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  • Question 1 - A 47-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue. Upon examination, his...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of fatigue. Upon examination, his blood pressure is found to be 190/110 mmHg. Routine blood tests show the following results:
      - Sodium: 145 mmol/L
      - Potassium: 2.5 mmol/L
      - Bicarbonate: 33 mmol/L
      - Urea: 5.6 mmol/L
      - Creatinine: 80 µmol/L

      What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Primary hyperaldosteronism

      Explanation:

      Understanding Primary Hyperaldosteronism

      Primary hyperaldosteronism is a medical condition that was previously believed to be caused by an adrenal adenoma, also known as Conn’s syndrome. However, recent studies have shown that bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia is the cause in up to 70% of cases. It is important to differentiate between the two as this determines the appropriate treatment. Adrenal carcinoma is an extremely rare cause of primary hyperaldosteronism.

      The common features of primary hyperaldosteronism include hypertension, hypokalaemia, and alkalosis. Hypokalaemia can cause muscle weakness, but this is seen in only 10-40% of patients. To diagnose primary hyperaldosteronism, the 2016 Endocrine Society recommends a plasma aldosterone/renin ratio as the first-line investigation. This should show high aldosterone levels alongside low renin levels due to negative feedback from sodium retention caused by aldosterone.

      If the plasma aldosterone/renin ratio is high, a high-resolution CT abdomen and adrenal vein sampling are used to differentiate between unilateral and bilateral sources of aldosterone excess. If the CT is normal, adrenal venous sampling (AVS) can be used to distinguish between unilateral adenoma and bilateral hyperplasia. The management of primary hyperaldosteronism depends on the underlying cause. Adrenal adenoma is treated with surgery, while bilateral adrenocortical hyperplasia is treated with an aldosterone antagonist such as spironolactone.

      In summary, primary hyperaldosteronism is a medical condition that can be caused by adrenal adenoma, bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia, or adrenal carcinoma. It is characterized by hypertension, hypokalaemia, and alkalosis. Diagnosis involves a plasma aldosterone/renin ratio, high-resolution CT abdomen, and adrenal vein sampling. Treatment depends on the underlying cause and may involve surgery or medication.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      35.6
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Which of the following characteristics is least commonly associated with rosacea? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following characteristics is least commonly associated with rosacea?

      Your Answer: Blepharitis

      Correct Answer: Pruritus

      Explanation:

      It is uncommon for pruritus to be present in cases of acne rosacea.

      Understanding Rosacea: Symptoms and Management

      Rosacea, also known as acne rosacea, is a chronic skin condition that has no known cause. It typically affects the nose, cheeks, and forehead, and the first symptom is often flushing. Over time, telangiectasia (visible blood vessels) may appear, followed by persistent redness with papules and pustules. In some cases, rhinophyma (enlarged nose) may develop, and there may be ocular involvement, such as blepharitis. Sunlight can exacerbate symptoms.

      Mild cases of rosacea may be treated with topical metronidazole, while topical brimonidine gel may be used for patients with predominant flushing but limited telangiectasia. More severe cases may require systemic antibiotics like oxytetracycline. Patients are advised to apply high-factor sunscreen daily and use camouflage creams to conceal redness. Laser therapy may be appropriate for those with prominent telangiectasia, and patients with rhinophyma should be referred to a dermatologist.

      Overall, understanding the symptoms and management of rosacea can help individuals manage their condition and improve their quality of life.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      7.4
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 49-year-old male comes to the emergency department complaining of progressive weakness in...

    Correct

    • A 49-year-old male comes to the emergency department complaining of progressive weakness in both legs that started with leg pain a week ago. Upon examination, there is a decrease in patellar reflex bilaterally, and the patient has 3/5 strength throughout the neurological examination in the lower limbs bilaterally, but normal sensation. The patient has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medications. What is the most probable organism responsible for his symptoms?

      Your Answer: Campylobacter jejuni

      Explanation:

      The patient in this scenario is experiencing leg or back pain before the onset of weakness, which is a common symptom of Guillain-Barre syndrome. The ascending weakness of the legs, along with reduced reflexes and normal sensation, is a typical presentation of this disease.

      Escherichia coli is a frequent cause of traveller’s diarrhoea and gastroenteritis, but it is not associated with Guillain-Barre syndrome.

      Coxsackievirus is the most common cause of viral meningitis in adults, but it is not linked to Guillain-Barre syndrome.

      Herpes simplex virus causes genital and labial sores, but it does not play a role in the development of this disease.

      Understanding Guillain-Barre Syndrome and Miller Fisher Syndrome

      Guillain-Barre syndrome is a condition that affects the peripheral nervous system and is often triggered by an infection, particularly Campylobacter jejuni. The immune-mediated demyelination of the peripheral nervous system occurs due to the cross-reaction of antibodies with gangliosides. Studies have shown a correlation between the clinical features of the syndrome and the presence of anti-ganglioside antibodies, particularly anti-GM1 antibodies, which are present in 25% of patients.

      Miller Fisher syndrome is a variant of Guillain-Barre syndrome that is characterized by ophthalmoplegia, areflexia, and ataxia. Unlike other forms of Guillain-Barre syndrome, Miller Fisher syndrome usually presents as a descending paralysis, with the eye muscles typically affected first. In 90% of cases, anti-GQ1b antibodies are present.

      Understanding the pathogenesis and clinical features of Guillain-Barre syndrome and Miller Fisher syndrome is crucial for accurate diagnosis and effective treatment. Further research is needed to fully understand the mechanisms behind these conditions and to develop more targeted therapies.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurology
      49.1
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 25-year-old female presents with a history of weight loss and diarrhoea. To...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old female presents with a history of weight loss and diarrhoea. To investigate her symptoms, she undergoes a colonoscopy and a biopsy is taken. The biopsy report indicates the presence of pigment-laden macrophages suggestive of melanosis coli. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Laxative abuse

      Explanation:

      Understanding Melanosis Coli

      Melanosis coli is a condition that affects the pigmentation of the bowel wall. This disorder is characterized by the presence of pigment-laden macrophages, which can be observed through histology. The primary cause of melanosis coli is laxative abuse, particularly the use of anthraquinone compounds like senna.

      In simpler terms, melanosis coli is a condition that causes changes in the color of the bowel wall due to the accumulation of pigments. This condition is often associated with the excessive use of laxatives, which can lead to the accumulation of pigment-laden macrophages in the bowel wall. These macrophages are responsible for the discoloration of the bowel wall, which can be observed through histology. It is important to note that melanosis coli is not a life-threatening condition, but it can be a sign of underlying health issues that need to be addressed.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastroenterology/Nutrition
      11.7
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - You are scheduled to evaluate a 56-year-old patient in clinic who was initiated...

    Incorrect

    • You are scheduled to evaluate a 56-year-old patient in clinic who was initiated on cholesterol treatment with ezetimibe during his last clinic visit.
      Which of the following statements is accurate regarding ezetimibe?

      Your Answer: Its mechanism of action is to reduce cholesterol synthesis

      Correct Answer: Its principal action is to reduce intestinal cholesterol absorption

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Mechanism of Action of Ezetimibe: Effects on Cholesterol Absorption, Cytochrome P450 Enzyme System, and Drug Interactions

      Ezetimibe is a medication commonly used to lower cholesterol levels in patients with primary cholesterolaemia. Its principal action is to reduce intestinal cholesterol absorption by selectively inhibiting the uptake of cholesterol through the Niemann-Pick C1-like 1 (NPC1L1) protein mediator on small intestine epithelial cells. This mechanism of action also reduces intracellular hepatic cholesterol levels, leading to an upregulation of hepatic low-density lipoprotein receptors (LDLRs) and ultimately lowering plasma cholesterol levels.

      Unlike ion-exchange resins, ezetimibe does not decrease the absorption of anionic drugs or fat-soluble vitamins. Additionally, ezetimibe lacks inhibitor or inducer effects on cytochrome P450 isoenzymes, which explains its limited number of drug interactions. However, it is important to note that if used in combination with a statin, there is an increased risk of rhabdomyolysis, which is not seen in ezetimibe monotherapy.

      Overall, while ezetimibe has a modest effect on lowering low-density lipoprotein (LDL)-cholesterol, it is most commonly used as an adjunct to dietary measures and statin treatment in primary cholesterolaemia. Understanding its mechanism of action and potential effects on drug interactions and vitamin absorption is crucial for safe and effective use in clinical practice.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      59.8
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 70-year-old man with metastatic prostate cancer is experiencing increased pain and vomiting...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old man with metastatic prostate cancer is experiencing increased pain and vomiting while taking morphine sulphate 60mg bd. It has been decided to switch to subcutaneous administration. What is the recommended 24-hour dose of morphine for continuous subcutaneous infusion?

      Your Answer: 60mg

      Explanation:

      In this scenario, the BNF suggests administering half of the oral dose of morphine when using the parenteral route (subcutaneous, intramuscular, or intravenous). If the patient is no longer able to swallow, a continuous subcutaneous infusion of morphine is typically given.

      Palliative care prescribing for pain is guided by NICE and SIGN guidelines. NICE recommends starting treatment with regular oral modified-release or immediate-release morphine, with immediate-release morphine for breakthrough pain. Laxatives should be prescribed for all patients initiating strong opioids, and antiemetics should be offered if nausea persists. Drowsiness is usually transient, but if it persists, the dose should be adjusted. SIGN advises that the breakthrough dose of morphine is one-sixth the daily dose, and all patients receiving opioids should be prescribed a laxative. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred to morphine in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and all patients should be considered for referral to a clinical oncologist for further treatment. When increasing the dose of opioids, the next dose should be increased by 30-50%. Conversion factors between opioids are also provided. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, such as nausea and drowsiness, but constipation can persist. In addition to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, and radiotherapy, denosumab may be used to treat metastatic bone pain.

      Overall, the guidelines recommend starting with regular oral morphine and adjusting the dose as needed. Laxatives should be prescribed to prevent constipation, and antiemetics may be needed for nausea. Opioids should be used with caution in patients with chronic kidney disease, and oxycodone is preferred in patients with mild-moderate renal impairment. Metastatic bone pain may respond to strong opioids, bisphosphonates, or radiotherapy, and referral to a clinical oncologist should be considered. Conversion factors between opioids are provided, and the next dose should be increased by 30-50% when adjusting the dose. Opioid side-effects are usually transient, but constipation can persist. Denosumab may also be used to treat metastatic bone pain.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      24.3
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a severe throbbing headache...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of a severe throbbing headache on the left side of his head. He has been experiencing this pain for approximately 5-6 days without any apparent cause. He denies any visual disturbances or weakness in his limbs. Upon examination, there are no notable neurological findings. The left side of his head is sensitive to touch, but he cannot recall any falls. What is the crucial first step in managing this probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Arrange an urgent temporal artery biopsy

      Correct Answer: Give high-dose oral prednisolone

      Explanation:

      Understanding Temporal Arteritis

      Temporal arteritis is a type of large vessel vasculitis that often overlaps with polymyalgia rheumatica (PMR). It is characterized by changes in the affected artery that skip certain sections while damaging others. This condition typically affects individuals who are over 60 years old and has a rapid onset, usually occurring in less than a month. The most common symptoms include headache and jaw claudication, while vision testing is a crucial investigation for all patients.

      Temporal arteritis can lead to various ocular complications, with anterior ischemic optic neuropathy being the most common. This results from the occlusion of the posterior ciliary artery, leading to ischemia of the optic nerve head. Patients may experience temporary visual loss or even permanent visual loss, which is the most feared complication of this condition. Other symptoms may include diplopia, tender and palpable temporal artery, and features of PMR such as aching, morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles, lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, and night sweats.

      To diagnose temporal arteritis, doctors may look for raised inflammatory markers such as an ESR of over 50 mm/hr or elevated CRP levels. A temporal artery biopsy may also be performed to check for skip lesions. Urgent high-dose glucocorticoids should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected, and an ophthalmologist should review patients with visual symptoms on the same day. Treatment may also involve bone protection with bisphosphonates and low-dose aspirin, although the evidence supporting the latter is weak.

      In summary, temporal arteritis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment to prevent irreversible visual damage. Patients who experience symptoms such as headache, jaw claudication, and visual disturbances should seek medical attention immediately.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      79.4
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 27-year-old female patient who is 10-weeks pregnant visits the GP clinic with...

    Correct

    • A 27-year-old female patient who is 10-weeks pregnant visits the GP clinic with a painless rash on her left leg that has been expanding outwardly in a circular pattern. She mentions that the rash appeared 3 weeks after returning from a hiking trip in the western part of the United States. Lyme disease is confirmed through serological testing, but doxycycline cannot be prescribed due to her pregnancy. What is the best alternative treatment option for this patient?

      Your Answer: Amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      Understanding Lyme Disease

      Lyme disease is a bacterial infection caused by Borrelia burgdorferi and is transmitted through tick bites. The early symptoms of Lyme disease include erythema migrans, a characteristic bulls-eye rash that appears at the site of the tick bite. This rash is painless, slowly increases in size, and can be more than 5 cm in diameter. Other early symptoms include headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain.

      If erythema migrans is present, Lyme disease can be diagnosed clinically, and antibiotics should be started immediately. The first-line test for Lyme disease is an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) to detect antibodies to Borrelia burgdorferi. If the ELISA is negative but Lyme disease is still suspected, it should be repeated 4-6 weeks later. If Lyme disease is suspected in patients who have had symptoms for 12 weeks or more, an immunoblot test should be done.

      Tick bites can cause significant anxiety, but routine antibiotic treatment is not recommended by NICE. If the tick is still present, it should be removed using fine-tipped tweezers, and the area should be washed. In cases of suspected or confirmed Lyme disease, doxycycline is the preferred treatment for early disease, while ceftriaxone is used for disseminated disease. A Jarisch-Herxheimer reaction may occur after initiating therapy, which can cause fever, rash, and tachycardia.

      In summary, Lyme disease is a bacterial infection transmitted through tick bites. Early symptoms include erythema migrans, headache, lethargy, fever, and joint pain. Diagnosis is made through clinical presentation and ELISA testing, and treatment involves antibiotics. Tick bites do not require routine antibiotic treatment, and ticks should be removed using fine-tipped tweezers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive Medicine
      31.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 25-year-old woman who is 14 weeks pregnant complains of worsening acne that...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman who is 14 weeks pregnant complains of worsening acne that is causing her distress. Despite using topical benzyl peroxide, she has noticed limited improvement. During examination, non-inflammatory lesions and pustules are observed on her face. What would be the most suitable next course of action?

      Your Answer: Oral doxycycline

      Correct Answer: Oral erythromycin

      Explanation:

      If treatment for acne is required during pregnancy, oral erythromycin is a suitable option, as the other medications are not recommended.

      Acne vulgaris is a common skin condition that typically affects adolescents, with the face, neck, and upper trunk being the most commonly affected areas. It is characterized by the obstruction of hair follicles with keratin plugs, leading to the formation of comedones, inflammation, and pustules. The severity of acne can be classified as mild, moderate, or severe, depending on the presence and extent of inflammatory lesions, papules, and pustules.

      The management of acne vulgaris typically involves a step-up approach, starting with single topical therapy such as topical retinoids or benzoyl peroxide. If this is not effective, topical combination therapy may be used, which includes a topical antibiotic, benzoyl peroxide, and topical retinoid. Oral antibiotics such as tetracyclines may also be prescribed, but they should be avoided in pregnant or breastfeeding women and children under 12 years of age. Erythromycin may be used in pregnancy, while minocycline is now considered less appropriate due to the possibility of irreversible pigmentation. Oral antibiotics should be used for a maximum of three months and always co-prescribed with a topical retinoid or benzoyl peroxide to reduce the risk of antibiotic resistance.

      Combined oral contraceptives (COCP) are an alternative to oral antibiotics in women, and Dianette (co-cyrindiol) may be used as it has anti-androgen properties. However, it has an increased risk of venous thromboembolism compared to other COCPs, so it should generally be used second-line and for only three months. Oral isotretinoin is a potent medication that should only be used under specialist supervision, and it is contraindicated in pregnancy. Finally, there is no evidence to support dietary modification in the management of acne vulgaris.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      20.8
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A 72-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner who has been on peritoneal...

    Incorrect

    • A 72-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner who has been on peritoneal dialysis for ten years due to end-stage renal failure. He complains of chronic back and shoulder pain and is subsequently diagnosed with renal amyloidosis secondary to long-term dialysis. This is thought to be the explanation for the pain in his shoulder.
      What would be the next most appropriate step in this patient’s management?

      Your Answer: Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

      Correct Answer: Steroid injection to shoulder joint

      Explanation:

      Managing Shoulder Pain in Renal Amyloidosis Patients

      Renal amyloidosis can cause acute pain in the shoulder joint due to scapulohumeral arthritis and infiltration of the rotator cuff by amyloid proteins. While a steroid injection can provide temporary relief, it is not a definitive management option. Switching dialysis types will not improve the condition, and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs are not recommended for patients with compromised renal function. Surgical fixation of the affected joint may provide temporary relief, but it will not halt the progression of the disease. The most effective long-term solution is kidney transplantation, which lowers the blood concentration of the protein and eliminates symptoms of arthritis. However, in cases of acute pain, the priority is to manage the pain while working towards transplantation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      16.5
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 54-year-old Caucasian man with a history of hypertension visits his GP clinic...

    Correct

    • A 54-year-old Caucasian man with a history of hypertension visits his GP clinic seeking advice on controlling his blood pressure. He has been monitoring his blood pressure at home for the past week and has consistently recorded high readings, with an average of 147/85 mmHg. He is asymptomatic and denies any chest discomfort. He is a non-smoker and non-alcoholic. His current medications include perindopril 10 mg once daily and indapamide 2.5mg once daily. What is the most appropriate course of action for managing his hypertension?

      Your Answer: Amlodipine

      Explanation:

      To improve poorly controlled hypertension despite taking an ACE inhibitor and a thiazide diuretic, a calcium channel blocker such as amlodipine should be added according to NICE guidelines. Loop diuretics may be considered in cases of resistant hypertension. Aldosterone antagonists and alpha-blockers are only recommended if blood pressure remains uncontrolled despite taking a combination of an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin II receptor blocker, a calcium-channel blocker, and a thiazide-like diuretic. It is important to note that ACE inhibitors should not be used in combination with angiotensin receptor blockers for hypertension management.

      NICE Guidelines for Managing Hypertension

      Hypertension, or high blood pressure, is a common condition that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. The National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) has published updated guidelines for the management of hypertension in 2019. Some of the key changes include lowering the threshold for treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old, allowing the use of angiotensin receptor blockers instead of ACE inhibitors, and recommending the use of a calcium channel blocker or thiazide-like diuretic in addition to an ACE inhibitor or angiotensin receptor blocker.

      The guidelines also provide a flow chart for the diagnosis and management of hypertension. Lifestyle advice, such as reducing salt intake, caffeine intake, and alcohol consumption, as well as exercising more and losing weight, should not be forgotten and is frequently tested in exams. Treatment options depend on the patient’s age, ethnicity, and other factors, and may involve a combination of drugs.

      NICE recommends treating stage 1 hypertension in patients under 80 years old if they have target organ damage, established cardiovascular disease, renal disease, diabetes, or a 10-year cardiovascular risk equivalent to 10% or greater. For patients with stage 2 hypertension, drug treatment should be offered regardless of age. The guidelines also provide step-by-step treatment options, including adding a third or fourth drug if necessary.

      New drugs, such as direct renin inhibitors like Aliskiren, may have a role in patients who are intolerant of more established antihypertensive drugs. However, trials have only investigated the fall in blood pressure and no mortality data is available yet. Patients who fail to respond to step 4 measures should be referred to a specialist. The guidelines also provide blood pressure targets for different age groups.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      18.3
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 52-year-old man has been diagnosed with type two diabetes and prescribed medication...

    Incorrect

    • A 52-year-old man has been diagnosed with type two diabetes and prescribed medication by his GP. The medication functions by binding to its receptor and closing the potassium ion channels, which reduces potassium efflux from the cell and causes depolarization. This, in turn, leads to calcium ion influx and insulin release. What medication has the patient been prescribed?

      Your Answer: Exenatide

      Correct Answer: Gliclazide

      Explanation:

      Sulfonylureas attach to a KATP channel on the cell membrane of pancreatic beta cells that is dependent on ATP.

      Sulfonylureas are a type of medication used to treat type 2 diabetes mellitus. They work by increasing the amount of insulin produced by the pancreas, but they are only effective if the pancreas is functioning properly. Sulfonylureas bind to a specific channel on the cell membrane of pancreatic beta cells, which helps to increase insulin secretion. However, there are some potential side effects associated with these drugs.

      One of the most common side effects of sulfonylureas is hypoglycaemia, which can be more likely to occur with long-acting preparations like chlorpropamide. Weight gain is another possible side effect. In rare cases, sulfonylureas can cause hyponatraemia, which is a condition where the body retains too much water and sodium levels become too low. Other rare side effects include bone marrow suppression, hepatotoxicity (liver damage), and peripheral neuropathy. It is important to note that sulfonylureas should not be used during pregnancy or while breastfeeding.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
      40.4
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 55-year-old man, who lives alone, complains of pain in his right knee....

    Correct

    • A 55-year-old man, who lives alone, complains of pain in his right knee. He finds it difficult to walk long distances. A recent knee radiograph showed signs of osteoarthritis (OA). Examination revealed mild medial joint line tenderness and stable ligaments. His body mass index (BMI) is 25.
      What would be the treatment of choice for this patient?

      Your Answer: Paracetamol with topical NSAIDs

      Explanation:

      Management Strategies for Osteoarthritis

      Osteoarthritis (OA) is a common condition that affects the joints, causing pain and stiffness. There are various management strategies for OA, including pharmacological and non-pharmacological approaches.

      Paracetamol with Topical NSAIDs
      The first-line management strategy for knee and hand OA is to use paracetamol with topical NSAIDs, according to the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) guidelines.

      Oral NSAIDs
      Oral NSAIDs should be used with caution in the elderly and those with renal disease. Topical NSAIDs are preferred in the first instance. If they are ineffective, oral NSAIDs may be used at the lowest effective dose, for the shortest period of time, and with a protein pump inhibitor co-prescribed.

      Oral NSAIDs with Gastric Protection
      Oral NSAIDs can be given with gastric protection if topical NSAIDs plus paracetamol provide insufficient analgesia. However, it is not the first-line recommendation for relief of pain in osteoarthritis.

      Arthrodesis of the Knee Joint
      Surgical management of OA is typically with joint replacement. Surgery may only be considered in those patients in whom non-pharmacological and pharmacological measures have proved ineffective and there is severe pain with functional limitation.

      Weight Loss and Physiotherapy
      Weight loss and physiotherapy are part of the non-pharmacological management for OA. However, weight loss is only appropriate in those with a BMI of over 25 (overweight or obese). Physiotherapy and gentle exercise should be recommended to all patients with OA, regardless of age, pain severity, co-morbidity, or disability.

      Management Strategies for Osteoarthritis

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      16.6
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A newly born infant is diagnosed with gastroschisis and has exposed bowel. The...

    Correct

    • A newly born infant is diagnosed with gastroschisis and has exposed bowel. The mother is concerned about potential complications besides fluid loss.

      Your Answer: Heat loss

      Explanation:

      Exposed bowel in babies with gastroschisis leads to a considerable loss of fluid and heat, which can pose a serious risk to their lives. Unlike exomphalos, gastroschisis is not associated with cardiac and renal issues. Additionally, there is no correlation between gastroschisis and microcephaly or macrocephaly.

      Gastroschisis and exomphalos are both types of congenital visceral malformations. Gastroschisis refers to a defect in the anterior abdominal wall located just beside the umbilical cord. In contrast, exomphalos, also known as omphalocoele, involves the protrusion of abdominal contents through the anterior abdominal wall, which are covered by an amniotic sac formed by amniotic membrane and peritoneum.

      When it comes to managing gastroschisis, vaginal delivery may be attempted, but newborns should be taken to the operating theatre as soon as possible after delivery, ideally within four hours. As for exomphalos, a caesarean section is recommended to reduce the risk of sac rupture. In cases where primary closure is difficult due to lack of space or high intra-abdominal pressure, a staged repair may be undertaken. This involves allowing the sac to granulate and epithelialise over several weeks or months, forming a shell. As the infant grows, the sac contents will eventually fit within the abdominal cavity, at which point the shell can be removed and the abdomen closed.

      Overall, both gastroschisis and exomphalos require careful management to ensure the best possible outcome for the newborn. By understanding the differences between these two conditions and the appropriate steps to take, healthcare professionals can provide effective care and support to both the infant and their family.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      12.3
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  • Question 15 - A 4-year-old boy is brought to the Paediatric Emergency Department with a fever...

    Correct

    • A 4-year-old boy is brought to the Paediatric Emergency Department with a fever of one week. On evaluation, the child appears unwell, erythema of the palms and soles are noted, along with bilateral conjunctivitis. Examination of the oral cavity reveals cracked lips.
      In addition to the above findings, which one of the following features would prompt an urgent referral for echocardiography?

      Your Answer: Rash on the trunk and extremities

      Explanation:

      Clinical Features and Differential Diagnoses of Kawasaki Disease

      Kawasaki disease is a rare but serious condition that primarily affects children under the age of five. To diagnose Kawasaki disease, a patient must have a fever for at least five days and four out of five classical features: bilateral, non-exudative conjunctival injection, changes in lips and oral cavity, oedema and erythema in the hands and feet, polymorphous rash, and cervical lymphadenopathy. However, tonsillar exudate, leukopenia, neck stiffness, and small submental lymph nodes are not classical features of Kawasaki disease and should prompt consideration of other differential diagnoses. Patients with confirmed Kawasaki disease should undergo echocardiographic examination to detect potential coronary artery aneurysms. Early diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      28.8
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - A 7-year-old girl visits her GP clinic with her mother who is worried...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old girl visits her GP clinic with her mother who is worried about her continued bedwetting at night. They had visited the clinic 4 weeks ago and have seen no improvement despite following general management advice and a basic reward system. The girl is healthy otherwise and has no history of constipation or daytime incontinence. She does not complain of any issues at home or school. Physical examination reveals no abnormalities.
      What additional treatment options would you suggest for her?

      Your Answer: Enuresis alarm

      Explanation:

      When general management advice has not been effective for nocturnal enuresis, an enuresis alarm is typically the first-line recommendation. This device detects urine moisture and triggers an alarm (either through sound or vibration) to wake the child and prompt them to use the toilet. Enuresis alarms have a high success rate when used consistently, and a review is typically conducted after four weeks to assess progress. Bladder training and retention control training are not recommended by NICE guidelines due to limited evidence and concerns about promoting voiding dysfunction. Desmopressin, a vasopressin analogue that reduces urine production, may be considered if the family is not receptive to or finds an enuresis alarm ineffective. However, an enuresis alarm should be offered first. Desmopressin can provide short-term control, but it can cause hyponatremia. Desmopressin plus oxybutynin may be helpful if there are daytime symptoms or if desmopressin alone does not improve the condition. As not all anticholinergic medications have UK marketing authorization for bedwetting treatment, a healthcare professional with appropriate expertise should manage this combination, often requiring a specialist referral and further investigations.

      Nocturnal enuresis, or bedwetting, is when a child involuntarily urinates during the night. Most children achieve continence by the age of 3 or 4, so enuresis is defined as the involuntary discharge of urine in a child aged 5 or older without any underlying medical conditions. Enuresis can be primary, meaning the child has never achieved continence, or secondary, meaning the child has been dry for at least 6 months before.

      When managing bedwetting, it’s important to look for any underlying causes or triggers, such as constipation, diabetes mellitus, or recent onset UTIs. General advice includes monitoring fluid intake and encouraging regular toileting patterns, such as emptying the bladder before sleep. Reward systems, like star charts, can also be helpful, but should be given for agreed behavior rather than dry nights.

      The first-line treatment for bedwetting is an enuresis alarm, which has a high success rate. These alarms have sensor pads that detect wetness and wake the child up to use the toilet. If short-term control is needed, such as for sleepovers, or if the alarm is ineffective or not acceptable to the family, desmopressin may be prescribed. Overall, managing bedwetting involves identifying any underlying causes and implementing strategies to promote continence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      86.2
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 5-year-old girl is seen in the Paediatric Admissions Unit with a fever...

    Correct

    • A 5-year-old girl is seen in the Paediatric Admissions Unit with a fever lasting for a week. During examination, she presents with red, painful lips and conjunctival injection. Additionally, her hands are swollen and red. Blood tests reveal the following results: Hb 13.1 g/dl, WBC 12.7 *109/l, Platelets 520 *109/l, and CRP 96 mg/L. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Kawasaki disease

      Explanation:

      Understanding Kawasaki Disease

      Kawasaki disease is a rare type of vasculitis that primarily affects children. It is important to identify this disease early on as it can lead to serious complications, such as coronary artery aneurysms. The disease is characterized by a high-grade fever that lasts for more than five days and is resistant to antipyretics. Other symptoms include conjunctival injection, bright red, cracked lips, strawberry tongue, cervical lymphadenopathy, and red palms and soles that later peel.

      Diagnosis of Kawasaki disease is based on clinical presentation as there is no specific diagnostic test available. Management of the disease involves high-dose aspirin, which is one of the few indications for aspirin use in children. Intravenous immunoglobulin is also used as a treatment option. Echocardiogram is the initial screening test for coronary artery aneurysms, rather than angiography.

      Complications of Kawasaki disease can be serious, with coronary artery aneurysm being the most common. It is important to recognize the symptoms of Kawasaki disease early on and seek medical attention promptly to prevent potential complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      65.3
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - You have diagnosed a 68-year-old woman with chronic kidney disease stage G3b (estimated...

    Correct

    • You have diagnosed a 68-year-old woman with chronic kidney disease stage G3b (estimated glomerular filtration rate or eGFR = 32 ml/min per 1.73m2) with a lower urinary tract infection (UTI) confirmed on mid-stream urine culture and sensitivity:
      Escherichia coli: heavy growth
      resistant to trimethoprim
      sensitive to nitrofurantoin, amoxicillin, co-amoxiclav
      Which of the following antibiotics is it most appropriate to prescribe?

      Your Answer: Amoxicillin

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Best Antibiotic for a UTI: A Case Study

      A patient presents with symptoms of a lower urinary tract infection (UTI) and a urine culture confirms the presence of bacteria. However, the causative organism is resistant to the first-line agents nitrofurantoin and trimethoprim, and the patient’s renal function contraindicates the use of nitrofurantoin.

      The next best option would be to use amoxicillin, as long as the organism is susceptible to it. Other suitable options include pivmecillinam and fosfomycin, if there is a high risk of resistance. Ciprofloxacin and co-amoxiclav are not appropriate for the treatment of a lower UTI.

      In summary, choosing the best antibiotic for a UTI requires consideration of the patient’s renal function and the susceptibility of the causative organism. Amoxicillin, pivmecillinam, and fosfomycin are suitable alternatives when first-line agents are not effective.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      15.6
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 14-year-old girl arrives at the clinic with her mother. She is asking...

    Correct

    • A 14-year-old girl arrives at the clinic with her mother. She is asking for the combined oral contraceptive (COC) pill as she has recently started a relationship with a 19-year-old man whom she met at a local coffee shop, but they have not yet engaged in sexual activity. During the consultation, you discuss the age difference, but the mother assures you that she has met the boyfriend and believes he treats her daughter well. Both the girl and her mother insist that they do not want anyone else involved. What is the most appropriate course of action?

      Your Answer: Immediately phone local child protection lead and refer to social services

      Explanation:

      According to the GMC guidelines, sexual intercourse with children below the age of 13 cannot be considered consensual, and therefore, any sexual activity would be classified as rape. In such cases, breaking confidentiality is mandatory.

      Guidelines for Obtaining Consent in Children

      The General Medical Council has provided guidelines for obtaining consent in children. According to these guidelines, young people who are 16 years or older can be treated as adults and are presumed to have the capacity to make decisions. However, for children under the age of 16, their ability to understand what is involved determines whether they have the capacity to decide. If a competent child refuses treatment, a person with parental responsibility or the court may authorize investigation or treatment that is in the child’s best interests.

      When it comes to providing contraceptives to patients under 16 years of age, the Fraser Guidelines must be followed. These guidelines state that the young person must understand the professional’s advice, cannot be persuaded to inform their parents, is likely to begin or continue having sexual intercourse with or without contraceptive treatment, and will suffer physical or mental health consequences without contraceptive treatment. Additionally, the young person’s best interests require them to receive contraceptive advice or treatment with or without parental consent.

      Some doctors use the term Fraser competency when referring to contraception and Gillick competency when referring to general issues of consent in children. However, rumors that Victoria Gillick removed her permission to use her name or applied copyright have been debunked. It is important to note that in Scotland, those with parental responsibility cannot authorize procedures that a competent child has refused.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Paediatrics
      29.8
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 67-year-old woman presents with vomiting and diarrhoea. Blood tests reveal an AKI...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old woman presents with vomiting and diarrhoea. Blood tests reveal an AKI with the following results, which were normal during her last check-up with her GP 3 weeks ago. She is given intravenous fluids and a renal ultrasound scan is scheduled.
      Creatinine 180 umol/l
      Urea 10 mmol/l
      eGFR 25 ml/min
      Which medication should be discontinued until her renal function returns to normal?

      Your Answer: Ramipril

      Explanation:

      This woman is experiencing an acute kidney injury, most likely caused by dehydration leading to pre-renal failure. The function of the kidneys is determined by the glomerulus’ ability to filter blood, which is dependent on the perfusion pressure of the glomerulus. This pressure is influenced by two factors: the overall blood flow to the kidney (which is reduced in cases of dehydration and hypovolemia) and the auto-regulation of the afferent and efferent arterioles, which fine-tunes the pressure.

      Prostaglandin E2 mediates the dilation of the afferent arteriole to increase blood flow, while angiotensin II mediates the constriction of the efferent arteriole to increase pressure. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs can disrupt this auto-regulation by blocking prostaglandin E2, contributing to acute kidney injury. However, oral aspirin is an exception and does not harm the kidneys. Drugs that block angiotensin II, such as ACE inhibitors like Ramipril and angiotensin receptor blockers, should be avoided during an AKI as they also disrupt auto-regulation.

      In contrast, ACE inhibitors and ARBs are beneficial in chronic kidney disease due to their antihypertensive and anti-inflammatory effects. In CKD, glomerular perfusion pressures are elevated, and reducing this pressure can help prevent glomerular damage and a decline in GFR.

      Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are commonly used as the first-line treatment for hypertension and heart failure in younger patients. However, they may not be as effective in treating hypertensive Afro-Caribbean patients. These inhibitors are also used to treat diabetic nephropathy and for secondary prevention of ischaemic heart disease. The mechanism of action of ACE inhibitors is to inhibit the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II. They are metabolized in the liver through phase 1 metabolism.

      ACE inhibitors may cause side effects such as cough, which occurs in around 15% of patients and may occur up to a year after starting treatment. This is thought to be due to increased bradykinin levels. Angioedema may also occur up to a year after starting treatment. Hyperkalaemia and first-dose hypotension are other potential side effects, especially in patients taking diuretics. ACE inhibitors should be avoided during pregnancy and breastfeeding, and caution should be exercised in patients with renovascular disease, aortic stenosis, or hereditary or idiopathic angioedema.

      Patients receiving high-dose diuretic therapy (more than 80 mg of furosemide a day) are at an increased risk of hypotension when taking ACE inhibitors. Before initiating treatment, urea and electrolytes should be checked, and after increasing the dose, a rise in creatinine and potassium may be expected. Acceptable changes include an increase in serum creatinine up to 30% from baseline and an increase in potassium up to 5.5 mmol/l. Patients with undiagnosed bilateral renal artery stenosis may experience significant renal impairment. The current NICE guidelines provide a flow chart for the management of hypertension.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      40.1
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 68-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with worsening back pain over...

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with worsening back pain over a period of several months. She also feels generally unwell. She is exhausted, has a dry mouth and is constipated.
      Investigations:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      Haemoglobin (Hb) 93 g/l 115–155 g/l
      White cell count (WCC) 6.4 × 109/l 4.0–11.0 × 109/l
      Platelets (PLT) 380 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
      Mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 100 fl 80–100 fl
      Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) 94 mm/h < 15 mm/h
      Estimated glomerular filtration rate (eGFR) 32 ml/min per 1.73 m2 > 90 ml/min per 1.73 m2
      Corrected calcium (Ca2+) 2.8 mmol/l 2.2–2.6 mmol/l
      What is the most appropriate initial investigation to confirm the diagnosis in this patient?

      Your Answer: Serum electrophoresis

      Explanation:

      Tumor Markers and Serum Electrophoresis: Their Role in Diagnosing Multiple Myeloma

      Multiple myeloma is a malignant disease of plasma cells that can cause renal failure, normocytic anemia, hypercalcemia, and raised ESR. To diagnose multiple myeloma, serum electrophoresis, serum-free light-chain assay, and assessment of urinary Bence Jones protein are recommended. Serum electrophoresis confirms the presence of a paraprotein, which may be due to myeloma or MGUS. Further tests, such as bone marrow biopsy, magnetic resonance imaging, and immunofixation of serum and urine, are usually carried out in secondary care to confirm the diagnosis.

      Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA), CA 19-9, serum lactate dehydrogenase (LDH), and CA125 are tumor markers used to monitor disease progression in various cancers. However, there is no role for these markers in diagnosing multiple myeloma. CEA is mainly used to monitor the progress of treatment for colonic cancer, while CA 19-9 is used to monitor disease progression in pancreatic cancer. LDH is raised in lymphoma and certain types of testicular cancer, and CA125 is used in the diagnosis of ovarian cancer. Therefore, these markers are not useful in diagnosing multiple myeloma.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology/Oncology
      44.9
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - You are assisting in the care of a 65-year-old man who has been...

    Correct

    • You are assisting in the care of a 65-year-old man who has been hospitalized for chest pain. He has a medical history of hypertension, angina, and is a current smoker of 20 cigarettes per day. Upon admission, blood tests were conducted in the Emergency Department and revealed the following results:
      - Na+ 133 mmol/l
      - K+ 3.3 mmol/l
      - Urea 4.5 mmol/l
      - Creatinine 90 µmol/l
      What is the most likely cause of the electrolyte abnormalities observed in this patient?

      Your Answer: Bendroflumethiazide therapy

      Explanation:

      Hyponatraemia and hypokalaemia are caused by bendroflumethiazide, while spironolactone is linked to hyperkalaemia. Smoking would only be significant if the patient had lung cancer that resulted in syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion, but there is no evidence of this in the given scenario.

      Thiazide diuretics are medications that work by blocking the thiazide-sensitive Na+-Cl− symporter, which inhibits sodium reabsorption at the beginning of the distal convoluted tubule (DCT). This results in the loss of potassium as more sodium reaches the collecting ducts. While loop diuretics are better for reducing overload, thiazide diuretics have a role in the treatment of mild heart failure. Bendroflumethiazide was commonly used for managing hypertension, but recent NICE guidelines recommend other thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide and chlortalidone.

      Like any medication, thiazide diuretics have potential adverse effects. Common side effects include dehydration, postural hypotension, and electrolyte imbalances such as hyponatraemia, hypokalaemia, and hypercalcaemia. Gout, impaired glucose tolerance, and impotence are also possible. Rare adverse effects include thrombocytopaenia, agranulocytosis, photosensitivity rash, and pancreatitis.

      To manage hypertension, current NICE guidelines recommend using thiazide-like diuretics such as indapamide or chlortalidone as first-line treatment. If blood pressure is not adequately controlled, a calcium channel blocker or ACE inhibitor can be added. If blood pressure remains high, a thiazide-like diuretic can be combined with a calcium channel blocker or ACE inhibitor. In some cases, a beta-blocker or aldosterone antagonist may also be added. Regular monitoring and adjustment of medication is necessary to ensure optimal blood pressure control.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal Medicine/Urology
      97.4
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 72-year-old man presents to the cardiology clinic with symptomatic aortic stenosis. Despite...

    Correct

    • A 72-year-old man presents to the cardiology clinic with symptomatic aortic stenosis. Despite his overall good health, he is eager for intervention. What intervention is most likely to be recommended for him?

      Your Answer: Bioprosthetic aortic valve replacement

      Explanation:

      Mechanical valves are typically preferred for younger patients as they have a longer lifespan compared to other types of prosthetic heart valves.

      Prosthetic Heart Valves: Options for Replacement

      Prosthetic heart valves are commonly used to replace damaged aortic and mitral valves. There are two main options for replacement: biological (bioprosthetic) or mechanical. Biological valves are usually sourced from bovine or porcine origins and are commonly used in older patients. However, they have a major disadvantage of structural deterioration and calcification over time. On the other hand, mechanical valves have a low failure rate but require long-term anticoagulation due to the increased risk of thrombosis. Warfarin is still the preferred anticoagulant for patients with mechanical heart valves, and the target INR varies depending on the valve type. Aspirin is only given in addition if there is an additional indication, such as ischaemic heart disease. Following the 2008 NICE guidelines, antibiotics are no longer recommended for common procedures such as dental work for prophylaxis of endocarditis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular
      32.8
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 68-year-old woman comes to your clinic 10 months after a heart attack....

    Correct

    • A 68-year-old woman comes to your clinic 10 months after a heart attack. She complains of feeling down, having difficulty concentrating, and loss of appetite since the incident. She attempted online cognitive behavioural therapy but it did not help. She feels that life has lost its meaning and that she is a burden to her family. You decide to initiate treatment with an SSRI. Which medication would be the most suitable to begin with?

      Your Answer: Sertraline

      Explanation:

      After a myocardial infarction, Sertraline is the preferred SSRI due to its extensive research in this patient population compared to other SSRIs. It is important to note that the patient may also be taking antiplatelets and should be cautioned about the potential for dyspepsia and gastrointestinal bleeding. Co-prescribing a proton pump inhibitor should be considered.

      Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are commonly used as the first-line treatment for depression. Citalopram and fluoxetine are the preferred SSRIs, while sertraline is recommended for patients who have had a myocardial infarction. However, caution should be exercised when prescribing SSRIs to children and adolescents. Gastrointestinal symptoms are the most common side-effect, and patients taking SSRIs are at an increased risk of gastrointestinal bleeding. Patients should also be aware of the possibility of increased anxiety and agitation after starting a SSRI. Fluoxetine and paroxetine have a higher propensity for drug interactions.

      The Medicines and Healthcare products Regulatory Agency (MHRA) has issued a warning regarding the use of citalopram due to its association with dose-dependent QT interval prolongation. As a result, citalopram and escitalopram should not be used in patients with congenital long QT syndrome, known pre-existing QT interval prolongation, or in combination with other medicines that prolong the QT interval. The maximum daily dose of citalopram is now 40 mg for adults, 20 mg for patients older than 65 years, and 20 mg for those with hepatic impairment.

      When initiating antidepressant therapy, patients should be reviewed by a doctor after 2 weeks. Patients under the age of 25 years or at an increased risk of suicide should be reviewed after 1 week. If a patient responds well to antidepressant therapy, they should continue treatment for at least 6 months after remission to reduce the risk of relapse. When stopping a SSRI, the dose should be gradually reduced over a 4 week period, except for fluoxetine. Paroxetine has a higher incidence of discontinuation symptoms, including mood changes, restlessness, difficulty sleeping, unsteadiness, sweating, gastrointestinal symptoms, and paraesthesia.

      When considering the use of SSRIs during pregnancy, the benefits and risks should be weighed. Use during the first trimester may increase the risk of congenital heart defects, while use during the third trimester can result in persistent pulmonary hypertension of the newborn. Paroxetine has an increased risk of congenital malformations, particularly in the first trimester.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Psychiatry
      83.7
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 47-year-old woman was prescribed carbamazepine for trigeminal neuralgia. After a few days,...

    Correct

    • A 47-year-old woman was prescribed carbamazepine for trigeminal neuralgia. After a few days, she experiences a prodromal illness with symptoms of sore throat, malaise, and conjunctivitis. She then develops a rash that initially presents as erythematous macules on her torso and progresses to blisters, covering less than 10% of her body surface area. Additionally, she has painful ulcers in her mouth, stomatitis, and worsening conjunctivitis. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Stevens-Johnson syndrome

      Explanation:

      Erythema multiforme is a skin condition that is characterized by a rash that affects a small area of the body or the entire body surface. It can be caused by drugs or other factors. The exact cause of this condition is unknown. The rash typically appears on the hands and feet and is often raised. In some cases, the rash may also affect the mucous membranes. This is known as the major form of erythema multiforme.

      Understanding Stevens-Johnson Syndrome

      Stevens-Johnson syndrome is a severe reaction that affects both the skin and mucosa. It is usually caused by a drug reaction and is considered a separate entity from erythema multiforme. Common causes of Stevens-Johnson syndrome include penicillin, sulphonamides, lamotrigine, carbamazepine, phenytoin, allopurinol, NSAIDs, and oral contraceptive pills. The rash associated with this syndrome is typically maculopapular with target lesions, which may develop into vesicles or bullae. A positive Nikolsky sign is observed in erythematous areas, where blisters and erosions appear when the skin is gently rubbed. Mucosal involvement and systemic symptoms such as fever and arthralgia may also occur. Hospital admission is required for supportive treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Dermatology
      105.7
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 82-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of sudden loss of vision...

    Incorrect

    • A 82-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of sudden loss of vision in his left eye since this morning. He denies any associated eye pain or headaches and is otherwise feeling well. His medical history includes ischaemic heart disease. Upon examination, the patient has no vision in his left eye. The left pupil shows poor response to light, but the consensual light reaction is normal. Fundoscopy reveals a red spot over a pale and opaque retina. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Central retinal vein occlusion

      Correct Answer: Central retinal artery occlusion

      Explanation:

      Central Retinal Artery Occlusion: A Rare Cause of Sudden Vision Loss

      Central retinal artery occlusion is a rare condition that can cause sudden, painless loss of vision in one eye. It is typically caused by a blood clot or inflammation in the artery that supplies blood to the retina. This can be due to atherosclerosis or arteritis, such as temporal arteritis. Symptoms may include a relative afferent pupillary defect and a cherry red spot on a pale retina. Unfortunately, the prognosis for this condition is poor, and management can be difficult. Treatment may involve identifying and addressing any underlying conditions, such as intravenous steroids for temporal arteritis. In some cases, intraarterial thrombolysis may be attempted, but the results of this treatment are mixed. Overall, central retinal artery occlusion is a serious condition that requires prompt medical attention.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Ophthalmology
      37.3
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A 63-year-old man visits his doctor with a persistent cough that has lasted...

    Correct

    • A 63-year-old man visits his doctor with a persistent cough that has lasted for 5 weeks. He reports coughing up smelly, green phlegm and experiencing night sweats, left-sided chest pain, and occasional fevers. He denies any weight loss. During the examination, the lower left lung is dull to percussion with low-pitched bronchial breath sounds, and he has a temperature of 38.2°C. The patient has not traveled recently or had any contact with sick individuals. The doctor notes that he was treated for pneumonia 7 weeks ago. What is the most probable cause of this patient's presentation?

      Your Answer: Lung abscess

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis for this patient is lung abscess, as they are presenting with a subacute productive cough, foul-smelling sputum, and night sweats. The duration of a cough can be categorized as acute, subacute, or chronic, and this patient falls under the subacute category. The patient’s recent history of aspiration pneumonia and examination findings, such as dullness on percussion, bronchial breath sounds, and fever, support the diagnosis of lung abscess.

      Lung cancer is not the most likely diagnosis for this patient, as they do not have weight loss and have other findings that point towards lung abscess. Pulmonary fibrosis is also unlikely, as it is rare to have unilateral pulmonary fibrosis, and the patient’s examination findings do not support this diagnosis. Recurrent pneumonia is a good differential, but the presence of bronchial breath sounds and night sweats make lung abscess a more likely diagnosis.

      Understanding Lung Abscess

      A lung abscess is a localized infection that occurs within the lung tissue. It is commonly caused by aspiration pneumonia, which can be triggered by poor dental hygiene, reduced consciousness, or previous stroke. Other potential causes include haematogenous spread, direct extension, and bronchial obstruction. The infection is typically polymicrobial, with Staphylococcus aureus, Klebsiella pneumonia, and Pseudomonas aeruginosa being the most common monomicrobial causes.

      The symptoms of lung abscess are similar to pneumonia, but they tend to develop more slowly over several weeks. Patients may experience fever, productive cough, foul-smelling sputum, chest pain, and dyspnea. Some may also have systemic features such as night sweats and weight loss, while a minority may experience haemoptysis. Physical examination may reveal dull percussion and bronchial breathing, as well as clubbing in some cases.

      To diagnose lung abscess, a chest x-ray is usually performed, which shows a fluid-filled space within an area of consolidation. Sputum and blood cultures should also be obtained to identify the causative organism. Treatment typically involves intravenous antibiotics, but if the infection does not resolve, percutaneous drainage or surgical resection may be required in rare cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory Medicine
      47
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 45-year-old woman is referred to Rheumatology Outpatients by her General Practitioner with...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman is referred to Rheumatology Outpatients by her General Practitioner with a history of symptoms that highly resemble rheumatoid arthritis.
      Which one of the following X-ray findings would indicate a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis?

      Your Answer: Juxta-articular osteoporosis

      Explanation:

      Common X-Ray Findings in Arthritis

      Arthritis is a condition that affects the joints, causing pain, stiffness, and inflammation. X-rays are often used to diagnose and monitor arthritis, as they can reveal changes in the bones and joints. Here are some common X-ray findings in arthritis:

      Juxta-articular osteoporosis/osteopenia: This is an early X-ray feature of rheumatoid arthritis, characterized by a loss of bone density around the joints.

      Loss of joint space: Both osteoarthritis and rheumatoid arthritis can cause joint space narrowing, which occurs when the cartilage no longer keeps the bones a normal distance apart. This can be painful, as the bones rub or put too much pressure on each other.

      Osteophytes: These are bony lumps (bone spurs) that grow on the bones of the spine or around the joints. They often form next to joints affected by osteoarthritis.

      Subchondral cysts: This is a feature of a degenerative process (osteoarthritis). A subchondral cyst is a fluid-filled space inside a joint that extends from one of the bones that form the joint.

      Subchondral sclerosis: This is a thickening of bone that happens in joints affected by osteoarthritis.

      Overall, X-rays can provide valuable information about the progression of arthritis and help guide treatment decisions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      8.6
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  • Question 29 - A 67-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of joint stiffness, fatigue, and swelling...

    Correct

    • A 67-year-old woman visits her doctor complaining of joint stiffness, fatigue, and swelling and tenderness in the metacarpophalangeal joints. The doctor suspects Rheumatoid Arthritis. What is the plasma autoantibody with the greatest specificity for Rheumatoid Arthritis?

      Your Answer: Anti-CCP

      Explanation:

      For the detection of Rheumatoid Arthritis, Anti-CCP has the most specific results. It can be identified in patients even a decade before the diagnosis and is advised for all individuals suspected of having Rheumatoid Arthritis but have tested negative for rheumatoid factor.

      Rheumatoid arthritis is a condition that can be diagnosed through initial investigations, including antibody tests and x-rays. One of the first tests recommended is the rheumatoid factor (RF) test, which detects a circulating antibody that reacts with the patient’s own IgG. This test can be done through the Rose-Waaler test or the latex agglutination test, with the former being more specific. A positive RF result is found in 70-80% of patients with rheumatoid arthritis, and high levels are associated with severe progressive disease. However, it is not a marker of disease activity. Other conditions that may have a positive RF result include Felty’s syndrome, Sjogren’s syndrome, infective endocarditis, SLE, systemic sclerosis, and the general population.

      Another antibody test that can aid in the diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis is the anti-cyclic citrullinated peptide antibody test. This test can detect the antibody up to 10 years before the development of rheumatoid arthritis and has a sensitivity similar to RF (around 70%) but a much higher specificity of 90-95%. NICE recommends that patients with suspected rheumatoid arthritis who are RF negative should be tested for anti-CCP antibodies.

      In addition to antibody tests, x-rays of the hands and feet are also recommended for all patients with suspected rheumatoid arthritis. These x-rays can help detect joint damage and deformities, which are common in rheumatoid arthritis. Early detection and treatment of rheumatoid arthritis can help prevent further joint damage and improve overall quality of life for patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal
      51.9
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  • Question 30 - A 50-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with sudden onset palpitations and...

    Correct

    • A 50-year-old woman presents to the Emergency department with sudden onset palpitations and breathlessness after breakfast. The ECG shows atrial fibrillation. The physician advises her that she has an elevated risk of stroke and recommends starting anticoagulant medication. What scoring system is used to assess stroke risk in patients with atrial fibrillation?

      Your Answer: CHA2DS2-VASc

      Explanation:

      The CHA2DS2-VASc score is utilized for assessing the necessity of anticoagulation in patients with atrial fibrillation. The HAS-BLED score estimates the likelihood of major bleeding in patients receiving anticoagulation for atrial fibrillation. The DRAGON score predicts the 3-month outcome in patients with ischemic stroke who are treated with tissue plasminogen activator (tPA). The ABCD2 score is employed to determine the risk of stroke in patients who have experienced a suspected TIA.

      Common Scoring Systems in Medicine

      In medicine, there are various scoring systems used to assess and determine the severity of different conditions. These scoring systems help healthcare professionals make informed decisions about treatment options and patient care. Some of the most commonly used scoring systems include the CHA2DS2-VASc for anticoagulation in atrial fibrillation, the ABCD2 for risk stratifying patients who have had a suspected TIA, and the NYHA for assessing heart failure severity.

      Other scoring systems include the DAS28 for measuring disease activity in rheumatoid arthritis, the Child-Pugh classification for assessing the severity of liver cirrhosis, and the Wells score for estimating the risk of deep vein thrombosis. The MMSE is used to assess cognitive impairment, while the HAD and PHQ-9 are used to assess the severity of anxiety and depression symptoms. The GAD-7 is a screening tool for generalized anxiety disorder, and the Edinburgh Postnatal Depression Score is used to screen for postnatal depression.

      Other scoring systems include the SCOFF questionnaire for detecting eating disorders, the AUDIT and CAGE for alcohol screening, and the FAST for identifying the symptoms of a stroke. The CURB-65 is used to assess the prognosis of a patient with pneumonia, while the Epworth Sleepiness Scale is used in the assessment of suspected obstructive sleep apnea. The IPSS and Gleason score are used to indicate prognosis in prostate cancer, while the APGAR assesses the health of a newborn immediately after birth. The Bishop score is used to help assess whether induction of labor will be required, and the Waterlow score assesses the risk of a patient developing a pressure sore. Finally, the FRAX is a risk assessment tool developed by WHO which calculates a patient’s 10-year risk of developing an osteoporosis-related fracture.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology/Therapeutics
      3.3
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Renal Medicine/Urology (3/4) 75%
Dermatology (1/3) 33%
Neurology (1/1) 100%
Gastroenterology/Nutrition (1/1) 100%
Pharmacology/Therapeutics (2/3) 67%
Haematology/Oncology (2/2) 100%
Musculoskeletal (4/5) 80%
Reproductive Medicine (1/1) 100%
Cardiovascular (2/2) 100%
Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease (0/1) 0%
Paediatrics (4/4) 100%
Psychiatry (1/1) 100%
Ophthalmology (0/1) 0%
Respiratory Medicine (1/1) 100%
Passmed