00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A 68-year-old man comes to the memory clinic with a complaint of subjective...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old man comes to the memory clinic with a complaint of subjective memory impairment for the past 8 months. During the assessment, the physician you are observing mentions that they will not be evaluating sensory memory. What makes this type of memory unique?

      Your Answer: It is stored in the hippocampus

      Correct Answer: It cannot be prolonged by repetition

      Explanation:

      Understanding Sensory Memory

      Sensory memory is a type of memory that holds sensory information for a brief period of time, typically a few seconds. It is important to note that this memory only lasts for a few seconds and not the commonly believed 5-8 minutes. The capacity of sensory memory is 12 items, which is higher than the commonly believed 3 items. However, this memory degrades very quickly and cannot be prolonged through repetition or rehearsal.

      There are different types of sensory memory, such as iconic memory for visual information and echoic memory for auditory information. It is important to note that sensory memory is not the same as episodic memory, which is responsible for remembering events and experiences.

      The hippocampus plays a crucial role in transforming short-term memory into long-term memory. Without the hippocampus, it would be difficult to retain information for an extended period of time. Understanding sensory memory is important in understanding how our brain processes and stores information.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      35
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 22-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a stab wound on...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a stab wound on the left side of his neck above the clavicle. Upon examination, there is no indication of damage to the pleura or any major blood vessels. However, a winged scapula is observed on the left side of his back, with the scapula protruding from the chest wall and the inferior angle pointing towards the midline. What nerve is responsible for this condition?

      Your Answer: Suprascapular nerve

      Correct Answer: Long thoracic nerve

      Explanation:

      The nerve responsible for a winged scapula is the long thoracic nerve, which originates from C5-7 and travels along the thorax to reach the serratus anterior muscle. Damage to this nerve can cause the scapula to lift off the thoracic wall and limit shoulder movement. Other nerves that can cause a winged scapula include the accessory nerve and dorsal scapular nerve. The transverse cervical nerve supplies the neck, the phrenic nerve supplies the diaphragm, the greater auricular nerve supplies the mandible and ear, and the suprascapular nerve supplies the shoulder muscles and joints.

      The Long Thoracic Nerve and its Role in Scapular Winging

      The long thoracic nerve is derived from the ventral rami of C5, C6, and C7, which are located close to their emergence from intervertebral foramina. It runs downward and passes either anterior or posterior to the middle scalene muscle before reaching the upper tip of the serratus anterior muscle. From there, it descends on the outer surface of this muscle, giving branches into it.

      One of the most common symptoms of long thoracic nerve injury is scapular winging, which occurs when the serratus anterior muscle is weakened or paralyzed. This can happen due to a variety of reasons, including trauma, surgery, or nerve damage. In addition to long thoracic nerve injury, scapular winging can also be caused by spinal accessory nerve injury (which denervates the trapezius) or a dorsal scapular nerve injury.

      Overall, the long thoracic nerve plays an important role in the function of the serratus anterior muscle and the stability of the scapula. Understanding its anatomy and function can help healthcare professionals diagnose and treat conditions that affect the nerve and its associated muscles.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      35.6
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - As a fourth year medical student, you are observing a morning colonoscopy list...

    Incorrect

    • As a fourth year medical student, you are observing a morning colonoscopy list at the hospital. You come across patients who have been referred for imaging due to specific symptoms like rectal bleeding, as well as those who are undergoing routine annual colonoscopies. You are aware that most cases of colorectal cancer are sporadic, with no known genetic predisposition in patients. However, there are also certain genetic mutations that require patients to undergo colonoscopy screening for the development of colorectal cancer.

      Can you provide examples of such genetic mutations?

      Your Answer: CEA and HNPCC

      Correct Answer: FAP and HNPCC

      Explanation:

      Colorectal cancer can be classified into three types: sporadic, hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma (HNPCC), and familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP). Sporadic colon cancer is believed to be caused by a series of genetic mutations, including allelic loss of the APC gene, activation of the K-ras oncogene, and deletion of p53 and DCC tumor suppressor genes. HNPCC, which is an autosomal dominant condition, is the most common form of inherited colon cancer. It is caused by mutations in genes involved in DNA mismatch repair, leading to microsatellite instability. The most common genes affected are MSH2 and MLH1. Patients with HNPCC are also at a higher risk of other cancers, such as endometrial cancer. The Amsterdam criteria are sometimes used to aid diagnosis of HNPCC. FAP is a rare autosomal dominant condition that leads to the formation of hundreds of polyps by the age of 30-40 years. It is caused by a mutation in the APC gene. Patients with FAP are also at risk of duodenal tumors. A variant of FAP called Gardner’s syndrome can also feature osteomas of the skull and mandible, retinal pigmentation, thyroid carcinoma, and epidermoid cysts on the skin. Genetic testing can be done to diagnose HNPCC and FAP, and patients with FAP generally have a total colectomy with ileo-anal pouch formation in their twenties.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      43.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which type of lipoprotein is involved in the development of atherosclerosis observed in...

    Incorrect

    • Which type of lipoprotein is involved in the development of atherosclerosis observed in coronary artery disease?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Low density lipoprotein (LDL)

      Explanation:

      Atherosclerosis: The Gradual Narrowing of Arteries

      Atherosclerosis is a gradual process that involves the narrowing of arteries due to the accumulation of lipid-rich deposits within artery walls. This condition can take many years to develop and is the primary cause of coronary heart disease, peripheral vascular disease, and ischemic stroke. When a clot forms over an atherosclerotic plaque, it can lead to a heart attack by blocking blood flow to the cardiac muscle.

      Monocytes from the blood absorb oxidized LDL particles to form lipid-laden foam cells, which accumulate in the vessel walls and eventually form fatty streaks and atherosclerotic plaques. These foam cells secrete cytokines and chemokines that promote smooth muscle cell proliferation, contributing to the development of the atherosclerotic plaque. Any damage to the plaque can result in the release of tissue factor, which promotes clot formation.

      LDL can easily form oxidized LDL, especially in the presence of haem, which is released from damaged red blood cells in areas of turbulent blood flow. Inflammation, obesity, diabetes, and impaired glucose tolerance can also contribute to the formation of oxidized LDL. the causes and mechanisms of atherosclerosis is crucial in preventing and treating this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What is the compound that results from the skin's exposure to sunlight and...

    Incorrect

    • What is the compound that results from the skin's exposure to sunlight and serves as the active form of vitamin D?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1,25(OH)2 Vitamin D3

      Explanation:

      The Activation of Vitamin D

      Vitamin D is essential for maintaining healthy bones and can be obtained through exposure to sunlight or from the diet. The body can activate either vitamin D2 or vitamin D3 through the same pathway. The activation process involves hydroxylation, which adds a hydroxyl group to the vitamin D molecule at position 25 in the liver. This step is not rate limiting and occurs rapidly.

      The next step in activation is further hydroxylation at carbon number 1 on the vitamin D molecule, which creates 1,25(OH)2 vitamin D. This step is rate limiting and requires the enzyme 1-alpha hydroxylase. If there is an abundance of activated vitamin D, the activity of the 1-alpha hydroxylase enzyme will decrease to prevent excessive activation of vitamin D. Instead, an inactive form called 24,25(OH)2 vitamin D can be produced. the activation process of vitamin D is crucial for maintaining healthy bones and overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of hearing loss in one...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of hearing loss in one ear that has persisted for the last 3 months. Upon examination, Webers test indicates that the issue is on the opposite side, and a CT scan of his head reveals a thickened calvarium with areas of sclerosis and radiolucency. His blood work shows an elevated alkaline phosphatase, normal serum calcium, and normal PTH levels. What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Pagets disease with skull involvement

      Explanation:

      The most probable diagnosis for an old man experiencing bone pain and raised ALP is Paget’s disease, as it often presents with skull vault expansion and sensorineural hearing loss. While multiple myeloma may also cause bone pain, it typically results in multiple areas of radiolucency and raised calcium levels. Although osteopetrosis can cause similar symptoms, it is a rare inherited disorder that usually presents in children or young adults, making it an unlikely diagnosis for an older patient with no prior symptoms.

      Understanding Paget’s Disease of the Bone

      Paget’s disease of the bone is a condition characterized by increased and uncontrolled bone turnover. It is believed to be caused by excessive osteoclastic resorption followed by increased osteoblastic activity. Although it is a common condition, affecting around 5% of the UK population, only 1 in 20 patients experience symptoms. The most commonly affected areas are the skull, spine/pelvis, and long bones of the lower extremities.

      Several factors can predispose an individual to Paget’s disease, including increasing age, male sex, living in northern latitudes, and having a family history of the condition. Symptoms of Paget’s disease include bone pain, particularly in the pelvis, lumbar spine, and femur. In untreated cases, patients may experience bowing of the tibia or bossing of the skull.

      To diagnose Paget’s disease, doctors may perform blood tests to check for elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase (ALP), a marker of bone turnover. Other markers of bone turnover, such as procollagen type I N-terminal propeptide (PINP), serum C-telopeptide (CTx), urinary N-telopeptide (NTx), and urinary hydroxyproline, may also be measured. X-rays and bone scintigraphy can help identify areas of active bone lesions.

      Treatment for Paget’s disease is typically reserved for patients experiencing bone pain, skull or long bone deformity, fractures, or periarticular Paget’s. Bisphosphonates, such as oral risedronate or IV zoledronate, are commonly used to manage the condition. Calcitonin may also be used in some cases. Complications of Paget’s disease can include deafness, bone sarcoma, fractures, skull thickening, and high-output cardiac failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 59-year-old woman visits the respiratory clinic for spirometry testing. As part of...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old woman visits the respiratory clinic for spirometry testing. As part of the testing, what is the definition of functional residual capacity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Functional residual capacity = expiratory reserve volume + residual volume

      Explanation:

      To calculate the volume of air in the lungs after a normal relaxed expiration, one can use the formula for functional residual capacity (FRC), which is determined by the balance between the lungs’ tendency to recoil inwards and the chest wall’s tendency to pull outwards. FRC can be calculated by adding the expiratory reserve volume and the residual volume. In individuals with tetraplegia, decreases in FRC are primarily caused by a reduction in the outward pull of the chest wall, which occurs over time due to the inability to regularly expand the chest wall to large lung volumes. This reduction in FRC can increase the risk of atelectasis.

      Understanding Lung Volumes in Respiratory Physiology

      In respiratory physiology, lung volumes can be measured to determine the amount of air that moves in and out of the lungs during breathing. The diagram above shows the different lung volumes that can be measured.

      Tidal volume (TV) refers to the amount of air that is inspired or expired with each breath at rest. In males, the TV is 500ml while in females, it is 350ml.

      Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV) is the maximum volume of air that can be inspired at the end of a normal tidal inspiration. The inspiratory capacity is the sum of TV and IRV. On the other hand, expiratory reserve volume (ERV) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired at the end of a normal tidal expiration.

      Residual volume (RV) is the volume of air that remains in the lungs after maximal expiration. It increases with age and can be calculated by subtracting ERV from FRC. Speaking of FRC, it is the volume in the lungs at the end-expiratory position and is equal to the sum of ERV and RV.

      Vital capacity (VC) is the maximum volume of air that can be expired after a maximal inspiration. It decreases with age and can be calculated by adding inspiratory capacity and ERV. Lastly, total lung capacity (TLC) is the sum of vital capacity and residual volume.

      Physiological dead space (VD) is calculated by multiplying tidal volume by the difference between arterial carbon dioxide pressure (PaCO2) and end-tidal carbon dioxide pressure (PeCO2) and then dividing the result by PaCO2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 65-year-old man presents with shortness of breath and a haemoglobin level of...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents with shortness of breath and a haemoglobin level of 72 g/dL. The haematology lab performed a blood film and found numerous schistocytes and occasional reticulocytes, with no other erythrocyte abnormalities. Neutrophils and platelets were normal. The patient has a mid-line sternotomy scar, bruising to the arms, a metallic click to the first heart sound, and a resting tremor in the left hand. What is the most likely cause of his anaemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Intravascular haemolysis

      Explanation:

      Schistocytes on a blood film are indicative of intravascular haemolysis, which is the most likely cause in this clinical scenario. The presence of a mid-line sternotomy scar, metallic click to the first heart sound, and warfarin prescription suggests a metal heart valve, which can cause sheering of red blood cells and subsequent intravascular haemolysis. Vasculitis, thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP), and B12 deficiency are less likely causes in this case.

      Pathological Red Cell Forms in Blood Films

      Blood films are used to examine the morphology of red blood cells and identify any abnormalities. Pathological red cell forms are associated with various conditions and can provide important diagnostic information. Some of the common pathological red cell forms include target cells, tear-drop poikilocytes, spherocytes, basophilic stippling, Howell-Jolly bodies, Heinz bodies, schistocytes, pencil poikilocytes, burr cells (echinocytes), and acanthocytes.

      Target cells are seen in conditions such as sickle-cell/thalassaemia, iron-deficiency anaemia, hyposplenism, and liver disease. Tear-drop poikilocytes are associated with myelofibrosis, while spherocytes are seen in hereditary spherocytosis and autoimmune hemolytic anaemia. Basophilic stippling is a characteristic feature of lead poisoning, thalassaemia, sideroblastic anaemia, and myelodysplasia. Howell-Jolly bodies are seen in hyposplenism, while Heinz bodies are associated with G6PD deficiency and alpha-thalassaemia. Schistocytes or ‘helmet cells’ are seen in conditions such as intravascular haemolysis, mechanical heart valve, and disseminated intravascular coagulation. Pencil poikilocytes are seen in iron deficiency anaemia, while burr cells (echinocytes) are associated with uraemia and pyruvate kinase deficiency. Acanthocytes are seen in abetalipoproteinemia.

      In addition to these red cell forms, hypersegmented neutrophils are seen in megaloblastic anaemia. Identifying these pathological red cell forms in blood films can aid in the diagnosis and management of various conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 50-year-old woman with thyroid cancer undergoes a total thyroidectomy. The histology report...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman with thyroid cancer undergoes a total thyroidectomy. The histology report reveals a diagnosis of medullary thyroid cancer. What test would be most useful for screening for disease recurrence?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Serum calcitonin levels

      Explanation:

      The detection of sub clinical recurrence can be facilitated by monitoring the serum levels of calcitonin, which is often secreted by medullary thyroid cancers.

      Thyroid cancer rarely causes hyperthyroidism or hypothyroidism as it does not usually secrete thyroid hormones. The most common type of thyroid cancer is papillary carcinoma, which is often found in young females and has an excellent prognosis. Follicular carcinoma is less common, while medullary carcinoma is a cancer of the parafollicular cells that secrete calcitonin and is associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia type 2. Anaplastic carcinoma is rare and not responsive to treatment, causing pressure symptoms. Lymphoma is also rare and associated with Hashimoto’s thyroiditis.

      Management of papillary and follicular cancer involves a total thyroidectomy followed by radioiodine to kill residual cells. Yearly thyroglobulin levels are monitored to detect early recurrent disease. Papillary carcinoma usually contains a mixture of papillary and colloidal filled follicles, while follicular adenoma presents as a solitary thyroid nodule and malignancy can only be excluded on formal histological assessment. Follicular carcinoma may appear macroscopically encapsulated, but microscopically capsular invasion is seen. Medullary carcinoma is associated with raised serum calcitonin levels and familial genetic disease in up to 20% of cases. Anaplastic carcinoma is most common in elderly females and is treated by resection where possible, with palliation achieved through isthmusectomy and radiotherapy. Chemotherapy is ineffective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Surgical occlusion of which of these structures will cause the most significant decrease...

    Incorrect

    • Surgical occlusion of which of these structures will cause the most significant decrease in hepatic blood flow?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Portal vein

      Explanation:

      The contents of the portal vein consist of digested products. Sinusoids distribute arterial and venous blood to the central veins of the liver lobules, which then empty into the hepatic veins and ultimately into the IVC. Unlike other hepatic veins, the caudate lobe directly drains into the IVC.

      Structure and Relations of the Liver

      The liver is divided into four lobes: the right lobe, left lobe, quadrate lobe, and caudate lobe. The right lobe is supplied by the right hepatic artery and contains Couinaud segments V to VIII, while the left lobe is supplied by the left hepatic artery and contains Couinaud segments II to IV. The quadrate lobe is part of the right lobe anatomically but functionally is part of the left, and the caudate lobe is supplied by both right and left hepatic arteries and lies behind the plane of the porta hepatis. The liver lobules are separated by portal canals that contain the portal triad: the hepatic artery, portal vein, and tributary of bile duct.

      The liver has various relations with other organs in the body. Anteriorly, it is related to the diaphragm, esophagus, xiphoid process, stomach, duodenum, hepatic flexure of colon, right kidney, gallbladder, and inferior vena cava. The porta hepatis is located on the postero-inferior surface of the liver and transmits the common hepatic duct, hepatic artery, portal vein, sympathetic and parasympathetic nerve fibers, and lymphatic drainage of the liver and nodes.

      The liver is supported by ligaments, including the falciform ligament, which is a two-layer fold of peritoneum from the umbilicus to the anterior liver surface and contains the ligamentum teres (remnant of the umbilical vein). The ligamentum venosum is a remnant of the ductus venosus. The liver is supplied by the hepatic artery and drained by the hepatic veins and portal vein. Its nervous supply comes from the sympathetic and parasympathetic trunks of the coeliac plexus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A different patient, who has also been diagnosed with primary hyperparathyroidism due to...

    Incorrect

    • A different patient, who has also been diagnosed with primary hyperparathyroidism due to elevated calcium and PTH levels, is wondering about the hormone's role in calcium metabolism within the kidneys.

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increases tubular reabsorption of calcium

      Explanation:

      The reabsorption of phosphate in the kidneys is increased by calcitriol. Parathyroid hormone, on the other hand, enhances the conversion of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to calcitriol. Calcitriol, which is the active form of vitamin D, plays a crucial role in calcium metabolism in both the bones and the kidneys. Specifically, it promotes the reabsorption of calcium in the tubules of the kidneys, primarily in the proximal convoluted tubule, as well as in the thick ascending limb and distal convoluted tubule.

      Hormones Controlling Calcium Metabolism

      Calcium metabolism is primarily controlled by two hormones, parathyroid hormone (PTH) and 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol (calcitriol). Other hormones such as calcitonin, thyroxine, and growth hormone also play a role. PTH increases plasma calcium levels and decreases plasma phosphate levels. It also increases renal tubular reabsorption of calcium, osteoclastic activity, and renal conversion of 25-hydroxycholecalciferol to 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol. On the other hand, 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol increases plasma calcium and plasma phosphate levels, renal tubular reabsorption and gut absorption of calcium, osteoclastic activity, and renal phosphate reabsorption. It is important to note that osteoclastic activity is increased indirectly by PTH as osteoclasts do not have PTH receptors. Understanding the actions of these hormones is crucial in maintaining proper calcium metabolism in the body.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A man in his 50s with advanced prostate cancer has come in for...

    Incorrect

    • A man in his 50s with advanced prostate cancer has come in for a consultation to ask you about his prognosis if he chooses to undergo the radiotherapy he is considering. You inform him that it is challenging to predict outcomes for individual patients but decide to utilize a Kaplan-Meier survival plot to assist you in your explanation. Can you describe what a Kaplan-Meier survival plot is?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: An estimate of decreasing survival with time after an event.

      Explanation:

      The Kaplan-Meier survival plot, also known as the product limit estimate, illustrates the decreasing survival estimates over time after an event. This method involves calculating the probabilities of an event occurring at a specific time and multiplying them by previously computed probabilities to obtain the final estimate. The survival probability for a population at a particular time on the plot is determined by subtracting the number of deaths from the number of subjects living at the start and dividing by the number of subjects living at the start. However, since it is a statistical estimate, it may not be entirely accurate in predicting outcomes.

      On the other hand, a scatter plot is a graphical representation that uses Cartesian coordinates to display values for more than two variables in a dataset. It is commonly used to identify any potential relationships between two different variables.

      Types of Graphs for Statistical Data Representation

      Graphical representations of statistical data are essential in presenting complex information in a clear and concise manner. There are various types of graphs used to represent statistical data, each with its unique features and applications. One of the most common types of graphs is the box-and-whisker plot, which displays the minimum, lower quartile, median, upper quartile, and maximum values of a sample. This graph is useful in identifying the spread and distribution of data.

      Another type of graph is the funnel plot, which is used to demonstrate publication bias in meta-analyses. This graph displays the effect size of each study against its precision, allowing researchers to identify any asymmetry in the data. The histogram is another graphical display used to categorize continuous data into a number of categories. This graph is useful in identifying the frequency distribution of data.

      The forest plot is a graphical representation of the strength of evidence of constituent trials in meta-analyses. This graph displays the effect size and confidence interval of each study, allowing researchers to identify the overall effect size and heterogeneity of the data. The scatter plot is another graphical representation that displays values for two variables for a set of data using Cartesian coordinates. This graph is useful in identifying the relationship between two variables.

      Finally, the Kaplan-Meier survival plot is a plot of the Kaplan-Meier estimate of the survival function, showing decreasing survival with time. This graph is useful in identifying the survival rate of a population over time. In conclusion, the choice of graph depends on the type of data and the research question being addressed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - In a study regarding use of combined or monotherapy for the treatment of...

    Incorrect

    • In a study regarding use of combined or monotherapy for the treatment of prostate cancer, data is presented visually in a forest plot.

      Which of these statements is true regarding this form of data presentation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Forest plots can present data from multiple studies

      Explanation:

      Forest plots are a useful tool for combining data from multiple studies, typically as part of a meta-analysis. This approach enhances the reliability of the data by reducing the impact of individual study errors. Forest plots enable researchers to identify significant trends in a particular field of research by compiling averages and confidence intervals from many studies. It is important to note that forest plots require numerical data to plot, and they can be used to evaluate the significance of data by examining whether the diamond crosses the central line. Forest plots are considered a higher level of evidence than randomized control trials, as they are part of a meta-analysis.

      Understanding Forest Plots

      A forest plot, also known as a blobbogram, is a visual representation of the results of multiple studies in a meta-analysis. The name of each study is listed on the left side of the plot, typically in chronological order. On the right side, the results of each study are displayed as squares, with the size of the square representing the weight of the study in the meta-analysis. The center of each square represents the point estimate of the study’s result, while the line running through the square shows the confidence interval, usually at 95%.

      The large vertical line in the middle of the plot represents the line of no effect. Results with confidence intervals that cross this line may not be statistically significant. The summary result of the meta-analysis is represented by a diamond at the bottom of the plot. Forest plots are a useful tool for researchers to quickly and easily compare the results of multiple studies and determine the overall effect size of a particular intervention or treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 75-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of diffuse abdominal pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man presents to the emergency department complaining of diffuse abdominal pain that has been ongoing for several hours. He reports passing bloody stool during a recent bowel movement. Upon examination, you observe an irregular pulse and a tender abdomen. After conducting tests, you diagnose the patient with ischaemic colitis affecting the transverse colon.

      What other organ receives blood supply from the same branch of the aorta at the vertebral level L1?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 4th part of the duodenum

      Explanation:

      The splenic flexure of the colon marks the boundary between the midgut and the hindgut.

      When a blood clot travels to the abdominal arteries and blocks the blood supply to a section of the gut, it can lead to ischaemic colitis. This condition is more prevalent in older individuals, and those with atrial fibrillation (as indicated by the patient’s irregular pulse) are at a higher risk. The area most commonly affected is the watershed region of the colon, where blood supply transitions from one artery to another. This region is the junction between the midgut and the hindgut.

      The superior mesenteric artery supplies the midgut, which includes the proximal transverse colon.

      The foregut-derived organs, such as the 1st part of the duodenum, spleen, and liver, are supplied by the coeliac trunk.

      The hindgut includes the descending colon, which is supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery.

      The Three Embryological Layers and their Corresponding Gastrointestinal Structures and Blood Supply

      The gastrointestinal system is a complex network of organs responsible for the digestion and absorption of nutrients. During embryonic development, the gastrointestinal system is formed from three distinct layers: the foregut, midgut, and hindgut. Each layer gives rise to specific structures and is supplied by a corresponding blood vessel.

      The foregut extends from the mouth to the proximal half of the duodenum and is supplied by the coeliac trunk. The midgut encompasses the distal half of the duodenum to the splenic flexure of the colon and is supplied by the superior mesenteric artery. Lastly, the hindgut includes the descending colon to the rectum and is supplied by the inferior mesenteric artery.

      Understanding the embryological origin and blood supply of the gastrointestinal system is crucial in diagnosing and treating gastrointestinal disorders. By identifying the specific structures and blood vessels involved, healthcare professionals can better target their interventions and improve patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 12-year-old boy presents to the orthopaedic clinic with complaints of right knee...

    Incorrect

    • A 12-year-old boy presents to the orthopaedic clinic with complaints of right knee pain. He has been experiencing pain for the past 4 months, which usually lasts for a few hours. During examination, he displays an antalgic gait and appears to have a shortened right leg. While the right knee appears normal, he experiences pain on internal and external rotation of the right hip. Imaging reveals flattening of the femoral head. What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Perthes disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Perthes’ Disease

      Perthes’ disease is a condition that affects the hip joints of children between the ages of 4-8 years. It is caused by a lack of blood supply to the femoral head, leading to bone infarction and degeneration. Boys are five times more likely to develop this condition, and around 10% of cases are bilateral. Symptoms include hip pain, limping, stiffness, and reduced range of hip movement. Early changes can be seen on x-rays, such as widening of the joint space, while later changes include decreased femoral head size and flattening.

      Diagnosis is typically made through a plain x-ray, but a technetium bone scan or magnetic resonance imaging may be necessary if symptoms persist despite a normal x-ray. Complications of Perthes’ disease can include osteoarthritis and premature fusion of the growth plates.

      The Catterall staging system is used to classify the severity of the disease, with Stage 1 being the mildest and Stage 4 being the most severe. Management options include casting or bracing to keep the femoral head within the acetabulum, observation for children under 6 years old, and surgical intervention for severe deformities in older children.

      Overall, most cases of Perthes’ disease will resolve with conservative management, and early diagnosis can improve outcomes. It is important for parents and healthcare providers to be aware of the symptoms and seek medical attention if they suspect a child may be affected by this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 32-year-old male is admitted for elective surgery for a lymph node biopsy...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male is admitted for elective surgery for a lymph node biopsy in the supraclavicular region. Following the surgery, the patient experiences difficulty in shrugging his left shoulder. What could be the probable cause?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Accessory nerve lesion

      Explanation:

      The posterior triangle is where the accessory nerve is located, and it is susceptible to injury in this area. In addition to experiencing issues with shoulder shrugging, the individual may also encounter challenges when attempting to raise their arm above their head.

      The posterior triangle of the neck is an area that is bound by the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles, the occipital bone, and the middle third of the clavicle. Within this triangle, there are various nerves, vessels, muscles, and lymph nodes. The nerves present include the accessory nerve, phrenic nerve, and three trunks of the brachial plexus, as well as branches of the cervical plexus such as the supraclavicular nerve, transverse cervical nerve, great auricular nerve, and lesser occipital nerve. The vessels found in this area are the external jugular vein and subclavian artery. Additionally, there are muscles such as the inferior belly of omohyoid and scalene, as well as lymph nodes including the supraclavicular and occipital nodes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 50-year-old woman presents with a prolonged period of feeling unwell and is...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old woman presents with a prolonged period of feeling unwell and is diagnosed with subacute bacterial endocarditis. She had a history of rheumatic fever during childhood.

      Which of the following clinical signs is not typically reported in this condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spider naevi

      Explanation:

      Symptoms of Subacute Bacterial Endocarditis

      Subacute bacterial endocarditis is a condition that typically manifests after a prolonged period of feeling unwell. The symptoms of this condition are varied and can include Janeway lesions, Osler nodes, Roth spots, splinter hemorrhages, petechiae, finger clubbing, and microscopic hematuria. Finger clubbing is also a symptom of other cardiac conditions such as cyanotic congenital cardiac disease and atrial myxoma.

      Janeway lesions are painless, small, red spots that appear on the palms and soles of the feet. Osler nodes are painful, red nodules that appear on the fingers and toes. Roth spots are small, white spots that appear on the retina of the eye. Splinter hemorrhages are small, red or brown lines that appear under the nails. Petechiae are small, red or purple spots that appear on the skin. Finger clubbing is a condition in which the fingers become enlarged and the nails curve around the fingertips. Microscopic hematuria is the presence of blood in the urine that can only be detected under a microscope.

      In conclusion, subacute bacterial endocarditis can present with a range of symptoms that can be easily confused with other cardiac conditions. It is important to seek medical attention if any of these symptoms are present, especially if they persist or worsen over time.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 50-year-old man visits the clinic with a complaint of gradual hearing loss...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man visits the clinic with a complaint of gradual hearing loss over the past nine months. He works in construction and initially attributed it to the use of loud power tools, despite always wearing ear protection. He also reports experiencing a high-pitched ringing in his ears for the same duration. Recently, he has been experiencing episodes of dizziness where he feels like the room is spinning. Otoscopy reveals no abnormalities. During the Rinne and Weber tests, the Rinne test is positive bilaterally, and the sound is louder on the left. What conclusions can be drawn from these findings?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Sensorineural hearing loss on the right.

      Explanation:

      The patient in the question has a sensorineural hearing loss on the right side. The Rinne and Weber tests were used to determine the type and affected side of the hearing loss. The Rinne test was positive bilaterally, indicating normal hearing or a sensorineural deficit on one or both sides. The Weber test was heard better on the left, indicating a conductive hearing loss on the left or a sensorineural hearing loss on the right. As a conductive hearing loss was ruled out with the Rinne test, the patient must have a right-sided sensorineural deficit. This is suggestive of a vestibular schwannoma, a benign tumor of the vestibulocochlear nerve, which can cause gradual unilateral hearing loss, tinnitus, and vertigo.

      Vestibular schwannomas, also known as acoustic neuromas, make up about 5% of intracranial tumors and 90% of cerebellopontine angle tumors. These tumors typically present with a combination of vertigo, hearing loss, tinnitus, and an absent corneal reflex. The specific symptoms can be predicted based on which cranial nerves are affected. For example, cranial nerve VIII involvement can cause vertigo, unilateral sensorineural hearing loss, and unilateral tinnitus. Bilateral vestibular schwannomas are associated with neurofibromatosis type 2.

      If a vestibular schwannoma is suspected, it is important to refer the patient to an ear, nose, and throat specialist urgently. However, it is worth noting that these tumors are often benign and slow-growing, so observation may be appropriate initially. The diagnosis is typically confirmed with an MRI of the cerebellopontine angle, and audiometry is also important as most patients will have some degree of hearing loss. Treatment options include surgery, radiotherapy, or continued observation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Which one of the following is not a branch of the subclavian artery?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following is not a branch of the subclavian artery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superior thyroid artery

      Explanation:

      The branches of the subclavian artery can be remembered using the mnemonic VIT C & D, which stands for Vertebral artery, Internal thoracic, Thyrocervical trunk, Costalcervical trunk, and Dorsal scapular. It is important to note that the Superior thyroid artery is actually a branch of the external carotid artery.

      The Subclavian Artery: Origin, Path, and Branches

      The subclavian artery is a major blood vessel that supplies blood to the upper extremities, neck, and head. It has two branches, the left and right subclavian arteries, which arise from different sources. The left subclavian artery originates directly from the arch of the aorta, while the right subclavian artery arises from the brachiocephalic artery (trunk) when it bifurcates into the subclavian and the right common carotid artery.

      From its origin, the subclavian artery travels laterally, passing between the anterior and middle scalene muscles, deep to scalenus anterior and anterior to scalenus medius. As it crosses the lateral border of the first rib, it becomes the axillary artery and is superficial within the subclavian triangle.

      The subclavian artery has several branches that supply blood to different parts of the body. These branches include the vertebral artery, which supplies blood to the brain and spinal cord, the internal thoracic artery, which supplies blood to the chest wall and breast tissue, the thyrocervical trunk, which supplies blood to the thyroid gland and neck muscles, the costocervical trunk, which supplies blood to the neck and upper back muscles, and the dorsal scapular artery, which supplies blood to the muscles of the shoulder blade.

      In summary, the subclavian artery is an important blood vessel that plays a crucial role in supplying blood to the upper extremities, neck, and head. Its branches provide blood to various parts of the body, ensuring proper functioning and health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 33-year-old male presents to the ED with coughing and wheezing following an...

    Incorrect

    • A 33-year-old male presents to the ED with coughing and wheezing following an episode of alcohol intoxication. Upon examination, decreased breath sounds are noted on one side. Imaging reveals a foreign body obstructing an airway structure. What is the most probable location for this foreign body to be lodged?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Right mainstem bronchus

      Explanation:

      It is rare for a foreign object to become lodged in the left mainstem bronchus due to its greater angle compared to the right mainstem bronchus. A tracheal obstruction would cause reduced breath sounds bilaterally, not just on one side. The right superior lobar bronchus is also unlikely to be affected due to its angle and direction. Therefore, foreign bodies typically get stuck in the right mainstem bronchus in adults because of its wider diameter and lesser angle.

      Anatomy of the Lungs

      The lungs are a pair of organs located in the chest cavity that play a vital role in respiration. The right lung is composed of three lobes, while the left lung has two lobes. The apex of both lungs is approximately 4 cm superior to the sternocostal joint of the first rib. The base of the lungs is in contact with the diaphragm, while the costal surface corresponds to the cavity of the chest. The mediastinal surface contacts the mediastinal pleura and has the cardiac impression. The hilum is a triangular depression above and behind the concavity, where the structures that form the root of the lung enter and leave the viscus. The right main bronchus is shorter, wider, and more vertical than the left main bronchus. The inferior borders of both lungs are at the 6th rib in the mid clavicular line, 8th rib in the mid axillary line, and 10th rib posteriorly. The pleura runs two ribs lower than the corresponding lung level. The bronchopulmonary segments of the lungs are divided into ten segments, each with a specific function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 72-year-old man with confirmed heart failure visits the community cardiology clinic and...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man with confirmed heart failure visits the community cardiology clinic and complains of ankle swelling as his most bothersome symptom. He expresses reluctance to begin another diuretic due to a previous hospitalization for weakness, nausea, and abdominal cramps after starting one. The cardiologist proposes initiating an aldosterone receptor antagonist. What medication is the cardiologist recommending?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Spironolactone (potassium-sparing diuretic)

      Explanation:

      Spironolactone is a medication that works as an aldosterone antagonist in the cortical collecting duct. It is used to treat various conditions such as ascites, hypertension, heart failure, nephrotic syndrome, and Conn’s syndrome. In patients with cirrhosis, spironolactone is often prescribed in relatively large doses of 100 or 200 mg to counteract secondary hyperaldosteronism. It is also used as a NICE ‘step 4’ treatment for hypertension. In addition, spironolactone has been shown to reduce all-cause mortality in patients with NYHA III + IV heart failure who are already taking an ACE inhibitor, according to the RALES study.

      However, spironolactone can cause adverse effects such as hyperkalaemia and gynaecomastia, although the latter is less common with eplerenone. It is important to monitor potassium levels in patients taking spironolactone to prevent hyperkalaemia, which can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Overall, spironolactone is a useful medication for treating various conditions, but its potential adverse effects should be carefully considered and monitored.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - During your 3rd-year neurology placement, you visit a nursing home where you conduct...

    Incorrect

    • During your 3rd-year neurology placement, you visit a nursing home where you conduct an interview with a 93-year-old male who has advanced dementia. Upon assessment, you observe that he has an intact short-term memory but impaired long-term memory. Which specific brain region is responsible for the conversion of short-term memory into long-term memory?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hippocampus

      Explanation:

      The Role of the Hippocampus in Long-Term Memory

      Long-term memories are stored in the brain through permanent changes in neural connections that are widely distributed throughout the brain. The hippocampus plays a crucial role in the consolidation of information from short-term to long-term memories. However, it does not store information itself. Instead, it acts as a gateway for new memories to be transferred from short-term to long-term memory storage.

      Without the hippocampus, new memories cannot be stored in long-term memory. This is because the hippocampus is responsible for encoding and consolidating new information into a form that can be stored in long-term memory. Once the information has been consolidated, it is distributed throughout the brain, where it is stored in various regions.

      In summary, the hippocampus is essential for the formation of long-term memories. It acts as a gateway for new memories to be transferred from short-term to long-term memory storage. Without the hippocampus, new memories cannot be stored in long-term memory, and the ability to form new memories is severely impaired.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 95-year-old man is discovered collapsed in his residence and is transported to...

    Incorrect

    • A 95-year-old man is discovered collapsed in his residence and is transported to the hospital. Upon examination, he is diagnosed with dehydration and hypotension, prompting the release of renin by the juxtaglomerular cells. What is the mechanism of action of renin?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hydrolyse angiotensinogen to form angiotensin I

      Explanation:

      Angiotensin I is formed when renin breaks down angiotensinogen, which is a process that occurs within the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system and is facilitated by juxtaglomerular cells.

      The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system is a complex system that regulates blood pressure and fluid balance in the body. The adrenal cortex is divided into three zones, each producing different hormones. The zona glomerulosa produces mineralocorticoids, mainly aldosterone, which helps regulate sodium and potassium levels in the body. Renin is an enzyme released by the renal juxtaglomerular cells in response to reduced renal perfusion, hyponatremia, and sympathetic nerve stimulation. It hydrolyses angiotensinogen to form angiotensin I, which is then converted to angiotensin II by angiotensin-converting enzyme in the lungs. Angiotensin II has various actions, including causing vasoconstriction, stimulating thirst, and increasing proximal tubule Na+/H+ activity. It also stimulates aldosterone and ADH release, which causes retention of Na+ in exchange for K+/H+ in the distal tubule.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 28-year-old man comes to you with a lump in his testicle. As...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old man comes to you with a lump in his testicle. As you take his history, you wonder which of the following factors poses the greatest risk for testicular cancer?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cryptorchidism

      Explanation:

      Testicular cancer is more likely to occur in men who have had undescended testis, with a 40-fold increase in risk. Other risk factors include being of white ethnicity, being between the ages of 15-35, and not having had testicular trauma.

      Cryptorchidism: Undescended Testis in Boys

      Cryptorchidism is a congenital condition where one or both testes fail to descend into the scrotum by the age of 3 months. Although the cause of this condition is mostly unknown, it may be associated with other congenital defects such as abnormal epididymis, cerebral palsy, mental retardation, Wilms tumour, and abdominal wall defects. Retractile testes and intersex conditions should be considered in the differential diagnosis.

      Correcting cryptorchidism is important to reduce the risk of infertility, examine the testes for testicular cancer, avoid testicular torsion, and improve cosmetic appearance. Males with undescended testis are at a higher risk of developing testicular cancer, especially if the testis is intra-abdominal.

      The treatment for cryptorchidism is orchidopexy, which is usually performed between 6 to 18 months of age. The procedure involves exploring the inguinal area, mobilizing the testis, and implanting it into a dartos pouch. In cases where the testis is intra-abdominal, laparoscopic evaluation and mobilization may be necessary. If left untreated, the Sertoli cells will degrade after the age of 2 years, and orchidectomy may be a better option for those presenting late in their teenage years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A patient on the geriatrics ward has symptoms consistent with hypoparathyroidism. A blood...

    Incorrect

    • A patient on the geriatrics ward has symptoms consistent with hypoparathyroidism. A blood test is requested to check PTH levels, serum calcium, phosphate and vitamin D.

      Which of the following levels also need to be specifically checked?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Magnesium

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is magnesium, as it is necessary for the secretion and function of parathyroid hormone. Adequate magnesium levels are required for the hormone to have its desired effects. CRP, urea, and platelets are not relevant to this situation and do not need to be tested.

      Understanding Parathyroid Hormone and Its Effects

      Parathyroid hormone is a hormone produced by the chief cells of the parathyroid glands. Its main function is to increase the concentration of calcium in the blood by stimulating the PTH receptors in the kidney and bone. This hormone has a short half-life of only 4 minutes.

      The effects of parathyroid hormone are mainly seen in the bone, kidney, and intestine. In the bone, PTH binds to osteoblasts, which then signal to osteoclasts to resorb bone and release calcium. In the kidney, PTH promotes the active reabsorption of calcium and magnesium from the distal convoluted tubule, while decreasing the reabsorption of phosphate. In the intestine, PTH indirectly increases calcium absorption by increasing the activation of vitamin D, which in turn increases calcium absorption.

      Overall, understanding the role of parathyroid hormone is important in maintaining proper calcium levels in the body. Any imbalances in PTH secretion can lead to various disorders such as hyperparathyroidism or hypoparathyroidism.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 25-year-old man presents with acute appendicitis and undergoes an appendectomy with complete...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old man presents with acute appendicitis and undergoes an appendectomy with complete resolution. What pathological process is unlikely to be observed in the inflamed tissues?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Formation of granulomas

      Explanation:

      Acute inflammation is characterized by the presence of neutrophil polymorphs, which are transported to the affected tissues through a series of three phases. The first phase involves changes in blood vessel and flow, resulting in a flush, flare, and wheal. The second phase involves the production of fluid exudates that are rich in protein, including Ig and coagulation factors, due to increased vascular permeability. In the third phase, cellular exudates containing mainly neutrophil polymorphs pass into the extravascular space. Neutrophils are then transported to the tissues through a process that involves margination, pavementing, and emigration. Margination refers to the movement of neutrophils to the peripheral plasmatic of the vessel rather than the central axial stream, while pavementing involves the adhesion of neutrophils to endothelial cells in venules at the site of acute inflammation. Finally, emigration occurs when neutrophils pass between endothelial cells and enter the tissue. In contrast, chronic inflammation is characterized by the formation of granulomas.

      Acute inflammation is a response to cell injury in vascularized tissue. It is triggered by chemical factors produced in response to a stimulus, such as fibrin, antibodies, bradykinin, and the complement system. The goal of acute inflammation is to neutralize the offending agent and initiate the repair process. The main characteristics of inflammation are fluid exudation, exudation of plasma proteins, and migration of white blood cells.

      The vascular changes that occur during acute inflammation include transient vasoconstriction, vasodilation, increased permeability of vessels, RBC concentration, and neutrophil margination. These changes are followed by leukocyte extravasation, margination, rolling, and adhesion of neutrophils, transmigration across the endothelium, and migration towards chemotactic stimulus.

      Leukocyte activation is induced by microbes, products of necrotic cells, antigen-antibody complexes, production of prostaglandins, degranulation and secretion of lysosomal enzymes, cytokine secretion, and modulation of leukocyte adhesion molecules. This leads to phagocytosis and termination of the acute inflammatory response.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 6-year-old girl visits her pediatrician with significant swelling around her eyes. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl visits her pediatrician with significant swelling around her eyes. Her mother reports that the patient has been passing foamy urine lately.

      Upon conducting a urine dipstick test, the pediatrician observes proteinuria +++ with no other anomalies.

      The pediatrician suspects that the patient may have minimal change disease leading to nephrotic syndrome.

      What is the association of this condition with light microscopy?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Normal glomerular architecture

      Explanation:

      In minimal change disease, light microscopy typically shows no abnormalities.

      Minimal change disease is a condition that typically presents as nephrotic syndrome, with children accounting for 75% of cases and adults accounting for 25%. While most cases are idiopathic, a cause can be found in around 10-20% of cases, such as drugs like NSAIDs and rifampicin, Hodgkin’s lymphoma, thymoma, or infectious mononucleosis. The pathophysiology of the disease involves T-cell and cytokine-mediated damage to the glomerular basement membrane, resulting in polyanion loss and a reduction of electrostatic charge, which increases glomerular permeability to serum albumin.

      The features of minimal change disease include nephrotic syndrome, normotension (hypertension is rare), and highly selective proteinuria, where only intermediate-sized proteins like albumin and transferrin leak through the glomerulus. Renal biopsy shows normal glomeruli on light microscopy, while electron microscopy shows fusion of podocytes and effacement of foot processes.

      Management of minimal change disease involves oral corticosteroids, which are effective in 80% of cases. For steroid-resistant cases, cyclophosphamide is the next step. The prognosis for the disease is generally good, although relapse is common. Roughly one-third of patients have just one episode, one-third have infrequent relapses, and one-third have frequent relapses that stop before adulthood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - During a soccer match, a young player is tackled and suffers a twisting...

    Incorrect

    • During a soccer match, a young player is tackled and suffers a twisting injury to their knee. They are diagnosed with a soft tissue knee injury. What is the name of the structure that originates from the medial surface of the lateral femoral condyle and inserts onto the anterior intercondylar area of the tibial plateau?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Anterior cruciate ligament

      Explanation:

      To recall the attachments of the ACL, one can imagine placing their hand in their pocket and moving from the superolateral to inferomedial direction. Conversely, for the PCL, the movement would be from inferolateral to superomedial.

      The ACL originates from the medial surface of the lateral condyle, while the PCL originates from the lateral surface of the medial condyle.

      Located in the medial compartment of the knee, beneath the medial condyle of the femur, is the medial meniscus.

      The knee joint is the largest and most complex synovial joint in the body, consisting of two condylar joints between the femur and tibia and a sellar joint between the patella and femur. The degree of congruence between the tibiofemoral articular surfaces is improved by the presence of the menisci, which compensate for the incongruence of the femoral and tibial condyles. The knee joint is divided into two compartments: the tibiofemoral and patellofemoral compartments. The fibrous capsule of the knee joint is a composite structure with contributions from adjacent tendons, and it contains several bursae and ligaments that provide stability to the joint. The knee joint is supplied by the femoral, tibial, and common peroneal divisions of the sciatic nerve and by a branch from the obturator nerve, while its blood supply comes from the genicular branches of the femoral artery, popliteal, and anterior tibial arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - These thyroid function tests were obtained on a 55-year-old female who has recently...

    Incorrect

    • These thyroid function tests were obtained on a 55-year-old female who has recently been treated for hypertension:
      Free T4 28.5 pmol/L (9.8-23.1)
      TSH <0.02 mU/L (0.35-5.5)
      Free T3 10.8 pmol/L (3.5-6.5)
      She now presents with typical symptoms of hyperthyroidism.
      Which medication is likely to have caused this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Amiodarone

      Explanation:

      Amiodarone and its Effects on Thyroid Function

      Amiodarone is a medication that can have an impact on thyroid function, resulting in both hypo- and hyperthyroidism. This is due to the high iodine content in the drug, which contributes to its antiarrhythmic effects. Atenolol, on the other hand, is a beta blocker that is commonly used to treat thyrotoxicosis. Warfarin is another medication that is used to treat atrial fibrillation.

      There are two types of thyrotoxicosis that can be caused by amiodarone. Type 1 results in excess thyroxine synthesis, while type 2 leads to the release of excess thyroxine but normal levels of synthesis. It is important for healthcare professionals to monitor thyroid function in patients taking amiodarone and adjust treatment as necessary to prevent complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - What is the most frequent reason for mesenteric infarction to occur? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the most frequent reason for mesenteric infarction to occur?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acute embolism affecting the superior mesenteric artery

      Explanation:

      Mesenteric infarcts can be caused by various factors such as prolonged atrial fibrillation, ventricular aneurysms, and post myocardial infarction.

      Understanding Mesenteric Vessel Disease

      Mesenteric vessel disease is a condition that affects the blood vessels supplying the intestines. It is primarily caused by arterial embolism, which can result in infarction of the colon. The most common type of mesenteric vessel disease is acute mesenteric embolus, which is characterized by sudden onset abdominal pain followed by profuse diarrhea. Other types include acute on chronic mesenteric ischemia, mesenteric vein thrombosis, and low flow mesenteric infarction.

      Diagnosis of mesenteric vessel disease involves serological tests such as WCC, lactate, CRP, and amylase, as well as CT angiography scanning in the arterial phase with thin slices. Management of the condition depends on the severity of symptoms, with overt signs of peritonism requiring laparotomy and mesenteric vein thrombosis being treated with medical management using IV heparin. In cases where surgery is necessary, limited resection of necrotic bowel may be performed with the aim of relooking laparotomy at 24-48 hours.

      The prognosis for mesenteric vessel disease is generally poor, with the best outlook being for acute ischaemia from an embolic event where surgery occurs within 12 hours. Survival rates may be as high as 50%, but this falls to 30% with treatment delay. It is important to seek medical attention promptly if symptoms of mesenteric vessel disease are present.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

General Principles (0/1) 0%
Neurological System (0/1) 0%
Gastrointestinal System (0/1) 0%
Passmed