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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman with a 30-pack-year history of smoking visits her General Practitioner with complaints of dark urine, nausea and overall weakness. She reports experiencing a seizure and was admitted to the hospital where she was diagnosed with a 'hormone tumor'. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Pancreatic cancer
Correct Answer: Small-cell carcinoma of the lung (SCLC)
Explanation:Small-cell carcinoma of the lung (SCLC) is a type of lung cancer that is often associated with a condition called syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone syndrome (SIADH). SIADH is caused by the abnormal release of anti-diuretic hormone (ADH), which leads to impaired water excretion and hyponatremia. This can result in symptoms such as nausea, weakness, confusion, and seizures. While SCLC is the most common cause of SIADH, it can also be caused by other types of cancer, certain drugs, intracranial lesions, and infections. Squamous-cell carcinoma (SCC) of the lung, on the other hand, does not typically result in SIADH as it does not originate from neuroendocrine cells. Pancreatic cancer can also cause SIADH, but it is less common than in SCLC. Prostate cancer, which is the second most common cancer globally, does not usually present with hormonal effects but rather with lower urinary tract symptoms. Bronchial carcinoid tumors, which are neuroendocrine tumors of the lung, can cause hormonal effects such as weight gain, high blood pressure, and hirsutism, but these symptoms are not indicated in the scenario given.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a one week history of cough and increasing shortness of breath over the past 48 hours. She also reports fever, headache, anorexia, and chills. Upon examination, she appears slightly pale and confused. Her vital signs reveal a pulse of 136/min, blood pressure of 96/64 mmHg, respiratory rate of 32/min, and oxygen saturation of 89% on room air. Lung auscultation reveals reduced breath sounds in the left lower lung with some coarse crackles. Blood cultures are taken and the patient is cannulated. High flow oxygen is administered and a fluid challenge is ordered by the nurse. What is the most appropriate next step?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Prescribe broad spectrum intravenous antibiotics
Explanation:If the patient’s condition worsens, ITU may be consulted. However, before referring the patient, it is important to determine if she has already received basic sepsis care. Although studies have explored the use of steroids in sepsis, they are not presently recommended due to an increase in mortality.
Understanding Sepsis: Classification and Management
Sepsis is a life-threatening condition caused by a dysregulated host response to an infection. In recent years, the classification of sepsis has changed, with the old category of severe sepsis no longer in use. Instead, the Surviving Sepsis Guidelines now recognize sepsis as life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by a dysregulated host response to infection, and septic shock as a more severe form of sepsis. The term ‘systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS)’ has also fallen out of favor.
To manage sepsis, it is important to identify and treat the underlying cause of the infection and support the patient regardless of the cause or severity. However, if any red flags are present, the ‘sepsis six’ should be started immediately. This includes administering oxygen, taking blood cultures, giving broad-spectrum antibiotics, giving intravenous fluid challenges, measuring serum lactate, and measuring accurate hourly urine output.
NICE released its own guidelines in 2016, which focus on the risk stratification and management of patients with suspected sepsis. For risk stratification, NICE recommends using red flag and amber flag criteria. If any red flags are present, the sepsis six should be started immediately. If any amber flags are present, the patient should be closely monitored and managed accordingly.
To help identify and categorize patients, the Sequential (Sepsis-Related) Organ Failure Assessment Score (SOFA) is increasingly used. The score grades abnormality by organ system and accounts for clinical interventions. A SOFA score of 2 or more reflects an overall mortality risk of approximately 10% in a general hospital population with suspected infection. Even patients presenting with modest dysfunction can deteriorate further, emphasizing the seriousness of this condition and the need for prompt and appropriate intervention.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man requests a PSA test due to his father's recent prostate cancer diagnosis. You perform a digital rectal exam and inform him that his prostate feels normal. After further conversation, you agree to proceed with the test. What is the appropriate timing for PSA testing to ensure accurate results?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: PSA testing can be done after abstaining from ejaculation or vigorous exercise for 48 hours
Explanation:To ensure accurate results, NICE recommends avoiding PSA testing for at least the following periods: 6 weeks after a prostate biopsy, 4 weeks after a confirmed urinary infection, 1 week after a digital rectal examination, and 48 hours after vigorous exercise or ejaculation, as these factors may cause an increase in PSA levels.
Prostate specific antigen (PSA) is an enzyme produced by both normal and cancerous prostate cells. It is commonly used as a marker for prostate cancer, but its effectiveness as a screening tool is still debated. The NHS Prostate Cancer Risk Management Programme (PCRMP) has released guidelines for handling requests for PSA testing in asymptomatic men. While a recent European trial showed a reduction in prostate cancer deaths, it also revealed a high risk of over-diagnosis and over-treatment. As a result, the National Screening Committee has decided not to introduce a screening programme, but rather allow men to make an informed decision. The PCRMP recommends age-adjusted upper limits for PSA levels, while NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries suggest a lower threshold for referral. PSA levels can also be raised by factors such as benign prostatic hyperplasia, prostatitis, and urinary tract infections.
The specificity and sensitivity of PSA testing are poor, with a significant number of men with elevated PSA levels not having prostate cancer, and some with normal PSA levels having the disease. Various methods are used to add meaning to PSA levels, including age-adjusted upper limits and monitoring changes in PSA levels over time. It is also debated whether digital rectal examination causes a rise in PSA levels. It is important to note that PSA testing should be postponed after certain events, such as ejaculation or instrumentation of the urinary tract.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 39-year-old man complains of nasal obstruction and loud snoring. He reports that these symptoms have been gradually worsening over the past two months. Specifically, he feels that his left nostril is blocked while his right nostril feels normal. He denies any history of nosebleeds and reports feeling generally healthy. Upon examination, a large nasal polyp is observed in the left nostril. What is the best course of action?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to ENT
Explanation:It is crucial to refer him to an ENT for a comprehensive examination as unilateral polyps are a warning sign.
Understanding Nasal Polyps
Nasal polyps are a relatively uncommon condition affecting around 1% of adults in the UK. They are more commonly seen in men and are not typically found in children or the elderly. There are several associations with nasal polyps, including asthma (particularly late-onset asthma), aspirin sensitivity, infective sinusitis, cystic fibrosis, Kartagener’s syndrome, and Churg-Strauss syndrome. When asthma, aspirin sensitivity, and nasal polyposis occur together, it is known as Samter’s triad.
The symptoms of nasal polyps include nasal obstruction, rhinorrhoea, sneezing, and a poor sense of taste and smell. It is important to note that any unusual symptoms, such as unilateral symptoms or bleeding, require further investigation. If nasal polyps are suspected, patients should be referred to an ear, nose, and throat (ENT) specialist for a full examination.
The management of nasal polyps typically involves the use of topical corticosteroids, which can shrink polyp size in around 80% of patients. Overall, understanding nasal polyps and their associations can help with early detection and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- ENT
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man visits his General Practitioner with complaints of bilateral knee pain while walking, which has been gradually worsening over the past 12 months. He denies any history of trauma and has no early-morning pain or stiffness. During examination, both knees are swollen, there is tenderness over the medial joint lines bilaterally, and crepitus on flexion of both knees is observed. What is the most appropriate investigation to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No investigation necessary
Explanation:Investigations for Osteoarthritis: When are they necessary?
Osteoarthritis (OA) is a condition that affects synovial joints, resulting in damage to the joints and loss of cartilage, bone remodelling, and osteophyte formation. While any synovial joint can be affected, the most common areas are the hip, knees, and fingers. In individuals over 45 years old with clear signs and symptoms of OA, a clinical diagnosis can be made without the need for investigation.
Typical signs of OA include pain that is activity-related rather than early-morning pain and stiffness, making an inflammatory cause for the symptoms unlikely. While an X-ray may show changes such as reduced joint space and osteophyte formation, it is not necessary to confirm the diagnosis in individuals over 45 years old with typical signs or symptoms. However, an X-ray may be indicated in patients over 55 years old with knee pain following trauma or if the cause of non-traumatic joint pain is unclear from history and examination alone.
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) is a non-specific inflammatory marker that may be raised in response to active infection or inflammation. However, it would not be helpful in diagnosing OA unless the diagnosis was unclear and inflammatory conditions needed to be excluded. Similarly, rheumatoid factor, an autoantibody present in patients with rheumatoid arthritis, is unlikely to be present in individuals with OA.
Serum uric acid measurement may be indicated if gout is suspected, as hyperuricaemia can cause gout by forming uric acid crystals in joints. However, gout presents acutely with severe pain, swelling, redness, and heat to the affected joint, unlike the gradual onset of symptoms in OA. Uric acid measurement may be normal during an acute attack and should be checked following resolution of an acute attack.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents with a complaint of generalised swelling that has affected his legs, arm and face, worsening over the last three weeks. Upon investigation, the following results were obtained: Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l (normal range: 135–145 mmol/l), Potassium (K+) 4.2 mmol/l (normal range: 3.5–5.0 mmol/l), Creatinine (Cr) 190 μmol/l (normal range: 50–120 μmol/l), Urea 14.8 mmol/l (normal range: 7–20 mmol/l), Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 20 IU/l (normal range: 29–33 IU/l), Bilirubin 16 μmol/l (normal range: < 20.5 μmol/l), Albumin 19 g/l (normal range: 35–50 g/l), Total Cholesterol 9.2 mmol/l (normal range: < 5.2 mmol/l), Prothrombin time (PT) 10 s. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Nephrotic syndrome
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for a Patient with Generalized Edema, Low Albumin, Renal Impairment, and Elevated Cholesterol
The patient presents with generalized edema, low albumin, renal impairment, and elevated cholesterol. The most likely diagnosis is nephrotic syndrome. Anorexia nervosa is unlikely to cause such a low albumin level. Cirrhosis of the liver is less likely due to normal liver function tests and PT. Cystic fibrosis typically presents with bronchiectasis, pancreatic insufficiency, malabsorption, or diabetes. Nephritic syndrome causes hypertension, haematuria, and oliguria.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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What is an accurate statement about alcoholic liver disease (ALD)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: In alcoholic hepatitis the AST : ALT ratio is at least 2 : 1
Explanation:Alcoholic Liver Disease: Facts and Myths
Alcoholic liver disease (ALD) is a common liver disease caused by overconsumption of alcohol. Here are some facts and myths about ALD:
Myth: In alcoholic hepatitis, the AST:ALT ratio is less than 2:1.
Fact: Unlike most other liver diseases, including viral hepatitis, alcoholic hepatitis exhibits at least a 2:1 AST:ALT ratio.Myth: Hepatic iron overload is not indicative of concomitant heterozygote haemochromatosis.
Fact: Evidence of iron overload, such as elevated levels of transferrin saturation and serum ferritin, is common in ALD and may indicate concomitant heterozygote haemochromatosis.Myth: Women are less susceptible to ALD than men.
Fact: Women are actually twice as susceptible to ALD than men, even when consumption is corrected for body weight, and may develop ALD with shorter durations and doses of chronic consumption.Myth: Alcoholic fatty infiltration is irreversible once established.
Fact: Although steatosis (fatty infiltration) will develop in any individual who consumes a large quantity of alcohol over a long period of time, this process is usually transient and reversible. Alcoholic hepatitis and alcoholic fatty infiltration are reversible with abstinence and adequate nutrition.Myth: Alcoholic cirrhosis does not progress to hepatocellular carcinoma.
Fact: Like other causes of liver cirrhosis, alcoholic cirrhosis can also progress to hepatocellular carcinoma.In conclusion, ALD is a serious liver disease that can have irreversible consequences if not addressed in a timely manner. It is important to understand the facts and myths surrounding this disease to ensure proper diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man with a history of moderate ulcerative colitis and taking mesalazine presents with a fever and sore throat for the past week. What is the primary investigation that needs to be done initially?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Full blood count
Explanation:If a patient is taking aminosalicylates, they may experience various haematological adverse effects, such as agranulocytosis. Therefore, it is crucial to conduct a full blood count promptly if the patient presents with symptoms like fever, fatigue, bleeding gums, or a sore throat to rule out agranulocytosis. While C-reactive protein may be a part of the overall management plan, it is not the most critical initial investigation and is unlikely to alter the management plan. Similarly, while a throat swab may be necessary, it is not the most crucial initial investigation. The monospot test for glandular fever may be useful if glandular fever is suspected, but it is not the most important initial investigation.
Aminosalicylate drugs, such as 5-aminosalicyclic acid (5-ASA), are released in the colon and act locally as anti-inflammatories. The exact mechanism of action is not fully understood, but it is believed that 5-ASA may inhibit prostaglandin synthesis. Sulphasalazine is a combination of sulphapyridine and 5-ASA, but many of its side-effects are due to the sulphapyridine component, including rashes, oligospermia, headache, Heinz body anaemia, megaloblastic anaemia, and lung fibrosis. Other side-effects are common to 5-ASA drugs, such as mesalazine, which is a delayed release form of 5-ASA that avoids the sulphapyridine side-effects seen in patients taking sulphasalazine. However, mesalazine is still associated with side-effects such as gastrointestinal upset, headache, agranulocytosis, pancreatitis, and interstitial nephritis. Olsalazine is another aminosalicylate drug that consists of two molecules of 5-ASA linked by a diazo bond, which is broken by colonic bacteria.
It is important to note that aminosalicylates are associated with various haematological adverse effects, including agranulocytosis, and a full blood count (FBC) is a key investigation in an unwell patient taking them. Additionally, pancreatitis is seven times more common in patients taking mesalazine than in those taking sulfasalazine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old lifelong smoker presents with worsening breathlessness, cough and sputum production over the past 3 months after being diagnosed with COPD after spirometry.
He currently uses salbutamol and notes a relatively good response to this initially but not a long-lasting effect. His breathlessness is worse in the morning and night. He is not acutely unwell and does not report any cardiac symptoms.
What would be the most appropriate next step for treatment in this patient with a history of smoking and worsening respiratory symptoms despite the use of salbutamol?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: LABA/ ICS inhaler
Explanation:In cases where a patient with COPD is still experiencing breathlessness despite using SABA/SAMA and exhibits asthma/steroid responsive features, the next step in treatment would be to add a LABA/ICS inhaler. This is the most appropriate option due to the presence of asthmatic features and indications of steroid responsiveness, such as a raised eosinophil count and diurnal variation. Azithromycin prophylaxis is not recommended at this point, as it is typically reserved for patients who have already optimized standard treatments and continue to experience exacerbations. While a LAMA inhaler may be introduced in the future as part of a triple therapy combination if control remains poor, it is not a stepwise increase in treatment and is less appropriate than a LABA/ICS inhaler in this case. Similarly, a LAMA/LABA inhaler would only be suitable if the patient did not exhibit asthmatic features or indications of steroid responsiveness. The use of theophylline is only recommended after trials of short and long-acting bronchodilators or for patients who cannot use inhaled therapy, and should be done with the input of a respiratory specialist. Therefore, it is not an appropriate next step in treatment for this patient.
NICE guidelines recommend smoking cessation advice, annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccinations, and pulmonary rehabilitation for COPD patients. Bronchodilator therapy is first-line treatment, with the addition of LABA and LAMA for patients without asthmatic features and LABA, ICS, and LAMA for those with asthmatic features. Theophylline is recommended after trials of bronchodilators or for patients who cannot use inhaled therapy. Azithromycin prophylaxis is recommended in select patients. Mucolytics should be considered for patients with a chronic productive cough. Loop diuretics and long-term oxygen therapy may be used for cor pulmonale. Smoking cessation and long-term oxygen therapy may improve survival in stable COPD patients. Lung volume reduction surgery may be considered in selected patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 47-year-old woman comes for a check-up at the clinic. She was diagnosed with Hashimoto's thyroiditis three months ago and is currently on levothyroxine 75 mcg once daily. What is the most crucial blood test to evaluate her treatment progress?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: TSH
Explanation:Managing Hypothyroidism: Dosage, Monitoring, and Side-Effects
Hypothyroidism is a condition where the thyroid gland does not produce enough thyroid hormone. The main treatment for hypothyroidism is levothyroxine, a synthetic form of thyroid hormone. When managing hypothyroidism, it is important to consider the patient’s age, cardiac history, and initial starting dose. Elderly patients and those with ischaemic heart disease should start with a lower dose of 25mcg od, while other patients can start with 50-100mcg od. After a change in dosage, thyroid function tests should be checked after 8-12 weeks to ensure the therapeutic goal of normalising the thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) level is achieved. The target TSH range is 0.5-2.5 mU/l.
Women with hypothyroidism who become pregnant should have their dose increased by at least 25-50 micrograms levothyroxine due to the increased demands of pregnancy. The TSH should be monitored carefully, aiming for a low-normal value. It is important to note that there is no evidence to support combination therapy with levothyroxine and liothyronine.
While levothyroxine is generally well-tolerated, there are some potential side-effects to be aware of. Over-treatment can lead to hyperthyroidism, while long-term use can reduce bone mineral density. In patients with cardiac disease, levothyroxine can worsen angina and lead to atrial fibrillation. It is also important to be aware of drug interactions, particularly with iron and calcium carbonate, which can reduce the absorption of levothyroxine. These medications should be given at least 4 hours apart.
In summary, managing hypothyroidism involves careful consideration of dosage, monitoring of TSH levels, and awareness of potential side-effects and drug interactions. With appropriate management, patients with hypothyroidism can achieve normal thyroid function and improve their overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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