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  • Question 1 - A 26-year-old female presents to her physician complaining of tingling in her left...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old female presents to her physician complaining of tingling in her left arm and double vision for the past three days. She reports feeling fatigued for the past six months. She has no significant medical history and is not taking any medications. She smokes five cigarettes per day, drinks one bottle of wine per week, and works as a journalist.

      During the neurological examination, the physician observed reduced sensation in the patient's left upper limb. Additionally, the patient's right eye failed to adduct and her left eye demonstrated nystagmus on left lateral gaze. Based on these findings, where is the anatomical location of the lesion causing the eye signs on examination likely to be?

      Your Answer: Optic tract

      Correct Answer: Medial longitudinal fasciculus

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is the medial longitudinal fasciculus, which is a myelinated structure located in the brainstem responsible for conjugate eye movements. In this case, the patient’s symptoms and examination findings suggest a diagnosis of internuclear ophthalmoplegia, which is a disorder of conjugate lateral gaze caused by a lesion in the medial longitudinal fasciculus. This is often associated with multiple sclerosis. The affected eye fails to adduct when attempting to look contralaterally, and the contralateral eye demonstrates nystagmus. Mamillary bodies, neuromuscular junction, and optic nerve are not the likely causes of the patient’s symptoms.

      Understanding Internuclear Ophthalmoplegia

      Internuclear ophthalmoplegia is a condition that affects the horizontal movement of the eyes. It is caused by a lesion in the medial longitudinal fasciculus (MLF), which is responsible for interconnecting the IIIrd, IVth, and VIth cranial nuclei. This area is located in the paramedian region of the midbrain and pons. The main feature of this condition is impaired adduction of the eye on the same side as the lesion, along with horizontal nystagmus of the abducting eye on the opposite side.

      The most common causes of internuclear ophthalmoplegia are multiple sclerosis and vascular disease. It is important to note that this condition can also be a sign of other underlying neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 2 - A 23 years old male presents to the hospital with a complaint of...

    Incorrect

    • A 23 years old male presents to the hospital with a complaint of reduced ability to flex his left elbow. The doctor observes a significant weakness in the flexion of his left elbow and supination of his forearm. Additionally, the patient reports experiencing a tingling sensation on his left lateral forearm.

      Which nerve is most likely to be damaged in this case?

      Your Answer: Ulnar nerve

      Correct Answer: Musculocutaneous nerve

      Explanation:

      The musculocutaneous nerve originates from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus and provides innervation to the bicep brachii, brachialis, and coracobrachialis muscles in the upper arm. It then continues into the forearm as the lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm. Damage to this nerve can result in the aforementioned symptoms.

      The median nerve is responsible for innervating the anterior compartment of the forearm, but does not provide innervation to any muscles in the arm.

      The ulnar nerve provides innervation to the flexor carpi ulnaris and medial half of the flexor digitorum profundus muscles in the forearm, as well as the intrinsic muscles of the hand (excluding the thenar muscles and two lateral lumbricals). It is commonly injured due to a fracture of the medial epicondyle.

      The radial nerve innervates the tricep brachii and extensor muscles in the forearm, and provides sensory innervation to the majority of the posterior forearm and dorsal surface of the lateral three and a half digits. It is typically injured due to a midshaft humeral fracture.

      The Musculocutaneous Nerve: Function and Pathway

      The musculocutaneous nerve is a nerve branch that originates from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus. Its pathway involves penetrating the coracobrachialis muscle and passing obliquely between the biceps brachii and the brachialis to the lateral side of the arm. Above the elbow, it pierces the deep fascia lateral to the tendon of the biceps brachii and continues into the forearm as the lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm.

      The musculocutaneous nerve innervates the coracobrachialis, biceps brachii, and brachialis muscles. Injury to this nerve can cause weakness in flexion at the shoulder and elbow. Understanding the function and pathway of the musculocutaneous nerve is important in diagnosing and treating injuries or conditions that affect this nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 3 - A 44-year-old man visits the urology clinic with a complaint of erectile dysfunction....

    Incorrect

    • A 44-year-old man visits the urology clinic with a complaint of erectile dysfunction. What happens when there is an increase in parasympathetic stimulation in the penis?

      Your Answer: Vasospasm of the penile branches of the pudendal artery

      Correct Answer: Erection

      Explanation:

      To remember the process of erection, use the memory aid P for parasympathetic points, S for sympathetic shoots. This means that parasympathetic stimulation leads to an erection, while sympathetic stimulation causes ejaculation, detumescence, and vasospasm of the pudendal artery. Additionally, it causes the smooth muscle in the epididymis and vas to contract to convey the ejaculate.

      Understanding Penile Erection and Priapism

      Penile erection is a complex physiological process that involves the autonomic and somatic nervous systems. The sympathetic nerves, originating from T11-L2, and parasympathetic nerves, originating from S2-4, join to form the pelvic plexus. Parasympathetic discharge causes erection, while sympathetic discharge causes ejaculation and detumescence. Somatic nerves are supplied by dorsal penile and pudendal nerves, and efferent signals are relayed from Onufs nucleus (S2-4) to innervate ischiocavernosus and bulbocavernosus muscles. Autonomic discharge to the penis triggers the veno-occlusive mechanism, which leads to the flow of arterial blood into the penile sinusoidal spaces. During the detumescence phase, arteriolar constriction reduces arterial inflow and allows venous return to normalize.

      Priapism is a prolonged, unwanted erection lasting more than four hours in the absence of sexual desire. It is classified into low flow priapism, high flow priapism, and recurrent priapism. Low flow priapism is the most common type and is due to veno-occlusion, resulting in high intracavernosal pressures. It is often painful and requires emergency treatment if present for more than four hours. High flow priapism is due to unregulated arterial blood flow and usually presents as a semi-rigid, painless erection. Recurrent priapism is typically seen in sickle cell disease, most commonly of the high flow type. Causes of priapism include intracavernosal drug therapies, blood disorders such as leukemia and sickle cell disease, neurogenic disorders such as spinal cord transection, and trauma to the penis resulting in arterio-venous malformations. Management includes ice packs/cold showers, aspiration of blood from corpora or intracavernosal alpha adrenergic agonists for low flow priapism. Delayed therapy of low flow priapism may result in erectile dysfunction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 4 - As a 6th year medical student observing a neurosurgeon, I am witnessing the...

    Correct

    • As a 6th year medical student observing a neurosurgeon, I am witnessing the removal of a cerebellar astrocytoma in a 9-year-old girl. If the cancer were to spread to the occipital lobes, which structure would it have to breach?

      Your Answer: Tentorium cerebelli

      Explanation:

      The tentorium cerebelli, a fold of the dura mater, acts as a barrier between the cerebellum and brainstem and the occipital lobes. Therefore, for the boy’s cancer to reach the occipital lobes, it would need to breach this fold.

      The filum terminale is a strand of the pia mater that extends from the conus medullaris.

      The sellar diaphragm is a small dural fold that covers the pituitary gland.

      The falx cerebelli is a small dural fold that partially separates the cerebral hemispheres.

      The falx cerebri is a dural fold that separates the cerebral hemispheres.

      The Three Layers of Meninges

      The meninges are a group of membranes that cover the brain and spinal cord, providing support to the central nervous system and the blood vessels that supply it. These membranes can be divided into three distinct layers: the dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater.

      The outermost layer, the dura mater, is a thick fibrous double layer that is fused with the inner layer of the periosteum of the skull. It has four areas of infolding and is pierced by small areas of the underlying arachnoid to form structures called arachnoid granulations. The arachnoid mater forms a meshwork layer over the surface of the brain and spinal cord, containing both cerebrospinal fluid and vessels supplying the nervous system. The final layer, the pia mater, is a thin layer attached directly to the surface of the brain and spinal cord.

      The meninges play a crucial role in protecting the brain and spinal cord from injury and disease. However, they can also be the site of serious medical conditions such as subdural and subarachnoid haemorrhages. Understanding the structure and function of the meninges is essential for diagnosing and treating these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 5 - A 79-year-old man presents with chronic feeding difficulties. He had a stroke 3...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old man presents with chronic feeding difficulties. He had a stroke 3 years ago, and a neurology report indicates that the ischaemia affected his right mid-pontine region. Upon examination, you observe atrophy of the right temporalis and masseter muscles. He is able to swallow water without any signs of aspiration. Which cranial nerve is most likely affected by this stroke?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: CN V

      Explanation:

      When a patient complains of difficulty with eating, it is crucial to determine whether the issue is related to a problem with swallowing or with the muscles used for chewing.

      The correct answer is CN V. This nerve, also known as the trigeminal nerve, controls the muscles involved in chewing. Damage to this nerve, which can occur due to various reasons including stroke, can result in weakness or paralysis of these muscles on the same side of the face. In this case, the patient’s stroke occurred two years ago, and he likely has some wasting of the mastication muscles due to disuse atrophy. As a result, he may have difficulty chewing food, but his ability to swallow is likely unaffected.

      The other options are incorrect. CN IV, also known as the trochlear nerve, controls a muscle involved in eye movement and is not involved in eating. CN VII, or the facial nerve, controls facial movements but not the muscles of mastication. Damage to this nerve can result in facial weakness, but it would not affect the ability to chew. CN X, or the vagus nerve, is important for swallowing, but the stem indicates that the patient’s swallow is functional, making it less likely that this nerve is involved in his eating difficulties.

      Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.

      In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 6 - A 28-year-old patient arrives at the emergency department with a fever, neck stiffness,...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old patient arrives at the emergency department with a fever, neck stiffness, photophobia, and a non-blanching rash. Despite being vaccinated, they are experiencing these symptoms. During a lumbar puncture, the fluid obtained is turbid, with low glucose and an elevated opening pressure. What is the probable causative organism responsible for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae

      Explanation:

      The most common cause of meningitis in adults is Streptococcus pneumoniae, which is also the likely pathogen in this patient’s case. His symptoms and lumbar puncture results suggest bacterial meningitis, with turbid fluid, raised opening pressure, and low glucose. While Escherichia coli is a common cause of meningitis in infants under 3 months, it is less likely in a 29-year-old. Haemophilus influenzae B is also an unlikely cause in this patient, who is up-to-date with their vaccinations and beyond the age range for this pathogen. Staphylococcus pneumoniae is a rare but serious cause of pneumonia, but not as likely as Streptococcus pneumoniae to be the cause of this patient’s symptoms.

      Aetiology of Meningitis in Adults

      Meningitis is a condition that can be caused by various infectious agents such as bacteria, viruses, and fungi. However, this article will focus on bacterial meningitis. The most common bacteria that cause meningitis in adults is Streptococcus pneumoniae, which can develop after an episode of otitis media. Another bacterium that can cause meningitis is Neisseria meningitidis. Listeria monocytogenes is more common in immunocompromised patients and the elderly. Lastly, Haemophilus influenzae type b is also a known cause of meningitis in adults. It is important to identify the causative agent of meningitis to provide appropriate treatment and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 7 - Which one of the following structures is not transmitted by the jugular foramen?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following structures is not transmitted by the jugular foramen?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypoglossal nerve

      Explanation:

      The jugular foramen contains three compartments. The anterior compartment transmits the inferior petrosal sinus, the middle compartment transmits cranial nerves IX, X, and XI, and the posterior compartment transmits the sigmoid sinus and some meningeal branches from the occipital and ascending pharyngeal arteries.

      Foramina of the Base of the Skull

      The base of the skull contains several openings called foramina, which allow for the passage of nerves, blood vessels, and other structures. The foramen ovale, located in the sphenoid bone, contains the mandibular nerve, otic ganglion, accessory meningeal artery, and emissary veins. The foramen spinosum, also in the sphenoid bone, contains the middle meningeal artery and meningeal branch of the mandibular nerve. The foramen rotundum, also in the sphenoid bone, contains the maxillary nerve.

      The foramen lacerum, located in the sphenoid bone, is initially occluded by a cartilaginous plug and contains the internal carotid artery, nerve and artery of the pterygoid canal, and the base of the medial pterygoid plate. The jugular foramen, located in the temporal bone, contains the inferior petrosal sinus, glossopharyngeal, vagus, and accessory nerves, sigmoid sinus, and meningeal branches from the occipital and ascending pharyngeal arteries.

      The foramen magnum, located in the occipital bone, contains the anterior and posterior spinal arteries, vertebral arteries, and medulla oblongata. The stylomastoid foramen, located in the temporal bone, contains the stylomastoid artery and facial nerve. Finally, the superior orbital fissure, located in the sphenoid bone, contains the oculomotor nerve, recurrent meningeal artery, trochlear nerve, lacrimal, frontal, and nasociliary branches of the ophthalmic nerve, and abducent nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 8 - A 47-year-old woman is in recovery after a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. Regrettably, she experiences...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman is in recovery after a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy. Regrettably, she experiences a postoperative hemorrhage. What is the most probable initial symptom that will occur?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Bitemporal hemianopia

      Explanation:

      An expanding haematoma at the site of the pituitary, which is surrounded by a dura sheath, can compress the optic chiasm similar to how a growing pituitary tumour would.

      The pituitary gland is a small gland located within the sella turcica in the sphenoid bone of the middle cranial fossa. It weighs approximately 0.5g and is covered by a dural fold. The gland is attached to the hypothalamus by the infundibulum and receives hormonal stimuli from the hypothalamus through the hypothalamo-pituitary portal system. The anterior pituitary, which develops from a depression in the wall of the pharynx known as Rathkes pouch, secretes hormones such as ACTH, TSH, FSH, LH, GH, and prolactin. GH and prolactin are secreted by acidophilic cells, while ACTH, TSH, FSH, and LH are secreted by basophilic cells. On the other hand, the posterior pituitary, which is derived from neuroectoderm, secretes ADH and oxytocin. Both hormones are produced in the hypothalamus before being transported by the hypothalamo-hypophyseal portal system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 9 - A 68-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a sudden onset headache...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a sudden onset headache that he describes as the worst he has ever experienced. He has a history of a coiled brain aneurysm four years ago. There are no changes in his mental status, vision, or movement. A CT scan reveals a subarachnoid hemorrhage. What tissue will be immediately deep to the blood in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pia mater

      Explanation:

      The pia mater is the innermost layer of the meninges, which is directly adhered to the surface of the brain and connected to the arachnoid mater by trabeculae. It lies immediately deep to the blood in a subarachnoid haemorrhage.

      The arachnoid mater is the middle layer of the meninges, which is superficial to the subarachnoid space and deep to blood following a subdural haemorrhage or haematoma but not following a subarachnoid haemorrhage.

      The dura mater is the outermost layer of the meninges, which is formed from two layers – the inner, meningeal, layer and the outer, endosteal, layer. It is a thick fibrous layer that protects the brain from trauma and is superficial to the subarachnoid space.

      The cerebrum is the largest portion of the brain tissue, comprised of four main lobes. It is deep to the subarachnoid space, but it is not the tissue immediately deep to it.

      The corpus callosum is a band of nerve fibres that connects the two hemispheres of the brain. It is not immediately deep to the subarachnoid space, but it may be compressed and shifted away from its normal position following a subarachnoid haemorrhage, which can be seen on imaging.

      The Three Layers of Meninges

      The meninges are a group of membranes that cover the brain and spinal cord, providing support to the central nervous system and the blood vessels that supply it. These membranes can be divided into three distinct layers: the dura mater, arachnoid mater, and pia mater.

      The outermost layer, the dura mater, is a thick fibrous double layer that is fused with the inner layer of the periosteum of the skull. It has four areas of infolding and is pierced by small areas of the underlying arachnoid to form structures called arachnoid granulations. The arachnoid mater forms a meshwork layer over the surface of the brain and spinal cord, containing both cerebrospinal fluid and vessels supplying the nervous system. The final layer, the pia mater, is a thin layer attached directly to the surface of the brain and spinal cord.

      The meninges play a crucial role in protecting the brain and spinal cord from injury and disease. However, they can also be the site of serious medical conditions such as subdural and subarachnoid haemorrhages. Understanding the structure and function of the meninges is essential for diagnosing and treating these conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 10 - Which one of the following is not a characteristic of typical cerebrospinal fluid?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is not a characteristic of typical cerebrospinal fluid?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It may normally contain up to 5 red blood cells per mm3.

      Explanation:

      It must not include red blood cells.

      Cerebrospinal Fluid: Circulation and Composition

      Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is a clear, colorless liquid that fills the space between the arachnoid mater and pia mater, covering the surface of the brain. The total volume of CSF in the brain is approximately 150ml, and it is produced by the ependymal cells in the choroid plexus or blood vessels. The majority of CSF is produced by the choroid plexus, accounting for 70% of the total volume. The remaining 30% is produced by blood vessels. The CSF is reabsorbed via the arachnoid granulations, which project into the venous sinuses.

      The circulation of CSF starts from the lateral ventricles, which are connected to the third ventricle via the foramen of Munro. From the third ventricle, the CSF flows through the cerebral aqueduct (aqueduct of Sylvius) to reach the fourth ventricle via the foramina of Magendie and Luschka. The CSF then enters the subarachnoid space, where it circulates around the brain and spinal cord. Finally, the CSF is reabsorbed into the venous system via arachnoid granulations into the superior sagittal sinus.

      The composition of CSF is essential for its proper functioning. The glucose level in CSF is between 50-80 mg/dl, while the protein level is between 15-40 mg/dl. Red blood cells are not present in CSF, and the white blood cell count is usually less than 3 cells/mm3. Understanding the circulation and composition of CSF is crucial for diagnosing and treating various neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 11 - Following the discovery of a pituitary tumour in a 32-year-old woman who presented...

    Incorrect

    • Following the discovery of a pituitary tumour in a 32-year-old woman who presented with amenorrhoea, a brain MRI is conducted to fully evaluate the tumour before surgical removal. The results reveal that the tumour is starting to compress the lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus.

      What kind of symptom would arise from this compression?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Visual impairment

      Explanation:

      Visual impairment can occur as a result of damage to the lateral geniculate nucleus (LGN), which is a part of the thalamus involved in the visual pathway. The LGN receives information from the retina and sends it to the cortex via optic radiations. Although rare, the LGN can be damaged by compression from pituitary tumors or lesions affecting the choroidal arteries. However, damage to the LGN or other parts of the thalamus will not cause auditory impairment, aphasia, or reduced facial sensation. These conditions are typically caused by damage to other regions of the brain.

      The Thalamus: Relay Station for Motor and Sensory Signals

      The thalamus is a structure located between the midbrain and cerebral cortex that serves as a relay station for motor and sensory signals. Its main function is to transmit these signals to the cerebral cortex, which is responsible for processing and interpreting them. The thalamus is composed of different nuclei, each with a specific function. The lateral geniculate nucleus relays visual signals, while the medial geniculate nucleus transmits auditory signals. The medial portion of the ventral posterior nucleus (VML) is responsible for facial sensation, while the ventral anterior/lateral nuclei relay motor signals. Finally, the lateral portion of the ventral posterior nucleus is responsible for body sensation, including touch, pain, proprioception, pressure, and vibration. Overall, the thalamus plays a crucial role in the transmission of sensory and motor information to the brain, allowing us to perceive and interact with the world around us.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 12 - A 22-year-old woman presented to the hospital with a sudden onset headache. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old woman presented to the hospital with a sudden onset headache. She reports no history of trauma prior to the headache. The pain began at the back of her head while she was watching TV and quickly reached its peak intensity within 2 seconds, rated at 10/10. She has never experienced a headache before.

      The patient also reported photophobia and neck stiffness after the headache. Neurological examination did not reveal any focal deficits, and her Glasgow Coma Scale score was 15/15.

      What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Subarachnoid haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      If you experience a sudden headache in the occipital region, it could be a sign of subarachnoid haemorrhage. This is especially true if you also develop sensitivity to light and stiffness in the neck. To investigate this possibility, a CT scan of the head may be ordered. If the results are inconclusive, a lumbar puncture with xanthochromia screen may be performed.

      In contrast, intracerebral haemorrhage typically causes focal neurological deficits or a decrease in consciousness. It is often associated with risk factors such as hypertension and diabetes.

      Extradural haemorrhage, on the other hand, usually occurs after head trauma, particularly to the temporal regions. It is caused by injury to the middle meningeal artery and can cause a lucid patient to lose consciousness gradually over several hours. As intracranial pressure increases, patients may also experience focal neurological deficits and cranial nerve palsies.

      There are different types of traumatic brain injury, including focal (contusion/haematoma) or diffuse (diffuse axonal injury). Diffuse axonal injury occurs due to mechanical shearing following deceleration, causing disruption and tearing of axons. Intracranial haematomas can be extradural, subdural or intracerebral, while contusions may occur adjacent to (coup) or contralateral (contre-coup) to the side of impact. Secondary brain injury occurs when cerebral oedema, ischaemia, infection, tonsillar or tentorial herniation exacerbates the original injury.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 13 - A 19-year-old man is trimming some bushes when a tiny piece of foliage...

    Incorrect

    • A 19-year-old man is trimming some bushes when a tiny piece of foliage gets into his eye, causing it to water. Which component is accountable for transmitting parasympathetic nerve signals to the lacrimal apparatus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pterygopalatine ganglion

      Explanation:

      The pterygopalatine ganglion serves as a pathway for the parasympathetic fibers that reach the lacrimal apparatus.

      The Lacrimation Reflex

      The lacrimation reflex is a response to conjunctival irritation or emotional events. When the conjunctiva is irritated, it sends signals via the ophthalmic nerve to the superior salivary center. From there, efferent signals pass via the greater petrosal nerve (parasympathetic preganglionic fibers) and the deep petrosal nerve (postganglionic sympathetic fibers) to the lacrimal apparatus. The parasympathetic fibers relay in the pterygopalatine ganglion, while the sympathetic fibers do not synapse.

      This reflex is important for maintaining the health of the eye by keeping it moist and protecting it from foreign particles. It is also responsible for the tears that are shed during emotional events, such as crying. The lacrimal gland, which produces tears, is innervated by the secretomotor parasympathetic fibers from the pterygopalatine ganglion. The nasolacrimal duct, which carries tears from the eye to the nose, opens anteriorly in the inferior meatus of the nose. Overall, the lacrimal system plays a crucial role in maintaining the health and function of the eye.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 14 - You are requested to assess a patient on the acute medical ward as...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to assess a patient on the acute medical ward as they seem to be experiencing jerking movements. There is no prior history of a movement disorder, and the patient is not taking any medication. The patient has recently fallen asleep and can be awakened easily. Could these be hypnagogic jerks?

      At what stage of sleep is it most probable that this patient is in?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Non-REM stage 1

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sleep Stages: The Sleep Doctor’s Brain

      Sleep is a complex process that involves different stages, each with its own unique characteristics. The Sleep Doctor’s Brain provides a simplified explanation of the four main sleep stages: N1, N2, N3, and REM.

      N1 is the lightest stage of sleep, characterized by theta waves and often associated with hypnic jerks. N2 is a deeper stage of sleep, marked by sleep spindles and K-complexes. This stage represents around 50% of total sleep. N3 is the deepest stage of sleep, characterized by delta waves. Parasomnias such as night terrors, nocturnal enuresis, and sleepwalking can occur during this stage.

      REM, or rapid eye movement, is the stage where dreaming occurs. It is characterized by beta-waves and a loss of muscle tone, including erections. The sleep cycle typically follows a pattern of N1 → N2 → N3 → REM, with each stage lasting for different durations throughout the night.

      Understanding the different sleep stages is important for maintaining healthy sleep habits and identifying potential sleep disorders. By monitoring brain activity during sleep, the Sleep Doctor’s Brain can provide valuable insights into the complex process of sleep.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 15 - A patient has been diagnosed with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). This condition leads...

    Incorrect

    • A patient has been diagnosed with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). This condition leads to the selective degeneration of motor neurons, leading to progressive muscle weakness and spasticity.

      Understanding the development of motor neurons (MN) is crucial in the hope of using embryonic stem cells to cure ALS. What is true about the process of MN development?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Motor neurons develop from the basal plates

      Explanation:

      The development of sensory and motor neurons is determined by the alar and basal plates, respectively.

      Transcription factor expression in motor neurons is regulated by SHH signalling, which plays a crucial role in their development.

      Hox genes are essential for the proper positioning of motor neurons along the cranio-caudal axis.

      Motor neurons originate from the basal plates.

      Interestingly, retinoic acid appears to facilitate the differentiation of motor neurons.

      It is not possible for motor neurons to develop during week 4 of development, as the neural tube is still in the process of closing.

      Embryonic Development of the Nervous System

      The nervous system develops from the embryonic neural tube, which gives rise to the brain and spinal cord. The neural tube is divided into five regions, each of which gives rise to specific structures in the nervous system. The telencephalon gives rise to the cerebral cortex, lateral ventricles, and basal ganglia. The diencephalon gives rise to the thalamus, hypothalamus, optic nerves, and third ventricle. The mesencephalon gives rise to the midbrain and cerebral aqueduct. The metencephalon gives rise to the pons, cerebellum, and superior part of the fourth ventricle. The myelencephalon gives rise to the medulla and inferior part of the fourth ventricle.

      The neural tube is also divided into two plates: the alar plate and the basal plate. The alar plate gives rise to sensory neurons, while the basal plate gives rise to motor neurons. This division of the neural tube into different regions and plates is crucial for the proper development and function of the nervous system. Understanding the embryonic development of the nervous system is important for understanding the origins of neurological disorders and for developing new treatments for these disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 16 - A 25-year-old male presents for a follow-up appointment. He sustained a crush injury...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male presents for a follow-up appointment. He sustained a crush injury to his arm at work six weeks ago and was diagnosed with axonotmesis. The patient is eager to return to work and asks when he can expect the numbness in his arm to go away.

      What guidance should you provide to the patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: This type of injury usually recovers fully but can take up to a year

      Explanation:

      When a nerve is crushed, it can result in axonotmesis, which is a type of injury where both the axon and myelin sheath are damaged, but the nerve remains intact. Fortunately, axonotmesis injuries usually heal completely, although the process can be slow. The amount of time it takes for the nerve to heal depends on the severity and location of the injury, but typically, axons regenerate at a rate of 1mm per day and can take anywhere from three months to a year to fully recover. It’s not uncommon to experience residual numbness up to four weeks after the injury, but there’s usually no need for further testing at this point. While amitriptyline can help with pain relief, it doesn’t speed up the healing process. In contrast, neurotmesis injuries are more severe and can result in permanent nerve damage. However, in most cases of axonotmesis, full recovery is possible with time. Neuropraxia is a less severe type of nerve injury where the axon is not damaged, and healing typically occurs within six to eight weeks.

      Nerve injuries can be classified into three types: neuropraxia, axonotmesis, and neurotmesis. Neuropraxia occurs when the nerve is intact but its electrical conduction is affected. However, full recovery is possible, and autonomic function is preserved. Wallerian degeneration, which is the degeneration of axons distal to the site of injury, does not occur. Axonotmesis, on the other hand, happens when the axon is damaged, but the myelin sheath is preserved, and the connective tissue framework is not affected. Wallerian degeneration occurs in this type of injury. Lastly, neurotmesis is the most severe type of nerve injury, where there is a disruption of the axon, myelin sheath, and surrounding connective tissue. Wallerian degeneration also occurs in this type of injury.

      Wallerian degeneration typically begins 24-36 hours following the injury. Axons are excitable before degeneration occurs, and the myelin sheath degenerates and is phagocytosed by tissue macrophages. Neuronal repair may only occur physiologically where nerves are in direct contact. However, nerve regeneration may be hampered when a large defect is present, and it may not occur at all or result in the formation of a neuroma. If nerve regrowth occurs, it typically happens at a rate of 1mm per day.

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  • Question 17 - A 45-year-old patient presents with muscle weakness in the proximal lower limbs. Following...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old patient presents with muscle weakness in the proximal lower limbs. Following antibody tests, the diagnosis of Lambert-Eaton syndrome is confirmed. Which receptors are targeted by the autoimmune antibodies in this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Voltage-gated calcium channels

      Explanation:

      The antibodies involved in Lambert-Eaton syndrome attack the voltage-gated calcium channels. This autoimmune disorder is characterized by muscle weakness, but a unique aspect is that muscle strength improves with repeated contractions, unlike in myasthenia gravis.

      Understanding Lambert-Eaton Syndrome

      Lambert-Eaton syndrome is a rare neuromuscular disorder that is often associated with small cell lung cancer, breast cancer, and ovarian cancer. It can also occur independently as an autoimmune disorder. The condition is caused by an antibody that attacks the presynaptic voltage-gated calcium channel in the peripheral nervous system.

      The symptoms of Lambert-Eaton syndrome include limb-girdle weakness, hyporeflexia, and autonomic symptoms such as dry mouth, impotence, and difficulty micturating. Unlike myasthenia gravis, ophthalmoplegia and ptosis are not commonly seen in this condition. Muscle strength may increase with repeated contractions, but this is only seen in 50% of patients and eventually decreases with prolonged muscle use.

      An incremental response to repetitive electrical stimulation is seen on electromyography (EMG). Treatment of the underlying cancer is important, and immunosuppression with prednisolone and/or azathioprine may be beneficial. 3,4-diaminopyridine is currently being trialled as a treatment option. Intravenous immunoglobulin therapy and plasma exchange may also be helpful in managing the symptoms of Lambert-Eaton syndrome.

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  • Question 18 - As you help the FY1 draft discharge summaries for the care of the...

    Incorrect

    • As you help the FY1 draft discharge summaries for the care of the elderly ward, you come across a patient who is reported to have profound apraxia. This individual is 89 years old and has significant dementia. Can you explain what apraxia is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inability to perform voluntary movements

      Explanation:

      Apraxia refers to the incapacity to execute deliberate movements even when the motor and sensory systems are functioning properly. This condition impacts activities like dressing, eating, artistic endeavors (such as drawing), and ideomotor actions (like waving goodbye).

      Brain lesions can be localized based on the neurological disorders or features that are present. The gross anatomy of the brain can provide clues to the location of the lesion. For example, lesions in the parietal lobe can result in sensory inattention, apraxias, astereognosis, inferior homonymous quadrantanopia, and Gerstmann’s syndrome. Lesions in the occipital lobe can cause homonymous hemianopia, cortical blindness, and visual agnosia. Temporal lobe lesions can result in Wernicke’s aphasia, superior homonymous quadrantanopia, auditory agnosia, and prosopagnosia. Lesions in the frontal lobes can cause expressive aphasia, disinhibition, perseveration, anosmia, and an inability to generate a list. Lesions in the cerebellum can result in gait and truncal ataxia, intention tremor, past pointing, dysdiadokinesis, and nystagmus.

      In addition to the gross anatomy, specific areas of the brain can also provide clues to the location of a lesion. For example, lesions in the medial thalamus and mammillary bodies of the hypothalamus can result in Wernicke and Korsakoff syndrome. Lesions in the subthalamic nucleus of the basal ganglia can cause hemiballism, while lesions in the striatum (caudate nucleus) can result in Huntington chorea. Parkinson’s disease is associated with lesions in the substantia nigra of the basal ganglia, while lesions in the amygdala can cause Kluver-Bucy syndrome, which is characterized by hypersexuality, hyperorality, hyperphagia, and visual agnosia. By identifying these specific conditions, doctors can better localize brain lesions and provide appropriate treatment.

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  • Question 19 - A 35-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with a sudden onset headache...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old patient presents to the emergency department with a sudden onset headache rated at 10/10 in severity, which he describes as the worst headache he has ever had. During the examination, the doctor observes photophobia and a decreasing level of consciousness in the patient.

      What potential underlying risk factor could have contributed to this occurrence?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ehlers-Danlos syndrome

      Explanation:

      Subarachnoid haemorrhage is a potential complication for individuals with Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, a group of connective tissue disorders characterized by joint hypermobility, hyper-extensive skin, and easy bruising. It should be noted that acute kidney injury is not a risk factor, but adult polycystic kidney disease may increase the likelihood of subarachnoid haemorrhage.

      Understanding Subarachnoid Haemorrhage

      Subarachnoid haemorrhage (SAH) is a type of intracranial haemorrhage where blood is present in the subarachnoid space, which is located deep to the subarachnoid layer of the meninges. Spontaneous SAH is caused by various factors such as intracranial aneurysm, arteriovenous malformation, pituitary apoplexy, arterial dissection, mycotic aneurysms, and perimesencephalic. The most common symptom of SAH is a sudden-onset headache, which is severe and occipital. Other symptoms include nausea, vomiting, meningism, coma, seizures, and sudden death. SAH can be confirmed through a CT head scan or lumbar puncture. Treatment for SAH depends on the underlying cause, and most intracranial aneurysms are treated with a coil by interventional neuroradiologists. Complications of aneurysmal SAH include re-bleeding, vasospasm, hyponatraemia, seizures, hydrocephalus, and death. Predictive factors for SAH include conscious level on admission, age, and the amount of blood visible on CT head.

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  • Question 20 - A patient who suffered from head trauma at a young age has difficulty...

    Incorrect

    • A patient who suffered from head trauma at a young age has difficulty with eating and occasionally chokes on her food. The doctor explains that this may be due to the trauma affecting her reflexes.

      Which cranial nerve is responsible for transmitting the afferent signal for this reflex?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glossopharyngeal

      Explanation:

      The loss of the gag reflex is due to a problem with the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX), which is responsible for providing sensation to the pharynx and initiating the reflex. This reflex is important for preventing choking when eating large food substances or eating too quickly.

      The facial nerve (CN VII) is not responsible for the gag reflex, but rather for motor innervation of facial expression muscles and some salivary glands. It is involved in the corneal reflex, which closes the eyelids when blinking.

      The hypoglossal nerve (CN XII) is responsible for motor innervation of the tongue, which is important for eating, but it does not provide afferent signals for reflexes.

      The ophthalmic nerve (CN V1) is not involved in the gag reflex, but it is responsible for providing sensation to the eye and is involved in the corneal reflex.

      The vagus nerve (CN X) is involved in the gag reflex, but it is responsible for the efferent response, innervating the muscles of the pharynx, rather than the afferent sensation that initiates the reflex.

      Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.

      In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.

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  • Question 21 - A 45-year-old woman presents with unsteadiness on her feet. She reports leaning to...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old woman presents with unsteadiness on her feet. She reports leaning to her right and has sustained scrapes on her right arm from falling on this side. During her walk to the examination room, she displays a broad-based ataxic gait, with a tendency to lean to the right.

      Upon neurological examination, she exhibits an intention tremor and dysdiadochokinesia of her right hand. Her right lower limb is positive for the heel-shin test. Additionally, there is a gaze-evoked nystagmus of the right eye.

      What is the likely location of the brain lesion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right cerebellum

      Explanation:

      Unilateral damage to the cerebellum results in symptoms that are on the same side as the lesion. In this case, if the right cerebellum is damaged, the individual may experience dysdiadochokinesia, ataxia, nystagmus, intention tremor, scanning dysarthria, and a positive heel-shin test. Damage to the left cerebellum would not cause symptoms on the right side. Damage to the left temporal lobe may result in changes in behavior and emotions, forgetfulness, disruptions in the sense of smell, taste, and hearing, and language and speech disorders. Damage to the right parietal lobe may cause alexia, agraphia, acalculia, left-sided hemi-spatial neglect, homonymous inferior quadrantanopia, loss of sensations like touch, apraxias, or astereognosis.

      Cerebellar syndrome is a condition that affects the cerebellum, a part of the brain responsible for coordinating movement and balance. When there is damage or injury to one side of the cerebellum, it can cause symptoms on the same side of the body. These symptoms can be remembered using the mnemonic DANISH, which stands for Dysdiadochokinesia, Dysmetria, Ataxia, Nystagmus, Intention tremour, Slurred staccato speech, and Hypotonia.

      There are several possible causes of cerebellar syndrome, including genetic conditions like Friedreich’s ataxia and ataxic telangiectasia, neoplastic growths like cerebellar haemangioma, strokes, alcohol use, multiple sclerosis, hypothyroidism, and certain medications or toxins like phenytoin or lead poisoning. In some cases, cerebellar syndrome may be a paraneoplastic condition, meaning it is a secondary effect of an underlying cancer like lung cancer. It is important to identify the underlying cause of cerebellar syndrome in order to provide appropriate treatment and management.

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  • Question 22 - A 82-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with complaints of severe flank...

    Incorrect

    • A 82-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with complaints of severe flank pain that extends to his groin. He reports experiencing bone pain for a few weeks and feeling down for the past month. His blood work reveals hypercalcemia.

      In response to his hypercalcemia, where would you anticipate increased activity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: C cells of the thyroid

      Explanation:

      The thyroid’s C cells secrete calcitonin, which plays a role in calcium homeostasis alongside PTH and vitamin D.

      If hypercalcaemia occurs, PTH and vitamin D levels decrease, and calcitonin is secreted by the thyroid’s C cells. This leads to a decrease in parathyroid activity.

      The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system regulates the release of aldosterone from the zona glomerulosa.

      Insulin secretion from the pancreas’ beta cells is not affected by calcium levels.

      Maintaining Calcium Balance in the Body

      Calcium ions are essential for various physiological processes in the body, and the largest store of calcium is found in the skeleton. The levels of calcium in the body are regulated by three hormones: parathyroid hormone (PTH), vitamin D, and calcitonin.

      PTH increases calcium levels and decreases phosphate levels by increasing bone resorption and activating osteoclasts. It also stimulates osteoblasts to produce a protein signaling molecule that activates osteoclasts, leading to bone resorption. PTH increases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium and the synthesis of 1,25(OH)2D (active form of vitamin D) in the kidney, which increases bowel absorption of calcium. Additionally, PTH decreases renal phosphate reabsorption.

      Vitamin D, specifically the active form 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol, increases plasma calcium and plasma phosphate levels. It increases renal tubular reabsorption and gut absorption of calcium, as well as osteoclastic activity. Vitamin D also increases renal phosphate reabsorption in the proximal tubule.

      Calcitonin, secreted by C cells of the thyroid, inhibits osteoclast activity and renal tubular absorption of calcium.

      Although growth hormone and thyroxine play a small role in calcium metabolism, the primary regulation of calcium levels in the body is through PTH, vitamin D, and calcitonin. Maintaining proper calcium balance is crucial for overall health and well-being.

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  • Question 23 - A 55-year-old male arrives at the emergency department complaining of a painful red...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old male arrives at the emergency department complaining of a painful red eye. He has vomited once since the onset of pain and reports seeing haloes around lights.

      What is the mechanism of action of pilocarpine?

      Immediate management involves administering latanoprost and pilocarpine, and an urgent referral to ophthalmology is necessary.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Muscarinic receptor agonist

      Explanation:

      Pilocarpine stimulates muscarinic receptors, leading to constriction of the pupil and increased uveoscleral outflow. However, muscarinic receptor antagonists like atropine and hyoscine are not used in treating glaucoma. Nicotine and acetylcholine are examples of nicotinic receptor agonists, while succinylcholine, atracurium, vecuronium, and bupropion are nicotinic receptor antagonists.

      Acute angle closure glaucoma (AACG) is a type of glaucoma where there is a rise in intraocular pressure (IOP) due to a blockage in the outflow of aqueous humor. This condition is more likely to occur in individuals with hypermetropia, pupillary dilation, and lens growth associated with aging. Symptoms of AACG include severe pain, decreased visual acuity, a hard and red eye, haloes around lights, and a semi-dilated non-reacting pupil. AACG is an emergency and requires urgent referral to an ophthalmologist. The initial medical treatment involves a combination of eye drops, such as a direct parasympathomimetic, a beta-blocker, and an alpha-2 agonist, as well as intravenous acetazolamide to reduce aqueous secretions. Definitive management involves laser peripheral iridotomy, which creates a tiny hole in the peripheral iris to allow aqueous humor to flow to the angle.

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  • Question 24 - A 56-year-old woman undergoes a serum calcium test. If her renal function is...

    Incorrect

    • A 56-year-old woman undergoes a serum calcium test. If her renal function is normal, what percentage of calcium filtered by the glomerulus will be reabsorbed by the renal tubules?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 95%

      Explanation:

      Maintaining Calcium Balance in the Body

      Calcium ions are essential for various physiological processes in the body, and the largest store of calcium is found in the skeleton. The levels of calcium in the body are regulated by three hormones: parathyroid hormone (PTH), vitamin D, and calcitonin.

      PTH increases calcium levels and decreases phosphate levels by increasing bone resorption and activating osteoclasts. It also stimulates osteoblasts to produce a protein signaling molecule that activates osteoclasts, leading to bone resorption. PTH increases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium and the synthesis of 1,25(OH)2D (active form of vitamin D) in the kidney, which increases bowel absorption of calcium. Additionally, PTH decreases renal phosphate reabsorption.

      Vitamin D, specifically the active form 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol, increases plasma calcium and plasma phosphate levels. It increases renal tubular reabsorption and gut absorption of calcium, as well as osteoclastic activity. Vitamin D also increases renal phosphate reabsorption in the proximal tubule.

      Calcitonin, secreted by C cells of the thyroid, inhibits osteoclast activity and renal tubular absorption of calcium.

      Although growth hormone and thyroxine play a small role in calcium metabolism, the primary regulation of calcium levels in the body is through PTH, vitamin D, and calcitonin. Maintaining proper calcium balance is crucial for overall health and well-being.

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  • Question 25 - A 62-year-old male comes to the neurology clinic accompanied by his wife. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old male comes to the neurology clinic accompanied by his wife. She reports that her husband's speech has been altered for the past six months. During your conversation with him, you observe that his speech is slurred. Upon examination, you notice that he has nystagmus and an intention tremor. Additionally, he is diagnosed with dysdiadochokinesia.

      What is the most probable cause of these symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Alcohol

      Explanation:

      Cerebellar syndrome can be caused by alcohol, as evidenced by the patient’s presentation. However, hyperthyroidism is not a contributing factor, while hypothyroidism is. Huntington’s disease is characterized by saccadic eye movements and chorea, but it is not associated with cerebellar syndrome. Wernicke’s encephalopathy, which is typically seen in alcoholics due to thiamine deficiency, presents with ophthalmoplegia/nystagmus, ataxia, and confusion, but it is not a direct cause of cerebellar syndrome.

      Cerebellar syndrome is a condition that affects the cerebellum, a part of the brain responsible for coordinating movement and balance. When there is damage or injury to one side of the cerebellum, it can cause symptoms on the same side of the body. These symptoms can be remembered using the mnemonic DANISH, which stands for Dysdiadochokinesia, Dysmetria, Ataxia, Nystagmus, Intention tremor, Slurred staccato speech, and Hypotonia.

      There are several possible causes of cerebellar syndrome, including genetic conditions like Friedreich’s ataxia and ataxia telangiectasia, neoplastic growths like cerebellar haemangioma, strokes, alcohol use, multiple sclerosis, hypothyroidism, and certain medications or toxins like phenytoin or lead poisoning. In some cases, cerebellar syndrome may be a paraneoplastic condition, meaning it is a secondary effect of an underlying cancer like lung cancer. It is important to identify the underlying cause of cerebellar syndrome in order to provide appropriate treatment and management.

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  • Question 26 - A 15-year-old boy comes to see his GP accompanied by his mother who...

    Incorrect

    • A 15-year-old boy comes to see his GP accompanied by his mother who is worried about his facial expressions. The boy has been experiencing difficulty using the muscles in his face for the past month. He also reports weakness in his arms, but no pain.

      During the examination, the GP observes that the boy's facial muscles are weak, he struggles to puff out his cheeks, and has difficulty raising his arms in the classroom. Additionally, the boy has abnormally large gastrocnemius muscles and his scapulae are 'winged'.

      Which nerve is responsible for innervating the muscle that prevents the scapulae from forming a 'winged' position?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Long thoracic nerve

      Explanation:

      The Serratus Anterior Muscle and its Innervation

      The serratus anterior muscle is a muscle that originates from the first to eighth ribs and inserts along the entire medial border of the scapulae. Its main function is to protract the scapula, allowing for anteversion of the upper limb. This muscle is innervated by the long thoracic nerve, which receives innervation from roots C5-C7 of the brachial plexus.

      Based on the patient’s clinical history, it is likely that they are suffering from muscular dystrophy, specifically facioscapulohumeral muscular dystrophy. The long thoracic nerve is solely responsible for innervating the serratus anterior muscle, making it a key factor in the diagnosis of this condition.

      Other nerves of the brachial plexus include the axillary nerve, which mainly innervates the deltoid muscles and provides sensory innervation to the skin covering the deltoid muscle. The upper and lower subscapular nerves are branches of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus and provide motor innervation to the subscapularis muscle. The thoracodorsal nerve is also a branch of the posterior cord of the brachial plexus and provides motor innervation to the latissimus dorsi.

      the innervation of the serratus anterior muscle and its relationship to other nerves of the brachial plexus is important in diagnosing and treating conditions that affect this muscle.

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  • Question 27 - A 79-year-old woman is observed four days after experiencing an ischaemic stroke, treated...

    Incorrect

    • A 79-year-old woman is observed four days after experiencing an ischaemic stroke, treated with antiplatelet therapy. During evaluation, she is instructed to repeat the sentence 'touch your nose with your finger' and then perform the action. She successfully touches her nose with her finger, but her verbal response is incoherent and non-fluent. What type of aphasia is she displaying?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Broca's

      Explanation:

      This individual is experiencing Broca’s dysphasia, which is characterized by non-fluent speech, normal comprehension, and impaired repetition. This is likely due to a recent neurological insult that has resulted in higher cognitive dysfunction, specifically aphasia. Broca’s area, located in the posterior inferior frontal gyrus of the dominant hemisphere, is responsible for generating compressible words and is typically supplied by the superior division of the left MCA. Conductive aphasia, on the other hand, involves normal, fluent speech but poor repetition and is caused by a stroke involving the connection between different areas of the brain.

      Types of Aphasia: Understanding the Different Forms of Language Impairment

      Aphasia is a language disorder that affects a person’s ability to communicate effectively. There are different types of aphasia, each with its own set of symptoms and underlying causes. Wernicke’s aphasia, also known as receptive aphasia, is caused by a lesion in the superior temporal gyrus. This area is responsible for forming speech before sending it to Broca’s area. People with Wernicke’s aphasia may speak fluently, but their sentences often make no sense, and they may use word substitutions and neologisms. Comprehension is impaired.

      Broca’s aphasia, also known as expressive aphasia, is caused by a lesion in the inferior frontal gyrus. This area is responsible for speech production. People with Broca’s aphasia may speak in a non-fluent, labored, and halting manner. Repetition is impaired, but comprehension is normal.

      Conduction aphasia is caused by a stroke affecting the arcuate fasciculus, the connection between Wernicke’s and Broca’s area. People with conduction aphasia may speak fluently, but their repetition is poor. They are aware of the errors they are making, but comprehension is normal.

      Global aphasia is caused by a large lesion affecting all three areas mentioned above, resulting in severe expressive and receptive aphasia. People with global aphasia may still be able to communicate using gestures. Understanding the different types of aphasia is important for proper diagnosis and treatment.

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  • Question 28 - A 55-year-old man with a history of diabetes visits his ophthalmologist for his...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man with a history of diabetes visits his ophthalmologist for his yearly diabetic retinopathy screening. During the examination, the physician observes venous beading. What other clinical manifestation would be present due to the same underlying pathophysiology?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cotton wool spots

      Explanation:

      Cotton wool spots found in diabetic retinopathy are indicative of retinal infarction resulting from ischemic disruption. Venous beading, on the other hand, is characterized by irregular constriction and dilation of venules in the retina due to retinal ischemia. It is important to note that cupping of the optic disc is not associated with diabetic retinopathy but rather with open-angle glaucoma. Similarly, lipid exudates are not a feature of diabetic retinopathy as they occur at the border between thickened and non-thickened retina, resulting in extravasated lipoprotein.

      Understanding Diabetic Retinopathy

      Diabetic retinopathy is a leading cause of blindness in adults aged 35-65 years-old. The condition is caused by hyperglycaemia, which leads to abnormal metabolism in the retinal vessel walls, causing damage to endothelial cells and pericytes. This damage leads to increased vascular permeability, which causes exudates seen on fundoscopy. Pericyte dysfunction predisposes to the formation of microaneurysms, while neovascularization is caused by the production of growth factors in response to retinal ischaemia.

      Patients with diabetic retinopathy are typically classified into those with non-proliferative diabetic retinopathy (NPDR), proliferative retinopathy (PDR), and maculopathy. NPDR is further classified into mild, moderate, and severe, depending on the presence of microaneurysms, blot haemorrhages, hard exudates, cotton wool spots, venous beading/looping, and intraretinal microvascular abnormalities. PDR is characterized by retinal neovascularization, which may lead to vitreous haemorrhage, and fibrous tissue forming anterior to the retinal disc. Maculopathy is based on location rather than severity and is more common in Type II DM.

      Management of diabetic retinopathy involves optimizing glycaemic control, blood pressure, and hyperlipidemia, as well as regular review by ophthalmology. For maculopathy, intravitreal vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) inhibitors are used if there is a change in visual acuity. Non-proliferative retinopathy is managed through regular observation, while severe/very severe cases may require panretinal laser photocoagulation. Proliferative retinopathy is treated with panretinal laser photocoagulation, intravitreal VEGF inhibitors, and vitreoretinal surgery in severe or vitreous haemorrhage cases. Examples of VEGF inhibitors include ranibizumab, which has a strong evidence base for slowing the progression of proliferative diabetic retinopathy and improving visual acuity.

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  • Question 29 - A 82-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of bone and abdominal...

    Incorrect

    • A 82-year-old man arrives at the emergency department complaining of bone and abdominal pain. He appears confused, and his wife reports that he has been experiencing low mood lately. Upon conducting blood tests, it is discovered that he has elevated levels of calcium and parathyroid hormone. What is the probable cause of his hypercalcaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased activity of osteoclasts

      Explanation:

      Primary hyperparathyroidism is the likely diagnosis for this patient, which is typically caused by a single adenoma in the parathyroid gland. The hormone PTH plays a key role in increasing plasma calcium levels while decreasing phosphate levels. This is achieved through increased absorption of calcium in the bowel and kidneys, as well as increased bone resorption through the activity of osteoclasts.

      If osteoblast activity were increased, it would actually decrease plasma calcium levels. Conversely, decreased resorption in the kidneys would result in more calcium being lost in the urine, leading to lower plasma calcium levels. Lower levels of plasma calcium would also result from decreased activity of vitamin D.

      It’s important to note that PTH has no direct effect on calcitonin secretion, which is controlled by plasma calcium levels as well as the hormones gastrin and pentagastrin.

      Maintaining Calcium Balance in the Body

      Calcium ions are essential for various physiological processes in the body, and the largest store of calcium is found in the skeleton. The levels of calcium in the body are regulated by three hormones: parathyroid hormone (PTH), vitamin D, and calcitonin.

      PTH increases calcium levels and decreases phosphate levels by increasing bone resorption and activating osteoclasts. It also stimulates osteoblasts to produce a protein signaling molecule that activates osteoclasts, leading to bone resorption. PTH increases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium and the synthesis of 1,25(OH)2D (active form of vitamin D) in the kidney, which increases bowel absorption of calcium. Additionally, PTH decreases renal phosphate reabsorption.

      Vitamin D, specifically the active form 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol, increases plasma calcium and plasma phosphate levels. It increases renal tubular reabsorption and gut absorption of calcium, as well as osteoclastic activity. Vitamin D also increases renal phosphate reabsorption in the proximal tubule.

      Calcitonin, secreted by C cells of the thyroid, inhibits osteoclast activity and renal tubular absorption of calcium.

      Although growth hormone and thyroxine play a small role in calcium metabolism, the primary regulation of calcium levels in the body is through PTH, vitamin D, and calcitonin. Maintaining proper calcium balance is crucial for overall health and well-being.

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  • Question 30 - A 75-year-old male comes to the neurology clinic accompanied by his wife. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old male comes to the neurology clinic accompanied by his wife. He reports experiencing severe headaches for the past two months and losing a significant amount of weight in the last month. His wife adds that he constantly complains of feeling hot, despite trying to cool down. The patient has a history of lung cancer. The physician suspects a hypothalamic lesion may be responsible for his inability to regulate body temperature and orders an MRI of the brain.

      What is the most likely nucleus in the hypothalamus where the lesion is located?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior nucleus

      Explanation:

      Poikilothermia can be caused by lesions in the posterior nucleus of the hypothalamus, which is likely the case for this patient with lung cancer. Diabetes insipidus can result from a lesion in the supraoptic or paraventricular nucleus, which produce antidiuretic hormone. Anorexia can be caused by a lesion in the lateral nucleus, while hyperphagia can result from a lesion in the ventromedial nucleus, which is responsible for regulating satiety.

      The hypothalamus is a part of the brain that plays a crucial role in maintaining the body’s internal balance, or homeostasis. It is located in the diencephalon and is responsible for regulating various bodily functions. The hypothalamus is composed of several nuclei, each with its own specific function. The anterior nucleus, for example, is involved in cooling the body by stimulating the parasympathetic nervous system. The lateral nucleus, on the other hand, is responsible for stimulating appetite, while lesions in this area can lead to anorexia. The posterior nucleus is involved in heating the body and stimulating the sympathetic nervous system, and damage to this area can result in poikilothermia. Other nuclei include the septal nucleus, which regulates sexual desire, the suprachiasmatic nucleus, which regulates circadian rhythm, and the ventromedial nucleus, which is responsible for satiety. Lesions in the paraventricular nucleus can lead to diabetes insipidus, while lesions in the dorsomedial nucleus can result in savage behavior.

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      • Neurological System
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