-
Question 1
Correct
-
A 65-year-old woman with a history of peptic ulcers and knee osteoarthritis presents with worsening left knee pain over the past week. The pain is exacerbated by walking and climbing stairs, and is severely limiting her mobility. She denies any recent knee injury or swelling. Currently, she is taking co-codamol (30/500 mg) up to four times a day, NSAID gel, and fentanyl patches to manage her pain. On examination, she is found to be overweight and there is crepitus in her right knee, but no effusion is present. What should be the next step in her treatment plan?
Your Answer: Intra-articular corticosteroid injections
Explanation:Managing Flares of Osteoarthritis-Related Knee Pain
Flares of osteoarthritis (OA) related knee pain are common and can be quite debilitating. While acupuncture and oral corticosteroids are not effective in controlling such pain, there are several options available. Opiates, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs)/Coxibs, and intra-articular corticosteroid injections are all viable options for managing OA-related knee pain. However, of these options, intra-articular long acting corticosteroid injections are the most effective.
It is important to note that the need for intra-articular long acting corticosteroid injections should be guided by symptoms rather than the presence or absence of joint effusion. This means that the decision to administer such injections should be based on the patient’s level of pain and discomfort rather than any physical signs of inflammation.
In summary, managing flares of OA-related knee pain requires a tailored approach that takes into account the patient’s individual symptoms and needs. While there are several options available, intra-articular long acting corticosteroid injections are the most effective and should be considered when other treatments have failed to provide relief.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
-
-
Question 2
Incorrect
-
A 42-year-old woman presents with fatigue, loss of appetite, gradual weight loss, and occasional chest pain. She also reports a rash on her nose and cheeks that worsens in the summer and joint pain in her wrists, knees, and ankles. On examination, her blood pressure is 150/94 mmHg, and she has a facial rash. Her test results show a low hemoglobin level, low white blood cell count, low platelet count, prolonged partial thromboplastin time, elevated C-reactive protein, high sodium and potassium levels, elevated creatinine, and blood and protein in her urine. What is the most specific test to determine her underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Anti-nuclear antibodies
Correct Answer: Anti-ds DNA antibodies
Explanation:Laboratory Tests for Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is an autoimmune disease that can affect multiple organs and systems in the body. Laboratory tests can aid in the diagnosis and management of SLE. Here are some commonly used tests and their significance:
Anti-ds DNA antibodies are highly specific for SLE, but only 50-70% of SLE patients have them. Their levels may correlate with disease activity and indicate a worse prognosis, especially if there is renal or neurological involvement.
Anti-histone antibodies are more indicative of drug-induced lupus.
Anti-nuclear antibodies have high sensitivity for SLE, but are not very specific. About 10% of healthy individuals may test positive for them.
C3 and C4 complement levels may be low in SLE, but this is a non-specific finding and can also be seen in other conditions such as subacute bacterial endocarditis.
In summary, laboratory tests can provide valuable information in the diagnosis and management of SLE, but they should always be interpreted in the context of the patient’s clinical presentation and other diagnostic findings.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
-
-
Question 3
Correct
-
A 68-year-old woman presents with a one-month history of non-specific malaise. She experiences stiffness, particularly in the mornings, and has difficulty lifting her arms to comb her hair. She also has constant pain in her arms, shoulders, and jaw when chewing. She has lost 4 kg in weight and has a persistent headache. She smokes 10 cigarettes a day and drinks 10 units of alcohol per week. On examination, she has tenderness with reduced mobility in the proximal muscles of her arms and legs. Her investigations reveal a low Hb, high WCC, and elevated ESR. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Polymyalgia rheumatica
Explanation:Polymyalgia Rheumatica/Temporal Arteritis: Symptoms and Treatment
Polymyalgia rheumatica/temporal arteritis is a condition that can cause a variety of symptoms. It may present with predominantly polymyalgia symptoms such as muscle pain and stiffness, or arteritis symptoms such as headaches, scalp tenderness, and jaw claudication. Systemic features like fever, malaise, and weight loss may also be present. Weakness is not a typical feature, but it may be apparent due to pain or stiffness with weight loss. The ESR (erythrocyte sedimentation rate) is usually very high in this condition.
Temporal arteritis is a serious complication of this condition that can result in blindness. It is important to note that temporal arteritis is a vasculitis that affects medium and large-sized arteries throughout the body, not just the temporal artery. The superficial temporal artery supplies the orbit of the eye and is a branch of the external carotid artery, while the ophthalmic artery supplies the majority of the blood to the eye itself and is a branch of the internal carotid artery. Inflammation and narrowing of the temporal artery can cause blindness.
If temporal arteritis is suspected, it must be treated with high-dose steroids. This condition is a reminder that prompt diagnosis and treatment are crucial to prevent serious complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
-
-
Question 4
Correct
-
A 60-year-old woman with idiopathic Raynaud's presents to the clinic with concerns about painful, 'blue' fingers and early signs of ulceration. Despite trying various over-the-counter medications, heating techniques, and calcium channel blockers, she has not experienced any improvement. The patient also has a history of hypertension and is currently taking Losartan.
During the examination, the patient exhibits prominent acrocyanosis with areas of skin discoloration and moderate digital ulceration. There are no signs of sclerodactyly or telangiectasia. Her blood pressure measures 105/60 mmHg.
What medication options are available to alleviate this patient's symptoms?Your Answer: Epoprostenol
Explanation:Epoprostenol, along with other prostaglandins, is a viable treatment option for Raynaud’s phenomenon. In cases where vasodilation needs to be optimized but the patient cannot tolerate calcium channel blockers, sildenafil is typically the first choice. However, since it is not available in this case and the patient has digital ulcers, the appropriate course of action would be to administer epoprostenol intravenously.
Raynaud’s phenomenon is a condition where the arteries in the fingers and toes constrict excessively in response to cold or emotional stress. It can be classified as primary (Raynaud’s disease) or secondary (Raynaud’s phenomenon) depending on the underlying cause. Raynaud’s disease is more common in young women and typically affects both sides of the body. Secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon is often associated with connective tissue disorders such as scleroderma, rheumatoid arthritis, or systemic lupus erythematosus. Other causes include leukaemia, cryoglobulinaemia, use of vibrating tools, and certain medications.
If there is suspicion of secondary Raynaud’s phenomenon, patients should be referred to a specialist for further evaluation. Treatment options include calcium channel blockers such as nifedipine as a first-line therapy. In severe cases, intravenous prostacyclin (epoprostenol) infusions may be used, which can provide relief for several weeks or months. It is important to identify and treat any underlying conditions that may be contributing to the development of Raynaud’s phenomenon. Factors that suggest an underlying connective tissue disease include onset after 40 years, unilateral symptoms, rashes, presence of autoantibodies, and digital ulcers or calcinosis. In rare cases, chilblains may also be present.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
-
-
Question 5
Correct
-
A 54-year-old man presents with a scaly rash on the back of his hands. The erythematous rash is located on the extensor aspects of his fingers, particularly over the MCP and PIP joints. He has also noticed a violaceous swelling of his left upper eyelid. These symptoms have been bothering him for the past two weeks, and he has tried using an emollient cream without any improvement. His two brothers both have psoriasis, and he has been healthy apart from childhood eczema.
In addition to the rashes, he has a palpable mass in the left iliac fossa that is non-tender, and a nodular liver edge can be felt in the right upper quadrant. His conjunctiva are pale. He reports experiencing varying bowel movements, ranging from diarrhea to occasional constipation. He tried taking mebeverine but did not find any relief. There are no other rashes present.
What is the probable cause of this rash?Your Answer: Paraneoplastic dermatomyositis
Explanation:Dermatomyositis is often associated with cancer as a paraneoplastic syndrome. The presence of Gottron’s papules on the hand and a heliotrope rash on the face is a clear indication of dermatomyositis, which can be either idiopathic or secondary to malignancy. The abdominal mass may be indicative of a rectal tumor, while the liver nodules could be metastases. Although erythema gyratum repens is another paraneoplastic rash that may occur, it is easily recognizable due to its distinct appearance and coverage of large areas.
Understanding Dermatomyositis
Dermatomyositis is a condition that causes inflammation and weakness in the muscles, as well as distinct skin lesions. It can occur on its own or be associated with other connective tissue disorders or underlying malignancies. Patients with dermatomyositis may experience symmetrical, proximal muscle weakness, and photosensitive skin rashes. The skin lesions may include a macular rash over the back and shoulders, a heliotrope rash in the periorbital region, Gottron’s papules, and mechanic’s hands. Other symptoms may include Raynaud’s, respiratory muscle weakness, interstitial lung disease, dysphagia, and dysphonia.
To diagnose dermatomyositis, doctors may perform various tests, including screening for underlying malignancies. The majority of patients with dermatomyositis are ANA positive, and around 30% have antibodies to aminoacyl-tRNA synthetases, such as anti-synthetase antibodies, antibodies against histidine-tRNA ligase (Jo-1), antibodies to signal recognition particle (SRP), and anti-Mi-2 antibodies.
In summary, dermatomyositis is a condition that affects both the muscles and skin. It can be associated with other disorders or malignancies, and patients may experience a range of symptoms. Proper diagnosis and management are essential for improving outcomes and quality of life for those with dermatomyositis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
-
-
Question 6
Correct
-
A 49-year-old man presents with complaints of pain and limited range of motion in his right elbow. He denies any recent injury or trauma. He has no significant medical history and works as a plumber. He is a non-smoker but consumes 35 units of alcohol per week and is not interested in exercising.
Upon examination, there is no swelling or effusion present. The patient experiences increased pain during wrist extension and supination while the elbow is extended. There are no motor or sensory deficits noted.
What is the probable diagnosis?Your Answer: Lateral epicondylitis
Explanation:If a patient experiences increased pain or weakness when extending or supinating their wrist during elbow extension, it may be a sign of lateral epicondylitis, also known as tennis elbow. This condition is often caused or worsened by repetitive movements in work or recreational activities, such as plumbing. Cubital tunnel syndrome, which results from ulnar nerve entrapment, typically causes medial elbow pain and ulnar nerve distribution paraesthesia, making it an incorrect answer. Medial epicondylitis, or golfer’s elbow, is also caused by repetitive activities and is characterized by pain that worsens with resisted wrist flexion and pronation, which is the opposite of lateral epicondylitis. Olecranon bursitis, which presents as a soft, painless swelling over the olecranon after trauma, is an incorrect answer as there was no evidence of swelling or effusion and no history of trauma.
Understanding Lateral Epicondylitis
Lateral epicondylitis, commonly known as tennis elbow, is a condition that usually occurs after engaging in activities that the body is not accustomed to, such as painting or playing tennis. It is most prevalent in individuals aged between 45 and 55 years and typically affects the dominant arm. The condition is characterized by pain and tenderness localized to the lateral epicondyle, which is worsened by wrist extension against resistance with the elbow extended or supination of the forearm with the elbow extended.
Episodes of lateral epicondylitis usually last between six months and two years, with patients experiencing acute pain for six to twelve weeks. To manage the condition, patients are advised to avoid muscle overload, take simple analgesia, undergo steroid injection, or receive physiotherapy. With proper management, patients can recover from lateral epicondylitis and return to their normal activities.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
-
-
Question 7
Correct
-
A 56-year-old woman is currently being treated for back pain with 1g of paracetamol four times a day and the maximum dose of 2.4g of ibuprofen daily. Despite tolerating the medication well, she continues to experience persistent pain. What is the most effective solution to enhance her pain management?
Your Answer: Continue paracetamol, stop ibuprofen and commence naproxen
Explanation:To manage mild to moderate pain, a stepwise approach should be taken. The first step is to use paracetamol and increase the dosage to a maximum of 1 gram four times a day. If this is not effective, ibuprofen can be substituted and the dosage increased to a maximum of 2.4 grams daily. If necessary, paracetamol can be added to ibuprofen. If ibuprofen is not effective, it can be replaced with another NSAID such as naproxen while continuing with paracetamol. Strong opioids like morphine should not be used at this stage. It is important to avoid using two NSAIDs together as this can increase the risk of adverse effects. Therefore, the best option for this patient is to continue with paracetamol and switch from ibuprofen to naproxen.
Understanding Lower Back Pain and its Possible Causes
Lower back pain is a common complaint among patients seeking medical attention. Although most cases are due to non-specific muscular issues, it is important to consider possible underlying causes that may require specific treatment. Some red flags to watch out for include age below 20 or above 50 years, a history of previous malignancy, night pain, history of trauma, and systemic symptoms such as weight loss and fever.
There are several specific causes of lower back pain that healthcare providers should be aware of. Facet joint pain may be acute or chronic, with pain typically worse in the morning and on standing. On examination, there may be pain over the facets, which is typically worse on extension of the back. Spinal stenosis, on the other hand, usually has a gradual onset and presents with unilateral or bilateral leg pain (with or without back pain), numbness, and weakness that worsens with walking and resolves when sitting down. Ankylosing spondylitis is typically seen in young men who present with lower back pain and stiffness that is worse in the morning and improves with activity. Peripheral arthritis is also common in this condition. Finally, peripheral arterial disease presents with pain on walking that is relieved by rest, and may be accompanied by absent or weak foot pulses and other signs of limb ischaemia. A past history of smoking and other vascular diseases may also be present.
In summary, lower back pain is a common presentation in clinical practice, and healthcare providers should be aware of the possible underlying causes that may require specific treatment. By identifying red flags and conducting a thorough examination, providers can help ensure that patients receive appropriate care and management.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
-
-
Question 8
Incorrect
-
A 56-year-old patient presents to rheumatology with a complaint of bothersome dry eyes and dry mouth for the past year. The patient has a medical history of coeliac disease and adheres to a gluten-free diet. On examination, dry oral mucosa is noted, but there are no other significant findings. Blood tests reveal a positive antinuclear antibody and an elevated ESR. What is the most conclusive method for confirming the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer: Schirmer's test
Correct Answer: Salivary gland biopsy
Explanation:Salivary gland biopsy is the most reliable method for confirming a diagnosis of primary Sjogren’s syndrome, as it will reveal a characteristic lymphocytic infiltrate. This is particularly relevant for a patient presenting with dry eyes and mouth, elevated ESR, and a strongly positive antinuclear antibody, without any other connective tissue disease symptoms. While ENA testing may help subclassify the serology, it is not as specific as a lip biopsy. Similarly, while measuring salivary flow and conducting Schirmer’s test can aid in the diagnosis, they are not as definitive as a positive salivary gland biopsy.
Understanding Sjogren’s Syndrome
Sjogren’s syndrome is a medical condition that affects the exocrine glands, leading to dry mucosal surfaces. It can either be primary or secondary to other connective tissue disorders, such as rheumatoid arthritis. The condition is more common in females, with a ratio of 9:1. Patients with Sjogren’s syndrome have a higher risk of developing lymphoid malignancy, which is 40-60 times more likely than the general population.
The symptoms of Sjogren’s syndrome include dry eyes, dry mouth, vaginal dryness, arthralgia, Raynaud’s, myalgia, sensory polyneuropathy, recurrent episodes of parotitis, and subclinical renal tubular acidosis. To diagnose the condition, doctors may perform a Schirmer’s test to measure tear formation, as well as check for the presence of rheumatoid factor, ANA, anti-Ro (SSA) antibodies, and anti-La (SSB) antibodies.
Management of Sjogren’s syndrome involves the use of artificial saliva and tears, as well as medications like pilocarpine to stimulate saliva production. It is important for patients with Sjogren’s syndrome to receive regular medical care and monitoring to manage their symptoms and reduce the risk of complications.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
-
-
Question 9
Incorrect
-
A 67-year-old male presents to the emergency department with a 4-day history of haemoptysis, fever, and joint pains. He has a medical history of hypertension and chronic sinusitis, and takes amlodipine. He smokes 10 cigarettes daily and drinks wine 1-2x/week. He recently returned from a trip to Goa.
On examination, his heart rate is 101 beats per minute, blood pressure is 167/94 mmHg, oxygen saturations are 94%, respiratory rate is 21/minute, and temperature is 37.9ÂșC. Chest auscultation reveals scattered crackles and decreased air entry at the right base. There is mild tenderness and swelling at the wrists bilaterally. Abdominal examination is normal, and there is no peripheral oedema.
Urinalysis shows protein +++ and blood +++ but is negative for leucocytes, nitrites, and glucose. Blood tests reveal a low Hb level, elevated creatinine, and a high CRP level. A chest x-ray shows patchy airspace opacification in the lung fields bilaterally.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Churg-Strauss syndrome
Correct Answer: Granulomatosis with polyangiitis
Explanation:Consider ANCA associated vasculitis if the patient presents with renal impairment, respiratory symptoms, joint pain, and systemic features. In this case, the most likely diagnosis is granulomatosis with polyangiitis due to the patient’s haemoptysis, fever, polyarthralgia, potential glomerulonephritis, acute kidney injury, and pulmonary haemorrhage, with a background of sinusitis.
Goodpasture’s syndrome is less likely as it typically presents with pulmonary-renal syndrome without joint and sinus involvement.
Churg-Strauss syndrome is also less likely as the eosinophil count is normal, which essentially rules out this diagnosis. However, it can still cause a pulmonary-renal syndrome.
ANCA Associated Vasculitis: Types, Symptoms, and Management
ANCA associated vasculitis is a group of small-vessel vasculitides that are associated with anti-neutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (ANCA). These include granulomatosis with polyangiitis, eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis (Churg-Strauss syndrome), and microscopic polyangiitis. ANCA associated vasculitis is more common in older individuals and presents with symptoms such as renal impairment, respiratory symptoms, systemic symptoms, vasculitic rash, and ear, nose, and throat symptoms.
To diagnose ANCA associated vasculitis, first-line investigations include urinalysis for haematuria and proteinuria, blood tests for renal impairment, full blood count, CRP, and ANCA testing. There are two main types of ANCA – cytoplasmic (cANCA) and perinuclear (pANCA) – with cANCA being associated with granulomatosis with polyangiitis and pANCA being associated with eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis and other conditions.
Once suspected, ANCA associated vasculitis should be managed by specialist teams to allow an exact diagnosis to be made. The mainstay of management is immunosuppressive therapy. Kidney or lung biopsies may be taken to aid the diagnosis.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
-
-
Question 10
Correct
-
A 32-year-old teacher presented with a three week history of ankle pain, swelling, and stiffness. He also reported a cough and mild shortness of breath during physical activity. Upon examination, his ankles were warm, tender, and swollen. His chest appeared normal. Blood tests for FBC, U&E, and LFTs were all normal. Rheumatoid factor and anti-CCP antibodies were negative. However, his CRP was high at 38 mg/L, and his serum ACE was 133 units (normal range is 0-65 units). A chest X-ray revealed bilateral hilar lymphadenopathy and reticulonodular shadows in the lung fields. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Your Answer: Sarcoidosis
Explanation:Sarcoidosis: Symptoms, Signs, and Laboratory Results
Sarcoidosis is a medical condition that is characterized by the presence of bilateral hilar adenopathy, pulmonary fibrosis, and a high serum ACE level. Additionally, inflammatory arthritis in sarcoidosis typically targets the ankle joint. This condition is suggested by these symptoms, signs, and laboratory results.
Rheumatoid arthritis is unlikely as the patient is sero-negative for both rheumatoid factor and anti-CCP antibodies, and there is no involvement of the small joints of hands and feet. On the other hand, atypical pneumonia, lymphoma, and Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection do not lead to this constellation of symptoms, signs, and laboratory results.
In summary, the presence of bilateral hilar adenopathy, pulmonary fibrosis, high serum ACE level, and inflammatory arthritis targeting the ankle joint suggests the possibility of sarcoidosis. Other conditions such as rheumatoid arthritis, atypical pneumonia, lymphoma, and Mycobacterium tuberculosis infection can be ruled out based on the absence of specific symptoms, signs, and laboratory results.
-
This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
-
00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00
:
00
:
0
00
Session Time
00
:
00
Average Question Time (
Mins)