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  • Question 1 - A 41-year-old lady visits your clinic to talk about the results of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 41-year-old lady visits your clinic to talk about the results of her cervical screening test. According to the study, she has a low-grade squamous intraepithelial lesion as well as HPV non-16 and 18 subtypes. She had never previously had a cervical screening. What is the best course of action for her management?

      Your Answer: Repeat pap smear within 12 months

      Correct Answer: Repeat HPV test in 12 months

      Explanation:

      An LSIL Pap test shows mild cellular changes. The risk of a high-grade cervical precancer or cancer after an LSIL Pap test is as high as 19 percent.

      As with an ASC-US Pap test, an LSIL Pap test is evaluated differently depending upon age. For women ages 25 or older, follow-up depends upon the results of human papillomavirus (HPV) testing:

      – Women who test positive for HPV or who have not been tested for HPV should have colposcopy.
      – Women who test negative for HPV can be followed up with a Pap test and HPV test in one year.

      All other options are not acceptable for the above mentioned reasons.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      20.1
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 32 year old primigravida in her 12th week of gestation, presents to...

    Incorrect

    • A 32 year old primigravida in her 12th week of gestation, presents to her GP with concerns regarding the evolution of her pregnancy. She's afraid she might experience an obstetric cholestasis just like her older sister did in the past. What is the fundamental symptom of obstetric cholestasis?

      Your Answer: Pruritus

      Correct Answer:

      Explanation:

      Cholestasis of pregnancy is associated with increased fetal morbidity and mortality and should be treated actively. The significance attached to pruritus in pregnancy is often minimal, but it is a cardinal symptom of cholestasis of pregnancy, which may have no other clinical features.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      21.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - You see a 28 year old woman who is 22 weeks pregnant. She...

    Correct

    • You see a 28 year old woman who is 22 weeks pregnant. She complains of vaginal soreness and yellow frothy discharge. Microscopy confirms Trichomoniasis. What percentage of infected pregnant women present with yellow frothy discharge?

      Your Answer: 20%

      Explanation:

      Trichomoniasis is considered a sexually transmitted infection found both in men and women, and is caused by the flagellate protozoan Trichomonas vaginalis. The organism is mainly found in the vagina and the urethra. Though many infected women can be asymptomatic, they can also present with yellow frothy vaginal discharge, itching and vaginitis, dysuria or an offensive odour. About 20-30% of women with the infection however are asymptomatic. For the diagnosis of t. vaginalis in women, a swab is taken from the posterior fornix during speculum examination and the flagellates are detected under light-field microscopy. The recommended treatment for t. vaginalis during pregnancy and breastfeeding is 400-500mg of metronidazole twice daily for 5 -7 days. High dose metronidazole as a 2g single dose tablet is not advised during pregnancy. All sexual partners should also be treated and screened for other STIs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - Which of the following nerves passes through the inguinal canal? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following nerves passes through the inguinal canal?

      Your Answer: Ilioinguinal nerve

      Explanation:

      The contents of the inguinal canal is the ilioinguinal nerves, the round ligament of uterus in the females and the spermatic cord with its contents in males.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 38-year-old woman, gravida 4 para 0 aborta 3, at 35 weeks of...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old woman, gravida 4 para 0 aborta 3, at 35 weeks of gestation comes to the hospital due to intense, constant lower abdominal pain.The patient got conceived via in-vitro fertilization and her prenatal course has been uncomplicated.Over the past 10 years, the patient has had 3 spontaneous abortions, all attributed to uterine leiomyoma.Two years ago, she had an abdominal myomectomy during which the uterine cavity was entered. On examination her temperature is 36.7 C (98 F), blood pressure is 132/84 mm Hg, and pulse is 100/min. The fetal heart rate tracing shows a baseline rate in the 140s with moderate variability and persistent variable decelerations to the 90s. Contractions occur every 2-3 minutes and last for 45 seconds, her cervix is 4 cm dilated and 100% effaced. Which among the following is the best next step in management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Expectant management and spontaneous vaginal delivery

      Correct Answer: Laparotomy and cesarean delivery

      Explanation:

      Uterine surgical history & scope of vaginal birth are as follows:
      – In case of low transverse cesarean delivery with horizontal incision: trial of labor is not contraindicated.
      – Classical cesarean delivery with vertical incision: trial of labor is contraindicated
      – Abdominal myomectomy with uterine cavity entry: trial of labor is contraindicated
      – Abdominal myomectomy without uterine cavity entry: trial of labor is not contraindicated.

      In laboring patients with prior uterine surgical histories like a prior classical (vertical) cesarean delivery or a prior myomectomy that was extensive or has entered the uterine cavity like during removal of intramural or submucosal fibroids are at a higher risk for uterine rupture. Given this patient’s history of previous myomectomy, her intense and constant abdominal pain with an abnormal fetal heart rate tracing, like persistent variable decelerations, are pointing to uterine rupture. vaginal bleeding, abdominally palpable fetal parts, loss of fetal station and any change in contraction pattern are the other possible manifestations of uterine rupture. Based on the extent and exact location of the rupture and the presence or absence of regional anesthesia, presentation of a uterine rupture will change.

      Vaginal delivery is safe after a low transverse (horizontal uterine incision) cesarean delivery. Patients with a history of either classical cesarean delivery or an extensive myomectomy are delivered via cesarean delivery at 36-37 weeks gestation, so urgent laparotomy and cesarean delivery are required if these patients present in labor. Further management is determined by other intraoperative findings like, whether uterine rupture has occurred, if occured then delivery is done through the rupture site, followed by a uterine repair; If the uterus is unruptured, a hysterotomy (ie, cesarean delivery) is performed. In patients with prior classical cesarean delivery or extensive myomectomy, an expectant management for a vaginal delivery is contraindicated.

      Amnioinfusion is the technique of placing an intrauterine pressure catheter to decrease umbilical cord compression by doing an intrauterine infusion and this thereby helps to resolve variable decelerations. In patients with a history of uterine surgery Amnioinfusion is contraindicated.

      In cases with abnormal fetal heart rate tracings, if the patient is completely (10cm) dilated, an operative vaginal delivery can be performed to expedite a vaginal delivery.

      Terbutaline is a tocolytic, which is administered to relax the uterus in conditions with contractile abnormalities, such as tachysystole which presents with >5 contractions in 10 minutes or tetanic contractions were contractions last for >2 minutes, which results in fetal heart rate abnormalities. In the given case, the patient’s contractions are normal, which occurs in every 2-3 minutes and lasts for 45 seconds, causing pain and cervical dilation.

      After a classical cesarean delivery or an extensive myomectomy, labor and vaginal delivery are contraindicated due to its significant risk of uterine rupture. Laparotomy and cesarean delivery are preferred in laboring a patients at high risk of uterine rupture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      50.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - What frequency is used for trans-abdominal ultrasound? ...

    Correct

    • What frequency is used for trans-abdominal ultrasound?

      Your Answer: 3.0 MHz

      Explanation:

      The transabdominal ultrasound uses a frequency of 3.5-7 MHz emitted from a transducer. Transvaginal 5-7.5 MHz (post bladder void.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Data Interpretation
      4.6
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - In developed countries, Group B streptococcus is the leading cause of early-onset neonatal...

    Correct

    • In developed countries, Group B streptococcus is the leading cause of early-onset neonatal sepsis. The risk of early onset neonatal Group B Streptococcus sepsis can be reduced by screening for Group B streptococcus status and by the use of intrapartum antibiotics. From the below given statements, which is false regarding Group B streptococcus screening and intrapartum antibiotics prophylaxis?

      Your Answer: For elective caesarian section before the commencement of labour give antibiotics prophylaxis is recommended, irrespective of Group B streptococci carriage

      Explanation:

      A rectovaginal swab taken for Group B streptococci culture should be done in women presenting with threatened preterm labour

      If labour is establishes, intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis for Group B streptococci should be commenced and continued until delivery. In cases were labour is not establish, prophylaxis for Group B streptococci should be ceased and should be re-established only if the culture is found to be positive, that too at the time of onset of labour.

      Strategies acceptable for reducing early onset Group B streptococci sepsis includes universal culture-based screening using combined low vaginal plus or minus anorectal swab at 35-37 weeks gestation or a clinical risk factor based approach.

      No additional prophylaxis is recommended irrespective of Group B streptococci carriage, for elective cesarean section before the commencement of labour. However, if a woman who commences labour or has spontaneous rupture of the membranes before her planned Caesarean section is screened positive for Group B streptococci, she should receive intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis while awaiting delivery.

      Although there is little direct evidence to guide this practice, consideration of the above mentioned evidences it is recommendation that, every women with unknown Group B streptococci status at the time of delivery should be managed according to the presence of intrapartum risk factors.
      All women at increased risk of early onset Group B streptococci sepsis must be offered an intrapartum antibiotic prophylaxis with IV penicillin-G or ampicillin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      61.8
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 13-year-old woman is complaining of a lot of acne in her face....

    Correct

    • A 13-year-old woman is complaining of a lot of acne in her face. Her BMI is 37. She does not have her period yet. She has high insulin levels in her labs. What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS)

      Explanation:

      The best answer is Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS), supported by amenorrhea, obesity and acne. High insulin levels are indicative of PCOS and exclude Cushing syndrome (as this is associated with low insulin levels).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      11.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - Breast feeding stimulates the hypothalamus to produce which of the following hormones? ...

    Correct

    • Breast feeding stimulates the hypothalamus to produce which of the following hormones?

      Your Answer: Oxytocin

      Explanation:

      Breast feeding facilitates the production of Oxytocin by the hypothalamus which is stored and secreted by the posterior pituitary.
      Ergometrine is an ergoline derivative that can be used to increase uterine tone.
      Atosiban is an antagonist of Oxytocin receptors
      ADH is another posterior pituitary hormone.
      Prostaglandin E2 plays an important role in cervical ripening.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      6.6
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Which of the following is the primary source of oestrogen ? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following is the primary source of oestrogen ?

      Your Answer: Granulosa cells

      Explanation:

      Ovarian granulosa cells (GC) are the major source of oestradiol synthesis. Induced by the preovulatory luteinizing hormone (LH) surge, cells of the theca and, in particular, of the granulosa cell layer profoundly change their morphological, physiological, and molecular characteristics and form the progesterone-producing corpus luteum that is responsible for maintaining pregnancy. 

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      5.4
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Gynaecology (1/2) 50%
Obstetrics (1/3) 33%
Clinical Management (2/2) 100%
Anatomy (1/1) 100%
Data Interpretation (1/1) 100%
Endocrinology (1/1) 100%
Passmed