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  • Question 1 - A 70-year-old man who takes bendroflumethiazide for hypertension is brought to the Emergency...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man who takes bendroflumethiazide for hypertension is brought to the Emergency Department. Upon admission, his blood work shows the following:
      Na+ 131 mmol/l
      K+ 2.2 mmol/l
      Urea 3.1 mmol/l
      Creatinine 56 µmol/l
      Glucose 4.3 mmol/l
      What ECG feature is most likely to be observed?

      Your Answer: U waves

      Explanation:

      ECG Features of Hypokalaemia

      Hypokalaemia is a condition characterized by low levels of potassium in the blood. This condition can be detected through an electrocardiogram (ECG) which shows specific features. The ECG features of hypokalaemia include U waves, small or absent T waves, prolonged PR interval, ST depression, and long QT. The U waves are particularly noticeable and are accompanied by a borderline PR interval.

      To remember these features, one registered user suggests the following rhyme: In Hypokalaemia, U have no Pot and no T, but a long PR and a long QT. It is important to detect hypokalaemia early as it can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and even cardiac arrest. Therefore, regular monitoring of potassium levels and ECGs is crucial for individuals at risk of hypokalaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      167
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - An 82-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department after experiencing a blackout while...

    Correct

    • An 82-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department after experiencing a blackout while shopping. Upon examination, she appears alert and oriented, and her vital signs are stable. Her CBG level is 5.8 mmol/l, and her pulse is irregular with a low volume at 89 beats per minute. Her blood pressure is 145/120 mmHg while lying and standing. There is no raised jugular venous pressure, and her apex beat is forceful but undisplaced. Heart sounds reveal a soft S2 and a soft ejection systolic murmur loudest in the right second intercostal space, with a possible fourth heart sound heard. Chest examination reveals occasional bibasal crackles that clear with coughing, and there is no peripheral edema. Based on these findings, what is the most likely cause of her collapse?

      Your Answer: Aortic stenosis

      Explanation:

      Understanding Aortic Stenosis and Differential Diagnosis

      Aortic stenosis is a condition that presents with symptoms of left ventricular failure, angina, and potential collapse or blackout if the stenosis is critical. A low-volume pulse, narrow pulse pressure, slow-rising carotid pulse, undisplaced, sustained/forceful apex beat, soft or absent A2, ejection systolic murmur + fourth heart sound, and pulmonary edema are significant signs of aortic stenosis.

      It is important to differentiate aortic stenosis from other conditions such as mitral regurgitation, aortic regurgitation, mitral stenosis, and mixed mitral and aortic valve disease. Mitral regurgitation causes a pan-systolic murmur radiating to the axilla, while aortic regurgitation causes an early diastolic murmur and a collapsing pulse. Mitral stenosis causes a mid-diastolic murmur with a characteristic opening snap. There is no definitive evidence of mitral valve disease in this clinical scenario.

      Understanding the signs and symptoms of aortic stenosis and differentiating it from other conditions is crucial for proper diagnosis and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      70.3
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - An 80-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of chest pain and...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of chest pain and shortness of breath. Her oxygen saturation is 90%. After receiving oxygen, she experiences ventricular fibrillation and has a GCS of 3. ALS is initiated. The patient has a medical history of type 2 diabetes and multiple pulmonary emboli. What additional medication should be considered for her management during ALS?

      Your Answer: Adenosine

      Correct Answer: Alteplase

      Explanation:

      During CPR, thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolism (PE) is suspected. Alteplase is a suitable option for advanced life support (ALS) in such cases. This is particularly relevant for patients who present with symptoms suggestive of a PE and have a medical history of previous pulmonary emboli. Thrombolysis can be a life-saving intervention for these patients.

      Adenosine is not appropriate for this situation as it is a class 5 antiarrhythmic used mainly for supraventricular tachycardia. Apixaban is an anticoagulant that is useful for long-term treatment and prevention of pulmonary emboli, but it is not suitable for immediate use in a hemodynamically unstable patient requiring advanced life support. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that is used in peripheral arterial disease and acute coronary syndrome, but it has no role in the acute treatment of a life-threatening pulmonary embolism.

      The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken when dealing with patients with shockable and non-shockable rhythms. For both types of patients, chest compressions are a crucial part of the process, with a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 ventilations. Defibrillation is recommended for shockable rhythms, with a single shock for VF/pulseless VT followed by 2 minutes of CPR. Adrenaline and amiodarone are the drugs of choice for non-shockable rhythms, with adrenaline given as soon as possible and amiodarone administered after 3 shocks for VF/pulseless VT. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolus is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98% following successful resuscitation. The Hs and Ts should be considered as potential reversible causes of cardiac arrest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      56.5
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - An 80-year-old patient is being treated for symptomatic bradycardia. Despite receiving multiple boluses...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old patient is being treated for symptomatic bradycardia. Despite receiving multiple boluses of atropine, the patient's condition remains unchanged with a heart rate of 35 beats per minute, blood pressure of 85/55 mmHg, respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute, oxygen saturation of 98%, and a temperature of 37.3ºC. The patient is experiencing confusion, sweating, and has cold and clammy extremities. What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: External pacing

      Explanation:

      Management of Bradycardia in Peri-Arrest Rhythms

      The 2015 Resuscitation Council (UK) guidelines highlight the importance of identifying adverse signs and potential risk of asystole in the management of bradycardia in peri-arrest rhythms. Adverse signs indicating haemodynamic compromise include shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, and heart failure. Atropine (500 mcg IV) is the first line treatment in this situation. If there is an unsatisfactory response, interventions such as atropine (up to a maximum of 3mg), transcutaneous pacing, and isoprenaline/adrenaline infusion titrated to response may be used. Specialist help should be sought for consideration of transvenous pacing if there is no response to the above measures.

      Furthermore, the presence of risk factors for asystole such as complete heart block with broad complex QRS, recent asystole, Mobitz type II AV block, and ventricular pause > 3 seconds should be considered. Even if there is a satisfactory response to atropine, specialist help is indicated to consider the need for transvenous pacing. Effective management of bradycardia in peri-arrest rhythms is crucial in preventing further deterioration and improving patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      62.1
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - A 35-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a sudden onset of...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a sudden onset of central abdominal pain. He claims this is radiating to his back and that it started this afternoon. He is currently still in pain and has been started on some analgesia. His blood pressure is 135/80 mmHg and his heart rate is 100 bpm.
      His past medical history includes amputation of the big toe on the left lower limb and femoral-popliteal bypass on the right. He smokes around 20 cigarettes daily.
      Which of the following tests should be done urgently to determine the underlying cause of his symptomatology?

      Your Answer: Amylase level

      Correct Answer: Bedside abdominal ultrasound (US)

      Explanation:

      Bedside Abdominal Ultrasound for Ruptured Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm: Diagnosis and Management

      This patient is likely experiencing a ruptured abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA), a life-threatening medical emergency. Bedside abdominal ultrasound (US) is the best initial diagnostic test for ruling out AAA as a cause of abdominal or back pain, as it provides an instant, objective measurement of aortic diameter. An AAA is a dilatation of the abdominal aorta greater than 3 cm in diameter, with a significant risk of rupture at diameters greater than 5 cm. Risk factors for AAA include smoking and co-existing vascular disease. Symptoms of a ruptured AAA include pain, cardiovascular failure, and distal ischemia. Once diagnosed, a CT angiogram is the gold-standard imaging for planning surgery to repair the aneurysm. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography and liver function tests are not indicated in this case, while serum amylase or lipase should be measured in all patients presenting with acute abdominal or upper back pain to exclude acute pancreatitis as a differential diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      131.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 58-year-old man with a history of diabetes mellitus presents to his General...

    Correct

    • A 58-year-old man with a history of diabetes mellitus presents to his General Practitioner with a heavy feeling in his chest for the past two hours. An electrocardiogram (ECG) is taken, which shows 1.4 mm ST-segment elevations in leads II III and aVF.
      Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Inferior MI

      Explanation:

      Based on the electrocardiogram (ECG) findings, the most likely diagnosis for this patient is an inferior myocardial infarction (MI), which occurs in the territory of the right coronary artery. This is indicated by ST-segment elevations in leads I, II, and aVF. Other ECG changes, such as complete heart block and bradycardia, may also be present due to the arterial supply the RCA gives to the atrioventricular and sinoatrial nodes. It is important to note that a new left bundle branch block (LBBB) may suggest acute coronary syndrome.

      Acute pericarditis is unlikely as it presents with sharp retrosternal chest pain and a pericardial friction rub on auscultation, with different ECG findings such as widespread concave ST-segment elevations and PR segment depression.

      An anterolateral MI would show ST-segment elevations in the anterolateral leads, while a posterior MI would show ST-segment depressions in the anterior leads with tall R waves.

      In a pulmonary embolism (PE), ECG changes may include a large S wave in lead I, a large Q wave in lead III, and an inverted T wave in lead III – S1Q3T3, but this is only seen in a minority of patients. Most patients with a PE would have a normal ECG or sinus tachycardia, with signs of right-heart strain sometimes present. The clinical presentation of a PE would also differ from that of an MI, with symptoms such as tachypnea, tachycardia, lung crackles, fever, pleuritic chest pain, dyspnea, and hemoptysis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      8.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 62-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 6-month history of chest...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old woman presents to the clinic with a 6-month history of chest pain that occurs during physical activity and is relieved with rest. She has a medical history of hypercholesterolemia and asthma, drinks 8 units of alcohol per week, and has never smoked. Her vital signs are within normal limits and an ECG shows sinus rhythm. What is the most suitable medication to prescribe for preventing future episodes, considering the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Isosorbide mononitrate

      Correct Answer: Verapamil

      Explanation:

      To prevent angina attacks, the first-line treatment is either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker. If a person experiences chest pain that feels like squeezing during physical activity but goes away with rest, it is likely stable angina. Having high cholesterol levels increases the risk of developing this condition. A normal electrocardiogram (ECG) indicates that there is no ongoing heart attack.

      Angina pectoris is a condition that can be managed through various methods, including lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. The first-line medication should be either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If the initial treatment is not effective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, other drugs such as long-acting nitrates, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. Nitrate tolerance is a common issue, and patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate should use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. This effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      31.9
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 40-year-old female patient comes to you at the cardiology department complaining of...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old female patient comes to you at the cardiology department complaining of a sharp, stabbing chest pain behind her breastbone. The pain is not spreading to any other part of her body, and she denies feeling sweaty or experiencing nausea and vomiting. She reports that the pain worsens at night when she lies flat in bed and improves slightly when she sits up. She reveals that she has been diagnosed with systemic lupus and is taking regular medication for it. During auscultation, you hear scratchy, rubbing sounds that are most audible during systole. You decide to order an ECG to confirm the diagnosis. What ECG findings are you most likely to observe?

      Your Answer: Saddle-shaped ST elevation

      Explanation:

      The vignette describes classic symptoms of pericarditis, including a sharp central chest pain that is relieved by sitting up and leaning forward, but worsened by lying flat or taking deep breaths. The patient’s past medical history of systemic lupus also increases the likelihood of pericarditis. On auscultation, scratchy, rubbing S1 and S2 sounds can be heard. The most likely ECG finding in this case is saddle shaped ST elevation, which is a hallmark of pericarditis. Other potential causes of ST elevation include STEMI and left bundle branch block, but these can be ruled out based on the symptoms and examination findings. Narrow peaking T waves are often seen in hyperkalaemia, but this is not the most likely ECG finding in this case.

      Understanding Acute Pericarditis

      Acute pericarditis is a medical condition characterized by inflammation of the pericardial sac that lasts for less than 4-6 weeks. The condition can be caused by various factors such as viral infections, tuberculosis, uraemia, post-myocardial infarction, autoimmune pericarditis, radiotherapy, connective tissue disease, hypothyroidism, malignancy, and trauma. Symptoms of acute pericarditis include chest pain, non-productive cough, dyspnoea, and flu-like symptoms. Patients may also experience pericardial rub.

      To diagnose acute pericarditis, doctors may perform an electrocardiogram (ECG) to check for changes in the heart’s electrical activity. Blood tests may also be conducted to check for inflammatory markers and troponin levels. Patients suspected of having acute pericarditis should undergo transthoracic echocardiography.

      Treatment for acute pericarditis depends on the underlying cause. Patients with high-risk features such as fever or elevated troponin levels may need to be hospitalized. However, most patients with pericarditis secondary to viral infection can be managed as outpatients. Strenuous physical activity should be avoided until symptoms resolve and inflammatory markers normalize. A combination of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and colchicine is typically used as first-line treatment for patients with acute idiopathic or viral pericarditis. The medication is usually tapered off over 1-2 weeks.

      Overall, understanding acute pericarditis is important for prompt diagnosis and appropriate management of the condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      37.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 57-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of a painful, red left thigh....

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of a painful, red left thigh. She denies feeling unwell and reports no shortness of breath or haemoptysis. Her medical history includes obesity (BMI 32 kg/m2) and no past surgeries. She takes no regular medications. On examination, she appears healthy, and all her vital signs are normal. She has erythema on the medial aspect of her left thigh. Palpation of the left long saphenous vein reveals tenderness and hardening over a 6 cm length, starting 10cm distal to the sapheno-femoral junction. The Wells score for DVT is 1. What is the most appropriate next step in investigation?

      Your Answer: Serum D-dimer level

      Correct Answer: Venous ultrasound of the legs

      Explanation:

      Patients diagnosed with superficial thrombophlebitis in the long saphenous vein should undergo an ultrasound scan to rule out the possibility of an underlying DVT. While this condition is typically harmless and can be treated with NSAIDs and compression, it carries a risk of DVT and subsequent PE. Therefore, it is recommended that patients with proximal long saphenous vein thrombophlebitis undergo an ultrasound to exclude DVT.

      In this case, there are no indications of PE or respiratory symptoms, so a CTPA or chest X-ray is not necessary. While a D-dimer test is typically used to diagnose DVT, it is not useful in the presence of superficial thrombophlebitis. As a result, the guideline is to proceed directly to venous ultrasound.

      The risk factors for superficial thrombophlebitis are the same as those for DVT/PE, such as female sex, prolonged immobility, obesity, and cancer. While checking blood lipid levels may be relevant, it is not a primary concern as this is a thrombotic rather than an atherosclerotic process.

      Superficial thrombophlebitis is inflammation associated with thrombosis of a superficial vein, usually the long saphenous vein of the leg. Around 20% of cases have an underlying deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and 3-4% may progress to a DVT if untreated. Treatment options include NSAIDs, topical heparinoids, compression stockings, and low-molecular weight heparin. Patients with clinical signs of superficial thrombophlebitis affecting the proximal long saphenous vein should have an ultrasound scan to exclude concurrent DVT. Patients with superficial thrombophlebitis at, or extending towards, the sapheno-femoral junction can be considered for therapeutic anticoagulation for 6-12 weeks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      48.4
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 72-year-old man presents to the cardiology clinic with symptomatic aortic stenosis. Despite...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents to the cardiology clinic with symptomatic aortic stenosis. Despite his overall good health, he is eager for intervention. What intervention is most likely to be recommended for him?

      Your Answer: Balloon valvuloplasty

      Correct Answer: Bioprosthetic aortic valve replacement

      Explanation:

      Mechanical valves are typically preferred for younger patients as they have a longer lifespan compared to other types of prosthetic heart valves.

      Prosthetic Heart Valves: Options for Replacement

      Prosthetic heart valves are commonly used to replace damaged aortic and mitral valves. There are two main options for replacement: biological (bioprosthetic) or mechanical. Biological valves are usually sourced from bovine or porcine origins and are commonly used in older patients. However, they have a major disadvantage of structural deterioration and calcification over time. On the other hand, mechanical valves have a low failure rate but require long-term anticoagulation due to the increased risk of thrombosis. Warfarin is still the preferred anticoagulant for patients with mechanical heart valves, and the target INR varies depending on the valve type. Aspirin is only given in addition if there is an additional indication, such as ischaemic heart disease. Following the 2008 NICE guidelines, antibiotics are no longer recommended for common procedures such as dental work for prophylaxis of endocarditis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      51.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 42-year-old woman who is six weeks pregnant presents to the Cardiovascular Clinic...

    Correct

    • A 42-year-old woman who is six weeks pregnant presents to the Cardiovascular Clinic with a swollen right leg. Doppler studies confirm a deep vein thrombosis (DVT). She has no signs or symptoms of a pulmonary embolism (PE) and is haemodynamically stable. What is the most appropriate management choice in this case?

      Your Answer: Start subcutaneous low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) throughout pregnancy and change to warfarin in the postpartum period

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Deep Vein Thrombosis in Pregnancy

      Start subcutaneous low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) throughout pregnancy and change to warfarin in the postpartum period: LMWH is recommended for the treatment of DVT during pregnancy. Treatment should be continued for at least three months and until six weeks postpartum. Warfarin can be used after day five of the postpartum period. Both LMWH and warfarin are safe to use while breastfeeding.

      Elastic band compression of the affected leg, bedrest, and foot elevation: These measures have no benefit in treating DVT and may even increase the risk of developing a pulmonary embolism (PE) or another DVT.

      Commence intravenous (IV) heparin: IV heparin can be used for the treatment of a shocked patient with PE if thrombolysis is not possible. It should not be used for DVT alone.

      Oral anticoagulation with warfarin daily throughout pregnancy and the postpartum period: Warfarin is not recommended during pregnancy as it can cross the placenta and increase the risk of congenital malformations and bleeding.

      Aspirin 300 mg daily throughout pregnancy and the postpartum period: Aspirin is not effective in treating DVT or PE as it is an antiplatelet drug, not an anticoagulant.

      Treatment Options for Deep Vein Thrombosis in Pregnancy

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      40.9
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A woman with a history of asthma who is 25 weeks pregnant is...

    Correct

    • A woman with a history of asthma who is 25 weeks pregnant is found to have consistent blood pressure readings >170/95 mmHg. She is admitted under Gynaecology.
      Which of the following antihypertensives would you initiate for this patient?

      Your Answer: Nifedipine

      Explanation:

      Safe and Effective Treatment Options for Gestational Hypertension

      Gestational hypertension is a serious condition that requires prompt medical attention. According to NICE guidelines, labetalol is the first-line treatment for gestational hypertension. However, if the patient has asthma, labetalol is contraindicated. In such cases, nifedipine is listed as the second-line treatment, followed by methyldopa if necessary.

      Diltiazem is not usually used in gestational hypertension, and the role of this medication in pregnancy is unclear. Bendroflumethiazide is relatively contraindicated in pregnancy, while ACE inhibitors and ARBs are absolutely contraindicated due to their potential adverse effects on fetal blood pressure and renal function.

      In cases of gestational hypertension, it is crucial to rule out pre-eclampsia. If the patient’s blood pressure is above 160/110, NICE guidelines recommend admission until the blood pressure is below this level.

      Calcium channel blockers, such as nifedipine, are safe and effective in pregnancy, while the role of diltiazem is uncertain. Bendroflumethiazide is relatively contraindicated, while ACE inhibitors and ARBs are absolutely contraindicated. It is essential to choose the appropriate medication based on the patient’s medical history and individual circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      19
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  • Question 13 - A 70-year-old patient was discovered to have an abdominal aortic aneurysm during a...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old patient was discovered to have an abdominal aortic aneurysm during a routine medical check-up. The patient is currently receiving treatment for hypertension and high cholesterol but is otherwise healthy and medically capable. The aneurysm was infra-renal and had a diameter of 4.9 cm.
      What is the best course of action for managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Elective surgery to repair the aneurysm

      Correct Answer: Ultrasound scan every three months

      Explanation:

      Screening and Management of Abdominal Aortic Aneurysms

      Abdominal aortic aneurysms (AAAs) are screened for initially by an ultrasound scan of the abdomen. Men are invited for an initial ultrasound during the year of their 65th birthday, while women are not routinely screened as AAA is predominantly found in men.

      If the initial scan shows an AAA of less than 3 cm, patients are discharged. If it is between 3 and 4.4 cm, they are invited back for yearly screening. If it is between 4.5 and 5.4 cm, patients receive an ultrasound scan every three months. If the aneurysm is above 5.5 cm, patients are referred to a vascular surgeon for consideration for repair.

      Elective surgery is recommended for aneurysms larger than 5.5 cm in diameter or those that are growing rapidly, as clinical trials have shown that the risk of rupture is increased when the aneurysm is larger than 5.5 cm. Immediate surgery is only performed on those aneurysms that are leaking or ruptured.

      Surveillance is required to ensure the aneurysm remains below 5.5 cm. Patients with an aneurysm over 4.5 cm require an ultrasound scan every three months. Once the aneurysm reaches 5.5 cm, patients are referred for consideration of elective surgery.

      Managing Abdominal Aortic Aneurysms: Screening and Treatment Guidelines

      Abdominal aortic aneurysms (AAAs) are a serious health concern that require careful management. This article outlines the screening and treatment guidelines for AAAs.

      Screening for AAAs is done initially by an ultrasound scan of the abdomen. Men are invited for an initial ultrasound during the year of their 65th birthday, while women are not routinely screened. Patients with an AAA less than 3 cm are discharged, while those with an AAA between 3 and 4.4 cm are invited back for yearly screening. Patients with an AAA between 4.5 and 5.4 cm require an ultrasound scan every three months, while those with an AAA over 5.5 cm are referred to a vascular surgeon for consideration of elective surgery.

      Elective surgery is recommended for aneurysms larger than 5.5 cm in diameter or those that are growing rapidly.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      96.9
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 35-year-old man is being monitored by his general practitioner for primary prevention...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man is being monitored by his general practitioner for primary prevention of cardiovascular disease. He is a smoker and has a strong family history of premature death from ischaemic heart disease. Following lifestyle modifications, his fasting cholesterol concentration is 7.2 mmol/l. Upon consulting the local guidelines, it is found that his Qrisk2 score is > 17%. What drug therapy would you recommend?

      Your Answer: Statin

      Explanation:

      New NICE Guidelines for Lipid Modification: Statins as First-Line Treatment for Cardiovascular Risk

      The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines for lipid modification, recommending statins as the first-line treatment for patients with a cardiovascular risk of over 10%. Atorvastatin 20 mg is the preferred statin for these patients.

      Cholestyramine, a previously used medication for hypercholesterolaemia, is no longer recommended. Instead, dietary advice should be offered alongside statin therapy. Fibrates and nicotinic acid may be used as second-line options for patients with high triglyceride levels or those who cannot tolerate multiple statins.

      Under the new guidelines, patients with a QRISK2 score of over 10% should be offered statin therapy to reduce their 10-year risk for cardiovascular disease. After three months, lipids should be rechecked, with a focus on non-HDL cholesterol and aiming for a 40% reduction in non-HDL cholesterol.

      In addition to medication, patients should be offered interventions to address modifiable risk factors such as smoking cessation, alcohol moderation, and weight reduction where appropriate. These new guidelines aim to improve the management of lipid disorders and reduce the risk of cardiovascular disease.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      24.9
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  • Question 15 - A 54-year-old Caucasian man with a history of hypertension visits his GP clinic...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old Caucasian man with a history of hypertension visits his GP clinic seeking advice on controlling his blood pressure. He has been monitoring his blood pressure at home for the past week and has consistently recorded high readings, with an average of 147/85 mmHg. He is asymptomatic and denies any chest discomfort. He is a non-smoker and non-alcoholic. His current medications include perindopril 10 mg once daily and indapamide 2.5mg once daily. What is the most appropriate course of action for managing his hypertension?

      Your Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      To improve poorly controlled hypertension despite taking an ACE inhibitor and a thiazide diuretic, a calcium channel blocker such as amlodipine should be added according to NICE guidelines. Loop diuretics may be considered in cases of resistant hypertension. Aldosterone antagonists and alpha-blockers are only recommended if blood pressure remains uncontrolled despite taking a combination of an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin II receptor blocker, a calcium-channel blocker, and a thiazide-like diuretic. It is important to note that ACE inhibitors should not be used in combination with angiotensin receptor blockers for hypertension management.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      32.1
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - An 80-year-old man with a history of hypertension and ischaemic heart disease comes...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man with a history of hypertension and ischaemic heart disease comes in for a check-up. He had a heart attack two decades ago but has been symptom-free since. His current medications include bisoprolol, ramipril, atorvastatin, and clopidogrel. He has been experiencing dizziness lately, and an ECG reveals that he has atrial fibrillation. What is the appropriate antithrombotic medication for him now?

      Your Answer: Continue clopidogrel monotherapy

      Correct Answer: Switch to an oral anticoagulant

      Explanation:

      Patients who have AF and stable CVD are typically prescribed anticoagulants while antiplatelets are discontinued. This is because such patients are at risk of stroke, as indicated by their CHADS-VASC score, which takes into account factors such as age, hypertension, and cardiovascular disease. Therefore, the patient in question needs to be treated accordingly. In this case, the patient should discontinue their antiplatelet medication and switch to oral anticoagulant monotherapy.

      Managing Combination Antiplatelet and Anticoagulant Therapy

      With the rise of comorbidity, it is becoming increasingly common for patients to require both antiplatelet and anticoagulant therapy. However, this combination increases the risk of bleeding and may not be necessary in all cases. While there are no guidelines to cover every scenario, a recent review in the BMJ offers expert opinion on how to manage this situation.

      For patients with stable cardiovascular disease who require an anticoagulant, it is recommended that they receive antiplatelet therapy as well. However, if the patient has an indication for an anticoagulant, such as atrial fibrillation, it is best to prescribe anticoagulant monotherapy without the addition of antiplatelets.

      In patients who have experienced an acute coronary syndrome or undergone percutaneous coronary intervention, there is a stronger indication for antiplatelet therapy. Typically, patients are given triple therapy (two antiplatelets and one anticoagulant) for four to six months after the event, followed by dual therapy (one antiplatelet and one anticoagulant) for the remaining 12 months. However, the stroke risk in atrial fibrillation varies according to risk factors, so there may be variation in treatment from patient to patient.

      For patients who develop venous thromboembolism while on antiplatelets, they will likely be prescribed anticoagulants for three to six months. An ORBIT score should be calculated to determine the risk of bleeding. Patients with a low risk of bleeding may continue taking antiplatelets, while those with an intermediate or high risk of bleeding should consider stopping them.

      Overall, managing combination antiplatelet and anticoagulant therapy requires careful consideration of the patient’s individual circumstances and risk factors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 17 - A 62-year-old man is undergoing a drug therapy evaluation following a myocardial infarction...

    Incorrect

    • A 62-year-old man is undergoing a drug therapy evaluation following a myocardial infarction (MI).
      Which of the following options has not been shown to have a beneficial effect on mortality after an MI?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Correct Answer: Isosorbide mononitrate

      Explanation:

      Medications for Post-Myocardial Infarction (MI) Care

      After a myocardial infarction (MI), certain medications are recommended to reduce mortality and manage symptoms. Nitrates, such as isosorbide mononitrate, offer no mortality benefit but can be used for angina symptoms. β-blockers, like timolol, provide both mortality and anti-anginal benefits and should be continued for at least 12 months post-MI. Statins, specifically atorvastatin 80 mg, are recommended for secondary prevention to reduce mortality. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, such as ramipril, offer good mortality benefit, but angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) can be used if the patient cannot tolerate ACE inhibitors. Aspirin, in combination with another antiplatelet therapy, is recommended for 12 months post-MI. Studies have shown that tirofiban, timolol, and ramipril reduce mortality after an MI, while isosorbide mononitrate showed no benefit. The MIRACL study found that atorvastatin reduced cardiovascular events by 17% when given for 3 months post-MI.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      14.7
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  • Question 18 - A 45-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 7-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department with a 7-day history of fever and night sweats. His parameters include a blood pressure of 110/80 mmHg, oxygen saturation of 99%, heart rate of 115 bpm and a temperature of 38.5°C.
      On examination, a murmur is elicited at the right upper sternal edge. Infective endocarditis is suspected and an echocardiogram is done which shows multiple vegetations on the aortic valve.
      Which of the following is the best next step to confirm the diagnosis?
      Select the SINGLE best management option from the list below.
      Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer: No more testing required; sufficient criteria met

      Correct Answer: Two positive blood cultures drawn > 12 hours apart

      Explanation:

      Diagnosing Infective Endocarditis: Criteria and Testing

      In order to diagnose infective endocarditis, the modified Duke’s criteria are used. One major criterion can be fulfilled by echocardiography and the other by blood cultures. If a patient has one major criterion and one minor criterion, they need another major criterion or at least two other minor criteria to confirm the diagnosis. Two positive blood cultures drawn more than 12 hours apart fulfill the other major criterion, confirming the diagnosis.

      A chest X-ray is not necessary in this case, as it would not provide enough information to support a diagnosis of infective endocarditis.

      If a patient has one major criterion and one minor criterion, one positive blood culture of an atypical organism would fit a minor criterion for diagnosis, but would not be enough to confirm the diagnosis.

      Two positive blood cultures taken at the same time from different sites would not be appropriate, as they need to be drawn at least 12 hours apart to fulfill the major criterion. Even if this criterion is fulfilled, the patient would still need another major criterion or additional minor criteria to confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      183.3
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  • Question 19 - You are requested to evaluate a 65-year-old woman who has been admitted to...

    Correct

    • You are requested to evaluate a 65-year-old woman who has been admitted to your ward with a lower respiratory tract infection. She has a medical history of hypertension and gout and is currently taking amlodipine 10mg once daily and allopurinol 100mg once daily. You observe that her blood pressure has been consistently high over the past three days, with readings of 149/76 mmHg, 158/88 mmHg, and 150/82 mmHg. Which antihypertensive medication would be the most suitable to initiate?

      Your Answer: Lisinopril

      Explanation:

      For a patient with poorly controlled hypertension who is already taking a calcium channel blocker, the addition of an ACE inhibitor, angiotensin receptor blocker, or thiazide-like diuretic is recommended. In this case, since the patient’s hypertension remains uncontrolled, it is appropriate to start them on an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker, such as lisinopril. Atenolol would be a suitable option if the patient was already taking a calcium channel blocker, ACE inhibitor/ARB, and thiazide-like diuretic with a potassium level above 4.5 mmol/L. However, since the patient has a history of gout, thiazide-like diuretics like bendroflumethiazide and indapamide should be avoided as they can exacerbate gout symptoms.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 20 - An 83-year-old man who resides in a nursing home arrives at the Emergency...

    Correct

    • An 83-year-old man who resides in a nursing home arrives at the Emergency Department with symptoms of diarrhoea and vomiting. He has been experiencing 8 watery bowel movements per day for the past 3 days and seems disoriented and dehydrated. The patient has a medical history of atrial fibrillation, type II diabetes, and dementia. His heart rate is elevated at 110/min, and his electrocardiogram displays noticeable U waves. What is the probable reason for his ECG alterations?

      Your Answer: Hypokalaemia

      Explanation:

      The ECG changes observed in this scenario are most likely due to hypokalaemia. The patient’s electrolyte balance has been disrupted by vomiting and loose stools, resulting in a depletion of potassium that should be rectified through intravenous replacement. While hypocalcaemia and hypothermia can also cause U waves, they are less probable in this case. Non-ischaemic ST elevation changes may be caused by hyponatraemia. QT prolongation is a common effect of tricyclic antidepressant toxicity.

      ECG Features of Hypokalaemia

      Hypokalaemia is a condition characterized by low levels of potassium in the blood. This condition can be detected through an electrocardiogram (ECG) which shows specific features. The ECG features of hypokalaemia include U waves, small or absent T waves, prolonged PR interval, ST depression, and long QT. The U waves are particularly noticeable and are accompanied by a borderline PR interval.

      To remember these features, one registered user suggests the following rhyme: In Hypokalaemia, U have no Pot and no T, but a long PR and a long QT. It is important to detect hypokalaemia early as it can lead to serious complications such as cardiac arrhythmias and even cardiac arrest. Therefore, regular monitoring of potassium levels and ECGs is crucial for individuals at risk of hypokalaemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 21 - A 65 year old man comes to you with complaints of palpitations. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 year old man comes to you with complaints of palpitations. Upon conducting an electrocardiogram, you diagnose him with atrial fibrillation. He has no history of cardiovascular or cerebrovascular disease and his recent blood tests, including a random glucose test, were normal. His BMI is 28 kg/m² and his blood pressure today is 135/82 mmHg. Determine his CHA2DS2 VASc score for stroke risk.

      Your Answer: 2

      Correct Answer: 1

      Explanation:

      NICE recommends using the CHA2DS2-VASc score to determine the need for anticoagulation in patients with any history of AF.

      The ORBIT scoring system should be used to assess bleeding risk, but anticoagulation should not be withheld solely on the grounds of age or risk of falls.

      DOACs are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF, with warfarin used second-line if a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.

      Score CHA2DS2-VASc Risk Criteria
      1 point Congestive heart failure
      1 point Hypertension
      2 points Age ≥75 years
      1 point Diabetes mellitus
      2 points Stroke/Transient Ischemic Attack/Thromboembolic event
      1 point Vascular disease (prior MI, PAD, or aortic plaque)
      1 point Age 65 to 74 years
      1 point Sex category (ie, female sex)

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 22 - A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of palpitations that started about...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of palpitations that started about 30 minutes ago. He mentions having a stressful day at work, but there doesn't seem to be any other obvious trigger. He denies experiencing any chest pain or difficulty breathing. Upon conducting an ECG, a regular tachycardia of 180 bpm with a QRS duration of 0.10s is observed. His blood pressure is 106/70 mmHg, and his oxygen saturation is 98% on room air. Despite performing the Valsalva manoeuvre, there is no effect on the rhythm. What is the most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer: Intravenous adenosine

      Explanation:

      In cases of haemodynamically stable patients with SVT who do not respond to vagal manoeuvres, the recommended course of action is to administer adenosine.

      Understanding Supraventricular Tachycardia

      Supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) is a type of tachycardia that originates above the ventricles. It is commonly associated with paroxysmal SVT, which is characterized by sudden onset of a narrow complex tachycardia, usually an atrioventricular nodal re-entry tachycardia (AVNRT). Other causes include atrioventricular re-entry tachycardias (AVRT) and junctional tachycardias.

      When it comes to acute management, vagal maneuvers such as the Valsalva maneuver or carotid sinus massage can be used. Intravenous adenosine is also an option, with a rapid IV bolus of 6mg given initially, followed by 12mg and then 18mg if necessary. However, adenosine is contraindicated in asthmatics, and verapamil may be a better option for them. Electrical cardioversion is another option.

      To prevent episodes of SVT, beta-blockers can be used. Radio-frequency ablation is also an option. It is important to work with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for each individual case.

      Overall, understanding SVT and its management options can help individuals with this condition better manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 23 - A 67-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a history of severe...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old man arrives at the emergency department with a history of severe chest pain, scoring 9 out of 10, that began an hour ago. He is a smoker and is currently taking amlodipine for his hypertension. Following an ECG and troponin testing, he is diagnosed with NSTEMI. Using the GRACE score, his predicted 6-month mortality is 2%, and he is not at high risk of bleeding. However, the nearest primary percutaneous intervention unit is over an hour away. What is the appropriate management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Thrombolysis

      Correct Answer: Aspirin, ticagrelor and fondaparinux

      Explanation:

      Managing Acute Coronary Syndrome: A Summary of NICE Guidelines

      Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a common and serious medical condition that requires prompt management. The management of ACS has evolved over the years, with the development of new drugs and procedures such as percutaneous coronary intervention (PCI). The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has updated its guidelines on the management of ACS in 2020.

      ACS can be classified into three subtypes: ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI), non ST-elevation myocardial infarction (NSTEMI), and unstable angina. The management of ACS depends on the subtype. However, there are common initial drug therapies for all patients with ACS, such as aspirin and nitrates. Oxygen should only be given if the patient has oxygen saturations below 94%, and morphine should only be given for severe pain.

      For patients with STEMI, the first step is to assess eligibility for coronary reperfusion therapy, which can be either PCI or fibrinolysis. Patients with NSTEMI/unstable angina require a risk assessment using the Global Registry of Acute Coronary Events (GRACE) tool to determine whether they need coronary angiography (with follow-on PCI if necessary) or conservative management.

      This summary provides an overview of the NICE guidelines for managing ACS. The guidelines are complex and depend on individual patient factors, so healthcare professionals should review the full guidelines for further details. Proper management of ACS can improve patient outcomes and reduce the risk of complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 24 - A 29-year-old male patient informs you that he has Long QT syndrome and...

    Correct

    • A 29-year-old male patient informs you that he has Long QT syndrome and you are contemplating prescribing an antibiotic. Which antibiotic should you avoid prescribing to him?

      Your Answer: Erythromycin

      Explanation:

      A prolonged QT interval may be caused by Erythromycin.

      Understanding Long QT Syndrome

      Long QT syndrome (LQTS) is a genetic condition that causes delayed repolarization of the ventricles, which can lead to ventricular tachycardia and sudden death. The most common types of LQTS are caused by defects in the alpha subunit of the slow delayed rectifier potassium channel. A normal corrected QT interval is less than 430 ms in males and 450 ms in females.

      There are various causes of a prolonged QT interval, including congenital factors, drugs, and other medical conditions. Some drugs that can prolong the QT interval include amiodarone, tricyclic antidepressants, and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors. Electrolyte imbalances, acute myocardial infarction, and subarachnoid hemorrhage can also cause a prolonged QT interval.

      LQTS may be picked up on routine ECG or following family screening. The symptoms and events associated with LQTS can vary depending on the type of LQTS. Long QT1 is usually associated with exertional syncope, while Long QT2 is often associated with syncope following emotional stress or exercise. Long QT3 events often occur at night or at rest.

      Management of LQTS involves avoiding drugs that prolong the QT interval and other precipitants if appropriate. Beta-blockers may be used, and in high-risk cases, implantable cardioverter defibrillators may be necessary. It is important to recognize and manage LQTS to prevent sudden cardiac death.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 25 - An aged patient in the oncology unit experiences a cardiac arrest. You initiate...

    Correct

    • An aged patient in the oncology unit experiences a cardiac arrest. You initiate compressions and notify the resuscitation team. Upon rhythm assessment, VT is detected. Following three rounds of CPR and multiple shocks, which two medications are recommended in the ALS protocol?

      Your Answer: Amiodarone 300mg and adrenaline 1mg

      Explanation:

      During advanced ALS, the recommended dose of adrenaline to administer is 1mg. If the patient is identified in the hospital, they should receive a minimum shock of 150 joules (unless the defibrillator model specifies otherwise). Compressions at a rate of 30:2 should be resumed for 2 minutes, followed by reassessment of the rhythm. If VF or pVT persists, a second shock should be given. Repeat the previous steps until the third shock, at which point 1mg IV of adrenaline and 300 mg IV of amiodarone should be administered while continuing CPR. Afterward, 1mg of adrenaline should be given after every other shock. Consider administering a second dose of amiodarone after a total of 5 defibrillation attempts if it is available. If amiodarone is not available, lidocaine can be used.

      The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken when dealing with patients with shockable and non-shockable rhythms. For both types of patients, chest compressions are a crucial part of the process, with a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 ventilations. Defibrillation is recommended for shockable rhythms, with a single shock for VF/pulseless VT followed by 2 minutes of CPR. Adrenaline and amiodarone are the drugs of choice for non-shockable rhythms, with adrenaline given as soon as possible and amiodarone administered after 3 shocks for VF/pulseless VT. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolus is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98% following successful resuscitation. The Hs and Ts should be considered as potential reversible causes of cardiac arrest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 26 - An 80-year-old man visits his primary care physician for a routine check-up. Upon...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man visits his primary care physician for a routine check-up. Upon examination, an irregularly irregular heart rate is detected and confirmed to be atrial fibrillation on an ECG. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and type 2 diabetes mellitus. The physician is worried about preventing stroke. What medication would be the most appropriate for this concern?

      Your Answer: Rivaroxaban

      Explanation:

      For reducing the risk of stroke in patients with atrial fibrillation (AF), the first-line anticoagulation should be a direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC) such as rivaroxaban. This recommendation is based on a scenario where a patient is found to have AF during a wellbeing check and requires anticoagulation due to the increased risk of thrombosis. Aspirin is not the correct choice as it is an antiplatelet and not an anticoagulant. While dalteparin and enoxaparin are low molecular weight heparins that are often used for VTE prophylaxis, DOACs are preferred first-line for stroke risk reduction in AF. Patients often prefer DOACs as they are available in tablet form.

      NICE recommends using the CHA2DS2-VASc score to determine the need for anticoagulation in patients with any history of AF. The ORBIT scoring system should be used to assess bleeding risk, but anticoagulation should not be withheld solely on the grounds of age or risk of falls. DOACs are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF, with warfarin used second-line if a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 27 - A 58-year-old man presents for follow-up. He has experienced two episodes of fainting...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old man presents for follow-up. He has experienced two episodes of fainting in the past month. The first occurred while he was climbing stairs, and the second occurred last week as he was exiting a swimming pool. There were no warning signs before either episode. Witnesses to the most recent episode reported that he was unconscious for approximately 15 seconds. He reports feeling disoriented for only a few seconds after regaining consciousness. On physical examination, his pulse is 90 beats per minute, blood pressure is 110/86 mmHg, his lungs are clear, and there is a systolic murmur that radiates to the carotid area. Which of the following tests should be ordered first?

      Your Answer: 24 hour ECG monitor

      Correct Answer: Echocardiogram

      Explanation:

      The presence of a systolic murmur could indicate the possibility of aortic stenosis (AS). It is crucial to prioritize ruling out this condition as syncope, which is a late symptom, often occurs during physical activity in patients with AS.

      Aortic Stenosis: Symptoms, Causes, and Management

      Aortic stenosis is a condition characterized by the narrowing of the aortic valve, which can lead to various symptoms. These symptoms include chest pain, dyspnea, syncope, and a characteristic ejection systolic murmur that radiates to the carotids. Severe aortic stenosis can also cause a narrow pulse pressure, slow rising pulse, delayed ESM, soft/absent S2, S4, thrill, and left ventricular hypertrophy or failure. The most common causes of aortic stenosis are degenerative calcification in older patients and bicuspid aortic valve in younger patients.

      If a patient is asymptomatic, observation is usually recommended. However, if the patient is symptomatic or has a valvular gradient greater than 40 mmHg with features such as left ventricular systolic dysfunction, valve replacement is necessary. Surgical AVR is the preferred treatment for young, low/medium operative risk patients, while TAVR is used for those with a high operative risk. Balloon valvuloplasty may be used in children without aortic valve calcification and in adults with critical aortic stenosis who are not fit for valve replacement.

      In summary, aortic stenosis is a condition that can cause various symptoms and requires prompt management to prevent complications. The causes of aortic stenosis vary, and treatment options depend on the patient’s age, operative risk, and overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 28 - An 81-year-old woman presents to the cardiology clinic for a routine follow-up appointment....

    Incorrect

    • An 81-year-old woman presents to the cardiology clinic for a routine follow-up appointment. She has a history of ischaemic heart disease after experiencing a myocardial infarction 3 years ago. Although she denies chest pain, she reports an increase in shortness of breath during physical activity. Upon examination, her vital signs are normal, but there is mild pitting edema up to the knees bilaterally. An echocardiogram reveals mild left ventricular impairment with an estimated ejection fraction of 45%. What is the initial treatment plan for this patient?

      Your Answer: Bisoprolol and furosemide

      Correct Answer: Bisoprolol and ramipril

      Explanation:

      The recommended first-line treatment for patients with heart failure with reduced LVEF is a combination of a beta blocker and an ACE inhibitor. In this case, bisoprolol and ramipril are the appropriate medications to prescribe. The patient’s symptoms, medical history, and reduced left ventricular ejection fraction support this treatment plan. Amlodipine and ramipril, bisoprolol and amlodipine, and bisoprolol and furosemide are not recommended as initial treatments for heart failure with reduced LVEF.

      Drug Management for Chronic Heart Failure: NICE Guidelines

      Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management to improve patient outcomes. In 2018, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on drug management for chronic heart failure. The guidelines recommend first-line therapy with both an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Second-line therapy involves the use of aldosterone antagonists, which should be monitored for hyperkalaemia. SGLT-2 inhibitors are also increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction. Third-line therapy should be initiated by a specialist and may include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, or cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments such as annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines are also recommended.

      Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to drug management for chronic heart failure. It is important to note that loop diuretics have not been shown to reduce mortality in the long-term, and that ACE-inhibitors and beta-blockers have no effect on mortality in heart failure with preserved ejection fraction. Healthcare professionals should carefully consider the patient’s individual needs and circumstances when determining the appropriate drug therapy for chronic heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 29 - A 48-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of sudden onset chest...

    Correct

    • A 48-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of sudden onset chest pain. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and is currently taking ramipril. His vital signs are as follows: BP 153/90 mmHg in his right arm and 130/80 in his left arm, heart rate 89/minute, temperature 37.2ºC, respiration rate 17/minute, and oxygen saturation 98% on room air. Upon examination, the patient has absent pulses in his right leg and diminished pulses in his left leg.

      What is the recommended diagnostic test for this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer: CT angiography chest/abdomen/pelvis

      Explanation:

      When a patient presents with symptoms of thoracic aortic dissection and is stable, CT angiography is the preferred diagnostic test. This imaging technique provides a clear view of the aorta and helps plan surgical intervention if necessary. In cases of proximal aortic dissection, inter-arm blood pressure measurements may reveal a difference of over 20 mmHg, with the right arm showing higher pressure due to its proximity to the heart. The absence or reduction of femoral pulses on one or both sides is also a common finding. While a chest x-ray may show signs associated with aortic dissection, it is not specific enough for diagnosis. Transesophageal echocardiography (TOE) is used to confirm the diagnosis if CT angiography is inconclusive or if the patient is unstable. Transthoracic echocardiography (TTE) is less sensitive and specific than TOE for detecting aortic dissection.

      Understanding Aortic Dissection: Classification, Investigation, and Management

      Aortic dissection is a serious medical condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. It is classified according to the location of the tear in the aorta, with type A affecting the ascending aorta in two-thirds of cases, and type B affecting the descending aorta distal to the left subclavian origin in one-third of cases. The DeBakey classification further divides aortic dissection into type I, which originates in the ascending aorta and propagates to at least the aortic arch, and type II, which is confined to the ascending aorta. Type III originates in the descending aorta and rarely extends proximally but will extend distally.

      To diagnose aortic dissection, imaging studies such as chest x-ray and CT angiography of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis are essential. Transoesophageal echocardiography (TOE) may be more suitable for unstable patients who cannot undergo CT scanning. Management of type A aortic dissection requires surgical intervention, but blood pressure should be controlled to a target systolic of 100-120 mmHg while awaiting surgery. Type B aortic dissection can be managed conservatively with bed rest and IV labetalol to reduce blood pressure and prevent progression.

      Complications of aortic dissection depend on the location of the tear. Backward tears can lead to aortic incompetence/regurgitation and myocardial infarction, while forward tears can cause unequal arm pulses and blood pressure, stroke, and renal failure. Endovascular repair of type B aortic dissection may have a role in the future. It is important to remember that patients may present acutely and be clinically unstable, so the choice of investigations and management should take this into account.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 30 - Samantha, a 56-year-old teacher, visits you for a check-up regarding her angina. Despite...

    Correct

    • Samantha, a 56-year-old teacher, visits you for a check-up regarding her angina. Despite taking the highest dosage of bisoprolol, she experiences chest pain during physical activity, which hinders her daily routine as she frequently needs to take breaks and rest after walking short distances. Her pain never occurs while at rest, and she has no known allergies or drug sensitivities. What is the recommended course of action for managing Samantha's condition?

      Your Answer: Add amlodipine

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines (2019), if a beta-blocker is not effectively controlling angina, a long-acting dihydropyridine calcium-channel blocker (CCB) like amlodipine should be added. It is important to ensure that the patient is taking the highest tolerated dose of their current medications before adding new ones.

      Ramipril is not the best treatment option for this patient as there is no evidence of hypertension in their medical history. While ACE inhibitors like ramipril can be effective in preventing myocardial infarction and stroke in patients with angina and hypertension, they are not indicated in this case.

      Verapamil is a CCB that can be used to manage angina, but it should not be used in combination with a beta-blocker as this can increase the risk of severe bradycardia and heart failure.

      As the patient is not displaying any signs of unstable angina, such as pain at rest or rapidly progressing symptoms, admission to the emergency department is not necessary.

      If there is evidence of extensive ischaemia on an electrocardiograph (ECG) or the patient is not responding well to an optimised drug treatment, referral to cardiology for angioplasty may be necessary.

      Angina pectoris is a condition that can be managed through various methods, including lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. In 2011, NICE released guidelines for the management of stable angina. Medication is an important aspect of treatment, and all patients should receive aspirin and a statin unless there are contraindications. Sublingual glyceryl trinitrate can be used to abort angina attacks. The first-line medication should be either a beta-blocker or a calcium channel blocker, depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a calcium channel blocker is used as monotherapy, a rate-limiting one such as verapamil or diltiazem should be used. If used in combination with a beta-blocker, a longer-acting dihydropyridine calcium channel blocker should be used. Beta-blockers should not be prescribed concurrently with verapamil due to the risk of complete heart block. If the initial treatment is not effective, medication should be increased to the maximum tolerated dose. If a patient is still symptomatic after monotherapy with a beta-blocker, a calcium channel blocker can be added, and vice versa. If a patient cannot tolerate the addition of a calcium channel blocker or a beta-blocker, other drugs such as long-acting nitrates, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. Nitrate tolerance is a common issue, and patients who take standard-release isosorbide mononitrate should use an asymmetric dosing interval to maintain a daily nitrate-free time of 10-14 hours to minimize the development of nitrate tolerance. This effect is not seen in patients who take once-daily modified-release isosorbide mononitrate. If a patient is taking both a beta-blocker and a calcium-channel blocker, a third drug should only be added while awaiting assessment for PCI or CABG.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 31 - A 59-year-old woman comes in for a routine check-up with her primary care...

    Correct

    • A 59-year-old woman comes in for a routine check-up with her primary care physician. She has a history of type 2 diabetes mellitus and is currently taking metformin and sitagliptin. During her last visit, her blood pressure was measured at 161/88 mmHg and she was advised to undergo 7 days of ambulatory blood pressure monitoring.

      During this visit, her average ambulatory blood pressure is recorded as 158/74 mmHg. All other observations are stable and her cardiorespiratory examination is unremarkable. Her blood sugar level is 6.2 mmol/L.

      What medication would be recommended to manage this patient's blood pressure?

      Your Answer: Lisinopril

      Explanation:

      Regardless of age, ACE inhibitors/A2RBs are the first-line treatment for hypertension in diabetics.

      Blood Pressure Management in Diabetes Mellitus

      Patients with diabetes mellitus have traditionally been managed with lower blood pressure targets to reduce their overall cardiovascular risk. However, a 2013 Cochrane review found that there was little difference in outcomes between patients who had tight blood pressure control (targets < 130/85 mmHg) and those with more relaxed control (< 140-160/90-100 mmHg), except for a slightly reduced rate of stroke in the former group. As a result, NICE recommends a blood pressure target of < 140/90 mmHg for type 2 diabetics, the same as for patients without diabetes. For patients with type 1 diabetes, NICE recommends a blood pressure target of 135/85 mmHg unless they have albuminuria or two or more features of metabolic syndrome, in which case the target should be 130/80 mmHg. ACE inhibitors or angiotensin-II receptor antagonists (A2RBs) are the first-line antihypertensive regardless of age, as they have a renoprotective effect in diabetes. A2RBs are preferred for black African or African-Caribbean diabetic patients. Further management then follows that of non-diabetic patients. It is important to note that autonomic neuropathy may result in more postural symptoms in patients taking antihypertensive therapy. Therefore, the routine use of beta-blockers in uncomplicated hypertension should be avoided, particularly when given in combination with thiazides, as they may cause insulin resistance, impair insulin secretion, and alter the autonomic response to hypoglycemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      54.2
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 35-year-old woman is found to have a shortened QT interval on her...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman is found to have a shortened QT interval on her ECG. Which medication is the most likely cause?

      Your Answer: Digoxin

      Explanation:

      Effects of Different Anti-Arrhythmic Drugs on QT Interval

      The QT interval is an important measure of cardiac repolarization, and abnormalities in this interval can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias. Different anti-arrhythmic drugs have varying effects on the QT interval.

      Cardiac glycosides such as digoxin and ouabain can shorten the QT interval, even at therapeutic doses. This is due to their ability to shorten the atrial and ventricular refractory periods.

      Class Ia drugs like disopyramide, class Ic drugs like flecainide, and class III drugs like amiodarone and sotalol all prolong the QT interval. Disopyramide can result in a long PR interval, while flecainide can cause a broad QRS or prolonged QT interval. Amiodarone is a class III drug that prolongs the QT interval, and sotalol causes dose-related prolongation of the QT interval.

      β-blockers like atenolol have a neutral effect on the QT interval in patients with a normal QT interval. However, they can act to stabilise the QT interval in patients with long QT syndrome.

      In summary, different anti-arrhythmic drugs have varying effects on the QT interval, and it is important to monitor this interval when prescribing these medications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      46.8
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A 59-year-old man comes to the hospital complaining of central chest pain that...

    Incorrect

    • A 59-year-old man comes to the hospital complaining of central chest pain that spreads to his left arm, accompanied by sweating and nausea. In the Emergency Department, an ECG reveals ST elevation in leads V1, V2, V3, and V4, and he is given 300mg of aspirin before undergoing primary percutaneous coronary intervention. After a successful procedure, he is admitted to the Coronary Care Unit and eventually discharged with secondary prevention medication and lifestyle modification advice, as well as a referral to a cardiac rehabilitation program.
      During a check-up with his GP three weeks later, the patient reports feeling well but still experiences fatigue and shortness of breath during rehab activities. He has not had any further chest pain episodes. However, an ECG shows Q waves and convex ST elevation in leads V1, V2, V3, and V4.
      What is the most likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Post-MI pericarditis (Dressler's syndrome)

      Correct Answer: Left ventricular aneurysm

      Explanation:

      Complications of Myocardial Infarction

      Myocardial infarction (MI) can lead to various complications, which can occur immediately, early, or late after the event. Cardiac arrest is the most common cause of death following MI, usually due to ventricular fibrillation. Patients are treated with defibrillation as per the ALS protocol. Cardiogenic shock may occur if a significant portion of the ventricular myocardium is damaged, leading to a decrease in ejection fraction. This condition is challenging to treat and may require inotropic support and/or an intra-aortic balloon pump. Chronic heart failure may develop if the patient survives the acute phase, and loop diuretics such as furosemide can help decrease fluid overload. Tachyarrhythmias, such as ventricular fibrillation and ventricular tachycardia, are common complications of MI. Bradyarrhythmias, such as atrioventricular block, are more common following inferior MI.

      Pericarditis is a common complication of MI in the first 48 hours, characterized by typical pericarditis pain, a pericardial rub, and a pericardial effusion. Dressler’s syndrome, which occurs 2-6 weeks after MI, is an autoimmune reaction against antigenic proteins formed during myocardial recovery. It is treated with NSAIDs. Left ventricular aneurysm may form due to weakened myocardium, leading to persistent ST elevation and left ventricular failure. Patients are anticoagulated due to the increased risk of thrombus formation and stroke. Left ventricular free wall rupture and ventricular septal defect are rare but serious complications that require urgent surgical correction. Acute mitral regurgitation may occur due to ischaemia or rupture of the papillary muscle, leading to acute hypotension and pulmonary oedema. Vasodilator therapy and emergency surgical repair may be necessary.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      12.5
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - A 50-year-old man arrives at the emergency department following a serious car accident...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old man arrives at the emergency department following a serious car accident resulting in chest injuries. The paramedics had trouble establishing IV access. Upon arrival, he is unresponsive with a ventricular fibrillation ECG. ALS is initiated, but multiple attempts at cannulation fail. However, successful intubation is achieved.
      What is the best course of action for administering ALS medications in this scenario?

      Your Answer: Intraosseous line insertion

      Explanation:

      If it is not possible to obtain IV access in ALS, medications should be administered through the intraosseous route (IO) instead of the tracheal route, which is no longer advised.

      The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken when dealing with patients with shockable and non-shockable rhythms. For both types of patients, chest compressions are a crucial part of the process, with a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 ventilations. Defibrillation is recommended for shockable rhythms, with a single shock for VF/pulseless VT followed by 2 minutes of CPR. Adrenaline and amiodarone are the drugs of choice for non-shockable rhythms, with adrenaline given as soon as possible and amiodarone administered after 3 shocks for VF/pulseless VT. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolus is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98% following successful resuscitation. The Hs and Ts should be considered as potential reversible causes of cardiac arrest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      132.8
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - An emergency buzzer sounds on the coronary care unit and you are the...

    Correct

    • An emergency buzzer sounds on the coronary care unit and you are the first doctor to respond. A healthcare assistant on an observation round has found a 72-year-old man unresponsive. You perform a head tilt and chin lift and check for a carotid pulse for 10 seconds while listening for breath sounds, but you detect neither.

      Telemetry attached to the patient shows sinus rhythm at a rate of 110 bpm. The crash team is being summoned, and the crash trolley is being brought to the bedside. You are unaware of any DNACPR orders.

      What is the most appropriate initial step?

      Your Answer: Start chest compressions at a rate of 30:2

      Explanation:

      For a patient in cardiac arrest with a non-shockable rhythm (pulseless-electrical activity), the recommended ratio of chest compressions to ventilation is 30:2. Therefore, the initial action should be to start chest compressions at this rate. Administering 1 mg adrenaline or 300 mg amiodarone is inappropriate as the first step. Adrenaline may be given once chest compressions have started. Amiodarone is only indicated for patients in ventricular fibrillation or pulseless ventricular tachycardia. Delivering a single synchronised DC shock or three quick successive stacked unsynchronised DC shocks followed by 2 minutes of 30:2 compressions is incorrect for a patient in PEA, as these are only appropriate for a shockable rhythm while on telemetry.

      The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken when dealing with patients with shockable and non-shockable rhythms. For both types of patients, chest compressions are a crucial part of the process, with a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 ventilations. Defibrillation is recommended for shockable rhythms, with a single shock for VF/pulseless VT followed by 2 minutes of CPR. Adrenaline and amiodarone are the drugs of choice for non-shockable rhythms, with adrenaline given as soon as possible and amiodarone administered after 3 shocks for VF/pulseless VT. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolus is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98% following successful resuscitation. The Hs and Ts should be considered as potential reversible causes of cardiac arrest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      82.4
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - Which of the following tests would be most beneficial in diagnosing heart failure?...

    Correct

    • Which of the following tests would be most beneficial in diagnosing heart failure?

      Your Answer: B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Cardiac Biomarkers: Importance of BNP in Heart Failure Diagnosis

      When it comes to diagnosing heart failure, healthcare professionals rely on various cardiac biomarkers to aid in their assessment. Among these biomarkers, B-type natriuretic peptide (BNP) is considered the primary investigation according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines.

      Unlike other biomarkers such as C-reactive protein (CRP) and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR), BNP is specific to heart failure and is not affected by inflammation. On the other hand, troponin T is useful in diagnosing acute coronary syndromes, while creatine phosphokinase is primarily used to detect muscle breakdown and rhabdomyolysis.

      It is important to note that certain factors such as obesity and medications like angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors, and angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs) can falsely lower BNP levels. Therefore, if BNP levels are elevated, patients should be referred for an echocardiogram to confirm the diagnosis of heart failure.

      In summary, understanding the role of cardiac biomarkers such as BNP in heart failure diagnosis is crucial in providing accurate and timely treatment for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      3.1
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A 55-year-old man is found to have an irregularly, irregular pulse during a...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old man is found to have an irregularly, irregular pulse during a routine check-up. An ECG reveals absent P waves and irregular R-R intervals. The patient has moderate renal impairment. What is the most appropriate treatment option?

      Your Answer: Dipyridamole

      Correct Answer: No treatment

      Explanation:

      Understanding Anticoagulation Treatment for Atrial Fibrillation: A CHADS-VASc Scoring System Overview

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a common rhythm disturbance that can increase the risk of stroke. To determine the appropriate treatment for primary prevention of stroke, healthcare professionals use the CHADS-VASc scoring system. This system assigns points based on various risk factors, including age, sex, hypertension, diabetes, previous stroke or transient ischemic attack, and vascular disease.

      This score is based on a point system in which 2 points are assigned for a history of stroke or transient ischemic attack or age 75 years or more and 1 point each is assigned for age 65 to 74 years; a history of hypertension, diabetes, recent cardiac failure, vascular disease (myocardial infarction, complex aortic plaque, and peripheral arterial disease (PAD), including prior revascularization, amputation due to PAD, or angiographic evidence of PAD, etc.); and female gender, resulting in a maximum score of 9 points.

      Score Risk Anticoagulation Therapy
      0 (male) or 1 (female) Low No anticoagulant therapy
      1 (male) Moderate Oral anticoagulant should be considered
      2 or greater High Oral anticoagulant is recommended

      Aspirin is not recommended for primary prevention of stroke in patients with AF, but may be used for secondary prevention after a stroke. Clexane, a low-molecular-weight heparin, is not used for long-term treatment of AF. Dipyridamole may be used in combination with clopidogrel or aspirin for stroke treatment, but not for prevention in AF patients.

      It is important to accurately identify AF and assess the patient’s risk using the CHADS-VASc scoring system to determine the appropriate anticoagulation treatment. NOACs are only licensed for non-valvular AF, so patients with valvular AF should be treated with warfarin or seek advice from a specialist.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      20.5
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - A 65-year-old woman was diagnosed with angina after presenting to the Emergency Department...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman was diagnosed with angina after presenting to the Emergency Department with exertional chest pain. She had a positive exercise test at the Cardiology Clinic and was started on aspirin, metoprolol, rosuvastatin and a glyceryl trinitrate (GTN) spray.
      Eight months later, she presented to her General Practitioner with an increasing frequency of anginal episodes. These responded to GTN spray and did not occur at rest.
      Which of the following is the most appropriate additional medication?

      Your Answer: Verapamil

      Correct Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      The treatment of stable angina involves lifestyle changes, medication, percutaneous coronary intervention, and surgery. The first-line treatment recommended by NICE is either a beta-blocker or a calcium-channel blocker (CCB), depending on the patient’s comorbidities, contraindications, and preferences. If a beta-blocker at the maximum tolerated dose is not controlling angina, a long-acting dihydropyridine CCB, such as amlodipine, modified-release nifedipine, or modified-release felodipine, should be added. Aspirin and a statin should also be given, along with sublingual GTN to abort angina attacks.

      However, if a patient is taking a beta-blocker, a non-rate-limiting long-acting dihydropyridine CCB should be used instead of diltiazem, as the combination of diltiazem and a beta-blocker can lead to life-threatening bradycardia and heart failure. If a patient cannot tolerate a beta-blocker or CCB, ivabradine, nicorandil, or ranolazine can be considered. Ivabradine should only be used on specialist advice and cannot be initiated if the resting heart rate is less than 70 bpm. Nicorandil induces vasodilation of arterioles and large coronary arteries by activating potassium channels. Verapamil should also be avoided in combination with a beta-blocker, as it can result in life-threatening bradycardia and heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      13.3
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - A 87-year-old male presents to the emergency department after collapsing. Upon arrival, an...

    Incorrect

    • A 87-year-old male presents to the emergency department after collapsing. Upon arrival, an ECG reveals complete heart block with a heart rate of 35 bpm. The patient reports feeling dizzy. Despite receiving 500 micrograms of IV atropine, there is no improvement. This is repeated five more times, but the heart rate remains below 40 bpm even after transcutaneous pacing is attempted. What is the next recommended step according to the Resuscitation Council (UK) guidelines?

      Your Answer: Repeated trial of transcutaneous pacing

      Correct Answer: Transvenous pacing

      Explanation:

      Management of Bradycardia in Peri-Arrest Rhythms

      The 2015 Resuscitation Council (UK) guidelines highlight the importance of identifying adverse signs and potential risk of asystole in the management of bradycardia in peri-arrest rhythms. Adverse signs indicating haemodynamic compromise include shock, syncope, myocardial ischaemia, and heart failure. Atropine (500 mcg IV) is the first line treatment in this situation. If there is an unsatisfactory response, interventions such as atropine (up to a maximum of 3mg), transcutaneous pacing, and isoprenaline/adrenaline infusion titrated to response may be used. Specialist help should be sought for consideration of transvenous pacing if there is no response to the above measures.

      Furthermore, the presence of risk factors for asystole such as complete heart block with broad complex QRS, recent asystole, Mobitz type II AV block, and ventricular pause > 3 seconds should be considered. Even if there is a satisfactory response to atropine, specialist help is indicated to consider the need for transvenous pacing. Effective management of bradycardia in peri-arrest rhythms is crucial in preventing further deterioration and improving patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      45.4
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 70-year-old man presents to the GP for a blood pressure review after...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man presents to the GP for a blood pressure review after a clinic reading of 154/100 mmHg. He has a medical history of type 2 diabetes and COPD, which are managed with inhalers. His home blood pressure readings over the past week have averaged at 140/96 mmHg. What is the initial intervention that should be considered?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      Regardless of age, ACE inhibitors/A2RBs are the first-line treatment for hypertension in diabetics.

      Blood Pressure Management in Diabetes Mellitus

      Patients with diabetes mellitus have traditionally been managed with lower blood pressure targets to reduce their overall cardiovascular risk. However, a 2013 Cochrane review found that there was little difference in outcomes between patients who had tight blood pressure control (targets < 130/85 mmHg) and those with more relaxed control (< 140-160/90-100 mmHg), except for a slightly reduced rate of stroke in the former group. As a result, NICE recommends a blood pressure target of < 140/90 mmHg for type 2 diabetics, the same as for patients without diabetes. For patients with type 1 diabetes, NICE recommends a blood pressure target of 135/85 mmHg unless they have albuminuria or two or more features of metabolic syndrome, in which case the target should be 130/80 mmHg. ACE inhibitors or angiotensin-II receptor antagonists (A2RBs) are the first-line antihypertensive regardless of age, as they have a renoprotective effect in diabetes. A2RBs are preferred for black African or African-Caribbean diabetic patients. Further management then follows that of non-diabetic patients. It is important to note that autonomic neuropathy may result in more postural symptoms in patients taking antihypertensive therapy. Therefore, the routine use of beta-blockers in uncomplicated hypertension should be avoided, particularly when given in combination with thiazides, as they may cause insulin resistance, impair insulin secretion, and alter the autonomic response to hypoglycemia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      12.7
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A 63-year-old male with a recent myocardial infarction experiences ventricular fibrillation while in...

    Incorrect

    • A 63-year-old male with a recent myocardial infarction experiences ventricular fibrillation while in the coronary care unit. The heart monitor records this event. An emergency call is made and a defibrillator is quickly brought to the scene. What is the best course of action to take?

      Your Answer: Administer three successive shocks, then adrenaline

      Correct Answer: Administer three successive shocks, then commence CPR

      Explanation:

      In a witnessed cardiac arrest with VF/VT rhythm, up to three quick successive shocks should be given before starting chest compressions. This is regarded as the first shock in the ALS algorithm. Adrenaline should be given every 3-5 minutes and a praecordial thump should only be used if a defibrillator is not available. Commencing CPR after just one shock would miss the opportunity to deliver three rapid shocks.

      The 2015 Resus Council guidelines for adult advanced life support outline the steps to be taken when dealing with patients with shockable and non-shockable rhythms. For both types of patients, chest compressions are a crucial part of the process, with a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 ventilations. Defibrillation is recommended for shockable rhythms, with a single shock for VF/pulseless VT followed by 2 minutes of CPR. Adrenaline and amiodarone are the drugs of choice for non-shockable rhythms, with adrenaline given as soon as possible and amiodarone administered after 3 shocks for VF/pulseless VT. Thrombolytic drugs should be considered if a pulmonary embolus is suspected. Atropine is no longer recommended for routine use in asystole or PEA. Oxygen should be titrated to achieve saturations of 94-98% following successful resuscitation. The Hs and Ts should be considered as potential reversible causes of cardiac arrest.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      18.5
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - An 80-year-old man visits his GP for a medication review. His blood pressure...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man visits his GP for a medication review. His blood pressure is measured at 184/72 and this is verified twice. What would be the most suitable initial treatment?

      Your Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      According to the 2011 NICE guidelines, the treatment for isolated systolic hypertension should be the same as that for standard hypertension, with calcium channel blockers being the preferred first-line medication for this age group.

      Understanding Isolated Systolic Hypertension

      Isolated systolic hypertension (ISH) is a common condition among the elderly, affecting approximately 50% of individuals over the age of 70. The Systolic Hypertension in the Elderly Program (SHEP) conducted in 1991 found that treating ISH can reduce the risk of strokes and ischaemic heart disease. The first line of treatment for ISH was thiazides. However, the 2011 NICE guidelines recommend treating ISH in the same stepwise manner as standard hypertension, which contradicts the previous approach.

      It is important to understand ISH as it is a prevalent condition among the elderly population. The SHEP study showed that treating ISH can significantly reduce the risk of serious health complications. However, the recommended approach to treating ISH has changed over time, with the 2011 NICE guidelines suggesting a different method than the previous recommendation of using thiazides as the first line of treatment. It is crucial for healthcare professionals to stay up-to-date with the latest guidelines to provide the best possible care for patients with ISH.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      17.9
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - An 80-year-old man presents with leg swelling and nocturnal dyspnea. His BNP levels...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man presents with leg swelling and nocturnal dyspnea. His BNP levels are elevated and an echocardiogram confirms heart failure with reduced ejection fraction. He has a history of diabetes and is currently on metformin. Besides furosemide, what other medication should be initiated for his heart failure management?

      Your Answer: Propranolol

      Correct Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      When treating heart failure patients, it is recommended to initiate therapy with either an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor or a beta-blocker licensed for heart failure treatment, but not both simultaneously. If the patient exhibits signs of fluid overload or has diabetes mellitus, an ACE inhibitor like ramipril is preferred. On the other hand, if the patient has angina, a beta-blocker such as bisoprolol, carvedilol, or nebivolol is preferred.

      Drug Management for Chronic Heart Failure: NICE Guidelines

      Chronic heart failure is a serious condition that requires proper management to improve patient outcomes. In 2018, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) updated their guidelines on drug management for chronic heart failure. The guidelines recommend first-line therapy with both an ACE-inhibitor and a beta-blocker, with clinical judgement used to determine which one to start first. Second-line therapy involves the use of aldosterone antagonists, which should be monitored for hyperkalaemia. SGLT-2 inhibitors are also increasingly being used to manage heart failure with a reduced ejection fraction. Third-line therapy should be initiated by a specialist and may include ivabradine, sacubitril-valsartan, hydralazine in combination with nitrate, digoxin, or cardiac resynchronisation therapy. Other treatments such as annual influenza and one-off pneumococcal vaccines are also recommended.

      Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to drug management for chronic heart failure. It is important to note that loop diuretics have not been shown to reduce mortality in the long-term, and that ACE-inhibitors and beta-blockers have no effect on mortality in heart failure with preserved ejection fraction. Healthcare professionals should carefully consider the patient’s individual needs and circumstances when determining the appropriate drug therapy for chronic heart failure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - A 42 year old athlete visits his team physician for a yearly check-up....

    Correct

    • A 42 year old athlete visits his team physician for a yearly check-up. What ECG findings should be considered worrisome?

      Your Answer: Left bundle branch block

      Explanation:

      Left bundle branch block is typically indicative of underlying ischaemic or structural heart disease and is never considered normal. However, there are several normal variants that can appear on an ECG, such as sinus arrhythmia, right axis deviation (common in tall and thin individuals), left axis deviation (common in short, obese individuals), and partial right bundle branch block. Additionally, athletes may exhibit certain normal variants due to their high vagal tone, such as sinus bradycardia and 1st degree atrioventricular block.

      Normal Variants in Athlete ECGs

      Athletes may exhibit certain ECG changes that are considered normal variants. These include sinus bradycardia, junctional rhythm, first degree heart block, and Mobitz type 1 (Wenckebach phenomenon). Sinus bradycardia refers to a slower than normal heart rate originating from the sinus node, which is the natural pacemaker of the heart. Junctional rhythm occurs when the heart’s electrical impulses originate from the junction between the atria and ventricles, rather than the sinus node. First degree heart block is a delay in the electrical conduction between the atria and ventricles, resulting in a prolonged PR interval on the ECG. Mobitz type 1, also known as Wenckebach phenomenon, is a type of heart block where there is a progressive lengthening of the PR interval until a beat is dropped. These ECG changes are considered normal in athletes and do not necessarily indicate any underlying cardiac pathology.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      5.8
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - A 48-year-old man is attending the hypertension clinic. He was diagnosed approximately three...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old man is attending the hypertension clinic. He was diagnosed approximately three months ago and commenced on ramipril. Despite titrating up to 10mg od, his blood pressure remains at 156/92 mmHg. What is the next best course of action in managing his hypertension?

      Your Answer: Add amlodipine OR bisoprolol

      Correct Answer: Add amlodipine OR indapamide

      Explanation:

      To improve control of hypertension in patients who are already taking an ACE inhibitor or an angiotensin receptor blocker, the 2019 NICE guidelines recommend adding either a calcium channel blocker (such as amlodipine) or a thiazide-like diuretic (such as indapamide). This is a change from previous guidelines, which only recommended adding a calcium channel blocker in this situation.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      23.2
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - Sarah is a 60-year-old Caucasian woman who has had hypertension for 3 years....

    Correct

    • Sarah is a 60-year-old Caucasian woman who has had hypertension for 3 years. She is not diabetic and there is no other significant medical history. She is currently taking amlodipine at the maximum recommended dose of 10mg.
      During her medication review at her GP surgery, her blood pressure remains elevated - it is averaging at 160/98 mmHg over several readings.
      What would be the most suitable medication to consider next?

      Your Answer: Losartan

      Explanation:

      To improve poorly controlled hypertension in a patient already taking a calcium channel blocker, the recommended next step according to NICE guidelines is to add either an ACE inhibitor or an angiotensin receptor blocker or a thiazide-like diuretic. In this scenario, as the options do not include an ACE inhibitor, losartan, an angiotensin receptor blocker, is the correct choice. Beta-blockers like bisoprolol are included in step 4 of NICE guidelines only if diuretic therapy is contraindicated or ineffective, and alpha-blockers like doxazosin are also part of step 4, so they are not the appropriate options for this patient.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      23.1
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - A 26-year-old male with no significant medical history is brought to the operating...

    Correct

    • A 26-year-old male with no significant medical history is brought to the operating room for an emergency appendectomy. He is induced with sevoflurane and maintained on sevoflurane and propofol. Suddenly, an alert on the anesthesia machine pops up, indicating elevated end-tidal CO2. The patient's condition appears to have worsened, with skin mottling and excessive sweating.

      What could be the probable cause of this sudden change in the patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Malignant hyperthermia

      Explanation:

      Volatile liquid anaesthetics (isoflurane, desflurane, sevoflurane) can cause malignant hyperthermia, a rare genetic disorder that causes skeletal muscle to contract rapidly and can lead to acidosis, increased CO2, and elevated body temperature. This is the likely cause of the patient’s acute deterioration after receiving sevoflurane. Other potential causes, such as cardiac arrest, endobronchial intubation, normal anion gap metabolic acidosis, and spontaneous appendix perforation, do not explain the specific symptoms observed.

      Overview of General Anaesthetics

      General anaesthetics are drugs used to induce a state of unconsciousness in patients undergoing surgical procedures. There are two main types of general anaesthetics: inhaled and intravenous. Inhaled anaesthetics, such as isoflurane, desflurane, sevoflurane, and nitrous oxide, are administered through inhalation. These drugs work by acting on various receptors in the brain, including GABAA, glycine, NDMA, nACh, and 5-HT3 receptors. Inhaled anaesthetics can cause adverse effects such as myocardial depression, malignant hyperthermia, and hepatotoxicity.

      Intravenous anaesthetics, such as propofol, thiopental, etomidate, and ketamine, are administered through injection. These drugs work by potentiating GABAA receptors or blocking NDMA receptors. Intravenous anaesthetics can cause adverse effects such as pain on injection, hypotension, laryngospasm, myoclonus, and disorientation. However, they are often preferred over inhaled anaesthetics in cases of haemodynamic instability.

      It is important to note that the exact mechanism of action of general anaesthetics is not fully understood. Additionally, the choice of anaesthetic depends on various factors such as the patient’s medical history, the type of surgery, and the anaesthetist’s preference. Overall, general anaesthetics play a crucial role in modern medicine by allowing for safe and painless surgical procedures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 48 - A 45-year-old woman had an anterior myocardial infarction. She has a body mass...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman had an anterior myocardial infarction. She has a body mass index (BMI) of 30 kg/m2, smokes 10 cigarettes per day and admits to a high-sugar diet and minimal exercise.
      Which of the following non-pharmacological interventions will be most helpful in reducing her risk for a future ischaemic event?

      Your Answer: Stopping smoking

      Explanation:

      Reducing the Risk of Vascular Events: Lifestyle Interventions

      Smoking, high salt intake, poor diet, lack of exercise, and obesity are all risk factors for vascular events such as heart attacks and strokes. However, making lifestyle changes can significantly reduce the risk of these events.

      Stopping smoking is the most effective non-pharmacological intervention, as it reduces the risk of heart disease by 2-3 times compared to those who continue to smoke.

      Reducing salt intake to 3-6 g/day can also help, as both high and low salt intake can increase the risk of vascular events.

      Improving diet by controlling calorie intake can lead to weight loss, improved blood sugar control, and better lipid profiles.

      Regular exercise, such as 30 minutes of activity five times a week, can lower the risk of vascular events by 30%.

      Finally, weight reduction is important, as obesity increases the risk of heart attacks and strokes at a younger age and can lead to higher mortality rates.

      Overall, making these lifestyle changes can significantly reduce the risk of vascular events and improve overall health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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  • Question 49 - A 70-year-old man is rushed to the hospital due to severe chest pain...

    Incorrect

    • A 70-year-old man is rushed to the hospital due to severe chest pain and nausea. His ECG reveals ST elevation in leads V1, V2, V3, and V4. Following angiography and percutaneous coronary intervention, his left anterior descending coronary artery is stented. The patient admits to avoiding doctors and not seeing his GP for more than two decades. He has been smoking 15 cigarettes daily since he was 18. What are the recommended medications for secondary prevention?

      Your Answer: Clopidogrel + ticagrelor + lisinopril + propranolol + simvastatin

      Correct Answer: Aspirin + prasugrel + lisinopril + bisoprolol + atorvastatin

      Explanation:

      Myocardial infarction (MI) is a serious condition that requires proper management to prevent further complications. In 2013, NICE released guidelines on the secondary prevention of MI. One of the key recommendations is the use of four drugs: dual antiplatelet therapy (aspirin plus a second antiplatelet agent), ACE inhibitor, beta-blocker, and statin. Patients are also advised to adopt a Mediterranean-style diet and engage in regular exercise. Sexual activity may resume four weeks after an uncomplicated MI, and PDE5 inhibitors may be used six months after the event.

      Most patients with acute coronary syndrome are now given dual antiplatelet therapy, with ticagrelor and prasugrel being the preferred options. The treatment period for these drugs is 12 months, after which they should be stopped. However, this period may be adjusted for patients at high risk of bleeding or further ischaemic events. Additionally, patients with heart failure and left ventricular systolic dysfunction should be treated with an aldosterone antagonist within 3-14 days of the MI, preferably after ACE inhibitor therapy.

      Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to the secondary prevention of MI. By following these recommendations, patients can reduce their risk of further complications and improve their overall health outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      24.9
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  • Question 50 - A 65-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and heart failure presents with...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman with a history of hypertension and heart failure presents with atrial fibrillation. She is stable with a ventricular rate of 70. Which of the following drug options would be the most suitable for her?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Warfarin or direct oral anticoagulant (DOAC)

      Explanation:

      Treatment Options for Atrial Fibrillation: Warfarin, DOACs, Aspirin, Digoxin, Furosemide, and Lidocaine

      Patients with atrial fibrillation and a CHA2DS2-VASC score of 4 require anticoagulation to reduce the risk of a CVA. The two main options are warfarin and DOACs, but the choice depends on other co-morbidities and patient preference. Before starting warfarin, patients should be referred to the Anticoagulation Clinic and screened for contraindications.

      Aspirin has no benefit in atrial fibrillation, and digoxin should only be used for short-term rate control due to evidence of increased mortality with long-term use. Furosemide can help with symptoms and edema in heart failure but does not improve mortality. Lidocaine is only appropriate for ventricular arrhythmias in unstable patients and requires specialist support.

      In summary, the treatment options for atrial fibrillation vary depending on the patient’s individual circumstances and should be carefully considered by healthcare professionals.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Cardiovascular (29/49) 59%
Passmed