00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Mins)
  • Question 1 - A 32-year-old man visits his doctor because he has been experiencing sweaty palms...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old man visits his doctor because he has been experiencing sweaty palms and his colleagues have noticed a change in his facial appearance. He also reports difficulty driving due to difficulty seeing the sides of his visual fields.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acromegaly

      Explanation:

      Endocrine Disorders and Their Clinical Presentations

      Acromegaly, Cushing’s syndrome, hyperprolactinaemia, hyperthyroidism, and multiple sclerosis are all endocrine disorders that can present with various clinical features. Acromegaly is caused by excess growth hormone secretion and can lead to enlarged hands, coarse facial features, and bitemporal hemianopia. Cushing’s syndrome may present with central obesity, muscle atrophy, and osteoporosis, but visual dysfunction is not typical. Hyperprolactinaemia can cause amenorrhoea or oligomenorrhoea, infertility, and galactorrhoea, but this presentation more closely fits with acromegaly. Hyperthyroidism may present with weight loss, tremor, and heat intolerance, but bitemporal hemianopia is not typical. Multiple sclerosis is a chronic inflammatory demyelination of the central nervous system and can present with various symptoms, but this patient’s presentation does not fit with features of multiple sclerosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      23.8
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You perform a medication review for a 75-year-old woman who comes in for...

    Correct

    • You perform a medication review for a 75-year-old woman who comes in for a regular check-up. She has a medical history of ischaemic heart disease, stage 2 CKD, hypertension, and gout. Despite her conditions, she is able to function well on her own and her blood pressure today is 125/72 mmHg. Which medication would you suggest discontinuing?

      Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide

      Explanation:

      Assessing medications in elderly patients can be challenging, as they may be taking unnecessary or harmful drugs. The STOPP-START Criteria (Gallagher et al., 2008) provides guidance on medications that should be considered for discontinuation in the elderly. In this case, the patient has gout, which can be aggravated by bendroflumethiazide, an outdated thiazide diuretic that is no longer recommended by NICE. Additionally, her blood pressure is well below the target for her age, which is 150/90 mmHg in clinic. Ramipril is a more suitable antihypertensive medication to continue for now, but it may also be discontinued if her blood pressure remains low. The patient requires aspirin and atorvastatin for her ischemic heart disease, and allopurinol for her gout.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      62.9
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 35-year-old woman comes back from a trip. During her final day overseas,...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman comes back from a trip. During her final day overseas, she had lunch from an unlicensed street food vendor. After eight days of returning home, she encounters bloating, abdominal discomfort, and non-bloody diarrhea, and she observes that her stools are floating in the toilet bowl. The patient's symptoms persist for nine weeks. What is the probable pathogen responsible for the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Entamoeba histolytica

      Correct Answer: Giardia

      Explanation:

      Chronic Giardia infection can lead to malabsorption.

      Giardia is a type of protozoan that can be transmitted through the ingestion of contaminated fecal matter. While giardiasis typically resolves within a few weeks, if the infection persists for more than six weeks, it is considered chronic. Chronic Giardia infection can cause malabsorption of various nutrients, including vitamin A, B12, iron, zinc, and lipids. This malabsorption can result in steatorrhea, which is characterized by greasy, foul-smelling stools that float in the toilet bowl.

      It is important to note that other pathogens, such as Entamoeba histolytica, Escherichia coli, and Salmonella, do not commonly cause malabsorption. While they may cause diarrhea and other gastrointestinal symptoms, they do not typically result in the malabsorption of nutrients.

      Understanding Giardiasis

      Giardiasis is a condition caused by a type of protozoan called Giardia lamblia. It is transmitted through the faeco-oral route and can be contracted through various means such as foreign travel, drinking water from rivers or lakes, and even male-male sexual contact. While some individuals may not experience any symptoms, others may suffer from non-bloody diarrhea, bloating, abdominal pain, lethargy, flatulence, and weight loss. In severe cases, malabsorption and lactose intolerance may occur. Diagnosis can be made through stool microscopy, stool antigen detection assay, or PCR assays. Treatment typically involves the use of metronidazole.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      68.4
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 78-year-old female comes to the cardiology clinic complaining of persistent shortness of...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old female comes to the cardiology clinic complaining of persistent shortness of breath that is hindering her daily activities. She has a medical history of dilated cardiomyopathy and is currently taking candesartan, bisoprolol, and furosemide. An echocardiogram reveals a left ventricular ejection fraction of 40%. What would be the most suitable long-term treatment to enhance this patient's prognosis?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Correct Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      The initial management for heart failure with reduced ejection fraction involves prescribing an ACE inhibitor (or ARB, as in this patient’s case) and a beta-blocker. However, since the patient’s symptoms are not under control despite taking these medications, it is recommended to add spironolactone (a mineralocorticoid receptor antagonist) to their treatment plan.

      Bendroflumethiazide is not a suitable long-term management option for heart failure, as thiazide and thiazide-like diuretics are not recommended.
      Diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker, is contraindicated for chronic heart failure.
      Dobutamine, an inotrope, may be used in acute decompensated heart failure but is not appropriate for stable management of chronic heart failure.
      Ramipril is not a suitable option for this patient as they are already taking candesartan, another angiotensin II receptor blocker.

      Drug Management for Chronic Heart Failure: NICE Guidelines

      Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management to improve patient outcomes. In 2018, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on drug management for chronic heart failure. The guidelines recommend first-line therapy with both an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Second-line therapy involves the use of aldosterone antagonists, which should be monitored for hyperkalaemia. SGLT-2 inhibitors are also increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction. Third-line therapy should be initiated by a specialist and may include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, or cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments such as annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines are also recommended.

      Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to drug management for chronic heart failure. It is important to note that loop diuretics have not been shown to reduce mortality in the long-term, and that ACE-inhibitors and beta-blockers have no effect on mortality in heart failure with preserved ejection fraction. Healthcare professionals should carefully consider the patient’s individual needs and circumstances when determining the appropriate drug therapy for chronic heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      62
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 60-year-old woman comes to the doctor's office with concerns about small spots...

    Correct

    • A 60-year-old woman comes to the doctor's office with concerns about small spots on her shoulder. She reports that the lesions are accompanied by several tiny blood vessels that radiate from the center. During the examination, you observe that applying pressure to the spots causes them to turn white and then refill from the center. What condition is typically associated with this type of lesion?

      Your Answer: Liver failure

      Explanation:

      When differentiating between spider naevi and telangiectasia, it is important to note that spider naevi fill from the centre when pressed, while telangiectasia fill from the edge. A woman presenting with a small lesion surrounded by tiny blood vessels radiating from the middle that refills from the centre is likely to have a spider naevus. This condition is commonly associated with liver failure, making it the most likely diagnosis.

      Understanding Spider Naevi

      Spider naevi, also known as spider angiomas, are characterized by a central red papule surrounded by capillaries. These lesions can be identified by their ability to blanch upon pressure. Spider naevi are typically found on the upper part of the body and are more common in childhood, affecting around 10-15% of people.

      To differentiate spider naevi from telangiectasia, one can press on the lesion and observe how it fills. Spider naevi fill from the center, while telangiectasia fills from the edge. It is important to note that spider naevi may be associated with liver disease, pregnancy, and the use of combined oral contraceptive pills.

      In summary, understanding spider naevi is important for proper diagnosis and management. By recognizing their distinct characteristics and potential associations, healthcare professionals can provide appropriate care for their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      37.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 72-year-old diabetic man presents to his General Practitioner complaining of poor vision,...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old diabetic man presents to his General Practitioner complaining of poor vision, particularly while driving at night. He reports that his vision has been progressively worsening and he struggles with glare from oncoming vehicles. He also finds watching TV difficult and struggles to recognise his neighbour waving at him from across the street. He has had to have his glasses prescription changed three times in the past 18 months.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Open angle glaucoma

      Correct Answer: Cataracts

      Explanation:

      Common Eye Conditions and Their Symptoms

      Cataracts: Gradual, painless reduced visual acuity, blurred vision, difficulty seeing at night-time, sensitivity to light due to glare and halos around light, inability to watch TV or recognise faces. Risk factors include increasing age, steroid use, alcohol excess, myotonic dystrophy, and diabetes. Treatment is with surgical replacement of the lens.

      Open Angle Glaucoma: Increased intraocular pressure resulting in visual field defects, loss of peripheral vision, seeing halos around lights, and tunnel vision. Patients may report bumping into things or not seeing cars in their periphery.

      Acute Closed Angle Glaucoma: Ophthalmological emergency presenting as a painful red eye, vomiting, headache, and reduced visual acuity. On examination, patients have a tender, hard eye with a semi-dilated, fixed pupil.

      Presbyopia: Age-related condition causing trouble focusing on close-up vision, often requiring reading glasses.

      Retinal Detachment: New-onset floaters and flashes, sudden-onset, painless visual field loss that may progress over hours to days, and a dark curtain or shadow over the field of vision in one eye only.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      49.1
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 32-year-old man has had severe left-sided facial pain with purulent nasal discharge...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man has had severe left-sided facial pain with purulent nasal discharge for ten days. He describes how he initially felt 'okay' with milder symptoms, but noticed a sudden deterioration in his symptoms a few days ago.
      Which of the following treatments would be the treatment of choice?

      Your Answer: Ephedrine

      Correct Answer: Phenoxymethylpenicillin

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Acute Sinusitis: Antibiotics, Decongestants, and Antihistamines

      Acute bacterial sinusitis is a common condition that can cause severe symptoms such as discolored or purulent discharge, severe localized pain, and fever. Antibiotics are prescribed only if the patient has a co-morbidity or if acute bacterial sinusitis is clinically suspected. The antibiotics of choice include amoxicillin, phenoxymethylpenicillin, doxycycline, or erythromycin. Second-line treatments include co-amoxiclav and azithromycin.

      Decongestants such as ephedrine can be used to relieve nasal congestion, but they should not be used for more than seven days to avoid rebound congestion. Antihistamines such as chlorpheniramine are not recommended unless there is a coexisting allergic rhinitis.

      It is important to note that flucloxacillin and metronidazole are not the antibiotics of choice for acute sinusitis. Doxycycline or erythromycin are acceptable alternatives. Treatment should be used only for persistent symptoms or purulent nasal discharge lasting at least 7 days, or if the symptoms are severe.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      99.6
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant arrives at the Emergency Department...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman who is 36 weeks pregnant arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of severe and constant abdominal pain. She experienced some vaginal bleeding an hour ago, but it has mostly subsided, leaving only a small amount of bloody discharge. Upon obstetric examination, her uterus is firm, woody, and extremely tender. She appears pale and clammy, with a pulse of 102 bpm and a blood pressure of 98/65 mmHg. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Placental abruption

      Explanation:

      Antepartum hemorrhage can be caused by placental abruption, which may result in vaginal bleeding, abdominal pain, and a firm or woody uterus. In some cases, the bleeding may be concealed, and the fetus may be difficult to feel or hear. It is important to note that young and healthy women may not show signs of shock until they have lost a significant amount of blood. Contractions during labor typically come in waves and do not cause a woody or tender uterus or low blood pressure. Placenta previa is another common cause of antepartum hemorrhage, but it is usually painless.

      Placental Abruption: Causes, Symptoms, and Risk Factors

      Placental abruption is a condition that occurs when the placenta separates from the uterine wall, leading to maternal bleeding into the space between them. Although the exact cause of this condition is unknown, certain factors have been associated with it, including proteinuric hypertension, cocaine use, multiparity, maternal trauma, and increasing maternal age. Placental abruption is not a common occurrence, affecting approximately 1 in 200 pregnancies.

      The clinical features of placental abruption include shock that is disproportionate to the visible blood loss, constant pain, a tender and tense uterus, and a normal lie and presentation of the fetus. The fetal heart may be absent or distressed, and there may be coagulation problems. It is important to be aware of other conditions that may present with similar symptoms, such as pre-eclampsia, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), and anuria.

      In summary, placental abruption is a serious condition that can have significant consequences for both the mother and the fetus. Understanding the risk factors and symptoms of this condition is important for early detection and appropriate management.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      29.1
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 42-year-old woman complains of urine leakage when laughing or jumping. She has...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman complains of urine leakage when laughing or jumping. She has no other urinary symptoms, and her urine dipstick test is negative.
      What is the most appropriate initial treatment option?

      Your Answer: Pelvic floor exercises

      Explanation:

      Understanding Urinary Incontinence: Types and Treatment Options

      Urinary incontinence is a common problem that affects people of all ages, but is more prevalent in elderly individuals and females. It is important to classify the type of urinary incontinence to determine the underlying cause and appropriate treatment.

      Functional incontinence occurs due to reasons other than lower urinary tract dysfunction, such as delirium, psychiatric disorders, urinary infection, or impaired mobility. Treatment is directed at the underlying cause.

      Mixed incontinence is a combination of stress incontinence and urge incontinence, characterized by mild-to-moderate urine loss with physical activities and acute urine loss without warning, respectively. Urinary frequency, urgency, and nocturia are also present.

      Overflow incontinence occurs when the bladder is overdistended and urine overflows despite the absence of detrusor contraction. Symptoms may mimic those of mixed incontinence and may suggest a cause of bladder outlet obstruction or neurological dysfunction.

      Stress incontinence is triggered by increased intra-abdominal pressure and is characterized by involuntary urine loss during coughing, laughing, and sneezing. Irritative voiding symptoms are typically absent.

      Urge incontinence is associated with an overactive bladder and is characterized by uncontrolled urine loss associated with a strong desire to void, which occurs suddenly and without warning. Patients are unable to hold back urine and experience urinary frequency, urgency, and nocturia.

      Treatment options include pelvic floor muscle training, anticholinergic medications such as oxybutynin and solifenacin, bladder retraining, and topical estrogen for postmenopausal women with vaginal atrophy. Treatment is directed at the underlying cause of urinary incontinence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      21.7
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 29-year-old individual visits the GP complaining of explosive diarrhoea and vomiting that...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old individual visits the GP complaining of explosive diarrhoea and vomiting that started 24 hours ago. Upon further inquiry, the patient denies any presence of blood in their stool and has not traveled abroad recently. The patient mentions consuming rice that was kept warm in a rice cooker for multiple days. What is the probable causative agent responsible for the patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Bacillus cereus

      Explanation:

      It is probable that this young man is suffering from toxigenic food poisoning caused by Bacillus cereus, which is known to occur after consuming reheated rice. The spores of Bacillus cereus germinate in cooked rice and produce toxins if the cooked product is not adequately chilled. While S. aureus can also cause toxigenic food poisoning, the specific history of this case makes it less likely to be the underlying organism. Norwalk virus, on the other hand, can cause severe diarrhea and vomiting, but it is not associated with any particular food item. Bacterial food poisoning caused by Campylobacter and Shigella typically involves a longer history of bloody diarrhea.

      Gastroenteritis can occur either at home or while traveling, known as travelers’ diarrhea. This condition is characterized by at least three loose to watery stools in 24 hours, accompanied by abdominal cramps, fever, nausea, vomiting, or blood in the stool. The most common cause of travelers’ diarrhea is Escherichia coli. Acute food poisoning is another pattern of illness that results in sudden onset of nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea after ingesting a toxin. Staphylococcus aureus, Bacillus cereus, or Clostridium perfringens are typically responsible for acute food poisoning.

      There are several types of infections that can cause gastroenteritis, each with its own typical presentation. Escherichia coli is common among travelers and causes watery stools, abdominal cramps, and nausea. Giardiasis results in prolonged, non-bloody diarrhea, while cholera causes profuse, watery diarrhea and severe dehydration leading to weight loss. Shigella causes bloody diarrhea, vomiting, and abdominal pain, while Staphylococcus aureus results in severe vomiting with a short incubation period. Campylobacter typically starts with a flu-like prodrome and progresses to crampy abdominal pains, fever, and diarrhea, which may be bloody and mimic appendicitis. Bacillus cereus can cause two types of illness, vomiting within six hours, typically due to rice, or diarrheal illness occurring after six hours. Amoebiasis has a gradual onset of bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, and tenderness that may last for several weeks.

      The incubation period for gastroenteritis varies depending on the type of infection. Staphylococcus aureus and Bacillus cereus have an incubation period of 1-6 hours, while Salmonella and Escherichia coli have an incubation period of 12-48 hours. Shigella and Campylobacter have an incubation period of 48-72 hours, while Giardiasis and Amoebiasis have an incubation period of more than seven days.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      23
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - Concurrent use of which one of the following would decrease the effectiveness of...

    Incorrect

    • Concurrent use of which one of the following would decrease the effectiveness of the combined oral contraceptive pill for a 25-year-old woman?

      Your Answer: Isoniazid

      Correct Answer: Carbamazepine

      Explanation:

      P450 Enzyme System and its Inducers and Inhibitors

      The P450 enzyme system is responsible for metabolizing drugs in the body. Induction of this system usually requires prolonged exposure to the inducing drug, unlike P450 inhibitors, which have rapid effects. Some drugs that induce the P450 system include antiepileptics like phenytoin and carbamazepine, barbiturates such as phenobarbitone, rifampicin, St John’s Wort, chronic alcohol intake, griseofulvin, and smoking, which affects CYP1A2 and is the reason why smokers require more aminophylline.

      On the other hand, some drugs inhibit the P450 system, including antibiotics like ciprofloxacin and erythromycin, isoniazid, cimetidine, omeprazole, amiodarone, allopurinol, imidazoles such as ketoconazole and fluconazole, SSRIs like fluoxetine and sertraline, ritonavir, sodium valproate, and acute alcohol intake. It is important to be aware of these inducers and inhibitors as they can affect the metabolism and efficacy of drugs in the body. Proper dosing and monitoring can help ensure safe and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      19
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A mother brings her 8-year-old daughter into surgery. She is struggling in school...

    Correct

    • A mother brings her 8-year-old daughter into surgery. She is struggling in school and the mother suspects she may have ADHD. Which of the following features is not indicative of a diagnosis of Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)?

      Your Answer: Repetitive behaviour

      Explanation:

      In March 2018, NICE released new guidelines for identifying and managing Attention Deficit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD). This condition can have a significant impact on a child’s life and can continue into adulthood, making accurate diagnosis and treatment crucial. According to DSM-V, ADHD is characterized by persistent features of inattention and/or hyperactivity/impulsivity, with an element of developmental delay. Children up to the age of 16 must exhibit six of these features, while those aged 17 or over must exhibit five. ADHD has a UK prevalence of 2.4%, with a higher incidence in boys than girls, and there may be a genetic component.

      NICE recommends a holistic approach to treating ADHD that is not solely reliant on medication. After presentation, a ten-week observation period should be implemented to determine if symptoms change or resolve. If symptoms persist, referral to secondary care is necessary, typically to a paediatrician with a special interest in behavioural disorders or to the local Child and Adolescent Mental Health Service (CAMHS). A tailored plan of action should be developed, taking into account the patient’s needs and wants, as well as how their condition affects their lives.

      Drug therapy should be considered a last resort and is only available to those aged 5 years or older. Parents of children with mild/moderate symptoms can benefit from attending education and training programmes. For those who do not respond or have severe symptoms, pharmacotherapy may be considered. Methylphenidate is the first-line treatment for children and should be given on a six-week trial basis. It is a CNS stimulant that primarily acts as a dopamine/norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor. Side effects include abdominal pain, nausea, and dyspepsia. Weight and height should be monitored every six months in children. If there is an inadequate response, lisdexamfetamine should be considered, followed by dexamfetamine if necessary. In adults, methylphenidate or lisdexamfetamine are the first-line options, with switching between drugs if no benefit is seen after a trial of the other. All of these drugs are potentially cardiotoxic, so a baseline ECG should be performed before starting treatment, and referral to a cardiologist should be made if there is any significant past medical history or family history, or any doubt or ambiguity.

      As with most psychiatric conditions, a thorough history and clinical examination are essential, particularly given the overlap of ADHD with many other psychiatric and

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      16.8
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A woman in her early stages of pregnancy seeks guidance on whether it...

    Correct

    • A woman in her early stages of pregnancy seeks guidance on whether it is safe to consume alcohol. What advice aligns with the current NICE guidelines?

      Your Answer: Avoid alcohol throughout pregnancy

      Explanation:

      Antenatal care guidelines were issued by NICE in March 2008, which included specific points for the care of healthy pregnant women. Nausea and vomiting can be treated with natural remedies such as ginger and acupuncture on the ‘p6’ point, as recommended by NICE. Antihistamines, with promethazine as the first-line option according to the BNF, can also be used. Adequate vitamin D intake is crucial for the health of both the mother and baby, and women should be informed about this at their booking appointment. The Chief Medical Officer advises all pregnant and breastfeeding women to take a daily supplement containing 10 micrograms of vitamin D, with particular care taken for those at risk. In 2016, new guidelines were proposed by the Chief Medical Officer regarding alcohol consumption during pregnancy. The government now advises pregnant women not to drink any alcohol to minimize the risk of harm to the baby.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 67-year-old man presents to the medical team with a 4-day history of...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old man presents to the medical team with a 4-day history of fever, headache, and dysphasia. He reports feeling generally unwell. On examination, he has a GCS of 14 with no peripheral focal neurology and normal pupillary reactions. Bibasal crepitations and an ejection systolic murmur are heard on auscultation. His abdomen is soft and nontender. A chest radiograph is unremarkable, but a CT brain scan reveals an intracranial abscess. What is the most appropriate diagnostic test to aid in further diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Echocardiogram

      Explanation:

      Distant abscesses can be caused by infective embolic plaques in patients with infective endocarditis, including brain abscesses. To aid in the diagnosis of infective endocarditis, an echocardiogram is the most appropriate next investigation for this patient, given their examination findings. While a CT of the chest and abdomen may be necessary if the underlying cause remains unknown, it is less important with a normal chest radiograph and abdominal examination. Bronchoscopy, lower limb imaging, and EEG are not currently necessary.

      Understanding Brain Abscesses

      Brain abscesses can occur due to various reasons such as sepsis from middle ear or sinuses, head injuries, and endocarditis. The symptoms of brain abscesses depend on the location of the abscess, with those in critical areas presenting earlier. Brain abscesses can cause a considerable mass effect in the brain, leading to raised intracranial pressure. Symptoms of brain abscesses include dull and persistent headaches, fever, focal neurology, nausea, papilloedema, and seizures.

      To diagnose brain abscesses, doctors may perform imaging with CT scanning. Treatment for brain abscesses involves surgery, where a craniotomy is performed to remove the abscess cavity. However, the abscess may reform because the head is closed following abscess drainage. Intravenous antibiotics such as 3rd-generation cephalosporin and metronidazole are also administered. Additionally, intracranial pressure management with dexamethasone may be necessary.

      Overall, brain abscesses are a serious condition that requires prompt medical attention. Understanding the symptoms and treatment options can help individuals seek medical help early and improve their chances of recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      128
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 70-year-old man has been diagnosed with active tuberculosis and started on antibiotics....

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man has been diagnosed with active tuberculosis and started on antibiotics. He has a history of chronic kidney disease stage 4 and atrial fibrillation treated with warfarin. His INR taken 2 days after starting treatment is elevated at 7.8. Which antibiotic is the likely cause of this result?

      Your Answer: Erythromycin

      Correct Answer: Isoniazid

      Explanation:

      The cytochrome p450 system is inhibited by isoniazid, which leads to a decrease in the metabolism of warfarin. This results in an increase in the INR and prolongation of its effects. Although erythromycin is metabolized by the cytochrome p450 system, it is not used in the initial phase of anti-tuberculosis treatment. Levofloxacin is not typically used in the initial phase of anti-tuberculosis treatment, but it may be used in combination with other agents if standard treatment is discontinued due to hepatotoxicity. Pyridoxine, which is vitamin B6, is not utilized in the treatment of tuberculosis.

      P450 Enzyme System and its Inducers and Inhibitors

      The P450 enzyme system is responsible for metabolizing drugs in the body. Induction of this system usually requires prolonged exposure to the inducing drug, unlike P450 inhibitors, which have rapid effects. Some drugs that induce the P450 system include antiepileptics like phenytoin and carbamazepine, barbiturates such as phenobarbitone, rifampicin, St John’s Wort, chronic alcohol intake, griseofulvin, and smoking, which affects CYP1A2 and is the reason why smokers require more aminophylline.

      On the other hand, some drugs inhibit the P450 system, including antibiotics like ciprofloxacin and erythromycin, isoniazid, cimetidine, omeprazole, amiodarone, allopurinol, imidazoles such as ketoconazole and fluconazole, SSRIs like fluoxetine and sertraline, ritonavir, sodium valproate, and acute alcohol intake. It is important to be aware of these inducers and inhibitors as they can affect the metabolism and efficacy of drugs in the body. Proper dosing and monitoring can help ensure safe and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      68.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 25-year-old female student attends the blood transfusion service wishing to donate blood....

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female student attends the blood transfusion service wishing to donate blood. She is currently well, has never had a serious illness and weighs 60 kg. About three months ago she spent the summer doing voluntary work in Nigeria. She also had her ears pierced three years ago and had a tattoo put on her left arm one year ago. She is not acceptable as a donor.
      Which of the following is the reason for her rejection to donate blood in the UK?

      Your Answer: Recent travel to an endemic area

      Explanation:

      Blood Donation Eligibility Criteria: Factors to Consider

      When it comes to donating blood, there are several factors to consider to ensure the safety of both the donor and the recipient. Here are some examples:

      Recent travel to an endemic area: If a person has recently traveled to a country with a high risk of infectious diseases, they may have to wait a certain period before donating blood. For instance, if someone has returned from Nigeria, they must wait at least six months before donating blood in the UK.

      Underweight: A person must weigh at least 50 kg to donate blood. If they weigh less than that, they may not have enough blood volume to spare.

      Body piercing: If someone has had a body piercing within the last 12 months, they should inform the staff before donating blood. They may have to wait for at least four months before donating.

      Tattoo: Similarly, if someone has had a tattoo within the last 12 months, they should inform the staff before donating blood. They may have to wait for at least four months before donating.

      Age: To donate blood, a person must be between 17 and 66 years old (or 70 if they have donated blood before). If they are over 70, they can still donate if they have donated blood in the last two years.

      By considering these factors, blood donation centers can ensure that the blood they collect is safe and suitable for transfusion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      60
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 36-year-old entrepreneur arrives at Eye Casualty complaining of blurred vision in both...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old entrepreneur arrives at Eye Casualty complaining of blurred vision in both eyes that started an hour ago. He reports seeing multiple wavy and shimmering lines in his peripheral vision that are gradually getting bigger. Upon examination with a slit lamp, the anterior chamber is clear and the fundus appears normal. What is the probable reason for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Uveitis

      Correct Answer: Migraine with aura

      Explanation:

      Migraine sufferers often experience visual symptoms before the onset of a headache, such as wavy or shimmering lines known as a scintillating scotoma. It is important to obtain a thorough medical history as the patient may not mention a history of headaches. A normal eye exam is crucial for proper diagnosis. The other conditions listed have associated exam findings, such as cells in the anterior chamber for uveitis, a pale disc and relative afferent pupillary defect for optic neuritis, and a Weiss ring appearance with occasional hemorrhage for posterior vitreous detachment.

      Diagnostic Criteria for Migraine

      Migraine is a neurological disorder that affects millions of people worldwide. The International Headache Society has established diagnostic criteria for migraine without aura, which includes at least five attacks lasting between 4-72 hours and having at least two of the following characteristics: unilateral location, pulsating quality, moderate or severe pain intensity, and aggravation by routine physical activity. During the headache, there must be at least one of the following: nausea and/or vomiting, photophobia, and phonophobia. The headache cannot be attributed to another disorder.

      Migraine with aura, which is seen in around 25% of migraine patients, tends to be easier to diagnose with a typical aura being progressive in nature and may occur hours prior to the headache. Typical aura include a transient hemianopic disturbance or a spreading scintillating scotoma (‘jagged crescent’). Sensory symptoms may also occur. NICE criteria suggest that migraines may be unilateral or bilateral and give more detail about typical auras, which may occur with or without headache and are fully reversible, develop over at least 5 minutes, and last 5-60 minutes. Atypical aura symptoms such as motor weakness, double vision, visual symptoms affecting only one eye, poor balance, and decreased level of consciousness may prompt further investigation or referral.

      In summary, the diagnostic criteria for migraine without aura include specific characteristics of the headache and associated symptoms, while migraine with aura is characterized by typical aura symptoms that may occur prior to the headache. It is important to accurately diagnose migraine to provide appropriate treatment and management for those who suffer from this debilitating condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 28-year-old pregnant woman came to your GP clinic complaining of mild pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old pregnant woman came to your GP clinic complaining of mild pain and redness in both eyes that had been present for a week. During the examination, you noticed diffuse conjunctival injection with some purulent discharges and crusted eyelids. What is the ONE treatment you should initiate for this patient?

      Your Answer: Chloramphenicol ointment

      Correct Answer: Fusidic acid eye drops

      Explanation:

      Pregnant women with bacterial conjunctivitis should use topical fusidic acid eye drops for treatment. It is not recommended to use chloramphenicol ointment or eye drops in pregnant patients. Oral antibiotics are typically unnecessary for treating bacterial conjunctivitis, and steroid eye drops are not effective. While viral conjunctivitis can be monitored without treatment, bacterial conjunctivitis requires prompt treatment with topical antibiotics to prevent a secondary bacterial infection.

      Conjunctivitis is a common eye problem that is often seen in primary care. It is characterized by red, sore eyes with a sticky discharge. There are two types of infective conjunctivitis: bacterial and viral. Bacterial conjunctivitis is identified by a purulent discharge and eyes that may be stuck together in the morning. On the other hand, viral conjunctivitis is characterized by a serous discharge and recent upper respiratory tract infection, as well as preauricular lymph nodes.

      In most cases, infective conjunctivitis is a self-limiting condition that resolves without treatment within one to two weeks. However, topical antibiotic therapy is often offered to patients, such as Chloramphenicol drops given every two to three hours initially or Chloramphenicol ointment given four times a day initially. Alternatively, topical fusidic acid can be used, especially for pregnant women, and treatment is twice daily.

      For contact lens users, topical fluoresceins should be used to identify any corneal staining, and treatment should be the same as above. During an episode of conjunctivitis, contact lenses should not be worn, and patients should be advised not to share towels. School exclusion is not necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      29.9
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 45-year old woman became pregnant unexpectedly. She had given birth to five...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year old woman became pregnant unexpectedly. She had given birth to five healthy children in her 20s and 30s with her now 47-year-old husband. Chorionic villus biopsy and karyotype analysis revealed that she was carrying a fetus with trisomy 21 (Down syndrome).
      What is the most likely cause of the condition?

      Your Answer: The husband is a translocation carrier

      Correct Answer: The mother’s age

      Explanation:

      Down syndrome is a genetic condition that is caused by three mechanisms. The most common cause is Trisomy 21, which occurs when there is a non-separation of the homologous chromosomes during meiosis. This risk increases with advancing maternal age, with a likelihood of 1 in 1500 at age 20 and 1 in 50 at age 45 or older. Translocation, where part of chromosome 21 attaches to another chromosome, accounts for about 4% of cases. Mosaicism, where only some cells carry the extra copy of chromosome 21, is the rarest type. Paternal age is not a significant factor, but if either parent is a translocation carrier, there is a 1 in 2 chance of passing it on to their offspring. A spontaneous mutation in the fetus is not a cause of Down syndrome.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      58.5
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - As a young physician working in a psychiatric ward, you encounter a situation...

    Incorrect

    • As a young physician working in a psychiatric ward, you encounter a situation where a teenage patient has become uncontrollable and tried to assault a staff member. The patient is currently being restrained in the prone position on the floor, but is still struggling and attempting to break free. The restraint has been in place for approximately 10 minutes. What steps should you take in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Use mechanical restraint

      Correct Answer: Give him rapid tranquillisation

      Explanation:

      To avoid prolonged manual restraint, it is recommended to consider rapid tranquillisation or seclusion as alternatives. Prolonged physical restraint poses both physical and emotional risks for both patients and staff. Handcuffs and other mechanical restraints should only be used in exceptional circumstances in high-secure settings. It is important to avoid releasing an agitated patient from restraint as it could be dangerous for staff and other patients. Patients should not be carried during any kind of restraint.

      Understanding Psychosis

      Psychosis is a term used to describe a person’s experience of perceiving things differently from those around them. This can manifest in various ways, including hallucinations, delusions, thought disorganization, alogia, tangentiality, clanging, and word salad. Associated features may include agitation/aggression, neurocognitive impairment, depression, and thoughts of self-harm. Psychotic symptoms can occur in a range of conditions, such as schizophrenia, depression, bipolar disorder, puerperal psychosis, brief psychotic disorder, neurological conditions, and drug use. The peak age of first-episode psychosis is around 15-30 years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      54.5
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 45-year-old man has been referred by his GP due to a history...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old man has been referred by his GP due to a history of uncontrolled hypertension. He has come in today to undergo an aldosterone: renin ratio test. The results indicate high levels of aldosterone and low levels of renin. Additionally, a CT scan has revealed bilateral adrenal gland hyperplasia.

      What is the recommended management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Spironolactone

      Explanation:

      The patient is suffering from primary hyperaldosteronism, which is caused by bilateral adrenal gland hyperplasia. This condition leads to elevated aldosterone levels, resulting in increased sodium retention and negative feedback to renin release. The most common cause of primary hyperaldosteronism is bilateral adrenal hyperplasia, which can be treated with spironolactone, an aldosterone receptor antagonist, for four weeks. Adrenalectomy is only recommended for unilateral adrenal adenoma, which is not the case for this patient. Fludrocortisone and hydrocortisone are not appropriate treatments for hyperaldosteronism as they act on mineralocorticoid receptors, exacerbating the condition. Reassurance and discharge are not recommended as untreated primary hyperaldosteronism can lead to chronic elevation of blood pressure, increasing the risk of cardiovascular disease, stroke, and kidney damage.

      Understanding Primary Hyperaldosteronism

      Primary hyperaldosteronism is a medical condition that was previously believed to be caused by an adrenal adenoma, also known as Conn’s syndrome. However, recent studies have shown that bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia is the cause in up to 70% of cases. It is important to differentiate between the two as this determines the appropriate treatment. Adrenal carcinoma is an extremely rare cause of primary hyperaldosteronism.

      The common features of primary hyperaldosteronism include hypertension, hypokalaemia, and alkalosis. Hypokalaemia can cause muscle weakness, but this is seen in only 10-40% of patients. To diagnose primary hyperaldosteronism, the 2016 Endocrine Society recommends a plasma aldosterone/renin ratio as the first-line investigation. This should show high aldosterone levels alongside low renin levels due to negative feedback from sodium retention caused by aldosterone.

      If the plasma aldosterone/renin ratio is high, a high-resolution CT abdomen and adrenal vein sampling are used to differentiate between unilateral and bilateral sources of aldosterone excess. If the CT is normal, adrenal venous sampling (AVS) can be used to distinguish between unilateral adenoma and bilateral hyperplasia. The management of primary hyperaldosteronism depends on the underlying cause. Adrenal adenoma is treated with surgery, while bilateral adrenocortical hyperplasia is treated with an aldosterone antagonist such as spironolactone.

      In summary, primary hyperaldosteronism is a medical condition that can be caused by adrenal adenoma, bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia, or adrenal carcinoma. It is characterized by hypertension, hypokalaemia, and alkalosis. Diagnosis involves a plasma aldosterone/renin ratio, high-resolution CT abdomen, and adrenal vein sampling. Treatment depends on the underlying cause and may involve surgery or medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      10.7
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - You assess a 79-year-old woman who is on digoxin for atrial fibrillation. What...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 79-year-old woman who is on digoxin for atrial fibrillation. What factor is most likely to increase her risk of developing digoxin toxicity?

      Your Answer: Concurrent clarithromycin use

      Correct Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      Patients with hypokalaemia are more likely to experience digoxin toxicity.

      Understanding Digoxin and Its Toxicity

      Digoxin is a medication used for rate control in atrial fibrillation and for improving symptoms in heart failure patients. It works by decreasing conduction through the atrioventricular node and increasing the force of cardiac muscle contraction. However, it has a narrow therapeutic index and requires monitoring for toxicity.

      Toxicity may occur even when the digoxin concentration is within the therapeutic range. Symptoms of toxicity include lethargy, nausea, vomiting, anorexia, confusion, yellow-green vision, arrhythmias, and gynaecomastia. Hypokalaemia is a classic precipitating factor, as it allows digoxin to more easily bind to the ATPase pump and increase its inhibitory effects. Other factors that may contribute to toxicity include increasing age, renal failure, myocardial ischaemia, electrolyte imbalances, hypoalbuminaemia, hypothermia, hypothyroidism, and certain medications such as amiodarone, quinidine, and verapamil.

      Management of digoxin toxicity involves the use of Digibind, correction of arrhythmias, and monitoring of potassium levels. It is important to recognize the potential for toxicity and monitor patients accordingly to prevent adverse outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      22.9
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A high school student complains of painful mouth ulcers associated with pain and...

    Correct

    • A high school student complains of painful mouth ulcers associated with pain and swelling in both hands. She has had several episodes of vasospasm in her fingers, with pallor, cyanosis and subsequent redness caused by reactive hyperaemia. Blood tests reveal anti-double-stranded (ds)DNA antibodies and antinuclear antibodies (ANAs).
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)

      Explanation:

      Autoimmune Connective Tissue Diseases: Characteristics and Differences

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), Sjögren syndrome, Behçet’s disease, granulomatosis with polyangiitis, and systemic sclerosis are all autoimmune connective tissue diseases with distinct characteristics. SLE is most prevalent in African-American women and presents with arthralgia, rashes, and fever. Sjögren syndrome is characterised by dry eyes and mouth, while Behçet’s disease is primarily characterised by recurrent mouth ulcers, genital ulceration, eye lesions, and cutaneous manifestations. Granulomatosis with polyangiitis predominantly affects the small vessels and presents with lesions involving the upper respiratory tract, lungs, and kidneys. Systemic sclerosis is a multisystem disease characterised by Raynaud’s phenomenon and either limited or diffuse cutaneous scleroderma. Understanding the differences between these diseases is crucial for accurate diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      69.1
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 28-year-old female with no significant medical history is started on carbamazepine for...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old female with no significant medical history is started on carbamazepine for focal impaired awareness seizures. She drinks alcohol moderately. After three months, she experiences a series of seizures and her carbamazepine levels are found to be subtherapeutic. Despite being fully compliant, a pill-count reveals this. What is the probable cause?

      Your Answer: Alcohol binge

      Correct Answer: Auto-induction of liver enzymes

      Explanation:

      Carbamazepine induces the P450 enzyme system, leading to increased metabolism of carbamazepine through auto-induction.

      P450 Enzyme System and its Inducers and Inhibitors

      The P450 enzyme system is responsible for metabolizing drugs in the body. Induction of this system usually requires prolonged exposure to the inducing drug, unlike P450 inhibitors, which have rapid effects. Some drugs that induce the P450 system include antiepileptics like phenytoin and carbamazepine, barbiturates such as phenobarbitone, rifampicin, St John’s Wort, chronic alcohol intake, griseofulvin, and smoking, which affects CYP1A2 and is the reason why smokers require more aminophylline.

      On the other hand, some drugs inhibit the P450 system, including antibiotics like ciprofloxacin and erythromycin, isoniazid, cimetidine, omeprazole, amiodarone, allopurinol, imidazoles such as ketoconazole and fluconazole, SSRIs like fluoxetine and sertraline, ritonavir, sodium valproate, and acute alcohol intake. It is important to be aware of these inducers and inhibitors as they can affect the metabolism and efficacy of drugs in the body. Proper dosing and monitoring can help ensure safe and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      33.8
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 30-year-old man comes to you with a painful and swollen left knee....

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old man comes to you with a painful and swollen left knee. He recently returned from a trip to Spain about 4 weeks ago. He denies any history of knee problems or trauma. Upon examination, you notice that his left knee is warm and swollen, but he has a full range of motion. Additionally, he complains of pain when moving his ankle joints, but there is no visible swelling. You also observe a waxy yellow rash on the soles of both feet. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Rheumatoid arthritis

      Correct Answer: Reactive arthritis

      Explanation:

      Keratoderma blenorrhagica is the cause of the rash on the soles. The reactive arthritis he is experiencing could be a result of a gastrointestinal infection or Chlamydia.

      Understanding Reactive Arthritis: Symptoms and Features

      Reactive arthritis is a type of seronegative spondyloarthropathy that is associated with HLA-B27. It was previously known as Reiter’s syndrome, which was characterized by a triad of urethritis, conjunctivitis, and arthritis following a dysenteric illness during World War II. However, later studies revealed that patients could also develop symptoms after a sexually transmitted infection, now referred to as sexually acquired reactive arthritis (SARA).

      Reactive arthritis is defined as an arthritis that develops after an infection, but the organism cannot be recovered from the joint. The symptoms typically develop within four weeks of the initial infection and last for around 4-6 months. Approximately 25% of patients experience recurrent episodes, while 10% develop chronic disease. The arthritis is usually an asymmetrical oligoarthritis of the lower limbs, and patients may also experience dactylitis.

      Other symptoms of reactive arthritis include urethritis, conjunctivitis (seen in 10-30% of patients), and anterior uveitis. Skin symptoms may also occur, such as circinate balanitis (painless vesicles on the coronal margin of the prepuce) and keratoderma blenorrhagica (waxy yellow/brown papules on palms and soles). A helpful mnemonic to remember the symptoms of reactive arthritis is Can’t see, pee, or climb a tree.

      In conclusion, understanding the symptoms and features of reactive arthritis is crucial for early diagnosis and treatment. While the condition can be recurrent or chronic, prompt management can help alleviate symptoms and improve quality of life for affected individuals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      17.4
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - What is a not a cause of hypertension in adolescents? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is a not a cause of hypertension in adolescents?

      Your Answer: Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

      Correct Answer: Bartter's syndrome

      Explanation:

      Bartter’s syndrome is a genetic condition that typically follows an autosomal recessive pattern of inheritance. It results in severe hypokalaemia due to a defect in the absorption of chloride at the Na+ K+ 2Cl- cotransporter in the ascending loop of Henle. Unlike other endocrine causes of hypokalaemia such as Conn’s, Cushing’s and Liddle’s syndrome, Bartter’s syndrome is associated with normotension. The condition usually presents in childhood and is characterized by symptoms such as failure to thrive, polyuria, polydipsia, hypokalaemia, and weakness.

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, can also affect children. To measure blood pressure in children, it is important to use a cuff size that is approximately 2/3 the length of their upper arm. The 4th Korotkoff sound is used to measure diastolic blood pressure until adolescence, when the 5th Korotkoff sound can be used. Results should be compared with a graph of normal values for their age.

      In younger children, secondary hypertension is the most common cause, with renal parenchymal disease accounting for up to 80% of cases. Other causes of hypertension in children include renal vascular disease, coarctation of the aorta, phaeochromocytoma, congenital adrenal hyperplasia, and essential or primary hypertension, which becomes more common as children get older. It is important to identify the underlying cause of hypertension in children in order to provide appropriate treatment and prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      35.8
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - An 80-year-old man has been experiencing recurrent falls due to orthostatic hypotension. Despite...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man has been experiencing recurrent falls due to orthostatic hypotension. Despite trying conservative measures such as increasing fluid and salt intake, reviewing medications, and wearing compression stockings, he still experiences dizziness upon standing. What medication options are available to alleviate his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Doxazosin

      Correct Answer: Fludrocortisone

      Explanation:

      Fludrocortisone and midodrine are two medications that can be used to treat orthostatic hypotension. However, doxazosin, a medication used for hypertension, can actually worsen orthostatic hypotension. Prochlorperazine is used for vertigo and isoprenaline and dobutamine are not used for orthostatic hypotension as they are ionotropic agents used for patients in shock.

      Fludrocortisone works by increasing renal sodium reabsorption and plasma volume, which helps counteract the physiological orthostatic vasovagal reflex. Its effectiveness has been supported by two small observational studies and one small double-blind trial, leading the European Society of Cardiology to give it a Class IIa recommendation.

      To manage orthostatic hypotension, patients should be educated on lifestyle measures such as staying hydrated and increasing salt intake. Vasoactive drugs like nitrates, antihypertensives, neuroleptic agents, or dopaminergic drugs should be discontinued if possible. If symptoms persist, compression garments, fludrocortisone, midodrine, counter-pressure manoeuvres, and head-up tilt sleeping can be considered.

      Understanding Syncope: Causes and Evaluation

      Syncope is a temporary loss of consciousness caused by a sudden decrease in blood flow to the brain. This condition is characterized by a rapid onset, short duration, and complete recovery without any medical intervention. It is important to note that syncope is different from other causes of collapse, such as epilepsy. To better understand syncope, the European Society of Cardiology has classified it into three categories: reflex syncope, orthostatic syncope, and cardiac syncope.

      Reflex syncope, also known as neurally mediated syncope, is the most common cause of syncope in all age groups. It can be triggered by emotional stress, pain, or other situational factors such as coughing or gastrointestinal issues. Orthostatic syncope occurs when there is a sudden drop in blood pressure upon standing up, and it is more common in older patients. Cardiac syncope is caused by heart-related issues such as arrhythmias, structural abnormalities, or pulmonary embolism.

      To evaluate syncope, doctors may perform a series of tests, including a cardiovascular examination, postural blood pressure readings, ECG, carotid sinus massage, tilt table test, and 24-hour ECG monitoring. These tests help to identify the underlying cause of syncope and determine the appropriate treatment plan. By understanding the causes and evaluation of syncope, patients and healthcare providers can work together to manage this condition effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      45.4
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 42-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 4-month history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 4-month history of nasal congestion and coughing. Over the previous few days, she has also been experiencing a persistent headache which seems to be worse when she leans forward.
      Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute sinusitis

      Correct Answer: Chronic rhinosinusitis

      Explanation:

      Differentiating Chronic Rhinosinusitis from Other Headache Disorders

      Chronic rhinosinusitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of the paranasal sinuses and nasal passages that lasts for 12 weeks or longer. Patients with chronic rhinosinusitis typically present with symptoms such as nasal congestion, coughing, persistent headache that worsens on bending forwards, facial pain, nasal discharge, and postnasal drip. Predisposing factors for chronic rhinosinusitis include atopy, nasal obstruction, recent local infection, swimming or diving, and smoking. Management of chronic rhinosinusitis involves avoidance of allergens, intranasal corticosteroids, and nasal irrigation with saline.

      Acute sinusitis shares many features with chronic rhinosinusitis, but the history of symptoms is much shorter. Treatment for acute sinusitis includes analgesia, intranasal decongestants or nasal saline, and intranasal corticosteroids if symptoms persist for more than ten days. Oral antibiotics may be given for severe presentations.

      Cluster headaches are characterized by intense, sharp, stabbing pain around one eye, accompanied by eye redness, lacrimation, lid swelling, nasal stuffiness, skin erythema, miosis or ptosis. Cluster headaches occur in clusters lasting between four and 12 weeks, with patients feeling completely fine in between clusters. Tension headaches are described as a band-like headache that does not impair activities of daily living.

      Postnasal drip (PND) typically presents with a chronic cough and bad breath, unlike the presentation in chronic rhinosinusitis. It is important to differentiate chronic rhinosinusitis from other headache disorders to ensure appropriate management and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • ENT
      100.5
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 28-year-old woman has a Mirena intrauterine device inserted for birth control on...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman has a Mirena intrauterine device inserted for birth control on day 10 of her menstrual cycle. She has not engaged in sexual activity since her last period. What is the duration required before it can be considered a reliable contraceptive method?

      Your Answer: 7 days

      Correct Answer: Immediately

      Explanation:

      Contraceptives – Time to become effective (if not used on the first day of period):
      Immediate: IUD
      2 days: Progestin-only pill (POP)
      7 days: Combined oral contraceptive (COC), injection, implant, intrauterine system (IUS)

      Intrauterine contraceptive devices include copper IUDs and levonorgestrel-releasing IUS. Both are over 99% effective. The IUD prevents fertilization by decreasing sperm motility, while the IUS prevents endometrial proliferation and thickens cervical mucus. Potential problems include heavier periods with IUDs and initial bleeding with the IUS. There is a small risk of uterine perforation, ectopic pregnancy, and infection. New IUS systems, such as Jaydess® and Kyleena®, have smaller frames and less levonorgestrel, resulting in lower serum levels and different rates of amenorrhea.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      86.4
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 35-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with rapid onset abdominal pain,...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with rapid onset abdominal pain, which is worse on lying. He feels nauseous and is vomiting.
      On examination, he is tachycardic and pyrexial at 38.1°C. His abdomen is tender with marked guarding. There is bruising around his umbilicus.
      The patient reports drinking six cans of strong lager per day. He also smokes two packets of cigarettes a day. He says he was last in hospital two years ago when he was vomiting blood. He cannot remember what treatment he was given. He has no other medical history of note. He does not take any medications regularly.
      What is the most likely cause for the man’s presentation and signs?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pancreatitis with retroperitoneal haemorrhage

      Explanation:

      Differential diagnosis for a man with abdominal pain and retroperitoneal haemorrhage

      The man in question presents with classic symptoms of pancreatitis, including abdominal pain that radiates to the back and worsens on lying down, as well as nausea. However, his periumbilical bruising suggests retroperitoneal haemorrhage, which can also manifest as flank bruising. This condition may be related to his alcohol consumption, which increases the risk of both pancreatitis and coagulopathy.

      While bleeding oesophageal varices are another potential consequence of alcohol abuse, they would not explain the absence of haematemesis or malanea on this admission, nor the retroperitoneal haemorrhage. Similarly, hepatic cirrhosis and consequent coagulopathy could contribute to bleeding but would not account for the sudden onset of abdominal pain or the lack of ecchymosis elsewhere. A pancreatic abscess, which can develop as a complication of pancreatitis, would typically present with a swinging fever and a longer history of symptoms.

      Finally, a ruptured duodenal ulcer could cause upper gastrointestinal bleeding, but there is no evidence of this in the current case. The absence of reflux also makes this diagnosis less likely. Overall, the differential diagnosis for this patient includes pancreatitis with retroperitoneal haemorrhage, which may be related to alcohol use, and other conditions that do not fully fit the clinical picture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease (1/2) 50%
Cardiovascular (2/3) 67%
Gastroenterology/Nutrition (1/2) 50%
Dermatology (1/1) 100%
Ophthalmology (0/2) 0%
ENT (1/2) 50%
Reproductive Medicine (3/4) 75%
Infectious Diseases (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology/Therapeutics (1/4) 25%
Paediatrics (2/2) 100%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Haematology/Oncology (1/1) 100%
Genetics (1/1) 100%
Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Musculoskeletal (2/2) 100%
Passmed