistent vomiting, and clinical fluid accumulation (ascites, pleural effusion). Severe dengue (dengue haemorrhagic fever) is a form of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) that results in thrombocytopenia and spontaneous bleeding. Around 20-30% of these patients go on to develop dengue shock syndrome (DSS).
Typically, blood tests are used to diagnose dengue fever, which may show leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, and raised aminotransferases. Diagnostic tests such as serology, nucleic acid amplification tests for viral RNA, and NS1 antigen tests may also be used. Treatment for dengue fever is entirely symptomatic, including fluid resuscitation and blood transfusions. Currently, there are no antivirals available for the treatment of dengue fever.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old female equestrian had recently purchased new riding boots and a saddle for her horse. She had a long history of chronic low back pain and had been prescribed pain medication by her primary care physician. After a strenuous horseback riding session, during which her horse had performed well, she dismounted and experienced severe pain in her left leg, making it difficult to walk.
Upon examination, she exhibited a left foot drop, with the evertors and dorsiflexors of the left ankle measuring 2/5, while inversion of both ankles was 5/5. The straight leg-raising test was 80° on both sides, and tendon reflexes were normal. Pinprick sensation was reduced in the left foot.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Right common peroneal nerve palsy
Explanation:Differentiating Nerve Pathologies: A Brief Overview
When assessing a patient with lower limb weakness, it is important to consider the various nerve pathologies that may be causing the symptoms. Here, we will discuss some of the key features that can help differentiate between different nerve pathologies.
Right common peroneal nerve palsy occurs when the nerve is compressed, often during an operation or due to tight knee boots. This leads to weakness in the peroneal muscles and dorsiflexors of the foot and toes, as well as sensory changes in the lateral aspect of the leg and dorsum of the foot.
Right lumbar plexopathy would cause more diffuse weakness and reflex changes, while right L5 radiculopathy typically presents with back pain that radiates down the lateral aspect of the leg into the foot. Weakness in foot dorsiflexion, toe extension, foot inversion, and foot eversion may be present, as well as atrophy in the extensor digitorum brevis muscle of the foot and the tibialis anterior muscle of the lower leg.
Right femoral nerve palsy leads to weakness in the quadriceps and loss of knee jerk, while right sural nerve palsy is a sensory nerve pathology that does not cause motor weakness.
By considering the specific features of each nerve pathology, clinicians can more accurately diagnose and treat patients with lower limb weakness.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man presents with palpitations. His ECG reveals atrial fibrillation with a ventricular rate of 80 beats per minute and his blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg. An echocardiogram shows well-preserved left ventricular function and moderate to severe mitral stenosis. The pulmonary artery pressure is 30 mmHg. What is the optimal approach for preventing stroke?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Warfarin only
Explanation:The patient has moderate to severe mitral stenosis and requires long term anticoagulation. The CHADS2-VASc scoring tool is used to assess the need for anticoagulation in patients with AF, but certain conditions such as valvular heart disease, prior peripheral embolism, and intracardiac thrombus may override the decision to anticoagulate.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old male patient with a 35 pack-year smoking history visits his GP complaining of constant daytime sleepiness, which is affecting his ability to work. Upon examination, he measures 178 cm in height, weighs 118 kg, and has a neck circumference of 42 cm. Following sleep studies, he is diagnosed with moderate to severe obstructive sleep apnoea (OSA) due to hypnoea/apnoea episodes. What is the best course of treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Overnight continuous positive airways pressure (CPAP)
Explanation:Treatment Options for Obstructive Sleep Apnea
Obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) is a condition that causes interrupted breathing during sleep, leading to daytime sleepiness and other symptoms. The treatment of choice for moderate-severe OSA is overnight continuous positive airways pressure (CPAP), which has been shown to be effective in reducing symptoms. However, lifestyle changes such as weight loss and alcohol and smoking cessation should also be implemented as first-line treatment. Long-term oxygen therapy may be used as an adjunct to CPAP or in cases where CPAP is not feasible, but should not be offered as a first-line option. Hypnotics such as amitriptyline and nocturnal lorazepam should be avoided as they can worsen OSA. Intra-oral devices may be useful for mild OSA and snoring, but not for daytime sleepiness associated with moderate-severe disease. Modafinil has shown some benefits when used with CPAP, but not as an alternative. Overall, a combination of CPAP and lifestyle changes is the most effective approach to managing OSA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman presents to the gastroenterology clinic with a 6-month history of weight loss, fatigue, and diarrhoea. She has a history of scleroderma for the past 12 years but has not taken any medications for it. Her symptoms are not exacerbated by any particular foods, and she maintains a varied diet. During examination, skin bruising and a peripheral neuropathy in a glove-and-stocking distribution were noted.
The following investigations were conducted:
- Hb: 108g/l (115-165)
- MCV: 103fl (80-96)
- WBC: 10.2 * 109/l (4.0-11.0)
- Serum vit B12: 140 ng/l (160-760)
- Serum folate: 10.5µg/l (2.0-11.0)
- CRP: 130 mg/l (<10)
- Anti TTG antibodies: negative
What would be the most appropriate initial investigation to establish a diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hydrogen breath testing
Explanation:Small bowel bacterial overgrowth (SBBO) is characterized by an increase in bacterial colonization in the small bowel proximal to the distal ileum. Patients with SBBO may experience symptoms such as weight loss, abdominal pain, diarrhoea, and malnutrition, as well as neurological symptoms associated with vitamin B12 malabsorption and impaired absorption of fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, E, and K). Hydrogen breath testing is the preferred first-line investigation for diagnosing small bowel bacterial overgrowth syndrome. Treatment options include surgical correction of underlying abnormalities, antibiotics (metronidazole is commonly used), and treatment of dysmotility.
Other diagnostic tests, such as faecal calprotectin, flexible sigmoidoscopy, and SeHCAT scan, may be useful in excluding other diagnoses, such as inflammatory bowel disease, microscopic colitis, and bile acid malabsorption, respectively. The faecal elastase test is used in conjunction with other tests, such as fecal fat and/or fecal chymotrypsin, to evaluate both children and adults for pancreatic insufficiency.
Small bowel bacterial overgrowth syndrome (SBBOS) is a condition where there is an excessive amount of bacteria in the small bowel, leading to gastrointestinal symptoms. This disorder is commonly seen in neonates with congenital gastrointestinal abnormalities, scleroderma, and diabetes mellitus. The symptoms of SBBOS are similar to those of irritable bowel syndrome, including chronic diarrhea, bloating, flatulence, and abdominal pain.
To diagnose SBBOS, a hydrogen breath test is commonly used. In some cases, small bowel aspiration and culture may be performed, but this is less common due to its invasive nature and difficulty in reproducing results. Clinicians may also give a course of antibiotics as a diagnostic trial. The management of SBBOS involves correcting the underlying disorder and antibiotic therapy. Rifaximin is the preferred treatment due to its relatively low resistance, but co-amoxiclav or metronidazole can also be effective in most patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old male presents with a 4-month history of left foot drop. He reports having to lift his thighs higher than usual to accommodate this issue. During examination, he displays a high stepping gait. All movements have normal power except for left ankle dorsiflexion (2/5) and eversion (2/5). Ankle inversion is intact (5/5), ankle jerks are present, and plantars are downgoing. He also reports reduced sensation on the dorsum of his foot. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Common peroneal palsy
Explanation:Foot drop is a commonly tested topic in MRCP exams, with the differential diagnosis often including a common peroneal nerve lesion. In this case, certain factors suggest that a common peroneal nerve palsy is more likely than an L5 radiculopathy. Patients with common peroneal nerve palsy typically retain the ability to invert their ankle and flex their big toe, while experiencing sensory loss in the lateral aspect of the lower leg and dorsum of the foot. In contrast, L5 radiculopathy usually presents as a narrow strip down the middle of the anterior lower limb, without affecting the lateral lower leg. Both conditions typically involve present ankle jerks, as the tibial nerve branches from S1 and the sciatic nerve. There is no indication of involvement of multiple lumbar levels in this case. Common causes of common peroneal nerve palsy include trauma or compression at the fibula head, often due to tight plaster casts.
Understanding Common Peroneal Nerve Lesion
A common peroneal nerve lesion is a type of nerve injury that often occurs at the neck of the fibula. This condition is characterized by foot drop, which is the most common symptom. Other symptoms include weakness of foot dorsiflexion and eversion, weakness of extensor hallucis longus, sensory loss over the dorsum of the foot and the lower lateral part of the leg, and wasting of the anterior tibial and peroneal muscles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man is admitted to the Emergency Department after being found collapsed and disoriented at home. He is unable to provide a clear medical history, and he has no family members to assist. Upon examination, his Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is 10/15, his pupils are reactive, and there are no neurological signs. He has a fever of 38.5°C, is dehydrated, and has a pulse rate of 125/min with a blood pressure of 110/60 mmHg, which drops by approximately 10 mmHg when he changes position. Upon auscultation of his chest, heart sounds 1 and 2 are audible with no murmurs. He is hypoxic with O2 sats of 89% on air and has dullness to percussion in his right lower zone with coarse breath sounds. His abdomen is soft with audible bowel sounds. Ophthalmoscopy reveals microaneurysms and exudates. The Emergency Department nurse dipsticks his urine, which shows +++ Glucose, and a finger blood glucose test indicates a reading greater than 40. Emergency blood gas results and other biochemistry tests reveal high levels of serum sodium, urea, creatinine, and amylase, as well as low levels of plasma glucose and HbA1c. Despite receiving enough 0.9% saline to match his initial fluid deficit, his sodium levels remain high. What is the appropriate choice of IV fluid treatment at this stage?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 0.45% saline
Explanation:Management of Hyper-Osmolar Hyperglycaemic Coma
Hyper-osmolar hyperglycaemic coma (HHS) is a condition that occurs in older type 2 diabetic patients, where some residual insulin production prevents the development of ketoacidosis, which is more common in type 1 diabetic patients. In the absence of ketonuria, HHS is likely to have been precipitated by pneumonia. The calculated osmolality of the patient is 420 mOsm/kg [2(Na+K) + glucose + urea]. Due to osmotic diuresis caused by hyperglycaemia, the patient will be severely dehydrated. The initial goal is to replenish the extracellular volume, which can be achieved by administering 1 litre of saline. If mild hypotension and absent postural drop persist, further volume expansion may be necessary.
Once extracellular volume has been restored, the appropriate agent for patients with hypernatraemia is 0.45% saline, which replaces intra and extracellular fluid loss. This fluid has a similar composition to the fluid lost during the osmotic diuresis. When blood glucose reaches 15 mmol/L, 5% dextrose should be added. Electrolytes should be checked every 2-4 hours, and the decrease in Na should not be quicker than 10 mmol/day. Patients should be managed in a high care environment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology, Diabetes And Metabolic Medicine
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 69-year-old man with a history of heavy alcohol use presents to the Emergency Department with complaints of weight loss, fevers, and malaise over the past four months. He also reports a dry cough with occasional blood-stained sputum. On examination, he has a moderate amount of ascites and is febrile at 37.5°C. His lab results show elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase, γ-glutamyl transpeptidase, and aspartate aminotransferase, as well as a low hemoglobin and high mean corpuscular volume. An ascitic tap reveals low levels of total protein and albumin. A plain abdominal film shows adrenal calcification. Which investigation is most likely to provide a diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Laparoscopy and peritoneal biopsy
Explanation:Diagnostic Approaches for Abdominal Tuberculosis in a Severely Malnourished Patient with Ascites
Abdominal tuberculosis is a challenging diagnosis to make in severely malnourished patients presenting with constitutional symptoms such as fever, anorexia, and weight loss. In such cases, ascitic fluid analysis is crucial, and a marked increase in white cell count strongly supports a diagnosis of infective ascites. However, the diagnostic yield of ascitic culture for mycobacteria is low, and PCR of ascitic cells/fluid has limited value. Laparoscopy and peritoneal biopsy have shown to be the most effective diagnostic approach, leading to a diagnosis in 95% of cases in recent series.
Other diagnostic approaches, such as measuring α-fetoprotein levels, liver biopsy, abdominal CT, and ultrasound scan, are less useful in this context. α-Fetoprotein levels are only relevant when screening for liver cancer, and liver biopsy is less useful than peritoneal biopsy in primarily peritoneal diseases. Abdominal CT is unlikely to distinguish between the possible soft tissue causes of ascites, and an ultrasound scan is unlikely to lead to a diagnosis unless there is evidence of specific conditions such as extrahepatic biliary compression, cholecystitis, or thrombosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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You are requested to assess a 44-year-old female patient who is currently admitted to the ward. She is presenting with confusion and disorientation. During the examination, you observe ascites, hyperreflexia, and jaundice.
The patient's vital signs are as follows: respiratory rate of 18 breaths per minute, saturations of 98% on room air, blood pressure of 110/55 mmHg, heart rate of 95 beats per minute, and temperature of 36.7ºC.
The patient's laboratory results are as follows: Hb of 110 g/L (normal range for females: 115-160), platelets of 75 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400), and WBC of 4.0 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0).
The patient's bilirubin level is 122 µmol/L (normal range: 3-17), ALP is 135 u/L (normal range: 30-100), ALT is 98 u/L (normal range: 3-40), γGT is 70 u/L (normal range: 8-60), and albumin is 20 g/L (normal range: 35-50).
Upon reviewing the patient's medical records, you discover that she was admitted to the hospital a week ago due to haematemesis. Gastroscopy revealed oesophageal varices, which were banded. However, the patient experienced another episode of bleeding post-procedure, and banding was not possible. As a result, she required a transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPPS).
What is the probable cause of the patient's confusion?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatic encephalopathy
Explanation:The Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic Shunt (TIPPS) procedure is known to frequently worsen hepatic encephalopathy, which is a common complication. In this case, the patient’s confusion and hyperreflexia after TIPPS suggest hepatic encephalopathy as the most likely diagnosis. During TIPPS, portal blood flow is redirected away from the liver and into the systemic circulation, which can cause further damage to the liver and an increase in ammonia levels in the bloodstream due to bypassing the portal system. The exact mechanism behind this exacerbation of hepatic encephalopathy is not fully understood.
Korsakoff’s syndrome, a chronic memory impairment caused by thiamine deficiency, is less likely in this case as the patient’s confusion is an acute presentation.
TIPPS thrombosis is a recognized complication of the procedure, but it is less common than hepatic encephalopathy and would present with different symptoms such as right upper quadrant pain, decompensated liver disease, and potential bowel ischemia.
Biliary sepsis is also an unlikely diagnosis as it would present with abnormal white cell count, fever, haemodynamic instability, and a rise in predominantly biliary transaminases, which are not seen in this case.
Variceal haemorrhage is a serious condition that requires prompt and effective management. The initial treatment involves resuscitation of the patient, correction of clotting abnormalities, and administration of vasoactive agents such as terlipressin or octreotide. Prophylactic IV antibiotics are also recommended to reduce mortality in patients with liver cirrhosis. Endoscopic variceal band ligation is the preferred method for controlling bleeding, and the use of a Sengstaken-Blakemore tube or Transjugular Intrahepatic Portosystemic Shunt (TIPSS) may be necessary if bleeding cannot be controlled. However, TIPSS can lead to exacerbation of hepatic encephalopathy, which is a common complication.
To prevent variceal haemorrhage, prophylactic measures such as propranolol and endoscopic variceal band ligation (EVL) are recommended. Propranolol has been shown to reduce rebleeding and mortality compared to placebo. EVL is superior to endoscopic sclerotherapy and should be performed at two-weekly intervals until all varices have been eradicated. Proton pump inhibitor cover is given to prevent EVL-induced ulceration. NICE guidelines recommend offering endoscopic variceal band ligation for the primary prevention of bleeding for people with cirrhosis who have medium to large oesophageal varices.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old male presents to the acute medical unit with a history of 5 episodes of bloody stools per day for the past 4 weeks. He has a medical history of ulcerative proctitis but is not taking any regular medications. Despite initial treatment with rectal mesalazine, his symptoms have not improved. On examination, there is mild abdominal tenderness but no guarding, and the abdomen is soft. His vital signs are within normal limits, and his blood tests show a low hemoglobin level of 106 g/L. What is the most appropriate course of treatment at this point?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral aminosalicylate
Explanation:If a patient with mild-moderate distal ulcerative colitis does not respond to topical (rectal) aminosalicylates, the next step in management should be the addition of oral aminosalicylates.
Oral aminosalicylates are the appropriate choice in this scenario. According to Truelove and Witts’ classification of the severity of UC, the patient is experiencing a moderate flare (4-6 bloody stools, ESR 20-30, and no signs of severe disease) that persists despite initial treatment with rectal aminosalicylates.
IV steroids are not recommended in this case, as they are reserved for severe disease requiring hospitalization.
Oral steroids are not the best option either, as they are typically added to extensive ulcerative colitis that has not responded to topical and oral aminosalicylates.
Intravenous ciclosporin is not the correct choice either, as it is typically used to treat severe, refractory, life-threatening ulcerative colitis in conjunction with IV steroids, or to induce remission in cases where steroids are not an option.
Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools per day, the amount of blood, and the presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Severe cases should be treated in a hospital setting with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin.
To maintain remission, patients with proctitis and proctosigmoiditis may use topical aminosalicylate alone or in combination with an oral aminosalicylate. Those with left-sided and extensive ulcerative colitis may require a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. Patients who have experienced severe relapses or multiple exacerbations may benefit from oral azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended for UC management, but probiotics may help prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.
In summary, the management of ulcerative colitis involves a combination of inducing and maintaining remission. Treatment options vary depending on the severity and location of the condition, with mild-to-moderate cases typically treated with topical aminosalicylate and severe cases requiring hospitalization and intravenous medication. Maintaining remission may involve using a combination of oral and topical medications or a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. While methotrexate is not recommended, probiotics may be helpful in preventing relapse in mild to moderate cases.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology And Hepatology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 58-year-old man comes to you with a gradual onset of stridor throughout the day. During examination, you observe swelling of the tongue and mucous membranes of the oropharynx. The patient has a medical history of rheumatoid arthritis, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and heart failure. He was recently prescribed a new medication. What is the most probable medication responsible for this presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lisinopril
Explanation:Angioedema without urticaria caused by medication is most commonly associated with the use of angiotensin converting enzyme inhibitors, and less commonly with angiotensin II receptor blockers.
Angioedema is a known side effect of ACE inhibitor therapy, and while it can also occur with ARB therapy, it is much less frequent than with ACE inhibitors. Therefore, lisinopril is a more likely culprit than losartan.
ACE inhibitors work by blocking the ACE enzyme, which can lead to an accumulation of bradykinin and potentially result in angioedema.
While the other options listed can cause peripheral edema, they are not typically associated with angioedema specifically.
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. ACE inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and prevent ischaemic heart disease. These drugs work by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II and are metabolized in the liver.
While ACE inhibitors are generally well-tolerated, they can cause side effects such as cough, angioedema, hyperkalaemia, and first-dose hypotension. Patients with certain conditions, such as renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema, should use ACE inhibitors with caution or avoid them altogether. Pregnant and breastfeeding women should also avoid these drugs.
Patients taking high-dose diuretics may be at increased risk of hypotension when using ACE inhibitors. Therefore, it is important to monitor urea and electrolyte levels before and after starting treatment, as well as any changes in creatinine and potassium levels. Acceptable changes include a 30% increase in serum creatinine from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment when using ACE inhibitors.
The current NICE guidelines recommend using a flow chart to manage hypertension, with ACE inhibitors as the first-line treatment for patients under 55 years old. However, individual patient factors and comorbidities should be taken into account when deciding on the best treatment plan.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old female presents with a 6-month history of continuous left sided facial pain and frontotemporal headache. The pain is described as constantly present and throbbing, with exacerbations of worsened severity every 4 days. She reports exacerbations to typically be associated with injected left eye and left nasal congestion, with occasional teariness in her left eye.
There is no significant past medical history or drug history except for the use of oral contraceptive pills. Routine blood tests are unremarkable, and an MRI head organised by her GP showed no intracranial pathology. However, a trial of indomethacin organised by the physician is positive.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hemicrania continua
Explanation:The patient is experiencing a headache that is constant, but with worsened pain in the left ophthalmic distribution of the fifth cranial nerve, accompanied by autonomic symptoms. This is indicative of one of the trigeminal autonomic cephalgias (TACs), which are a group of disorders that are distinguished by the frequency and duration of attacks, as well as their response to indomethacin.
TACs include SUNCT, paroxysmal hemicrania, and cluster headaches, which are characterized by attacks lasting seconds, minutes to 30 minutes, and up to 180 minutes, respectively. Symptoms are absent between attacks. Cluster headaches are more common in men, while young women are more susceptible to paroxysmal hemicrania. Hemicrania continua causes constant pain with exacerbations in severity. It is important to note that only hemicrania continua and paroxysmal hemicrania respond to indomethacin, making it a valuable diagnostic and therapeutic prophylactic medication.
Trigeminal Autonomic Cephalalgias: Types and Symptoms
Trigeminal autonomic cephalalgias (TACs) are a group of headache disorders that are characterized by severe pain on one side of the head, accompanied by autonomic symptoms such as tearing, redness of the eye, and nasal congestion. There are several types of TACs, including cluster headache, paroxysmal hemicrania, hemicrania continua, short-lasting unilateral neuralgiform headache attacks with conjunctival injection and tearing (SUNCT syndrome), and short-lasting unilateral neuralgiform headache attacks with cranial autonomic symptoms (SUNA).
Cluster headache is the most common type of TAC, and it is characterized by severe, recurring pain on one side of the head, usually around the eye. Paroxysmal hemicrania is similar to cluster headache, but the pain is shorter in duration and occurs more frequently. Hemicrania continua is a continuous headache that is usually mild to moderate in intensity, but can become severe at times.
SUNCT syndrome and SUNA are both rare types of TACs that are characterized by short-lasting, severe pain on one side of the head, accompanied by autonomic symptoms such as tearing, redness of the eye, and nasal congestion. SUNCT syndrome is more common in men, while SUNA is more common in women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old left-handed woman presented to the hospital with sudden onset of right-sided weakness and difficulty speaking. She had no significant medical history. The patient was a college student studying psychology and had recently returned from a summer trip volunteering with Habitat for Humanity. She did not smoke and consumed approximately six units of alcohol per week.
During the examination, the patient had a regular pulse of 80 beats per minute and a blood pressure of 120/70 mmHg. The heart exam revealed a soft systolic murmur in the second left intercostal space and wide fixed splitting of the second heart sound. The lungs were clear on auscultation. Neurological examination showed expressive and receptive dysphasia, weakness of the right arm and leg with increased tone, and hyperreflexia on the right with an extensor right plantar response. The left lower leg appeared swollen and erythematous.
The following investigations were conducted: haemoglobin 140 g/L (130-180), white cell count 8.0 ×109/L (4-11), platelets 350 ×109/L (150-400), serum sodium 138 mmol/L (137-144), serum potassium 4.0 mmol/L (3.5-4.9), serum urea 5.0 mmol/L (2.5-7.5), serum creatinine 90 µmol/L (60-110), anti dsDNA negative, ANA negative, VDRL negative, lupus anticoagulant negative, protein C 95 U/dL (80-125), protein S 105 U/dL (80-120), antithrombin III 90 U/dL (80-120), and D-dimer 10 mg/L (<0.5). The ECG showed right ventricular hypertrophy, right bundle branch block, and partial right axis deviation. The chest x-ray revealed prominent pulmonary arteries and pulmonary plethora.
What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Paradoxical embolus
Explanation:Possible Diagnosis for Patient with Cerebral Infarction and Deep Vein Thrombosis
The patient is showing symptoms and signs of cerebral infarction, as well as clinical signs of a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) with a raised D-dimer indicating venous thrombosis. The patient recently returned from a long-haul flight, which may have contributed to the DVT. Clinical findings suggest the possibility of a co-existent pulmonary embolus, but also indicate a chronic cause for raised pulmonary pressures. The most likely explanation is that the patient has an atrial septal defect with a DVT and has suffered a paradoxical embolus. There are no clinical features of bacterial endocarditis or cerebral abscess.
Cavernous sinus thrombosis is a possible diagnosis, but it typically presents with seizures and a preceding history of headaches, nausea, and vomiting, along with papilloedema, proptosis, and cranial nerve signs. Subarachnoid hemorrhage may explain the neurological signs, but it does not account for the other features described above. The clinical findings of wide fixed splitting of the second heart sound and pulmonary flow murmur accompanied by right bundle branch block and right axis deviation suggest the possibility of a pulmonary embolus, but the presence of right ventricular hypertrophy and pulmonary plethora indicates a chronic cause for raised pulmonary pressures. Overall, the patient’s symptoms and signs point towards a possible diagnosis of an atrial septal defect with a DVT and paradoxical embolus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 30
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A 30-year-old woman has been diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia after extensive investigation. Despite no source of blood loss or malabsorption being found, she has been taking ferrous sulfate twice daily for three months with no improvement in her iron indices or hemoglobin levels. Additionally, she reports experiencing bloating, loose bowel movements, and nausea when taking the iron tablets, which has significantly impacted her quality of life. What should be the next step in her treatment plan?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Switch to intravenous iron supplementation
Explanation:Proper Use of Iron Supplementation
Iron supplementation is a common treatment for iron deficiency, but adverse events associated with oral iron administration can make compliance difficult. Therefore, persisting with oral iron supplementation despite adverse events is not recommended. Compliance can be verified by checking the color of the stool, which will be black in iron administration. In cases where oral iron is not tolerated or gastrointestinal disorders make it difficult to maintain acceptable iron levels, parenteral (IV) iron is the proper course of therapy. However, it is important to discuss the risks involved, including a small risk of hypersensitivity. IV iron is also indicated for patients who are unable to maintain acceptable iron levels during hemodialysis or who fail to comply with prescriptions for oral iron supplementation. By properly using iron supplementation, patients can effectively treat iron deficiency without experiencing unnecessary adverse events.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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