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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman has been brought into the Emergency Department by the Police with unusual behavior. She has been brought in under 'section'. She is known to suffer from bipolar disorder, but her friend states that she hasn't been taking her medications recently. She became agitated, violent, and aggressive after being approached by the Police and is now handcuffed. She is saying that she hears voices and that she can read people's minds. She is refusing oral medications.
According to the NICE guidelines for short-term management of violent and aggressive patients, what should be used as the first-line for rapid tranquilization of this patient?Your Answer: Lorazepam plus promethazine
Correct Answer: Haloperidol plus promethazine
Explanation:Rapid tranquillisation involves the administration of medication through injection when oral medication is not feasible or appropriate and immediate sedation is necessary. The current guidelines from NICE recommend two options for rapid tranquillisation in adults: intramuscular lorazepam alone or a combination of intramuscular haloperidol and intramuscular promethazine. The choice of medication depends on various factors such as advanced statements, potential intoxication, previous responses to these medications, interactions with other drugs, and existing physical health conditions or pregnancy.
If there is insufficient information to determine the appropriate medication or if the individual has not taken antipsychotic medication before, intramuscular lorazepam is recommended. However, if there is evidence of cardiovascular disease or a prolonged QT interval, or if an electrocardiogram has not been conducted, the combination of intramuscular haloperidol and intramuscular promethazine should be avoided, and intramuscular lorazepam should be used instead.
If there is a partial response to intramuscular lorazepam, a second dose should be considered. If there is no response to intramuscular lorazepam, then intramuscular haloperidol combined with intramuscular promethazine should be considered. If there is a partial response to this combination, a further dose should be considered.
If there is no response to intramuscular haloperidol combined with intramuscular promethazine and intramuscular lorazepam has not been used yet, it should be considered. However, if intramuscular lorazepam has already been administered, it is recommended to arrange an urgent team meeting to review the situation and seek a second opinion if necessary.
After rapid tranquillisation, the patient should be closely monitored for any side effects, and their vital signs should be regularly checked, including heart rate, blood pressure, respiratory rate, temperature, hydration level, and level of consciousness. These observations should be conducted at least hourly until there are no further concerns about the patient’s physical health.
For more information, refer to the NICE guidance on violence and aggression: short-term management in mental health, health, and community settings.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 2
Correct
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A 42-year-old man presents with a right-sided scrotal swelling. He is also experiencing a 'pulling sensation' in the same testis, which worsens after physical activity. During the examination, you are unable to feel a lump while the patient is lying down, but upon standing, you notice a poorly defined, non-translucent mass that is clearly separate from the testis and is located above and behind the testis. The scrotum feels like 'a bag of worms', the mass increases in size when the patient performs the Valsalva maneuver, and there is a cough impulse present.
What is the SINGLE most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Varicocele
Explanation:A varicocele is a condition characterized by the presence of varicose veins in the pampiniform plexus of the cord and scrotum. It is more commonly observed in the left testis compared to the right and may be linked to infertility. The primary reason for this association is believed to be the elevated temperature of the testis caused by the presence of varicosities.
Typically, individuals with varicocele experience a dull ache in the testis, which tends to worsen after physical activity or towards the end of the day. The scrotum is often described as feeling like a bag of worms. While the varicocele cannot usually be detected when the patient is lying down, it can often be identified during examination while standing. It is felt as a poorly defined, non-transilluminable mass that is clearly separate from the testis and is located above and behind it. The dilation of the varicocele increases when the Valsalva maneuver is performed, and a cough impulse may also be present.
Conservative treatment is typically recommended for varicocele, with surgery being reserved for severe cases only.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 68 year old man is brought to the emergency department due to sudden difficulty breathing. During auscultation, you detect a murmur. The patient then undergoes a bedside echocardiogram which reveals mitral regurgitation. What murmur is commonly associated with mitral regurgitation?
Your Answer: pansystolic murmur
Explanation:Mitral regurgitation is characterized by a continuous murmur throughout systole that is often heard loudest at the apex and can be heard radiating to the left axilla.
Further Reading:
Mitral Stenosis:
– Causes: Rheumatic fever, Mucopolysaccharidoses, Carcinoid, Endocardial fibroelastosis
– Features: Mid-late diastolic murmur, loud S1, opening snap, low volume pulse, malar flush, atrial fibrillation, signs of pulmonary edema, tapping apex beat
– Features of severe mitral stenosis: Length of murmur increases, opening snap becomes closer to S2
– Investigation findings: CXR may show left atrial enlargement, echocardiography may show reduced cross-sectional area of the mitral valveMitral Regurgitation:
– Causes: Mitral valve prolapse, Myxomatous degeneration, Ischemic heart disease, Rheumatic fever, Connective tissue disorders, Endocarditis, Dilated cardiomyopathy
– Features: pansystolic murmur radiating to left axilla, soft S1, S3, laterally displaced apex beat with heave
– Signs of acute MR: Decompensated congestive heart failure symptoms
– Signs of chronic MR: Leg edema, fatigue, arrhythmia (atrial fibrillation)
– Investigation findings: Doppler echocardiography to detect regurgitant flow and pulmonary hypertension, ECG may show signs of LA enlargement and LV hypertrophy, CXR may show LA and LV enlargement in chronic MR and pulmonary edema in acute MR. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old man comes in with an acute episode of gout.
Which SINGLE statement regarding the management of acute gout is accurate?Your Answer: Colchicine is contraindicated in heart failure
Correct Answer: A common first-line treatment is Naproxen as a stat dose of 750 mg followed by 250 mg TDS
Explanation:In cases where there are no contraindications, high-dose NSAIDs are the recommended initial treatment for acute gout. A commonly used and effective regimen is to administer a stat dose of Naproxen 750 mg, followed by 250 mg three times a day. It is important to note that Aspirin should not be used in gout as it hinders the urinary clearance of urate and interferes with the action of uricosuric agents. Instead, more appropriate choices include Naproxen, diclofenac, or indomethacin.
Allopurinol is typically used as a prophylactic measure to prevent future gout attacks by reducing serum uric acid levels. However, it should not be initiated during the acute phase of an attack as it can worsen the severity and duration of symptoms.
Colchicine works by binding to tubulin and preventing neutrophil migration into the joint. It is just as effective as NSAIDs in relieving acute gout attacks. Additionally, it has a role in prophylactic treatment if a patient cannot tolerate Allopurinol.
It is important to note that NSAIDs are contraindicated in patients with heart failure as they can lead to fluid retention and congestive cardiac failure. In such cases, Colchicine is the preferred treatment option for patients with heart failure or those who cannot tolerate NSAIDs.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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Question 5
Correct
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A 35 year old patient is brought into the resuscitation bay by paramedics after being rescued from a lake. The patient has a core temperature of 29.5ºC. CPR is in progress. What modifications, if any, would you make to the administration of adrenaline in a patient with a core temperature below 30ºC?
Your Answer: Withhold adrenaline
Explanation:The administration of IV drugs (adrenaline and amiodarone) should be delayed until the core body temperature of patients with severe hypothermia reaches above 30°C, as recommended by the resus council.
Further Reading:
Cardiopulmonary arrest is a serious event with low survival rates. In non-traumatic cardiac arrest, only about 20% of patients who arrest as an in-patient survive to hospital discharge, while the survival rate for out-of-hospital cardiac arrest is approximately 8%. The Resus Council BLS/AED Algorithm for 2015 recommends chest compressions at a rate of 100-120 per minute with a compression depth of 5-6 cm. The ratio of chest compressions to rescue breaths is 30:2.
After a cardiac arrest, the goal of patient care is to minimize the impact of post cardiac arrest syndrome, which includes brain injury, myocardial dysfunction, the ischaemic/reperfusion response, and the underlying pathology that caused the arrest. The ABCDE approach is used for clinical assessment and general management. Intubation may be necessary if the airway cannot be maintained by simple measures or if it is immediately threatened. Controlled ventilation is aimed at maintaining oxygen saturation levels between 94-98% and normocarbia. Fluid status may be difficult to judge, but a target mean arterial pressure (MAP) between 65 and 100 mmHg is recommended. Inotropes may be administered to maintain blood pressure. Sedation should be adequate to gain control of ventilation, and short-acting sedating agents like propofol are preferred. Blood glucose levels should be maintained below 8 mmol/l. Pyrexia should be avoided, and there is some evidence for controlled mild hypothermia but no consensus on this.
Post ROSC investigations may include a chest X-ray, ECG monitoring, serial potassium and lactate measurements, and other imaging modalities like ultrasonography, echocardiography, CTPA, and CT head, depending on availability and skills in the local department. Treatment should be directed towards the underlying cause, and PCI or thrombolysis may be considered for acute coronary syndrome or suspected pulmonary embolism, respectively.
Patients who are comatose after ROSC without significant pre-arrest comorbidities should be transferred to the ICU for supportive care. Neurological outcome at 72 hours is the best prognostic indicator of outcome.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Environmental Emergencies
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Question 6
Correct
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A 65-year-old woman comes to the clinic after a fall. You observe that she has a tremor in her left hand that is most noticeable when she is sitting and at rest. Additionally, you notice that it took her quite a while to walk towards you and unbutton her coat before sitting down. When you shake her hand, you notice that her left forearm feels stiff.
What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Parkinson’s disease
Explanation:Parkinson’s disease (PD) is a progressive neurodegenerative condition that occurs when the dopamine-containing cells in the substantia nigra die. It is estimated that PD affects around 100-180 individuals per 100,000 of the population, which translates to approximately 6-11 people per 6,000 individuals in the general population of the UK. The annual incidence of PD is between 4-20 cases per 100,000 people. The prevalence of PD increases with age, with approximately 0.5% of individuals aged 65 to 74 being affected and 1-2% of individuals aged 75 and older. Additionally, PD is more prevalent and has a higher incidence in males.
The classic clinical features of Parkinson’s disease include hypokinesia, which refers to a poverty of movement, and bradykinesia, which is characterized by slowness of movement. Rest tremor, typically occurring at a rate of 4-6 cycles per second, is also commonly observed in PD patients. Another clinical feature is rigidity, which is characterized by increased muscle tone and a phenomenon known as cogwheel rigidity.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 42-year-old woman comes in with a recent nosebleed. The bleeding was minor and has now ceased.
Which ONE of the following arteries is not involved in Kiesselbach’s plexus?Your Answer: Posterior ethmoidal artery
Explanation:Kiesselbach’s plexus, also known as Little’s area, is located in the front and lower part of the nasal septum. It is the most common site of bleeding in cases of anterior epistaxis. This plexus is formed by the convergence of four arteries: the anterior ethmoidal artery, the sphenopalatine artery, the greater palatine artery, and the septal branch of the superior labial artery. It is important to note that while the posterior ethmoidal artery supplies the septum of the nose, it does not contribute to Kiesselbach’s plexus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 2 year old is brought to the emergency department by his father due to a 24 hour history of worsening left sided otalgia and high temperature. During examination, a bulging red tympanic membrane is observed and acute otitis media is diagnosed.
What is the most probable causative organism in this case?Your Answer: Staphylococcus aureus
Correct Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae
Explanation:The most probable causative organism in this case is Streptococcus pneumoniae. This bacterium is a common cause of acute otitis media, especially in young children. It is known to cause infection in the middle ear, leading to symptoms such as ear pain (otalgia), fever, and a red, bulging tympanic membrane. Other organisms such as Escherichia coli, Candida albicans, Pseudomonas aeruginosa, and Staphylococcus aureus can also cause ear infections, but Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most likely culprit in this particular case.
Further Reading:
Acute otitis media (AOM) is an inflammation in the middle ear accompanied by symptoms and signs of an ear infection. It is commonly seen in young children below 4 years of age, with the highest incidence occurring between 9 to 15 months of age. AOM can be caused by viral or bacterial pathogens, and co-infection with both is common. The most common viral pathogens include respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), rhinovirus, adenovirus, influenza virus, and parainfluenza virus. The most common bacterial pathogens include Streptococcus pneumoniae, Haemophilus influenzae, Moraxella catarrhalis, and Streptococcus pyogenes.
Clinical features of AOM include ear pain (otalgia), fever, a red or cloudy tympanic membrane, and a bulging tympanic membrane with loss of anatomical landmarks. In young children, symptoms may also include crying, grabbing or rubbing the affected ear, restlessness, and poor feeding.
Most children with AOM will recover within 3 days without treatment. Serious complications are rare but can include persistent otitis media with effusion, recurrence of infection, temporary hearing loss, tympanic membrane perforation, labyrinthitis, mastoiditis, meningitis, intracranial abscess, sinus thrombosis, and facial nerve paralysis.
Management of AOM involves determining whether admission to the hospital is necessary based on the severity of systemic infection or suspected acute complications. For patients who do not require admission, regular pain relief with paracetamol or ibuprofen is advised. Decongestants or antihistamines are not recommended. Antibiotics may be offered immediately for patients who are systemically unwell, have symptoms and signs of a more serious illness or condition, or have a high risk of complications. For other patients, a decision needs to be made on the antibiotic strategy, considering the rarity of acute complications and the possible adverse effects of antibiotics. Options include no antibiotic prescription with advice to seek medical help if symptoms worsen rapidly or significantly, a back-up antibiotic prescription to be used if symptoms do not improve within 3 days, or an immediate antibiotic prescription with advice to seek medical advice if symptoms worsen rapidly or significantly.
The first-line antibiotic choice for AOM is a 5-7 day course of amoxicillin. For individuals allergic to or intolerant of penicillin, clarithromycin or erythromycin a 5–7 day course of clarithromycin or erythromycin (erythromycin is preferred in pregnant women).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man comes in with vomiting, disorientation, and decreased urine production. His creatinine levels have increased by 150% compared to his usual levels over the past week. After conducting additional tests, the patient is diagnosed with acute kidney injury (AKI).
What stage of AKI does he fall under?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stage 2
Explanation:Acute kidney injury (AKI), previously known as acute renal failure, is a sudden decline in kidney function. This leads to the accumulation of urea and other waste products in the body, as well as disturbances in fluid balance and electrolyte levels. AKI can occur in individuals with previously normal kidney function or those with pre-existing kidney disease, known as acute-on-chronic kidney disease. It is a relatively common condition, with approximately 15% of adults admitted to hospitals in the UK developing AKI.
AKI is categorized into three stages based on specific criteria. In stage 1, there is a rise in creatinine levels of 26 micromol/L or more within 48 hours, or a rise of 50-99% from baseline within 7 days (1.5-1.99 times the baseline). Additionally, a urine output of less than 0.5 mL/kg/hour for more than 6 hours is indicative of stage 1 AKI.
Stage 2 AKI is characterized by a creatinine rise of 100-199% from baseline within 7 days (2.0-2.99 times the baseline), or a urine output of less than 0.5 mL/kg/hour for more than 12 hours.
In stage 3 AKI, there is a creatinine rise of 200% or more from baseline within 7 days (3.0 or more times the baseline). Alternatively, a creatinine rise to 354 micromol/L or more with an acute rise of 26 micromol/L or more within 48 hours, or a rise of 50% or more within 7 days, is indicative of stage 3 AKI. Additionally, a urine output of less than 0.3 mL/kg/hour for 24 hours or anuria (no urine output) for 12 hours also falls under stage 3 AKI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Nephrology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 75 year old man is brought into the emergency room by ambulance. He started with a cough about a week ago but now appears somewhat confused and drowsy. His vital signs are as follows:
Temperature: 37.9ºC
Blood pressure: 98/65 mmHg
Respiration rate: 22 rpm
Pulse rate: 105 bpm
Blood glucose: 6.9 mmol/l
SpO2: 91% on air rising to 96% on 2L oxygen
Which of the above parameters, if any, would be a cause for concern indicating sepsis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: SpO2 of 91% on air rising to 96% on 2L oxygen
Explanation:This individual’s condition should be closely monitored and they should be promptly placed on the Sepsis pathway due to the presence of red flags. Please refer to the notes below for a comprehensive list of red and amber flags.
Further Reading:
There are multiple definitions of sepsis, leading to confusion among healthcare professionals. The Sepsis 3 definition describes sepsis as life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by a dysregulated host response to infection. The Sepsis 2 definition includes infection plus two or more SIRS criteria. The NICE definition states that sepsis is a clinical syndrome triggered by the presence of infection in the blood, activating the body’s immune and coagulation systems. The Sepsis Trust defines sepsis as a dysregulated host response to infection mediated by the immune system, resulting in organ dysfunction, shock, and potentially death.
The confusion surrounding sepsis terminology is further compounded by the different versions of sepsis definitions, known as Sepsis 1, Sepsis 2, and Sepsis 3. The UK organizations RCEM and NICE have not fully adopted the changes introduced in Sepsis 3, causing additional confusion. While Sepsis 3 introduces the use of SOFA scores and abandons SIRS criteria, NICE and the Sepsis Trust have rejected the use of SOFA scores and continue to rely on SIRS criteria. This discrepancy creates challenges for emergency department doctors in both exams and daily clinical practice.
To provide some clarity, RCEM now recommends referring to national standards organizations such as NICE, SIGN, BTS, or others relevant to the area. The Sepsis Trust, in collaboration with RCEM and NICE, has published a toolkit that serves as a definitive reference point for sepsis management based on the sepsis 3 update.
There is a consensus internationally that the terms SIRS and severe sepsis are outdated and should be abandoned. Instead, the terms sepsis and septic shock should be used. NICE defines septic shock as a life-threatening condition characterized by low blood pressure despite adequate fluid replacement and organ dysfunction or failure. Sepsis 3 defines septic shock as persisting hypotension requiring vasopressors to maintain a mean arterial pressure of 65 mmHg or more, along with a serum lactate level greater than 2 mmol/l despite adequate volume resuscitation.
NICE encourages clinicians to adopt an approach of considering sepsis in all patients, rather than relying solely on strict definitions. Early warning or flag systems can help identify patients with possible sepsis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY
