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Question 1
Correct
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A 65-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department after several episodes of vomiting bright red blood. He has presented to the same hospital in the past for spontaneous bacterial peritonitis, alcohol intoxication and peptic ulcer disease (PUD). The gastroenterology team review the patient and perform an urgent gastroscopy, which reveals several oesophageal varices.
Which of the following medications should be prescribed to this patient to reduce his chance of future variceal bleeding?Your Answer: Propranolol
Explanation:Medications for Alcoholic Liver Disease and Variceal Bleeding Prophylaxis
Secondary prophylaxis for variceal haemorrhage in patients with alcoholic liver disease involves the use of non-specific beta-blockers like nadolol and propranolol. These medications reduce portal inflow and prevent further episodes of variceal bleeding. However, it is important to initiate treatment at the lowest possible dose and monitor for complications such as bradycardia.
Omeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor commonly used for reflux and PUD, is not indicated for the management of variceal bleeding. Erythromycin, a macrolide antibiotic with prokinetic properties, has no role in secondary prophylaxis for variceal bleeding.
Atenolol, a cardioselective beta-blocker, is not the preferred choice for patients with oesophageal varices as it has limited effect on peripheral tissues. Instead, a non-selective beta-blocker is more appropriate.
H2 antagonists like ranitidine and cimetidine can be used as alternatives to proton pump inhibitors in some patients with reflux and PUD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 20-year-old man presents to his doctor with a yellowish tinge to his skin and eyes and a tremor in his right hand. He mentions that his family has noticed a change in his speech and have been teasing him about sounding drunk. Upon examination, the doctor notes the presence of hepatomegaly, Kayser-Fleischer rings, and the tremor. What is the probable reason for the man's jaundice?
Your Answer: Wilson’s disease
Explanation:Common Liver Disorders and Their Characteristics
Wilson’s Disease: A rare genetic disorder that results in copper deposition in various organs, including the liver, cornea, and basal ganglia of the brain. It typically presents in children with hepatic problems and young adults with neurological symptoms such as dysarthria, tremor, involuntary movements, and eventual dementia. Kayser-Fleischer rings may be present.
Alpha-1-Antitrypsin Deficiency: A genetic disorder that results in severe deficiency of A1AT, a protein that inhibits enzymes from inflammatory cells. This can lead to cirrhosis, but is typically associated with respiratory pathology and does not present with Kayser-Fleischer rings.
Haemochromatosis: A genetic disorder that results in iron overload and is typically described as bronze diabetes due to the bronzing of the skin and the common occurrence of diabetes mellitus in up to 80% of patients.
Primary Biliary Cholangitis: An autoimmune condition that typically presents in middle-aged females with itching, jaundice, and Sjögren’s syndrome.
Autoimmune Hepatitis: An autoimmune disorder that often affects young and middle-aged women and is associated with other autoimmune disorders. Around 80% of patients respond well to steroids.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 3
Correct
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A 30-year-old woman presents to the Outpatient Department with a few months’ history of increasing malaise, nausea and decreased appetite. She is a known intravenous drug user. During examination, she appears cachectic and unwell. Mild hepatomegaly and icterus of the sclerae are also noted. Blood tests reveal normal bilirubin, alkaline phosphatase (ALP) and γ-glutamyl transpeptidase (GT) levels and markedly deranged aspartate transaminase (AST) and alanine transaminase (ALT) levels. She cannot recall her hepatitis B immunisation status. Viral serology is conducted:
Test Patient
HBsAg +ve
Anti-HBsAg -ve
HBcAg +ve
IgM anti-HBcAg -ve
IgG anti-HBcAg +ve
HBeAg +ve
Anti-HBeAg -ve
What is the correct interpretation of this woman’s hepatitis B status?Your Answer: Chronic infection
Explanation:Understanding the serology of hepatitis B virus (HBV) is important for medical exams. HBV is a virus with an envelope and DNA, containing surface protein (HBsAg), core protein (HBcAg), and envelope protein (HBeAg). A positive HBsAg indicates acute or chronic infection, while anti-HBs-positive titres indicate previous immunisation or resolved HBV infection. Anti-HBc IgM rises after 2 months of inoculation and drops after 6 months, while anti-HBc IgG is positive after 4-6 months and remains positive for life, indicating chronic infection. HBeAg was thought to imply high infectivity, but an HBeAg-negative subtype is now recognised. Incubation period shows positive HBsAg, negative anti-HBsAg, presence of HBeAg, and negative IgM and IgG anti-HBcAg. Recovery shows positive anti-HBsAg and raised IgG anti-HBcAg with or without anti-HBeAg. Acute infection shows raised IgM anti-HBcAg with or without raised IgG anti-HBcAg. Recent vaccination shows positive anti-HBsAg.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old librarian presents with a 4-month history of abdominal discomfort and pain after consuming fatty meals. She undergoes an ultrasound of her gallbladder, which shows multiple stones.
What is the most frequent observation in an individual with gallstones?Your Answer: Right iliac fossa pain
Correct Answer: Asymptomatic gallstones
Explanation:Understanding Gallstone Symptoms and Complications
Gallstones are a common condition, but most patients with gallstones remain asymptomatic throughout their lives. Gallstones can be categorized by their composition, with cholesterol stones being the most common type. Gallstones are often detected incidentally on imaging, so a good history is imperative to assess if the patient’s symptoms are related to the gallstones. Obstructive jaundice with a palpable gallbladder is unlikely to result from gallstones, but rather from carcinoma of the head of the pancreas causing an obstruction to biliary outflow. Pain in the right iliac fossa is more consistent with appendicitis, while pain radiating to the left shoulder tip is not a common finding in patients with gallstones. Gallbladder carcinoma is a rare complication of gallstone disease. Understanding these symptoms and complications can aid in the diagnosis and management of gallstone disease.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man with end-stage liver disease is admitted with a painful, distended abdomen. Examination findings: generalised abdominal tenderness and ascites. Temperature 37.5 °C.
Which intervention should be undertaken first?Your Answer: Therapeutic paracentesis
Correct Answer: Diagnostic ascitic tap
Explanation:Management of Ascites: Importance of Prompt Investigation and Treatment of Spontaneous Bacterial Peritonitis
Ascites is a common complication in patients with end-stage liver disease and poor synthetic function. Spontaneous bacterial peritonitis (SBP) is a serious complication that can occur in these patients, leading to a high mortality rate. Prompt investigation and treatment are crucial in managing ascites and preventing SBP.
Diagnostic paracentesis tap should be performed promptly in any patient presenting with ascites, regardless of the time of day. A broad-spectrum antibiotic should be given immediately if there is a raised cell count consistent with SBP. Once SBP has been excluded or treated, therapeutic paracentesis may be considered for patients with large, tense, or resistant ascites.
During a diagnostic tap, various investigations should be performed, including cell count, microscopy, culture and sensitivity, cytology, protein and albumin, lactate dehydrogenase, glucose, and amylase. Additional investigations may be indicated based on the patient’s condition.
The most common cause of SBP is Escherichia coli, and oral ciprofloxacin or co-amoxiclav are recommended as first-line agents. Intravenous cephalosporins may be used if the patient is unwell. However, a diagnosis of SBP should be confirmed before starting treatment.
First-line medical management of ascites is spironolactone, which achieves better clinical results than furosemide. Furosemide may be used in conjunction with spironolactone in resistant ascites or where potassium rises due to spironolactone.
In summary, prompt investigation and treatment of ascites are crucial in managing SBP and preventing complications. A diagnostic paracentesis tap should be performed promptly, and appropriate investigations and treatment should be initiated based on the patient’s condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old professional who is working long hours develops intermittent periods of abdominal pain and bloating. She also notices a change in bowel habit and finds that going to the restroom helps to relieve her abdominal pain.
Which of the following drug treatments may help in the treatment of her colic and bloating symptoms?Your Answer: Loperamide
Correct Answer: Mebeverine
Explanation:Treatment Options for Irritable Bowel Syndrome (IBS)
Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a common functional bowel disorder that affects mostly young adults, with women being more commonly affected than men. The diagnosis of IBS can be established using the Rome IV criteria, which includes recurrent abdominal pain or discomfort for at least one day per week in the last three months, along with two or more of the following: improvement with defecation, onset associated with a change in frequency of stool, or onset associated with a change in form (appearance) of the stool.
There are several treatment options available for IBS, depending on the predominant symptoms. Mebeverine, an antispasmodic, can be used to relieve colicky abdominal pain. Loperamide can be useful for patients with diarrhea-predominant IBS (IBS-D), while osmotic laxatives such as macrogols are preferred for constipation-predominant IBS (IBS-C). Cimetidine, a histamine H2 receptor antagonist, can help with acid reflux symptoms, but is unlikely to help with colic or bloating. Metoclopramide, a D2 dopamine receptor antagonist, is used as an antiemetic and prokinetic, but is not effective for colic and bloating symptoms.
In summary, treatment options for IBS depend on the predominant symptoms and can include antispasmodics, laxatives, and acid reflux medications. It is important to consult with a healthcare provider to determine the best course of treatment for each individual patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 20-year old man presents to the Surgical Assessment Unit complaining of sudden onset abdominal pain. What physical examination finding is most indicative of a possible diagnosis of appendicitis?
Your Answer: Tenderness over McBurney’s point
Explanation:Common Abdominal Exam Findings and Their Significance
Abdominal exams are an important part of diagnosing various medical conditions. Here are some common findings and their significance:
Tenderness over McBurney’s point: This is a sign of possible appendicitis. McBurney’s point is located a third of the way from the right anterior superior iliac spine to the umbilicus.
Grey–Turner’s sign: Flank bruising is a sign of retroperitoneal hemorrhage, which is commonly associated with acute pancreatitis.
Murphy’s sign: This suggests cholecystitis. The examiner places their hand below the right costal margin and the tender gallbladder moves inferiorly on inhalation, causing the patient to catch their breath.
Tinkling bowel sounds: High-pitched, ‘tinkling’ bowel sounds are typically associated with mechanical bowel obstruction.
Absent bowel sounds: This is suggestive of paralytic ileus, which most commonly occurs after abdominal surgery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman has chronic pancreatitis. She has lost weight and has troublesome diarrhoea. She reports that she has had diarrhoea daily and it has a strong, malodorous smell. The unintentional weight loss is 7 kg over the last year and she has had a general decrease in energy.
Which preparation would be most suitable to decrease her diarrhoea?Your Answer: Loperamide
Correct Answer: Pancreatin
Explanation:Common Gastrointestinal Medications and Their Uses
Pancreatin is a mixture of digestive enzymes that aid in the digestion of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins. It is used in conditions where there is a lack of pancreatic enzyme production, such as cystic fibrosis and chronic pancreatitis. Pancreatin should be taken with meals and may cause side-effects such as nausea and hypersensitivity.
Co-phenotrope is a combination drug that controls the consistency of faeces following ileostomy or colostomy formation and in acute diarrhoea. It is composed of diphenoxylate and atropine and may cause side-effects such as abdominal pain and lethargy.
Cholestyramine binds bile in the gastrointestinal tract, preventing its reabsorption. It is used in conditions such as hypercholesterolaemia and primary biliary cholangitis. Side-effects may include constipation and nausea.
Loperamide is an antimotility agent used in acute diarrhoea. It may cause side-effects such as constipation and nausea.
Psyllium, also known as ispaghula, is a bulk-forming laxative that aids in normal bowel elimination. It is mainly used as a laxative but may also be used to treat mild diarrhoea.
Understanding Common Gastrointestinal Medications
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents with acute right upper quadrant abdominal pain and vomiting, which started earlier today.
On examination, the patient is not jaundiced and there is mild tenderness in the right upper quadrant and epigastrium. The blood results are as follows:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 130 g/l 115–155 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 14 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 138 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.0 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Urea 6.0 mmol/l 2.5–6.5 mmol/l
Creatinine 70 μmmol/l 50–120 μmol/l
Bilirubin 25 mmol/l 2–17 mmol/l
Alkaline phosphatase 120 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 40 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
Amylase 200 U/l < 200 U/l
Which of the following is the most appropriate management plan?Your Answer: Analgesia, iv fluids, antiemetics, US abdomen
Correct Answer: Analgesia, intravenous (iv) fluids, iv antibiotics, ultrasound (US) abdomen
Explanation:The patient is suspected to have acute cholecystitis, and a confirmation of the diagnosis will rely on an ultrasound scan of the abdomen. To manage the patient’s symptoms and prevent sepsis, it is essential to administer intravenous antibiotics and fluids. Antiemetics may also be necessary to prevent dehydration from vomiting. It is recommended to keep the patient ‘nil by mouth’ until the scan is performed and consider prescribing analgesia for pain relief. An NG tube is not necessary at this stage, and an OGD or ERCP may be appropriate depending on the scan results. The NICE guidelines recommend cholecystectomy within a week of diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 55-year-old man presents to the Emergency Department after vomiting bright red blood multiple times over the past four hours. He has a history of alcohol abuse and has been diagnosed with spontaneous bacterial peritonitis in the past. He currently consumes 4-5 pints of beer daily and has a poor compliance with his medication regimen, resulting in missed appointments and discharge from outpatient follow-up. On examination, he has dry mucous membranes, palmar erythema, and hepatomegaly. His vital signs are as follows: temperature 36.6°C, blood pressure 113/67 mmHg, respiratory rate 21 breaths per minute, heart rate 100 beats per minute, and SpO2 99% on room air. The patient is resuscitated with aggressive intravenous fluids, and the gastroenterology team is consulted. They suspect bleeding oesophageal varices and perform an upper gastrointestinal endoscopy, which confirms the diagnosis. The varices are banded, and bleeding is significantly reduced.
Which medication is most likely to prevent further episodes of oesophageal varices in this 55-year-old patient?Your Answer: Propranolol
Explanation:Medications for Secondary Prevention of Variceal Hemorrhage
Variceal hemorrhage is a serious complication of portal hypertension, which can be prevented by using certain medications. Non-selective beta-blockers like nadolol or propranolol are commonly used for secondary prevention of variceal hemorrhage. They work by blocking dilatory tone of the mesenteric arterioles, resulting in unopposed vasoconstriction and therefore a decrease in portal inflow. Selective beta-blockers are not effective in reducing portal hypertension. The dose of the non-selective beta-blocker should be titrated to achieve a resting heart rate of between 55 and 60 beats per minute. Ciprofloxacin is another medication used in prophylaxis of spontaneous bacterial peritonitis in high-risk patients. However, it is not effective in preventing variceal bleeding. Proton-pump inhibitors (PPIs) like omeprazole are used in the treatment of gastric reflux and peptic ulcer disease, but they have little impact on portal hypertension and are not indicated in the prophylaxis of variceal bleeding. Similarly, ranitidine, a histamine-2 receptor antagonist, is not likely to help prevent further episodes of variceal bleeding.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A patient presents with jaundice. The following results are available:
HBsAg +ve, HBeAg +ve, HBeAb −ve, HBc IgM +ve
Which one of the following interpretations is correct for a patient who is slightly older?Your Answer: Chronic hepatitis B with low infectivity
Correct Answer: Chronic hepatitis B with high infectivity
Explanation:Understanding Hepatitis B Test Results
Hepatitis B is a viral infection that affects the liver. Testing for hepatitis B involves several blood tests that can provide information about the patient’s current infection status, susceptibility to the virus, and immunity. Here are some key points to understand about hepatitis B test results:
Chronic Hepatitis B with High Infectivity
If a patient tests positive for HBsAg and HBeAg, it indicates a current infection with high infectivity. This means that the virus is highly active and can easily spread to others.Susceptible to Hepatitis B
If a patient tests negative for HBsAg, anti-HBc, IgM anti-HBc, and anti-HBs, it indicates that they are susceptible to hepatitis B and have not been infected or vaccinated against it.Chronic Hepatitis B with Low Infectivity
If a patient tests positive for HBeAg but negative for HBeAb, it indicates a chronic carrier state with low infectivity. This means that the virus is less active and less likely to spread to others.Previous Immunisation Against Hepatitis B
If a patient tests positive for HBV surface antibody, it indicates immunity to hepatitis B either through vaccination or natural infection. However, if they also test positive for HBsAg and HBeAg, it indicates an active infection rather than immunisation.Natural Immunity Against Hepatitis B
If a patient tests positive for HBV surface antibody, it indicates immunity to hepatitis B either through vaccination or natural infection. This means that they have been exposed to the virus in the past and have developed immunity to it. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 54-year-old man with a lengthy history of alcoholic cirrhosis reported experiencing intense dysphagia and a burning sensation in his retrosternal area. While performing an oesophagoscopy, the endoscopist inserted the endoscope until it reached the oesophageal hiatus of the diaphragm.
At which vertebral level is it most probable that the endoscope tip reached?Your Answer: T10
Explanation:Vertebral Levels and Their Corresponding Anatomical Structures
T10 vertebral level is where the oesophageal hiatus is located, allowing the oesophagus and branches of the vagus to pass through. T7 vertebral level corresponds to the inferior angle of the scapula and where the hemiazygos veins cross the midline to reach the azygos vein. The caval opening, which is traversed by the inferior vena cava, is found at T8 vertebral level. T9 is the level of the xiphoid process. Finally, the aortic hiatus, which is traversed by the descending aorta, azygos and hemiazygos veins, and the thoracic duct, is located at T12 vertebral level. Understanding these anatomical structures and their corresponding vertebral levels is important in clinical practice.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 13
Correct
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A dishevelled-looking 70-year-old woman is admitted from a nursing home following a fall. Her son indicates that she has become increasingly forgetful over the last 2 months. She has had diarrhoea for the last 3 weeks, thought to be related to an outbreak of norovirus at her nursing home, and has been vomiting occasionally. On examination you notice a scaly red rash on her neck and hands.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Pellagra
Explanation:Comparison of Different Medical Conditions
Pellagra: A Serious Condition Caused by Niacin Deficiency
Pellagra is a severe medical condition that can lead to death if left untreated. It is characterized by three classical features, including diarrhoea, dermatitis, and dementia. The condition is caused by a deficiency of niacin, which is required for all cellular processes in the body. Pellagra can also develop due to a deficiency of tryptophan, which can be converted to niacin. Treatment for pellagra involves vitamin replacement with nicotinamide.
Scurvy: Bleeding Gums and Muscle Pains
Scurvy is a medical condition that can cause red dots on the skin, but it typically presents with bleeding gums and muscle pains. The condition is caused by a deficiency of vitamin C, which is required for the synthesis of collagen in the body. Treatment for scurvy involves vitamin C replacement.
Post-Infective Lactose Intolerance: Bloating and Abdominal Discomfort
Post-infective lactose intolerance is a medical condition that typically presents after gastrointestinal infections. It can cause bloating, belching, and abdominal discomfort, as well as loose stool. However, the history of skin changes and forgetfulness would point more towards pellagra.
Depression: Not Related to Skin Changes or Diarrhoea/Vomiting
Depression is a medical condition that can cause a range of symptoms, including low mood, loss of interest, and fatigue. However, it is not related to skin changes or diarrhoea/vomiting.
Systemic Lupus Erythematosus (SLE): Painful Swollen Joints and Red ‘Butterfly’ Rash
SLE is a medical condition that typically presents with painful swollen joints and a red ‘butterfly’ rash over the face. Other common symptoms include fever, mouth ulcers, and fatigue.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 14
Correct
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A 50-year-old man, with a history of chronic alcohol abuse, presents to the Emergency Department with pain in the right and left upper quadrants. He has had bouts of abdominal pain in the past year. For the past month, he has had more frequent and worsening abdominal pain. Physical examination reveals right upper and left upper quadrant pain with guarding. An abdominal plain film radiograph reveals no free air, but there is an extensive peritoneal fluid collection, along with dilated loops of the small bowel. An abdominal computed tomography (CT) scan reveals a 6- to 7-cm cystic mass in the tail of the pancreas.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Pancreatic pseudocyst
Explanation:Differentiating Pancreatic Conditions: Pseudocysts, Adenocarcinoma, Islet Cell Adenoma, Acute Pancreatitis, and Metastatic Carcinoma
Pancreatic pseudocysts are collections of necrotic-haemorrhagic material that lack an epithelial lining and account for 75% of cysts in the pancreas. They often occur after an episode of acute pancreatitis or traumatic injury to the abdomen.
Pancreatic adenocarcinoma, on the other hand, is a solid mass that is not related to alcoholism. It usually develops in the head of the gland and is characterised by hard, stellate, poorly defined masses.
Islet cell adenomas, which are often non-functional, are not cystic and can be difficult to image due to their small size. However, some may secrete hormones such as insulin or gastrin.
Acute pancreatitis is a reversible inflammation of the pancreas that ranges in severity from oedema and fat necrosis to severe haemorrhage and parenchymal necrosis. It is a medical emergency characterised by sudden severe pain in the abdomen.
Finally, metastatic carcinoma is characterised by multiple solid masses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 15
Correct
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You see a 40-year-old office worker in General Practice who is concerned about gaining extra weight. He tells you that he is currently very mindful of his diet and avoids any ‘unhealthy foods’. He meticulously counts calories for all meals and snacks and refrains from consuming anything for which he cannot find calorie information. He would like to know the recommended daily calorie intake for an average man to prevent weight gain.
What is the recommended daily calorie intake for an average man?Your Answer: 2500 kcal
Explanation:Understanding Daily Calorie Intake Recommendations
The daily recommended calorie intake for men is approximately 2500 kcal, while for women it is around 2000 kcal. However, these are just guidelines and can vary based on factors such as age, BMI, muscle mass, and activity levels. In addition to calorie intake, the government also recommends specific daily intake levels for macronutrients, including protein, fat, carbohydrates, and dietary fiber, as well as limits for saturated fat, free sugars, and salt.
For weight loss in an average male with a normal activity level, a daily intake of 1500 kcal is recommended. However, an intake of 1800 kcal may be too low to maintain weight in the same individual. For females aged 19-64, the daily recommended calorie intake is 2000 kcal. For maintenance of body weight in the average male, a daily intake of 2500 kcal is recommended, but this may vary for larger individuals, those with higher muscle mass, or those who are highly active. Understanding these recommendations can help individuals make informed choices about their daily diet and overall health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old female patient complains of a slow onset of difficulty swallowing both solids and liquids. An upper GI endoscopy shows no abnormalities, and there is no visible swelling in the neck. A preliminary psychiatric evaluation reveals no issues. The on-call junior doctor suspects a psychological or functional cause. What signs would indicate an organic origin for the dysphagia?
Your Answer: Malar rash
Correct Answer: Raynaud's phenomenon
Explanation:The relationship between Raynaud’s phenomenon and dysphagia is important in identifying potential underlying systemic diseases such as scleroderma. Raynaud’s phenomenon is a common symptom found in scleroderma, a systemic disease that can cause dysphagia and oesophageal dysmotility. While Raynaud’s phenomenon may be the only early manifestation of scleroderma, gastrointestinal involvement can also occur in the early stages. Therefore, the combination of Raynaud’s phenomenon with oesophageal symptoms should prompt further investigation for scleroderma.
Arthritis is not a specific cause of dysphagia-related illness, although it may occur in a variety of diseases. In scleroderma, arthralgia is more common than arthritis. Globus pharyngeus, the sensation of having something stuck in the throat, can cause severe distress, but despite extensive investigation, there is no known cause. Malar rash, found in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), is not associated with dysphagia. Weakness is a non-specific symptom that may be a manifestation of psychiatric illness or malnutrition as a consequence of dysphagia, and cannot guide further management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man presents at the outpatient clinic with altered bowel habit and occasional per rectum bleeding for the past 3 months. During examination, he experiences tenderness on the left iliac fossa and is unable to tolerate a pr examination. His liver function tests at the general practice surgery showed an elevated alkaline phosphatase (ALP) level. Based on these symptoms, which of the following autoantibody screen findings is most likely?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Raised anti-smooth muscle antibody (ASMA)
Explanation:Interpreting Autoantibody Results in a Patient with Abnormal Liver Function Tests and Colitis-like Symptoms
The patient in question presents with abnormal liver function tests and colitis-like symptoms, including bloody stools and tenderness in the left iliac fossa. The following autoantibody results were obtained:
– Raised anti-smooth muscle antibody (ASMA): This suggests the possibility of inflammatory bowel disease, particularly ulcerative colitis (UC), which is strongly associated with primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC). PSC is characterized by immunologically mediated inflammation of the bile ducts, leading to obstruction and a cholestatic pattern of liver dysfunction. ASMA and p-ANCA are often elevated in PSC, and an isolated rise in alkaline phosphatase (ALP) is common.
– Raised anti-mitochondrial antibody (AMA): This enzyme is typically detected in primary biliary cholangitis (PBC), which causes destruction of the intrahepatic bile ducts and a cholestatic pattern of jaundice. However, given the patient’s gender and coexisting UC, PBC is less likely than PSC as a cause of the elevated ALP.
– Raised anti-endomysial antibody: This is associated with coeliac disease, which can cause chronic inflammation of the small intestine and malabsorption. However, the patient’s symptoms do not strongly suggest this diagnosis.
– Negative result for systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) antibodies: SLE is not clinically suspected based on the patient’s history.
– Raised anti-Jo antibody: This is associated with polymyositis and dermatomyositis, which are not suspected in this patient.In summary, the patient’s autoantibody results suggest a possible diagnosis of PSC in the context of UC and liver dysfunction. Further imaging studies, such as ERCP or MRCP, may be necessary to confirm this diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man presents to his GP with a complaint of difficulty swallowing that has been occurring for the past four weeks. He reports that solid foods are particularly problematic and feel as though they are getting stuck. The patient has a medical history of hypertension and osteoarthritis of the knees, for which he takes amlodipine 5 mg OD and paracetamol 1 g as required respectively. He has a 20-pack year smoking history but does not consume alcohol. On examination, the patient appears well at rest and has a normal body habitus. Abdominal examination is largely unremarkable, except for some mild epigastric discomfort. What is the most appropriate next step in management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer to gastroenterology for OGD (oesophago-gastro-duodenoscopy) under the 2-week wait criteria
Explanation:Recognizing Red Flags for Oesophageal Cancer: Referring for OGD under the 2-Week Wait Criteria
When a patient presents with subacute and first-onset dysphagia limited to solids, it suggests a new mass obstructing the oesophagus. This symptom is a red flag for oesophageal cancer, and a 2-week wait referral for OGD is necessary to prevent a delay in diagnosis. If abnormal tissue is found during the OGD, biopsies will be taken for histological analysis to confirm the diagnosis.
PPI therapy and review in a month is not appropriate for dysphagia, as it may delay a potential cancer diagnosis. Emergency hospital admission is unnecessary, as the patient is not acutely unstable. Routine outpatient gastrointestinal appointment is appropriate, but it must be performed within two weeks in accordance with the UK’s referral guidelines for potential cancer diagnoses. Acute specialist care of the elderly clinic referral is not necessary, as the patient’s age alone does not indicate a need for geriatric care.
It is important to explain to the patient that while cancer is a possibility, there may be other explanations as well. Encouraging a step-by-step approach and informing the patient that the specialist who conducts the OGD will explain things in more detail when consenting them for the procedure is appropriate. The full criteria for a 2-week wait referral for OGD includes new-onset dysphagia at any age, and additional criteria for patients over 55 years old with weight loss, epigastric abdominal pain, dyspepsia, reflux, or a history of Barrett’s oesophagus.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 36-year-old man complained of abdominal pain and weight loss. Upon investigation, he was diagnosed with coeliac disease. The biopsy of his small intestine revealed blunting of villi with crypt hyperplasia and intraepithelial lymphocytes ++. What is the stage of his disease?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: III
Explanation:The Marsh Criteria: A Morphological Classification of Coeliac Disease Biopsy
Coeliac disease is a condition that affects the small intestine, causing damage to the lining and leading to malabsorption of nutrients. The Marsh criteria is a morphological classification system used to diagnose coeliac disease through intestinal biopsy.
The classification system consists of four stages, with stage 0 indicating a normal biopsy and stage IV indicating total villous atrophy. In between, stages I-III show varying degrees of damage to the duodenal villi, intraepithelial lymphocytes, and crypts.
Recently, the Marsh-Oberhuber classification was introduced, which subdivides stage III into three classes based on the degree of villous atrophy. Stage IV has been eliminated from this modified version.
In coeliac disease and other inflammatory conditions, such as milk protein allergy, the pattern of intraepithelial lymphocytes may be reversed. In stage I disease, only increased intraepithelial lymphocytes would be seen on biopsy, while stage 0 would appear normal. Class II disease would show normal duodenal villi, and stage IV would be associated with crypt atrophy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of a burning sensation in her chest after eating meals for the past 2 months. She explains that this pain usually occurs after consuming heavy meals and can keep her up at night. Despite trying over-the-counter antacids, she has found little relief. The pain is retrosternal, without radiation, and is not aggravated by physical activity. She denies any difficulty or pain while swallowing and has not experienced any weight loss. She is worried that she may be having a heart attack every time this happens as both her parents died from coronary artery disease. She has no other medical conditions and is not taking any regular medications. An ECG reveals normal sinus rhythm without ischaemic changes. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD)
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Retrosternal Pain: GORD, PUD, MI, Pancreatitis, and Pericarditis
When a patient presents with retrosternal pain, it is important to consider various differential diagnoses. In this case, the patient’s pain is burning in nature and occurs in the postprandial period, making gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) a likely diagnosis. Other common manifestations of GORD include hypersalivation, globus sensation, and laryngitis. However, if the patient had any ‘alarm’ symptoms, such as weight loss or difficulty swallowing, further investigation would be necessary.
Peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is another potential cause of deep epigastric pain, especially in patients with risk factors such as Helicobacter pylori infection, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory use, and alcoholism.
Myocardial infarction (MI) is less likely in this case, as the patient’s pain does not worsen with exertion and is not accompanied by other cardiac symptoms. Additionally, the patient’s ECG is normal.
Pancreatitis typically presents with abdominal pain that radiates to the back, particularly in patients with gallstones or a history of alcoholism. The patient’s non-radiating, retrosternal burning pain is not consistent with pancreatitis.
Pericarditis is characterized by pleuritic chest pain that is aggravated by inspiration and lying flat, but relieved by sitting forward. Widespread ST-segment elevation on electrocardiogram is also common. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatories are typically used as first-line treatment.
In summary, a thorough consideration of the patient’s symptoms and risk factors can help narrow down the potential causes of retrosternal pain and guide appropriate diagnostic and treatment strategies.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 21
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old woman has been referred to a Gastroenterologist by her General Practitioner due to epigastric discomfort and the development of jaundice over several months. The patient reports no pain but has experienced unintentional weight loss. During examination, no abdominal tenderness or mass is detected. Serology results indicate that the patient has recently been diagnosed with diabetes. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pancreatic carcinoma
Explanation:Differentiating between Gastrointestinal Conditions
When presented with a patient experiencing symptoms such as weight loss, jaundice, and epigastric discomfort, it is important to consider various gastrointestinal conditions that may be causing these symptoms. One possible diagnosis is pancreatic carcinoma, which is often associated with painless jaundice and the development of diabetes. Hepatitis, caused by viral infection or excessive alcohol intake, can also lead to liver cancer. Chronic pancreatitis, typically caused by alcohol misuse, can result in pain and dysfunction of the pancreas. Gastritis, on the other hand, is often caused by prolonged use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs or infection with Helicobacter pylori, and can lead to gastric ulcers and bleeding. Finally, hepatocellular carcinoma can be caused by chronic hepatitis B or C, or chronic excessive alcohol intake. Proper diagnosis and treatment of these conditions is crucial for the patient’s health and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man who has recently had a gastrectomy is informed that he will experience a deficiency in vitamin B12. What is the probable physiological reasoning behind this?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Loss of intrinsic factors
Explanation:Effects of Gastrectomy on Nutrient Absorption and Digestion
Gastrectomy, whether partial or complete, can have significant effects on nutrient absorption and digestion. One of the most important consequences is the loss of intrinsic factors, which are necessary for the absorption of vitamin B12 in the ileum. Intrinsic factor is produced by the gastric parietal cells, which are mostly found in the body of the stomach. Without intrinsic factor, vitamin B12 cannot be absorbed and stored in the liver, leading to megaloblastic anemia and potentially serious complications such as dilated cardiomyopathy or subacute degeneration of the spinal cord.
Another consequence of gastrectomy is the loss of storage ability, which can cause early satiety and abdominal bloating after meals. This is due to the fact that the stomach is no longer able to hold as much food as before, and the remaining small intestine has to compensate for the missing stomach volume.
Achlorohydria is another common problem after gastrectomy, as the parietal cells that produce hydrochloric acid are also lost. This can lead to a range of symptoms such as abdominal bloating, diarrhea, indigestion, weight loss, malabsorption, and bacterial overgrowth of the small intestine.
Failed gastric emptying is not a major concern after gastrectomy, as it is unlikely to cause vitamin B12 deficiency. However, increased upper GI gut transit can affect the rate of nutrient absorption and lead to symptoms such as diarrhea and weight loss. Overall, gastrectomy can have significant effects on nutrient absorption and digestion, and patients should be closely monitored for any signs of malnutrition or complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department (ED) with chest and abdominal pain, following three days of severe vomiting secondary to gastroenteritis. She reports pain being worse on swallowing and feels short of breath. On examination, she looks unwell and has a heart rate of 105 bpm, a blood pressure of 110/90 mmHg, a respiratory rate of 22 breaths/minute and a temperature of 38 °C. Boerhaave syndrome is suspected.
What is the most appropriate initial investigation, given the suspected diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Chest X-ray
Explanation:Appropriate Investigations for Suspected Oesophageal Rupture
Suspected oesophageal rupture, also known as Boerhaave syndrome, is a medical emergency that requires rapid diagnosis and treatment. The condition is often associated with vomiting, chest pain, and subcutaneous emphysema. The following are appropriate investigations for suspected oesophageal rupture:
Chest X-ray: This is the initial investigation to look for gas within soft tissue spaces, pneumomediastinum, left pleural effusion, and left pneumothorax. If there is high clinical suspicion, further imaging with CT scanning should be arranged.
Abdominal X-ray: This may be appropriate if there are concerns regarding the cause of vomiting, to look for signs of obstruction, but would not be useful in the diagnosis of an oesophageal rupture.
Barium swallow: This may be useful in the work-up of a suspected oesophageal rupture after a chest X-ray. However, it would not be the most appropriate initial investigation.
Blood cultures: These would be appropriate to rule out systemic bacterial infection. However, they would not help to confirm Boerhaave syndrome.
Endoscopy: While endoscopy may play a role in some cases, it should be used with caution to prevent the risk of further and/or worsening perforation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 23-year-old woman developed sudden-onset, severe epigastric pain 12 hours ago. She subsequently began having episodes of nausea and vomiting, especially after trying to eat or drink. The pain now feels more generalised, and even slight movement makes it worse. She has diminished bowel sounds and exquisite tenderness in the mid-epigastrium with rebound tenderness and board-like rigidity. Her pulse is 110 bpm and blood pressure 130/75. She reports taking ibuprofen for dysmenorrhoea. She had last taken ibuprofen the day before the pain began.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Perforated peptic ulcer
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Abdominal Pain: Perforated Peptic Ulcer
Abdominal pain can have various causes, and it is important to consider the differential diagnosis to determine the appropriate treatment. In this case, the patient’s use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) suggests a possible perforated peptic ulcer as the cause of her symptoms.
Perforated peptic ulcer is a serious complication of peptic ulcer disease that can result from the use of NSAIDs. The patient’s symptoms, including increasing generalised abdominal pain that is worse on moving, rebound tenderness, and board-like rigidity, are classic signs of generalised peritonitis. These symptoms suggest urgent surgical review and definitive surgical management.
Other possible causes of abdominal pain, such as acute gastritis, acute pancreatitis, appendicitis, and cholecystitis, have been considered but are less likely based on the patient’s symptoms. It is important to consider the differential diagnosis carefully to ensure appropriate treatment and avoid potential complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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Olivia is a 15-year-old girl presenting with abdominal pains. The abdominal pain was around her lower abdomen and is crampy in nature and occasionally radiates to her back. Her pain normally comes on approximately before the onset of her period. She also feels increasingly fatigued during this period. No abdominal pains were noted outside of this menstrual period. Olivia has no significant medical history. She denies any recent changes in her diet or bowel habits. She has not experienced any recent weight loss or rectal bleeding. She denies any family history of inflammatory bowel disease or colon cancer. Given the likely diagnosis, what is the likely 1st line treatment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mefenamic acid
Explanation:Primary dysmenorrhoea is likely the cause of the patient’s abdominal pain, as it occurs around the time of her menstrual cycle and there are no other accompanying symptoms. Since the patient is not sexually active and has no risk factors, a pelvic ultrasound may not be necessary to diagnose primary dysmenorrhoea. The first line of treatment for this condition is NSAIDs, such as mefenamic acid, ibuprofen, or naproxen, which work by reducing the amount of prostaglandins in the body and thereby reducing the severity of pain.
Dysmenorrhoea is a condition where women experience excessive pain during their menstrual period. There are two types of dysmenorrhoea: primary and secondary. Primary dysmenorrhoea affects up to 50% of menstruating women and is not caused by any underlying pelvic pathology. It usually appears within 1-2 years of the menarche and is thought to be partially caused by excessive endometrial prostaglandin production. Symptoms include suprapubic cramping pains that may radiate to the back or down the thigh, and pain typically starts just before or within a few hours of the period starting. NSAIDs such as mefenamic acid and ibuprofen are effective in up to 80% of women, and combined oral contraceptive pills are used second line for management.
Secondary dysmenorrhoea, on the other hand, typically develops many years after the menarche and is caused by an underlying pathology. The pain usually starts 3-4 days before the onset of the period. Causes of secondary dysmenorrhoea include endometriosis, adenomyosis, pelvic inflammatory disease, intrauterine devices, and fibroids. Clinical Knowledge Summaries recommend referring all patients with secondary dysmenorrhoea to gynaecology for investigation. It is important to note that the intrauterine system (Mirena) may help dysmenorrhoea, but this only applies to normal copper coils.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man experiences vomiting of bright red blood following an episode of heavy drinking. The medical team suspects a duodenal ulcer that is bleeding. Which blood vessel is the most probable source of the bleeding?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gastroduodenal artery
Explanation:Arteries of the Stomach and Duodenum: Potential Sites of Haemorrhage
The gastrointestinal tract is supplied by a network of arteries that can be vulnerable to erosion and haemorrhage in cases of ulceration. Here are some of the key arteries of the stomach and duodenum to be aware of:
Gastroduodenal artery: This branch of the common hepatic artery travels to the first part of the duodenum, where duodenal ulcers often occur. If the ulceration erodes through the gastroduodenal artery, it can cause a catastrophic haemorrhage and present as haematemesis.
Left gastric artery: Arising from the coeliac artery, the left gastric artery supplies the distal oesophagus and the lesser curvature of the stomach. Gastric ulceration can cause erosion of this artery and lead to a massive haemorrhage.
Left gastroepiploic artery: This artery arises from the splenic artery and runs along the greater curvature of the stomach. If there is gastric ulceration, it can be eroded and lead to a massive haemorrhage.
Right gastroepiploic artery: Arising from the gastroduodenal artery, the right gastroepiploic artery runs along the greater curvature of the stomach and anastomoses with the left gastroepiploic artery.
Short gastric arteries: These branches arise from the splenic artery and supply the fundus of the stomach, passing through the gastrosplenic ligament.
Knowing the potential sites of haemorrhage in the gastrointestinal tract can help clinicians to identify and manage cases of bleeding effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman has been visiting her doctor frequently over the past year due to recurring episodes of abdominal cramps and diarrhoea. She is concerned about the possibility of bowel cancer, as her father passed away from it at the age of 86. She has no other relevant family history. She also mentions that she needs a refill for her salbutamol inhaler, which she takes for her recently diagnosed asthma. Additionally, she has noticed an increase in hot flashes and wonders if she is experiencing early menopause. She has lost some weight, which she attributes to her healthy diet. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gastrointestinal neuroendocrine tumour (NET)
Explanation:Diagnosis and Management of Gastrointestinal Neuroendocrine Tumour (NET)
A patient presenting with symptoms of diarrhoea, wheezing, and flushing may have a gastrointestinal neuroendocrine tumour (NET), also known as carcinoid syndrome. It is important to consider NET in the differential diagnosis, even in relatively young patients, as the average delay in diagnosis is 2-3 years.
Appropriate investigations include routine blood tests, gut hormone measurement, 24-hour urinary 5-hydroxyindoleacetic acid (5-HIAA) measurement, cross-sectional imaging, and gastrointestinal endoscopy. Management options include somatostatin analogues, peptide receptor radiotargeted therapy (PRRT), and molecularly targeted treatments such as sunitinib or everolimus.
Health/illness-related anxiety, or hypochondriasis, should be a diagnosis of exclusion, and physical causes should be addressed first. Irritable bowel syndrome may cause similar symptoms, but without hot flashes or asthma. Colorectal or gastric adenocarcinoma may also be considered, but the symptoms are more consistent with a NET.
Most gastrointestinal NETs are low grade, and even in metastatic disease, the median overall survival is around 10 years. Early diagnosis and appropriate management can improve outcomes for patients with NET.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old General Practice manager is referred to the Gastroenterology Clinic with a 2-year history of gastroenterological complaints. The patient reports abdominal bloating, especially after meals and in the evenings, and alternating symptoms of diarrhoea and constipation. She also has a history of anxiety and is currently very busy at work – she feels this is also having an impact on her symptoms, as her symptoms tend to settle when she is on leave.
Which one of the following features in the clinical history would point towards a likely organic cause of abdominal pain (ie non-functional) diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Unexplained weight loss
Explanation:Understanding Irritable Bowel Syndrome Symptoms and Red Flags
Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a complex condition that can manifest in various ways. Some common symptoms include tenesmus, abdominal bloating, mucous per rectum, relief of symptoms on defecation, lethargy, backache, and generalised symptoms. However, it’s important to note that these symptoms alone do not necessarily indicate an organic cause of abdominal pain.
On the other hand, there are red flag symptoms that may suggest an underlying condition other than IBS. These include unintentional and unexplained weight loss, rectal bleeding, a family history of bowel or ovarian cancer, and a change in bowel habit lasting for more than six weeks, especially in people over 60 years old.
It’s crucial to understand the difference between IBS symptoms and red flag symptoms to ensure proper diagnosis and treatment. If you experience any of the red flag symptoms, it’s essential to seek medical attention promptly.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 26-year old woman has been asked to come in for a consultation at her GP's office after her blood test results showed an elevated level of anti-tissue transglutaminase antibody. What condition is linked to this antibody?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Coeliac disease
Explanation:Autoimmune Diseases: Causes and Symptoms
Autoimmune diseases are conditions where the body’s immune system attacks its own tissues and organs. Here are some examples of autoimmune diseases and their causes and symptoms:
Coeliac Disease
Coeliac disease is caused by an autoimmune reaction to gluten, a protein found in wheat. Symptoms include chronic diarrhoea, weight loss, and fatigue.Graves’ Disease
This autoimmune disease affects the thyroid gland, resulting in hyperthyroidism. It is associated with anti-thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) receptor antibodies.Pemphigus Vulgaris
This rare autoimmune disease causes blistering of the skin and mucosal surfaces due to autoantibodies against desmoglein.Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
This multisystem autoimmune disease is associated with a wide range of autoantibodies, including anti-nuclear antibody (ANA) and anti-double-stranded (ds) DNA. Symptoms can include joint pain, fatigue, and skin rashes.Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus
This autoimmune disease results in the destruction of islet cells in the pancreas. Islet cell autoantibodies and antibodies to insulin have been described as causes. Symptoms include increased thirst and urination, weight loss, and fatigue.In summary, autoimmune diseases can affect various organs and tissues in the body, and their symptoms can range from mild to severe. Understanding their causes and symptoms is crucial for early diagnosis and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old man presents with increased satiety, dull abdominal pain and weight loss over the past 6 months. He smokes 20 cigarettes per day and has suffered from indigestion symptoms for some years. On examination, his body mass index is 18 and he looks thin. He has epigastric tenderness and a suspicion of a mass on examination of the abdomen.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 101 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 9.2 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 201 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 139 mmol/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.5 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 110 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Faecal occult blood (FOB) Positive
Upper gastrointestinal endoscopy Yellowish coloured, ulcerating
submucosal mass within the
stomach
Histology Extensive lymphocytes within the biopsy
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gastric lymphoma
Explanation:Histological Diagnoses of Gastric Conditions
Gastric lymphoma is often caused by chronic infection with H. pylori, and eradicating the infection can be curative. If not, chemotherapy is the first-line treatment. Other risk factors include HIV infection and long-term immunosuppressive therapy. In contrast, H. pylori gastritis is diagnosed through histological examination, which reveals lymphocytes and may indicate gastric lymphoma. Gastric ulcers are characterized by inflammation, necrosis, fibrinoid tissue, or granulation tissue on histology. Gastric carcinoma is identified through adenocarcinoma of diffuse or intestinal type, with higher grades exhibiting poorly formed tubules, intracellular mucous, and signet ring cells. Finally, alcoholic gastritis is diagnosed through histology as neutrophils in the epithelium above the basement membrane.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 31
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old anatomy student presents with diarrhoea and weight loss. The patient complains of increased frequency of loose motions associated with cramping abdominal pain for six weeks, with an accompanying 5 kg weight loss. He opens his bowels anywhere from three to six times daily, the stool frequently has mucous in it, but no blood. The patient has no recent history of foreign travel and has had no ill contacts. He is a non-smoker and does not drink alcohol. The patient is referred to Gastroenterology for further investigation. A colonoscopy and biopsy of an affected area of bowel reveals ulcerative colitis.
Which of the following is an extra-intestinal clinical feature associated with inflammatory bowel disease?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sacroiliitis
Explanation:Extraintestinal Clinical Features Associated with IBD
Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) is often accompanied by joint pain and inflammation, with migratory polyarthritis and sacroiliitis being common arthritic conditions. Other extraintestinal clinical features associated with IBD include aphthous ulcers, anterior uveitis, conjunctivitis, episcleritis, pyoderma gangrenosum, erythema nodosum, erythema multiforme, finger clubbing, primary sclerosing cholangitis, and fissures. However, aortic aneurysm is not known to be associated with IBD, as it is commonly linked to Marfan syndrome, Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, and collagen-vascular diseases. While peripheral arthropathy of the hands is associated with IBD, it is typically asymmetrical and non-deforming. Deforming arthropathy of the hands is more commonly associated with psoriatic arthritis and rheumatoid arthritis. Heberden’s nodes and Bouchard’s nodes, bony distal and proximal interphalangeal joint nodes, are found in osteoarthritis and are not associated with IBD. Prostatitis, a bacterial infection of the prostate gland, is not associated with IBD and is typically caused by Chlamydia or gonorrhoeae in young, sexually active men, and Escherichia coli in older men.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 32
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man comes to the Emergency Department complaining of epigastric pain and vomiting. He has a history of heavy alcohol consumption. His serum amylase level is 1020 u/l, and acute pancreatitis is diagnosed. Which of the following factors is NOT included in the modified Glasgow severity scoring?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serum amylase
Explanation:Markers for Severity and Mortality in Pancreatitis
Pancreatitis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and management. Several markers can help assess the severity of the disease and predict mortality. The modified Glasgow severity score is a useful tool for stratifying patients based on their clinical presentation. A score of 3 or above indicates severe pancreatitis and the need for transfer to the Intensive Therapy Unit.
Serum amylase is a diagnostic marker for pancreatitis, but its levels may be normal even in severe cases. Elevated amylase levels can also occur in other acute conditions, such as acute cholecystitis or intestinal obstruction. Therefore, it should not be used as a serial marker for assessing disease progression. Instead, serial C-reactive protein levels are more useful for this purpose.
Serum albumin is an important marker of mortality in pancreatitis. A fall in albumin level can contribute to peripheral edema and difficulty in maintaining blood pressure. Age is another predictor of mortality, as it is associated with co-morbidities. Corrected calcium is a useful marker for severe pancreatitis, as it indicates the precipitation of calcium in the abdomen, causing hypocalcemia. Finally, white cell count is a marker of inflammation and can indicate the spread of the disease.
In conclusion, a combination of these markers can help clinicians assess the severity of pancreatitis and predict mortality. Early recognition and management of severe cases can improve outcomes and reduce morbidity and mortality.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 33
Incorrect
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In a 30-year-old patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and hepatic dysfunction, a liver biopsy revealed the presence of eosinophilic, round globules within the periportal hepatocytes. These globules ranged in size from 5 to 40 µm and were surrounded by a halo. Additionally, they were found to be periodic acid-Schiff (PAS)-positive and diastase-resistant. What is the most probable substance that makes up these globules?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Glycoprotein
Explanation:Identifying a PAS-positive and Diastase-resistant Inclusion: Implications for Diagnosis of α-1-Antitrypsin Deficiency
Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency is a condition where the enzyme is not properly secreted and accumulates inside hepatocytes. A characteristic feature of this condition is the presence of PAS-positive, diastase-resistant inclusions in the cytoplasm of hepatocytes. PAS stains structures high in carbohydrate, such as glycogen, glycoproteins, proteoglycans, and glycolipids. Diastase dissolves glycogen, so a PAS-positive and diastase-resistant inclusion is most likely composed of glycoprotein, proteoglycan, or glycolipid. However, from the clinical information, we can determine that the most probable diagnosis is α-1-antitrypsin deficiency, which is a glycoprotein. Therefore, the correct option is glycoprotein, and proteoglycan and glycolipid are incorrect. Identifying this inclusion can aid in the diagnosis of α-1-antitrypsin deficiency, which predisposes individuals to early-onset COPD and hepatic dysfunction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 34
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man visited his doctor as his son has expressed concern about his alcohol consumption. He admits to drinking two bottles of wine (750ml capacity) every night along with six pints of 5% beer.
(A bottle of wine typically contains 12% alcohol)
What is the total number of units this man is consuming per night?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 36
Explanation:Understanding Units of Alcohol
Alcohol consumption is often measured in units, with one unit being equal to 10 ml of alcohol. The strength of a drink is determined by its alcohol by volume (ABV). For example, a single measure of spirits with an ABV of 40% is equivalent to one unit, while a third of a pint of beer with an ABV of 5-6% is also one unit. Half a standard glass of red wine with an ABV of 12% is also one unit.
To calculate the number of units in a drink, you can use the ABV and the volume of the drink. For instance, one bottle of wine with nine units is equivalent to two bottles of wine or six pints of beer, both of which contain 18 units.
It’s important to keep track of your alcohol consumption and stay within recommended limits. Drinking too much can have negative effects on your health and well-being. By understanding units of alcohol, you can make informed decisions about your drinking habits.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 35
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman, with a body mass index of 30, presents to the Emergency Department with colicky right upper quadrant pain and shoulder discomfort. She has also suffered two episodes of nausea and vomiting. Her blood pressure is 110/70, pulse rate 110 and respiratory rate 20. There is pain on inspiration and an increase in pain when palpating the right upper quadrant. The patient is confirmed as having cholecystitis due to impaction of a gallstone in the gallbladder neck. A laparoscopic cholecystectomy is recommended, and the patient is consented for surgery. The dissection begins by incising peritoneum along the edge of the gallbladder on both sides to open up the cystohepatic triangle of calot.
What are the borders of this triangle?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatic duct medially, cystic duct laterally, inferior edge of liver superiorly
Explanation:The Triangle of Calot: An Important Landmark in Cholecystectomy
The triangle of Calot is a crucial anatomical landmark in cholecystectomy, a surgical procedure to remove the gallbladder. It is a triangular space whose boundaries include the common hepatic duct medially, the cystic duct laterally, and the inferior edge of the liver superiorly. During the procedure, this space is dissected to identify the cystic artery and cystic duct before ligation and division. It is important to note that the gallbladder is not part of the triangle of Calot, and the cystic duct is the lateral border, not the inferior border. The hepatic duct is medial in the triangle of Calot, and the inferior edge of the liver is the upper border of the hepatocystic triangle. The bile duct is not part of the triangle of Calot. Understanding the boundaries of the triangle of Calot is essential for a successful cholecystectomy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 36
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old woman presents with abdominal pain that occurs after eating. She also reports weight loss due to her abdominal pain preventing her from eating large amounts. Her medical history includes stable angina and intermittent claudication caused by peripheral arterial disease. Upon examination, there are no visible abnormalities on the abdomen, but there is general tenderness upon palpation, no signs of organ enlargement, and normal bowel sounds. Routine blood tests, including full blood count, urea and electrolytes, and liver function tests, are normal. CT angiography shows an obstructed coeliac trunk and a stenosed but patent superior mesenteric artery. Which organ is most likely to be ischemic and contributing to this patient's symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Stomach
Explanation:Understanding Chronic Mesenteric Ischaemia and Organ Involvement
Chronic mesenteric ischaemia is a condition that occurs when there is reduced blood flow to the intestines due to the narrowing or blockage of major mesenteric vessels. Patients with this condition often present with postprandial abdominal pain, weight loss, and concurrent vascular co-morbidities. To develop symptoms, at least two of the major mesenteric vessels must be affected, with one of these two occluded.
The coeliac trunk is one of the major mesenteric vessels, and when it is occluded, the organs it supplies are at risk. These organs include the stomach, spleen, liver, gallbladder, pancreas, duodenum, and abdominal portion of the oesophagus.
The jejunum is supplied directly by the superior mesenteric artery, but it is less likely to be the cause of symptoms than a foregut structure supplied by the coeliac trunk. The transverse colon is supplied by the right and middle colic arteries and the left colic artery, but it is unlikely to be the cause of symptoms if neither the superior nor the inferior mesenteric artery is completely occluded. The descending colon is supplied by the left colic artery, but it is unlikely to be the organ causing symptoms if this artery is neither occluded nor stenosed. The ileum is also supplied by the superior mesenteric artery, but it is less likely to be the cause of symptoms than a foregut structure.
In summary, understanding the involvement of different organs in chronic mesenteric ischaemia can help in the diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 37
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man with a history of intravenous (iv) drug abuse 16 years ago is referred by his doctor with abnormal liver function tests. He has significantly raised alanine aminotransferase (ALT). He tests positive for hepatitis C RNA and genotyping reveals genotype 1 hepatitis C. Liver biopsy reveals lymphocytic infiltration with some evidence of early hepatic fibrosis with associated necrosis.
Which of the following is the most appropriate therapy for this man?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Direct acting antivirals (DAAs)
Explanation:Treatment Options for Hepatitis C: Direct Acting Antivirals and Combination Therapies
Hepatitis C is a viral infection that can lead to serious long-term health complications such as cirrhosis and liver cancer. Interferon-based treatments are no longer recommended as first-line therapy for hepatitis C, as direct acting antivirals (DAAs) have proven to be more effective. DAAs target different stages of the hepatitis C virus lifecycle and have a success rate of over 90%. Treatment typically involves a once-daily oral tablet regimen for 8-12 weeks and is most effective when given before cirrhosis develops.
While ribavirin alone is not as effective, combination therapies such as PEG-interferon α and ribavirin have been used in the past. However, for patients with genotype 1 disease (which has a worse prognosis), the addition of a protease inhibitor to the treatment regimen is recommended for better outcomes.
It is important to note that blood-borne infection rates for hepatitis C are high and can occur after just one or two instances of sharing needles during recreational drug use. Testing for hepatitis C involves antibody testing, followed by RNA and genotyping to guide the appropriate combination and length of treatment.
Overall, the combination of PEG-interferon, ribavirin, and a protease inhibitor is no longer used in the treatment of hepatitis C, as newer and more effective therapies have been developed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 38
Incorrect
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An obese 60-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner (GP) with ongoing vague abdominal pain and fatigue for the last three months. His past medical history is significant for type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension.
Physical examination suggests hepatomegaly. Laboratory studies reveal a negative hepatitis panel and normal iron studies. Antibodies for autoimmune liver disease are also normal.
A diagnosis of non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) is likely.
Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Weight loss
Explanation:Management of Hepatomegaly and Non-Alcoholic Fatty Liver Disease (NAFLD)
Hepatomegaly and non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD) are common conditions that require appropriate management to prevent progression to liver cirrhosis and other complications. The following are important considerations in the management of these conditions:
Diagnosis: Diagnosis of NAFLD involves ruling out other causes of hepatomegaly and demonstrating hepatic steatosis through liver biopsy or radiology.
Conservative management: Most patients with NAFLD can be managed conservatively with maximized control of cardiovascular risk factors, weight loss, immunizations to hepatitis A and B viruses, and alcohol abstinence. Weight loss in a controlled manner is recommended, with a 10% reduction in body weight over a 6-month period being an appropriate recommendation to patients. Rapid weight loss should be avoided, as it can worsen liver inflammation and fibrosis. Unfortunately, no medications are currently licensed for the management of NAFLD.
Liver transplant: Patients with NAFLD do not require a liver transplant at this stage. Conservative management with weight loss and controlling cardiovascular risk factors is the recommended approach.
Oral steroids: Oral steroids are indicated in patients with autoimmune hepatitis. Patients with autoimmune hepatitis typically present with other immune-mediated conditions like pernicious anemia and ulcerative colitis.
Penicillamine: Penicillamine is the treatment for patients with Wilson’s disease, a rare disorder of copper excretion that leads to excess copper deposition in the liver and brain. Patients typically present with neurological signs like tremor, ataxia, clumsiness, or abdominal signs like fulminant liver failure.
Ursodeoxycholic acid: Ursodeoxycholic acid is used in the management of primary biliary cholangitis (PBC), a condition more common in women. Given this patient’s normal autoimmune screen, PBC is an unlikely diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 39
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman is admitted after a paracetamol overdose. She took 25 500-mg tablets 6 hours ago. This is her first overdose. She has a history of anorexia nervosa and is severely malnourished, weighing only 42 kg. She has a past medical history of asthma, for which she uses a long-acting corticosteroid inhaler. She also takes citalopram 20 mg once daily for depression. What factor increases her risk of hepatotoxicity after a paracetamol overdose?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Her history of anorexia nervosa
Explanation:Factors affecting liver injury following paracetamol overdose
Paracetamol overdose can lead to liver injury due to the formation of a reactive metabolite called N-acetyl-p-benzoquinone imine (NAPQI), which depletes the liver’s natural antioxidant glutathione and damages liver cells. Certain risk factors increase the likelihood of liver injury following paracetamol overdose. These include malnourishment, eating disorders (such as anorexia or bulimia), failure to thrive or cystic fibrosis in children, acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS), cachexia, alcoholism, enzyme-inducing drugs, and regular alcohol consumption. The use of inhaled corticosteroids for asthma or selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) does not increase the risk of hepatotoxicity. However, the antidote for paracetamol poisoning, acetylcysteine, acts as a precursor for glutathione and replenishes the body’s stores to prevent further liver damage. Overall, age does not significantly affect the risk of liver injury following paracetamol overdose.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 40
Incorrect
-
What is the correct statement regarding gastric acid secretion?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: It is potentiated by histamine
Explanation:Understanding Gastric Acid Secretion: Factors that Stimulate and Inhibit its Production
Gastric acid, also known as stomach acid, is a vital component in the process of digesting food. Composed of hydrochloric acid, potassium chloride, and sodium chloride, it is secreted in the stomach and plays a crucial role in breaking down ingested food contents. In this article, we will explore the factors that stimulate and inhibit gastric acid secretion.
Stimulation of Gastric Acid Secretion
There are three classic phases of gastric acid secretion. The cephalic (preparatory) phase is triggered by the sight, smell, thought, and taste of food acting via the vagus nerve. This results in the production of gastric acid before food actually enters the stomach. The gastric phase is initiated by the presence of food in the stomach, particularly protein-rich food, caused by stimulation of G cells which release gastrin. This is the most important phase. The intestinal phase is stimulated by luminal distension plus the presence of amino acids and food in the duodenum.
Potentiation and Inhibition of Gastric Acid Secretion
Histamine potentiates gastric acid secretion, while gastrin inhibits it. Somatostatin, secretin, and cholecystokinin also inhibit gastric acid production.
Importance of Gastric Acid Secretion
Gastric acid secretion reduces the risk of Zollinger–Ellison syndrome, a condition characterized by excess gastric acid production that can lead to multiple severe gastric ulcers, requiring high-dose antacid treatment. Understanding the factors that stimulate and inhibit gastric acid secretion is crucial in maintaining a healthy digestive system.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 41
Incorrect
-
A 35-year-old woman visits her General Practitioner (GP) complaining of diarrhoea that has lasted for 2 weeks. She mentions passing mucous and blood rectally and reports feeling generally unwell. During the examination, the GP observes aphthous ulceration in her mouth and suspects a diagnosis of ulcerative colitis (UC). The GP decides to refer the patient to a gastroenterology consultant.
What is the recommended first-line medication for patients with mild to moderate UC?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Mesalazine
Explanation:Treatment Options for Ulcerative Colitis
Ulcerative colitis (UC) is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease that affects the rectum and may spread to the colon. The main symptom is bloody diarrhea, and the disease follows a relapsing and remitting course. The goal of UC management is to treat acute relapses, prevent relapses, and detect cancers early.
Mesalazine is an effective first-line treatment for mild to moderate UC, which involves enemas and oral medication. For moderately active cases, oral aminosalicylates, topical aminosalicylates, and corticosteroids are used. Azathioprine is an immunomodulator that is rarely used to induce remission but is used to keep patients in remission. Hydrocortisone is a systemic steroid used for severe cases. Infliximab is an anti-tumor necrosis factor biologic used for moderate to severe cases that are refractory to standard treatment. Methotrexate is an alternative immunomodulator for patients who cannot tolerate azathioprine. It is important to discuss adequate contraception with patients on methotrexate due to its teratogenicity.
Understanding Treatment Options for Ulcerative Colitis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 42
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old patient presents with complaints of recurrent bloody diarrhoea and symptoms of iritis. On examination, there is a painful nodular erythematosus eruption on the shin and anal tags are observed. What diagnostic test would you recommend to confirm the diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Colonoscopy
Explanation:Inflammatory Bowel Disease with Crohn’s Disease Suggestion
The patient’s symptoms and physical examination suggest inflammatory bowel disease, with anal skin tags indicating a possible diagnosis of Crohn’s disease. Other symptoms consistent with this diagnosis include iritis and a skin rash that may be erythema nodosum. To confirm the diagnosis, a colonoscopy with biopsies would be the initial investigation. While serum ACE levels can aid in diagnosis, they are often elevated in conditions other than sarcoidosis.
Overall, the patient’s symptoms and physical examination point towards inflammatory bowel disease, with Crohn’s disease as a possible subtype. Further testing is necessary to confirm the diagnosis and rule out other conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 43
Incorrect
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A 56-year-old diabetic woman presents with malaise to her general practitioner (GP). Her GP takes liver function tests (LFTs): bilirubin 41 μmol/l, AST 46 iu/l, ALT 56 iu/l, GGT 241 iu/l, ALP 198 iu/l. On examination, her abdomen is soft and non-tender, and there are no palpable masses or organomegaly. What is the next best investigation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ultrasound scan of the abdomen
Explanation:Investigations for Obstructive Jaundice
Obstructive jaundice can be caused by various conditions, including gallstones, pancreatic cancer, and autoimmune liver diseases like PSC or PBC. An obstructive/cholestatic picture is indicated by raised ALP and GGT levels compared to AST or ALT. The first-line investigation for obstruction is an ultrasound of the abdomen, which is cheap, simple, non-invasive, and readily available. It can detect intra- or extrahepatic duct dilation, liver size, shape, consistency, gallstones, and neoplasia in the pancreas. An autoantibody screen may help narrow down potential diagnoses, but an ultrasound provides more information. A CT scan may be requested after ultrasound to provide a more detailed anatomical picture. ERCP is a diagnostic and therapeutic procedure for biliary obstruction, but it has complications and risks associated with sedation. The PABA test is used to diagnose pancreatic insufficiency, which can cause weight loss, steatorrhoea, or diabetes mellitus.
Investigating Obstructive Jaundice
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 44
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents to the Acute Medical Unit with complaints of mucous and bloody diarrhoea. He has experienced milder episodes intermittently over the past five years but has never sought medical attention. The patient reports left lower abdominal pain and occasional right hip pain. On examination, there is tenderness in the lower left abdominal region without radiation. The patient has not traveled outside the UK and has not been in contact with anyone with similar symptoms. There is no significant family history. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ulcerative colitis
Explanation:Understanding Gastrointestinal Conditions: A Comparison of Ulcerative Colitis, Colon Carcinoma, Acute Diverticulitis, Crohn’s Disease, and Irritable Bowel Syndrome
Gastrointestinal conditions can be challenging to differentiate due to their overlapping symptoms. This article aims to provide a comparison of five common gastrointestinal conditions: ulcerative colitis, colon carcinoma, acute diverticulitis, Crohn’s disease, and irritable bowel syndrome.
Ulcerative colitis is a type of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) that presents with bloody diarrhea as its main feature. Hip pain is also a common extra-intestinal manifestation in this condition.
Colon carcinoma, on the other hand, has an insidious onset and is characterized by weight loss, iron-deficiency anemia, and altered bowel habits. It is usually detected through screening tests such as FOBT, FIT, or flexible sigmoidoscopy.
Acute diverticulitis is a condition that affects older people and is caused by chronic pressure from constipation due to low dietary fiber consumption. It presents with abdominal pain and blood in the stool, but mucous is not a common feature.
Crohn’s disease is another type of IBD that presents with abdominal pain and diarrhea. However, bloody diarrhea is not common. Patients may also experience weight loss, fatigue, and extra-intestinal manifestations such as oral ulcers and perianal involvement.
Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) is a gastrointestinal condition characterized by episodes of diarrhea and constipation, as well as flatulence and bloating. Abdominal pain is relieved upon opening the bowels and passing loose stools. IBS is different from IBD and is often associated with psychological factors such as depression and anxiety disorders.
In conclusion, understanding the differences between these gastrointestinal conditions is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 45
Incorrect
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A 59-year-old librarian is brought to the Emergency Department after experiencing haematemesis. The patient has been complaining of epigastric discomfort for the past few weeks and has been self-medicating with over-the-counter antacids. This morning, the patient continued to experience the discomfort and suddenly vomited about a cup of fresh blood. The patient is a non-smoker but consumes approximately 15 units of alcohol per week. He is currently taking atorvastatin for high cholesterol but has no other significant medical history. Upon further questioning, the patient reveals that he takes 75 mg aspirin daily, as he once read in the newspaper that it would be beneficial for his long-term cardiac health. What is the mechanism by which aspirin damages the gastric mucosa?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Reduced surface mucous secretion
Explanation:Effects of Aspirin on Gastric Mucosal Lining
Aspirin is a commonly used medication for pain relief and anti-inflammatory purposes. However, it can have adverse effects on the gastric mucosal lining. One of the effects of aspirin is the reduction of surface mucous secretion, which normally protects the gastric mucosal lining. This is due to the inhibition of PGE2 production. To prevent gastrointestinal bleeding and peptic ulceration, patients taking aspirin should consider taking a proton pump inhibitor alongside it.
Aspirin has no effect on gastric motility, but it causes a reduction in PGI2, resulting in reduced blood flow to the gastric lining and mucosal ischaemia. This prevents the elimination of acid that has diffused into the submucosa. Aspirin also causes decreased surface bicarbonate secretion and increased acid production from gastric parietal cells, as prostaglandins normally inhibit acid secretion.
It is important to note that the risk factors for aspirin and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)-induced injury include advanced age, history of peptic ulcer disease, concomitant use of glucocorticoids, high dose of NSAIDs, multiple NSAIDs, and concomitant use of clopidogrel or anticoagulants. Therefore, patients should be cautious when taking aspirin and consult with their healthcare provider if they have any concerns.
The Adverse Effects of Aspirin on Gastric Mucosal Lining
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 46
Incorrect
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A middle-aged woman presented to her General Practitioner (GP) with a 3-month history of epigastric pain and weight loss. She mentions that she tried over-the-counter antacids which provided some relief initially, but the pain has got worse. She decided to see her GP after realising she had lost about 5 kg. She denies any vomiting or loose stools. She has never had problems with her stomach before and she has no significant family history. Endoscopy and biopsy are performed; histology shows active inflammation.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Helicobacter pylori gastritis
Explanation:Helicobacter pylori gastritis is a common condition that can cause gastritis and peptic ulcers in some individuals. It is caused by a Gram-negative bacterium and can increase the risk of gastric adenocarcinoma. Treatment with antibiotics is necessary to eradicate the infection. Invasive carcinoma is unlikely in this patient as they do not have other symptoms associated with it. A duodenal ulcer is possible but not confirmed by the upper GI endoscopy. Crohn’s disease is unlikely as it presents with different symptoms. A gastrointestinal stromal tumour would have been detected during the endoscopy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 47
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents with sudden onset of upper abdominal pain and vomiting. His vital signs are stable upon triage.
During the physical examination, he appears to be in significant distress and has a tense abdomen upon palpation.
What initial test should be performed to confirm a perforation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Erect chest X-ray
Explanation:The Importance of an Erect Chest X-Ray in Diagnosing Perforated Abdominal Viscus
When a patient presents with acute abdominal pain, it is crucial to consider the possibility of a perforated abdominal viscus, which requires immediate surgical intervention. The first-line investigation for this condition is an erect chest X-ray, which can detect the presence of free air under the diaphragm (pneumoperitoneum). To ensure accuracy, the patient should be in a seated position for 10-15 minutes before the X-ray is taken. If the patient cannot sit up due to hypotension, a lateral decubitus abdominal film may be used instead. However, in most cases, a CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis will be requested by the surgical team.
Other diagnostic methods, such as a urine dipstick, liver function tests, and bedside ultrasound, are not effective in detecting a perforation. While plain abdominal films may show signs of perforation, they are not the preferred method of diagnosis. In cases of perforation, the presence of free abdominal air can make the opposite side of the bowel wall appear clearer, which is known as the Rigler’s signs or the double wall sign.
In conclusion, an erect chest X-ray is a crucial diagnostic tool in identifying a perforated abdominal viscus. Early detection and intervention can prevent serious complications and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 48
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old female who is post-partum and on the oral contraceptive pill, presents with right upper quadrant pain, nausea and vomiting, hepatosplenomegaly and ascites.
What is the most probable reason for these symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Budd-Chiari syndrome
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of hepatosplenomegaly and portal hypertension
Hepatosplenomegaly and portal hypertension can have various causes, including pre-hepatic, hepatic, and post-hepatic problems. One potential cause is Budd-Chiari syndrome, which results from hepatic vein thrombosis and is associated with pregnancy and oral contraceptive use. Alcoholic cirrhosis is another possible cause, but is unlikely in the absence of alcohol excess. Pylephlebitis, a rare complication of appendicitis, is not consistent with the case history provided. Splenectomy cannot explain the palpable splenomegaly in this patient. Tricuspid valve incompetence can also lead to portal hypertension and hepatosplenomegaly, but given the postpartum status of the patient, Budd-Chiari syndrome is a more probable diagnosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 49
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old Caucasian woman complains of weight loss, steatorrhoea and diarrhoea. Anaemia and metabolic bone disease are detected during investigations. A small intestine biopsy reveals severe villous atrophy, particularly in the proximal segments. The patient responds well to a gluten-free diet for one year, but her symptoms return despite maintaining the diet. A repeat biopsy shows changes similar to the previous one. What condition should be suspected in this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: T-cell intestinal lymphoma
Explanation:Considerations for Non-Responsive Coeliac Disease
Coeliac disease, also known as gluten-sensitive enteropathy, is associated with specific human leukocyte antigen subtypes. The hallmark of this disease is the disappearance of clinical features and intestinal histologic findings upon discontinuing gluten in the diet. However, in cases where patients who were previously responding well to a gluten-free diet stop responding, the possibility of intestinal T-cell lymphoma, a complication of coeliac disease, should be strongly considered.
Other conditions, such as tropical sprue, dermatitis herpetiformis, collagenous sprue, and refractory sprue, may also present with similar symptoms but have different responses to gluten restriction. Tropical sprue does not respond to gluten restriction, while dermatitis herpetiformis is a skin disease associated with coeliac disease and does not cause failure of response to a gluten-free diet. Collagenous sprue is characterized by the presence of a collagen layer beneath the basement membrane and does not respond to a gluten-free diet. Refractory sprue, on the other hand, is a subset of coeliac disease where patients do not respond to gluten restriction and may require glucocorticoids or restriction of soy products.
In conclusion, when a patient with coeliac disease stops responding to a gluten-free diet, it is important to consider the possibility of intestinal T-cell lymphoma and differentiate it from other conditions that may present with similar symptoms but have different responses to gluten restriction.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 50
Incorrect
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A 39-year-old male with a history of alcoholism was admitted to the hospital with jaundice and altered consciousness. He had been previously admitted for ascites and jaundice. Upon investigation, his bilirubin levels were found to be 44 µmol/L (5.1-22), serum albumin levels were 28 g/L (40-50), and his prothrombin time was 21 seconds (13 seconds). The patient had a fluid thrill in his abdomen and exhibited asterixis. Although he was awake, he was unable to distinguish between day and night. What is the patient's Child-Pugh score (CTP)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 12
Explanation:The Child-Turcotte-Pugh score (CTP) is used to assess disease severity in cirrhosis of liver. It consists of five clinical measures, each scored from 1 to 3 according to severity. The minimum score is 5 and maximum score is 15. Once a score has been calculated, the patient is graded A, B, or C for severity. The CTP score is primarily used to decide the need for liver transplantation. However, some criticisms of this scoring system highlight the fact that each of the five categories is given equal weighting, which is not always appropriate. Additionally, in two specific diseases, primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC) and primary biliary cirrhosis (PBC), the bilirubin cut-off levels in the table are markedly different.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 51
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department complaining of RUQ pain, nausea, and vomiting. She has a past medical history of gallstones. The patient reports experiencing severe stabbing pain that began earlier today. Upon examination, her heart rate is 110 beats/min (normal 60-100 beats/min), her temperature is 38.5°C (normal 36.1-37.2°C), and she is positive for Murphy's sign. There is no evidence of jaundice, and she had a bowel movement this morning. What is the most likely diagnosis based on this clinical presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Acute cholecystitis
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for RUQ Pain: Acute Cholecystitis, Pancreatitis, Ascending Cholangitis, Gallstone Ileus, Biliary Colic
When a patient presents with right upper quadrant (RUQ) pain, it is important to consider several potential diagnoses. A positive Murphy’s sign, which is pain on deep palpation of the RUQ during inspiration, strongly suggests gallbladder involvement and makes acute cholecystitis the most likely diagnosis. Biliary colic is less likely as the patient is febrile, and ascending cholangitis is unlikely as the patient is not jaundiced. Pancreatitis is a possibility, but the pain is typically focused on the epigastrium and radiates to the back.
Gallstone ileus is a rare condition in which a gallstone causes obstruction in the small bowel. It would present with symptoms of obstruction, such as nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain, with complete constipation appearing later. However, since this patient’s bowels last opened this morning, acute cholecystitis is a much more likely diagnosis.
It is important to consider all potential diagnoses and rule out other conditions, but in this case, acute cholecystitis is the most likely diagnosis. Treatment involves pain relief, IV antibiotics, and elective cholecystectomy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 52
Incorrect
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A 24-year-old waitress who works at a restaurant in Spain has returned home to see her doctor because she is feeling unwell. She has been experiencing increasing nausea and fatigue and noticed that her urine had darkened a few days ago, and now her stools are pale. Additionally, she has been suffering from severe itching. During the examination, she was found to be jaundiced with scratch marks on her skin and a temperature of 38.1°C.
The following investigations were conducted:
- Haemoglobin: 120 g/l (normal range: 115–155 g/l)
- White cell count (WCC): 11.1 × 109/l (normal range: 4–11 × 109/l)
- Platelets: 170 × 109/l (normal range: 150–400 × 109/l)
- Prothrombin Test (PT): 17.1 s (normal range: 10.6–14.9 s)
- Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR): 48 mm/hr (normal range: 0–10mm in the 1st hour)
- Alanine aminotransferase (ALT): 795 IU/l (normal range: 5–30 IU/l)
- Bilirubin: 100 μmol/l (normal range: 2–17 µmol/l)
- Alkaline phosphatase: 90 IU/l (normal range: 30–130 IU/l)
- Anti hepatitis A IgM markedly elevated
What is the most accurate prognosis for this 24-year-old waitress?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: She has a chance of progression to cirrhosis of approximately 0%
Explanation:Understanding Hepatitis A Infection
Hepatitis A infection is a common viral infection that spreads through the faeco-oral route, particularly in areas like North Africa. It is usually acquired through exposure to contaminated food or water. The infection typically presents with a prodrome of flu-like symptoms, followed by acute hepatitis with right upper quadrant tenderness, jaundice, pale stools, and dark urine.
Fortunately, hepatitis A is a self-limiting condition, and most people recover within 2-6 months without any significant complications. Death from hepatitis A is rare, occurring in only 0.2% of cases. However, relapsing hepatitis A can occur in up to 20% of cases, with each relapse being milder than the previous one.
Treatment for hepatitis A is mainly supportive, and there is no significant risk of progression to cirrhosis. Unlike hepatitis B and C, which are transmitted through blood products and sexual intercourse, hepatitis A and E are transmitted through the faeco-oral route. Therefore, practicing good hygiene and sanitation is crucial in preventing the spread of the infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 53
Incorrect
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A newborn presents with a suspected diagnosis of pyloric stenosis. What is a characteristic of this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Projectile vomiting
Explanation:Infantile Hypertrophic Pyloric Stenosis
Infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is a condition that is most commonly observed in first-born male children. One of the most characteristic symptoms of this condition is projectile vomiting of large quantities of curdled milk. However, anorexia and loose stools are not typically observed in patients with this condition. The biochemical picture of infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is typically hypokalaemic, hypochloraemic metabolic alkalosis.
This condition is caused by hypertrophy and hyperplasia of the pyloric sphincter, which leads to obstruction of the gastric outlet. This obstruction can cause the stomach to become distended, leading to vomiting. Diagnosis of infantile hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is typically made through ultrasound imaging, which can reveal the thickened pyloric muscle. Treatment for this condition typically involves surgical intervention to relieve the obstruction and allow for normal gastric emptying.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 54
Incorrect
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A 52-year-old male taxi driver presented with altered consciousness. He was discovered on the roadside in this state and brought to the Emergency Department. He had a strong smell of alcohol and was also found to be icteric. Ascites and gynaecomastia were clinically present. The following morning during examination, he was lying still in bed without interest in his surroundings. He was able to report his name and occupation promptly but continued to insist that it was midnight. He was cooperative during physical examination, but once the attending doctor pressed his abdomen, he swore loudly, despite being known as a generally gentle person. What is the grading of hepatic encephalopathy for this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: 2
Explanation:Understanding the West Haven Criteria for Hepatic Encephalopathy
The West Haven Criteria is a scoring system used to assess the severity of hepatic encephalopathy, a condition where the liver is unable to remove toxins from the blood, leading to brain dysfunction. The criteria range from 0 to 4, with higher scores indicating more severe symptoms.
A score of 0 indicates normal mental status with minimal changes in memory, concentration, intellectual function, and coordination. This is also known as minimal hepatic encephalopathy.
A score of 1 indicates mild confusion, euphoria or depression, decreased attention, slowing of mental tasks, irritability, and sleep pattern disorders such as an inverted sleep cycle.
A score of 2 indicates drowsiness, lethargy, gross deficits in mental tasks, personality changes, inappropriate behavior, and intermittent disorientation.
A score of 3 presents with somnolence but rousability, inability to perform mental tasks, disorientation to time and place, marked confusion, amnesia, occasional fits of rage, and speech that is present but incomprehensible.
A score of 4 indicates coma with or without response to painful stimuli.
Understanding the West Haven Criteria is important in diagnosing and managing hepatic encephalopathy, as it helps healthcare professionals determine the severity of the condition and develop appropriate treatment plans.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 55
Incorrect
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A middle-aged woman has presented to her GP with bowel symptoms, specifically wind and bloating. After conducting several tests, the GP has diagnosed her with irritable bowel syndrome (IBS).
What is an appropriate dietary recommendation to provide to this middle-aged woman?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Restrict caffeinated and fizzy drinks
Explanation:Managing IBS through dietary changes
Irritable bowel syndrome (IBS) can be managed through dietary changes. It is important to restrict caffeinated and fizzy drinks as they can aggravate IBS symptoms. Increasing bran intake should be avoided, while reducing oat intake can help alleviate symptoms. Fresh fruit intake should be limited to no more than three portions a day. Eating small, frequent meals and taking time over eating is recommended. It may also be helpful to increase sorbitol content, found in sugar-free drinks, but only if diarrhoea is not a symptom. By making these dietary changes, individuals with IBS can better manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 56
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man is released from the hospital after suffering from a stroke. He was prescribed multiple new medications during his hospitalization. He complains of experiencing diarrhea. Which of the following medications is the most probable cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Metformin
Explanation:Metformin is the Most Likely Medication to Cause Gastrointestinal Disturbances
When it comes to medications that can cause gastrointestinal disturbances, there are several options to consider. However, out of all the medications listed, metformin is the most likely culprit. While all of the medications can cause issues in the digestive system, metformin is known for causing more frequent and severe symptoms. It is important to be aware of this potential side effect when taking metformin and to speak with a healthcare provider if symptoms become too severe. By the potential risks associated with metformin, patients can make informed decisions about their treatment options and take steps to manage any gastrointestinal disturbances that may occur.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 57
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male patient presents with dyspepsia of 4 weeks’ duration. Other than a 15-pack year history of smoking, he has no other medical history and reports no prescribed or over-the-counter medications. Endoscopy reveals features of gastritis and a solitary gastric ulcer in the pyloric antrum. A rapid urease test turned red, revealing a positive result.
What would be a suitable treatment for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Amoxicillin, clarithromycin and omeprazole
Explanation:Diagnosis and Treatment of Helicobacter pylori Infection
Helicobacter pylori is a Gram-negative bacillus that causes chronic gastritis and can lead to ulceration if left untreated. Diagnosis of H. pylori infection can be done through a rapid urease test, which detects the presence of the enzyme urease produced by the bacterium. Treatment for H. pylori infection involves a 7-day course of two antibiotics and a proton pump inhibitor (PPI). Fluconazole, prednisolone and azathioprine, and quinine and clindamycin are not appropriate treatments for H. pylori infection. Combination drug therapy is common to reduce the risk of resistance in chronic infections. Repeat testing should be done after treatment to ensure clearance of the infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 58
Incorrect
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A 38-year-old man presents to the clinic after an insurance medical. He was noted to have an abnormal alanine aminotransferase (ALT). Past history includes obesity, hypertension and hypercholesterolaemia, which he manages with diet control. He denies any significant alcohol intake. He has a body mass index (BMI) of 31.
Investigations:
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 139 g/l 135–175 g/l
White cell count (WCC) 4.1 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
Platelets 394 × 109/l 150–400 × 109/l
Sodium (Na+) 143 mmo/l 135–145 mmol/l
Potassium (K+) 4.9 mmol/l 3.5–5.0 mmol/l
Creatinine 85 μmol/l 50–120 µmol/l
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 150 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
Alkaline phosphatase 95 IU/l 30–130 IU/l
Bilirubin 28 μmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
Total cholesterol 6.8 mmol/l < 5.2 mmol/l
Triglycerides 3.8 mmol/l 0–1.5 mmol/l
Ultrasound of liver Increase in echogenicity
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD)
Explanation:Understanding Liver Diseases: NAFLD, Viral Hepatitis, Alcohol-related Cirrhosis, Wilson’s Disease, and Haemochromatosis
Liver diseases can have various causes and presentations. One of the most common is non-alcoholic fatty liver disease (NAFLD), which is closely associated with obesity, hypertension, diabetes, and dyslipidaemia. NAFLD is often asymptomatic, but some patients may experience tiredness or epigastric fullness. Weight loss is the primary treatment, although glitazones have shown promising results in improving liver function.
Viral hepatitis is another common liver disease, but there are no indicators of it in this patient’s history. Alcohol-related cirrhosis is often caused by excessive alcohol intake, but this patient denies alcohol consumption, making NAFLD a more likely diagnosis.
Wilson’s disease typically presents with neuropsychiatric symptoms or signs, and the presence of Kayser-Fleischer rings is a key diagnostic feature. Haemochromatosis, on the other hand, results from iron overload and is often associated with diabetes mellitus and bronzing of the skin.
Understanding the different types of liver diseases and their presentations is crucial in making an accurate diagnosis and providing appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 59
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man with a history of chronic active hepatitis B presents with abdominal distension and bilateral ankle oedema, worsening over the previous 2 weeks. Three months ago, he was admitted for bleeding oesophageal varices, which was treated endoscopically. There was shifting dullness without tenderness on abdominal examination, and splenomegaly was also noted. His serum albumin concentration was diminished. Prothrombin time was elevated.
Which one of the following diuretics will best help this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Spironolactone
Explanation:Diuretics for Ascites in Liver Cirrhosis: Mechanisms and Options
Ascites is a common complication of liver cirrhosis, caused by both Na/water retention and portal hypertension. Spironolactone, an aldosterone antagonist, is the first-line diuretic for ascites in liver cirrhosis. It promotes natriuresis and diuresis, while also preventing hypokalaemia and subsequent hepatic encephalopathy. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can be used as an adjunct or second-line therapy. Bumetanide and amiloride are alternatives, but less preferred. Acetazolamide and thiazide diuretics are not recommended. Common side-effects of diuretics include electrolyte imbalances and renal impairment. Careful monitoring is necessary to ensure safe and effective treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 60
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man presents with a complaint of passing small amounts of fresh red blood with his stool. He also reports a small amount of mucous discharge with his stool and feeling pruritic and sore around his anus for the past couple of days. The patient denies any pain but has been more constipated than usual over the past few months. He denies any recent weight loss and has a BMI of approximately 35. The patient has a history of hypercholesterolaemia and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. He recently completed a 7-day course of amoxicillin for a lower respiratory tract infection 5 days ago. What is the most likely cause of his rectal bleeding?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haemorrhoids
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Rectal Bleeding: Haemorrhoids, Colon Cancer, Diverticulitis, Anal Fissure, and Ulcerative Colitis
Rectal bleeding can be a concerning symptom for patients and healthcare providers alike. In this case, the patient has multiple risk factors for haemorrhoids, which are the most likely cause of his symptoms. However, it is important to consider other potential diagnoses, such as colon cancer, diverticulitis, anal fissure, and ulcerative colitis.
Haemorrhoids are caused by increased pressure in the blood vessels around the anus, which can be exacerbated by obesity, chronic constipation, and coughing. Symptoms include fresh red blood and mucous after passing stool, a pruritic anus, and soreness around the anus.
Colon cancer is less likely in this case, as it typically presents with a change in bowel habit and blood in the stool, but not with a pruritic, sore anus. However, if there is no evidence of haemorrhoids on examination, colonoscopy may be recommended to rule out cancer.
Diverticulitis is characterised by passing fresh, red blood per rectum, as well as nausea and vomiting, pyrexia, and abdominal pain.
Anal fissure also involves the passage of small amounts of fresh red blood with stools, but is associated with sharp anal pain when stools are passed.
Ulcerative colitis can be associated with passage of blood and mucous with stools, as well as weight loss, diarrhoea, anaemia, and fatigue. The patient has some risk factors for ulcerative colitis, which has two peak ages for diagnosis: 15-35 and 50-70 years old.
In summary, while haemorrhoids are the most likely cause of this patient’s symptoms, it is important to consider other potential diagnoses and perform appropriate testing to rule out more serious conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 61
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man presents with sudden onset abdominal pain that worsens when lying down. He reports feeling nauseous and has been vomiting. The nursing staff notes that he has a rapid heart rate and a fever of 38.1°C. Upon examination, his abdomen is tender and there is significant guarding. Bruising is present around his belly button. The patient admits to drinking six cans of strong beer daily and smoking two packs of cigarettes per day. He recalls being hospitalized two years ago for vomiting blood but cannot remember the treatment he received. He has no other significant medical history and does not take any regular medications. What is the most likely cause of the man's symptoms and presentation?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pancreatitis with retroperitoneal haemorrhage
Explanation:Differential diagnosis for a man with abdominal pain, nausea, and periumbilical bruising
The man in question presents with classic symptoms of pancreatitis, including abdominal pain that radiates to the back and worsens on lying down. However, his periumbilical bruising suggests retroperitoneal haemorrhage, which can also cause flank bruising. Given his alcohol consumption, coagulopathy is a possible contributing factor. Hepatic cirrhosis could explain coagulopathy, but not the rapid onset of abdominal pain or the absence of ecchymosis elsewhere. A ruptured duodenal ulcer or bleeding oesophageal varices are less likely causes, as there is no evidence of upper gastrointestinal bleeding this time. A pancreatic abscess is a potential complication of pancreatitis, but would typically have a longer onset and more systemic symptoms. Therefore, the differential diagnosis includes pancreatitis with retroperitoneal haemorrhage, possibly related to coagulopathy from alcohol use.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 62
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman presents to the Surgical Assessment Unit with mild abdominal pain that has been occurring on and off for several weeks. However, the pain has now worsened, causing her to feel nauseated and lose her appetite. She has not had a bowel movement in 3 days and has not noticed any blood in her stool. Upon examination, her temperature is 38.2 °C, heart rate 110 bpm, and blood pressure 124/82 mmHg. Her abdomen is soft, but she experiences tenderness in the left lower quadrant. Bowel sounds are present but reduced. During rectal examination, tenderness is the only finding. The patient has no history of gastrointestinal issues and only sees her general practitioner for osteoarthritis. She has not had a sexual partner since her husband passed away 2 years ago. Based on the information provided, what is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diverticulitis
Explanation:Understanding Diverticulitis: Symptoms, Risk Factors, and Differential Diagnoses
Diverticulitis is a condition characterized by inflammation of diverticula, which are mucosal herniations through the muscle of the colon. While most people over 50 have diverticula, only 25% of them become symptomatic, experiencing left lower quadrant abdominal pain that worsens after eating and improves after bowel emptying. Low dietary fiber, obesity, and smoking are risk factors for diverticular disease, which can lead to complications such as perforation, obstruction, or abscess formation.
Bowel perforation is a potential complication of diverticulitis, but it is rare and usually accompanied by peritonitis. Pelvic inflammatory disease is a possible differential diagnosis in women, but it is unlikely in this case due to the lack of sexual partners for two years. Inflammatory bowel disease is more common in young adults, while diverticulosis is more prevalent in people over 50. Colorectal cancer is another differential diagnosis to consider, especially in older patients with a change in bowel habit and fever or tachycardia.
In summary, understanding the symptoms, risk factors, and differential diagnoses of diverticulitis is crucial for accurate diagnosis and appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 63
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old man, with a 25-pack-year history of smoking, presents to his General Practitioner with a 3-month history of epigastric pain. He has been unable to mow his lawn since the pain began and is often woken up at night. He finds that the pain is relieved by taking antacids. He has also had to cut back on his spicy food intake.
What is the most probable reason for this man's epigastric pain?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Duodenal ulcer
Explanation:Common Gastrointestinal Conditions and Their Symptoms
Gastrointestinal conditions can cause a range of symptoms, from mild discomfort to severe pain. Here are some of the most common conditions and their symptoms:
Duodenal Ulcer: These are breaks in the lining of the duodenum, which is part of the small intestine. They are more common than gastric ulcers and are often caused by an overproduction of gastric acid. Symptoms include epigastric pain that is relieved by eating or drinking milk.
Gastric Ulcer: These are less common than duodenal ulcers and tend to occur in patients with normal or low levels of gastric acid. Risk factors are similar to those of duodenal ulcers. Symptoms include epigastric pain.
Oesophagitis: This condition occurs when stomach acid flows back into the oesophagus, causing inflammation. Treatment is aimed at reducing reflux symptoms. Patients may need to be assessed for Barrett’s oesophagus.
Pancreatitis: This condition is characterized by inflammation of the pancreas and typically presents with epigastric pain that radiates to the back.
Gallstones: These are hard deposits that form in the gallbladder and can cause right upper quadrant pain. Symptoms may be aggravated by eating fatty foods. While historically more common in females in their forties, the condition is becoming increasingly common in younger age groups.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 64
Incorrect
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A 57-year-old man presents to his general practitioner (GP) with a 2-month history of pain and difficulty swallowing when eating solid foods and now also has trouble swallowing liquids. He states that his trousers now feel looser around his waist and he no longer looks forward to his meals. His past medical history is significant for reflux disease for which he takes over-the-counter Gaviscon. He has a 20-pack-year history of smoking and drinks approximately 15 pints of beer per week. His family medical history is unremarkable.
His observations are shown below:
Temperature 36.4°C
Blood pressure 155/69 mmHg
Heart rate 66 beats per minute
Respiratory rate 13 breaths per minute
Sp(O2) 99% (room air)
Physical examination is normal.
Which of the following is the best next step in management?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Immediate referral to upper gastrointestinal surgeon
Explanation:Appropriate Management for a Patient with Dysphagia and ‘Alarm’ Symptoms
When a patient presents with dysphagia and ‘alarm’ symptoms such as weight loss, anorexia, and swallowing difficulties, prompt referral for an urgent endoscopy is necessary. In the case of a patient with a significant smoking history, male sex, and alcohol intake, there is a high suspicion for oesophageal cancer, and an immediate referral to an upper gastrointestinal surgeon is required under the 2-week-wait rule.
Continuing treatment with over-the-counter medications like Gaviscon would be inappropriate in this case, as would histamine-2 receptor antagonist therapy. Oesophageal manometry would only be indicated if the patient had an oesophageal motility disorder. Proton-pump inhibitor (PPI) therapy can be initiated in patients with gastroesophageal reflux disease, but it would not be appropriate as a sole treatment option for a patient with clinical manifestations concerning for oesophageal carcinoma.
In summary, prompt referral for an urgent endoscopy is crucial for patients with dysphagia and ‘alarm’ symptoms, and appropriate management should be tailored to the individual patient’s clinical presentation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 65
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman is found to have gallstones during an abdominal ultrasound. The surgeon informs her that one of the stones is quite large and is currently lodged in the bile duct, about 5 cm above the transpyloric plane. The surgeon explains that this plane is a significant anatomical landmark for several abdominal structures.
What structure is located at the level of the transpyloric plane?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Origin of the superior mesenteric artery
Explanation:The transpyloric plane, also known as Addison’s plane, is an imaginary plane located at the level of the L1 vertebral body. It is situated halfway between the jugular notch and the superior border of the pubic symphysis and serves as an important anatomical landmark. Various structures lie in this plane, including the pylorus of the stomach, the first part of the duodenum, the duodeno-jejunal flexure, both the hepatic and splenic flexures of the colon, the fundus of the gallbladder, the neck of the pancreas, the hila of the kidneys and spleen, the ninth costal cartilage, and the spinal cord termination. Additionally, the origin of the superior mesenteric artery and the point where the splenic vein and superior mesenteric vein join to form the portal vein are located in this plane. The cardio-oesophageal junction, where the oesophagus meets the stomach, is also found in this area. It is mainly intra-abdominal, 3-4 cm in length, and houses the gastro-oesophageal sphincter. The ninth costal cartilage lies at the transpyloric plane, not the eighth, and the hila of both kidneys are located here, not just the superior pole of the left kidney. The uncinate process of the pancreas, which is an extension of the lower part of the head of the pancreas, lies between the superior mesenteric vessel and the aorta, and the neck of the pancreas is situated along the transpyloric plane.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 66
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man arrived at the Emergency Department with massive haematemesis. An emergency endoscopy revealed a bleeding gastric ulcer located on the lesser curvature of the stomach. Which vessel is most likely affected?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The left gastric artery
Explanation:Arteries that supply the stomach: A brief overview
The stomach is a vital organ that requires a constant supply of blood to function properly. There are several arteries that supply blood to different parts of the stomach. Here is a brief overview of these arteries:
1. Left gastric artery: This artery supplies the lesser curvature of the stomach along with the right gastric artery. Bleeding at the lesser curvature of the stomach is most likely to be caused by these two arteries. The left gastric artery is one of the three branches that arise from the coeliac trunk.
2. Right gastroepiploic artery: This artery, along with the left gastroepiploic artery, supplies the greater curvature of the stomach.
3. Left gastroepiploic artery: This artery, along with the right gastroepiploic artery, supplies the greater curvature of the stomach.
4. Gastroduodenal artery: This artery is a branch off the common hepatic artery that supplies the duodenum, head of the pancreas, and greater curvature of the stomach.
5. Short gastric arteries: These are four or five small arteries from the splenic artery that supply the fundus of the stomach.
Understanding the different arteries that supply the stomach is important for diagnosing and treating various medical conditions related to the stomach.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 67
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man had a gastric endoscopy to investigate possible gastritis. During the procedure, the endoscope passed through the oesophagogastric junction and entered the stomach.
Which part of the stomach is situated closest to this junction?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cardia
Explanation:Anatomy of the Stomach: Regions and Parts
The stomach is a muscular organ located in the upper abdomen that plays a crucial role in digestion. It is divided into several regions and parts, each with its own unique function. Here is a breakdown of the anatomy of the stomach:
Cardia: This region surrounds the opening of the oesophagus into the stomach and is adjacent to the fundus. It is in continuity with the body of the stomach.
Fundus: The fundus is the uppermost region of the stomach that is in contact with the inferior surface of the diaphragm. It is located above the level of the cardial orifice.
Body: The body is the largest region of the stomach and is located between the fundus and pyloric antrum. It has a greater and lesser curvature.
Pyloric antrum: This region is the proximal part of the pylorus, which is the distal part of the stomach. It lies between the body of the stomach and the first part of the duodenum.
Pyloric canal: The pyloric canal is the distal part of the pylorus that leads to the muscular pyloric sphincter.
Understanding the different regions and parts of the stomach is important for diagnosing and treating various digestive disorders.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 68
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of restlessness and drowsiness. He has a history of consuming more than fifty units of alcohol per week. During the examination, he displays a broad-based gait and bilateral lateral rectus muscle palsy, as well as nystagmus. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Wernicke’s encephalopathy
Explanation:Wernicke’s Encephalopathy: A Serious Condition Linked to Alcoholism and Malnutrition
Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a serious neurological condition characterized by confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia. It is commonly seen in individuals with a history of alcohol excess and malnutrition, and can even occur during pregnancy. The condition is caused by a deficiency in thiamine, a vital nutrient for the brain.
If left untreated, Wernicke’s encephalopathy can lead to irreversible Korsakoff’s syndrome. Therefore, it is crucial to recognize and treat the condition as an emergency with thiamine replacement. The therapeutic window for treatment is short-lived, making early diagnosis and intervention essential.
In summary, Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a serious condition that can have devastating consequences if left untreated. It is important to consider this diagnosis in confused patients, particularly those with a history of alcoholism or malnutrition. Early recognition and treatment with thiamine replacement can prevent the development of Korsakoff’s syndrome and improve outcomes for affected individuals.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 69
Incorrect
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Which of these options does NOT contribute to abdominal swelling?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hyperkalaemia
Explanation:Hyperkalaemia and Hirschsprung’s Disease
Severe hyperkalaemia can be dangerous and may lead to sudden death from asystolic cardiac arrest. However, it may not always present with symptoms, except for muscle weakness. In some cases, hyperkalaemia may be associated with metabolic acidosis, which can cause Kussmaul respiration. On the other hand, Hirschsprung’s disease is a condition that results from the absence of colonic enteric ganglion cells. This absence causes paralysis of a distal segment of the colon and rectum, leading to proximal colon dilation. In contrast, other conditions cause distension through a paralytic ileus or large bowel pseudo-obstruction. these conditions is crucial in managing and treating them effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 70
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old woman presents with sudden onset of abdominal pain for the past 6 hours. The pain is rapidly worsening and is more severe in the right upper quadrant. She has no significant medical history and denies any recent illnesses or similar episodes in the past. She is sexually active and takes an oral contraceptive pill. Upon examination, her blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg, pulse rate 85 bpm, respiratory rate 16/min, and body temperature 37.5 ºC. The sclera is icteric. Tender hepatomegaly and shifting abdominal dullness are noted. Blood tests reveal elevated total and direct bilirubin, alanine aminotransferase, and aspartate aminotransferase. Partial thromboplastin time and prothrombin time are within normal limits. Mild to moderate abdominal ascites is found on an ultrasound study.
What is the most likely cause of her condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Occlusion of the hepatic vein
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of a patient with abdominal pain, hepatomegaly, and ascites
Budd-Chiari syndrome and other potential causes
When a patient presents with abdominal pain, tender hepatomegaly, and ascites, one possible diagnosis is Budd-Chiari syndrome, which can have an acute or chronic course and is more common in pregnant women or those taking oral contraceptives. In the acute form, liver function tests show elevated bilirubin and liver enzymes. However, other conditions should also be considered.
Ruptured hepatic adenoma can cause intraperitoneal bleeding and shock, but it does not explain the liver function abnormalities. Occlusion of the portal vein may be asymptomatic or cause mild symptoms, and liver function tests are usually normal. Fulminant viral hepatitis typically has a prodromal phase and signs of liver failure, such as coagulopathy. Drug-induced hepatic necrosis, such as from paracetamol overdose or halothane exposure, can also lead to fulminant liver failure, but the patient’s history does not suggest this possibility.
Therefore, while Budd-Chiari syndrome is a plausible diagnosis, the clinician should also consider other potential causes and obtain more information from the patient, including any medication use or exposure to hepatotoxic agents.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 71
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man was admitted for an endoscopic retrograde cholangio-pancreatography (ERCP) due to biliary colic. He had an uneventful procedure, but was re-admitted the same night with severe abdominal pain. He is tachycardic, short of breath, and has a pleural effusion on his chest X-ray (CXR). His blood tests show C-reactive protein (CRP) 200 mg/litre, white cell count (WCC) 16 × 109/litre, creatine 150 µmol/litre, urea 8 mmol/litre, phosphate 1.1 mmol/litre, calcium 0.7 mmol/litre.
What is his most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pancreatitis
Explanation:Diagnosing and Managing Complications of ERCP: A Case Study
A patient presents with abdominal pain, hypocalcaemia, and a pleural effusion several hours after undergoing an ERCP. The most likely diagnosis is pancreatitis, a known complication of the procedure. Immediate management includes confirming the diagnosis and severity of pancreatitis, aggressive intravenous fluid resuscitation, oxygen, and adequate analgesia. Severe cases may require transfer to intensive care. Intestinal and biliary perforation are unlikely causes, as they would have presented with immediate post-operative pain. A reaction to contrast would have occurred during the procedure. Another possible complication is ascending cholangitis, which presents with fever, jaundice, and abdominal pain, but is unlikely to cause hypocalcaemia or a pleural effusion. It is important to promptly diagnose and manage complications of ERCP to prevent severe complications and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 72
Incorrect
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A 54-year-old male with a history of cirrhosis due to alcohol abuse presents with malaise and decreased urine output. Upon examination, he appears jaundiced and his catheterized urine output is only 5 ml per hour. Laboratory results show low urinary sodium and elevated urine osmolality compared to serum osmolality. Blood tests reveal elevated liver enzymes, bilirubin, and creatinine. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Hepatorenal syndrome
Explanation:Hepatorenal Syndrome
Hepatorenal syndrome is a severe medical condition that can lead to the rapid deterioration of kidney function in individuals with cirrhosis or fulminant hepatic failure. This condition occurs due to changes in the circulation that supplies the intestines, which alters the blood flow and tone in vessels supplying the kidney. As a result, the liver’s deranged function causes Hepatorenal syndrome, which can be life-threatening. Unfortunately, the only treatment for this condition is liver transplantation.
While hepatitis B can present as membranous glomerulonephritis, it is unlikely in this case due to the known history of alcoholic liver disease. Acute tubular necrosis is also possible, which can result from toxic medication and reduced blood pressure to the kidney in individuals with cirrhosis. However, in acute tubular necrosis, urine and sodium osmolality are raised compared to Hepatorenal syndrome, where the urine and serum sodium osmolality are low. Additionally, one would expect to see muddy-brown casts or hyaline casts on urine microscopy in someone with acute tubular necrosis.
In conclusion, Hepatorenal syndrome is crucial for individuals with cirrhosis or fulminant hepatic failure. This condition can lead to the rapid deterioration of kidney function and can be life-threatening. While other conditions such as hepatitis B and acute tubular necrosis can present similarly, they have distinct differences that can help with diagnosis and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 73
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man with dyspepsia and a history of recurrent peptic ulcer disease presents with intractable watery diarrhoea and weight loss. He has multiple gastric and duodenal peptic ulcers, which are poorly responding to medications such as antacids and omeprazole. Gastric acid output and serum gastrin level are elevated. Serum gastrin level fails to decrease following a test meal. On abdominal computerised tomography (CT) scan, no masses are found in the pancreas or duodenum.
Which one of the following drugs is useful for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Octreotide
Explanation:Treatment Options for Gastrinoma: Octreotide, Somatostatin Antagonist, Bromocriptine, Pergolide, and Leuprolide
Gastrinoma is a rare condition characterized by multiple, recurrent, and refractory peptic ulcer disease, along with watery diarrhea and weight loss. The diagnosis is supported by an elevated serum gastrin level that is not suppressed by the test meal. While neoplastic masses of gastrinoma may or may not be localized by abdominal imaging, treatment options are available.
Octreotide, a synthetic somatostatin, is useful in the treatment of gastrinoma, acromegaly, carcinoid tumor, and glucagonoma. Somatostatin is an inhibitory hormone in several endocrine systems, and a somatostatin antagonist would increase gastrin, growth hormone, and glucagon secretion. However, it has no role in the treatment of gastrinoma.
Bromocriptine, a dopamine agonist, is used in the treatment of Parkinson’s disease, hyperprolactinemia, and pituitary tumors. Pergolide, another dopamine receptor agonist, was formerly used in the treatment of Parkinson’s disease but is no longer administered due to its association with valvular heart disease. Neither medication has a role in the treatment of gastrinoma.
Leuprolide, a gonadotropin-releasing hormone (GnRH) receptor agonist, is used in the treatment of sex hormone-sensitive tumors such as prostate or breast cancer. It also has no role in the treatment of gastrinoma. Overall, octreotide remains the primary treatment option for gastrinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 74
Incorrect
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A 14-year-old girl with cystic fibrosis complains of abdominal pain. She denies any accompanying nausea or vomiting. What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Distal intestinal obstruction syndrome
Explanation:Distal Intestinal Obstruction Syndrome in Cystic Fibrosis Patients
Distal intestinal obstruction syndrome is a common complication in 10-20% of cystic fibrosis patients, with a higher incidence in adults. The condition is caused by the loss of CFTR function in the intestine, leading to the accumulation of mucous and fecal material in the terminal ileum, caecum, and ascending colon. Diagnosis is made through a plain abdominal radiograph, which shows faecal loading in the right iliac fossa, dilation of the ileum, and an empty distal colon. Ultrasound and CT scans can also be used to identify an obstruction mass and show dilated small bowel and proximal colon.
Treatment for mild and moderate episodes involves hydration, dietetic review, and regular laxatives. N-acetylcysteine can be used to loosen and soften the plugs, while severe episodes may require gastrografin or Klean-Prep. If there are signs of peritoneal irritation or complete bowel obstruction, surgical review should be obtained. Surgeons will often treat initially with intravenous fluids and a NG tube while keeping the patient nil by mouth. N-acetylcysteine can be put down the NG tube.
Overall, distal intestinal obstruction syndrome is a serious complication in cystic fibrosis patients that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. With proper management, patients can avoid severe complications and maintain their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 75
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old man presents with bilateral tremor of his hands and abdominal pain. He is a recent graduate of engineering from the local university, and has been having increasing difficulty using tools. The abdominal pain has been constant over the last 3 weeks. Over the last 8 months his family have noticed a significant change in his behaviour, with several episodes of depression interspersed with episodes of excessive drinking – both of which are very unusual for him. On examination he has resting tremor bilateral, is slightly hypertonic and has bradykinesia. The examining physician has noted brownish iris of both eyes. The patient has not noticed any change in his colouring. His liver function tests are as follows:
serum bilirubin: 18.9 µmol/l (normal 3–17 µmol/l)
serum ALT: 176 IU/l (normal 3–40 IU/l)
serum AST: 254 IU/l (normal 3–30 IU/l)
serum ALP: 259 µmol/l (normal 30–100 µmol/l)
γ-glutamyl transferase (GT): 49 IU/l (normal 8–60 IU/l).
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Wilson’s disease
Explanation:Medical Conditions and Their Differential Diagnosis
When presented with a patient exhibiting certain symptoms, it is important for medical professionals to consider a range of potential conditions in order to make an accurate diagnosis. In this case, the patient is exhibiting neurological symptoms and behavioural changes, as well as deranged liver function.
One potential condition to consider is Wilson’s disease, which results from a mutation of copper transportation and can lead to copper accumulation in the liver and other organs. Another possibility is early onset Parkinson’s disease, which tends to occur in those aged 40-50 and does not present with liver dysfunction or behavioural changes.
Hereditary haemochromatosis is another inherited disorder that can result in abnormal iron metabolism, while alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency can lead to hepatitis and lung changes. However, neither of these conditions would explain the neurological symptoms and behavioural changes seen in this case.
Finally, atypical depression is unlikely to result in deranged liver function or focal neurological symptoms. By considering these potential conditions and ruling out those that do not fit the patient’s presentation, medical professionals can arrive at a more accurate diagnosis and provide appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 76
Incorrect
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Which statement about Giardia lamblia is accurate?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: May cause intestinal malabsorption
Explanation:Giardia Lamblia and its Treatment
Giardia lamblia is a common cause of traveller’s diarrhoea and intestinal malabsorption, along with E. coli. The most effective treatment for this condition is metronidazole. However, detecting cysts and oocysts in stool microscopy is laborious and lacks sensitivity. The current test of choice is the detection of antigens on the surface of the organisms in the stool specimen. A single stool examination can identify about 50% of cases, while three stool samples can identify about 90%. It is important to note that blood loss is not a feature of this condition. HUS, on the other hand, may be caused by E. coli 0157 infection, but not giardiasis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 77
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old male patient reports experiencing mild jaundice following periods of fasting or exercise. Upon examination, his complete blood count and liver function tests appear normal. What is the recommended course of treatment for this individual?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: No treatment required
Explanation:Gilbert Syndrome
Gilbert syndrome is a common genetic condition that causes mild unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia, resulting in intermittent jaundice without any underlying liver disease or hemolysis. The bilirubin levels are usually less than 6 mg/dL, but most patients exhibit levels of less than 3 mg/dL. The condition is characterized by daily and seasonal variations, and occasionally, bilirubin levels may be normal in some patients. Gilbert syndrome can be triggered by dehydration, fasting, menstrual periods, or stress, such as an intercurrent illness or vigorous exercise. Patients may experience vague abdominal discomfort and fatigue, but these episodes resolve spontaneously, and no treatment is required except supportive care.
In recent years, Gilbert syndrome is believed to be inherited in an autosomal recessive manner, although there are reports of autosomal dominant inheritance. Despite the mild symptoms, it is essential to understand the condition’s triggers and symptoms to avoid unnecessary medical interventions. Patients with Gilbert syndrome can lead a normal life with proper care and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 78
Incorrect
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A 21-year-old male presents to the medical assessment unit with a 6-week history of increasing frequency of diarrhoea and abdominal pain. The patient is now opening his bowels up to eight times a day, and he is also needing to get up during the night to pass motions. He describes the stool as watery, with some mucous and blood. He is also suffering with intermittent cramping abdominal pain. He has had no recent foreign travel, and no other contacts have been unwell with similar symptoms. He has lost almost 6 kg in weight. He has no other past medical history of note.
Inflammatory bowel disease is high on the list of differentials.
Which one of the following is most commonly associated with Ulcerative colitis (UC)?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Rectal involvement
Explanation:Differences between Ulcerative Colitis and Crohn’s Colitis
Ulcerative colitis (UC) and Crohn’s colitis are two types of inflammatory bowel disease (IBD) that affect the colon and rectum. However, there are several differences between the two conditions.
Rectal Involvement
UC usually originates in the rectum and progresses proximally, while Crohn’s colitis can affect any part of the gastrointestinal tract, including the duodenum.Transmural Inflammation
Crohn’s colitis involves transmural inflammation, while UC typically affects only the submucosa or mucosa.Anal Fistulae and Abscesses
Crohn’s colitis is more likely to cause anal fistulae and abscesses due to its transmural inflammation, while UC is less prone to these complications.Duodenal Involvement
UC usually affects only the colon, while Crohn’s colitis can involve the duodenum. As a result, colectomy is often curative in UC but not in Crohn’s disease.Symptoms and Severity
Both conditions can cause bloody diarrhea, weight loss, and abdominal pain. However, the severity of UC is measured by the number of bowel movements per day, abdominal pain and distension, signs of toxicity, blood loss and anemia, and colon dilation.Understanding the Differences between Ulcerative Colitis and Crohn’s Colitis
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 79
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old man presents with upper abdominal pain and is diagnosed with Helicobacter pylori infection. He is treated with appropriate eradication therapy and advised to follow up with his general practitioner for testing of eradication.
What would be the most suitable method for testing eradication in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: The 13C urea breath test
Explanation:Methods for Detecting and Confirming Eradication of H. pylori Infection
There are several methods available for detecting and confirming eradication of H. pylori infection. Serologic testing for antibodies to H. pylori in the blood or saliva is a cheap and simple initial detection method with high sensitivity and specificity. However, it is not useful for follow-up as patients may continue to have antibodies for several months after eradication therapy. Stool sample analysis may also be used for initial detection, but the 13C urea breath test is currently the only recommended method for confirming eradication following treatment. Histological examination of tissue biopsy samples is an invasive procedure and not recommended for eradication testing. The CLO test, which is carried out on biopsied tissue at endoscopy, can provide immediate results but is also an invasive procedure and not appropriate for confirming eradication. Overall, the 13C urea breath test is the most reliable method for confirming eradication of H. pylori infection.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 80
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of progressive weakness and fatigue. He reports experiencing 'abdominal complaints' for the past 6 years, without relief from any treatments. Upon examination, he appears severely pale and has glossitis. He has been having bowel movements five to six times per day. The only significant history he has is that he had to undergo surgery at the age of 4 to remove a swallowed toy. Blood tests show the following results: Hemoglobin - 98 g/l (normal range: 135-175 g/l), Vitamin B12 - 60 pmol/l (normal range: 160-900 pmol/l), Folate - 51 μg/l (normal range: 2.0-11.0 μg/l), and Cholesterol - 2.7 mmol/l (normal range: <5.2 mmol/l). What is the appropriate definitive treatment for this condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Antibiotics
Explanation:Treatment Options for Small Intestinal Bacterial Overgrowth (SIBO)
Small intestinal bacterial overgrowth (SIBO) is a condition that can cause malabsorption, chronic diarrhea, and megaloblastic anemia. It is often caused by a failure of normal mechanisms that control bacterial growth within the small gut, such as decreased gastric acid secretion and factors that affect gut motility. Patients who have had intestinal surgery are also at an increased risk of developing SIBO.
The most effective treatment for SIBO is a course of antibiotics, such as metronidazole, ciprofloxacin, co-amoxiclav, or rifaximin. A 2-week course of antibiotics may be tried initially, but in many patients, long-term antibiotic therapy may be needed.
In contrast, a gluten-free diet is the treatment for coeliac disease, which presents with malabsorption and iron deficiency anemia. Steroids are not an appropriate treatment for SIBO or coeliac disease, as they can suppress local immunity and allow further bacterial overgrowth.
Vitamin B12 replacement is necessary for patients with SIBO who have megaloblastic anemia due to B12 malabsorption and metabolism by bacteria. There is no indication of intestinal tuberculosis in this patient, but in suspected cases, intestinal biopsy may be needed.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 81
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman was brought to the Emergency Department with confusion. She has a history of manic illness. There is no evidence of alcohol or drug abuse. Upon examination, she displays mild jaundice and signs of chronic liver disease, such as spider naevi and palmar erythema. Additionally, there is a brownish ring discoloration at the limbus of the cornea.
Blood tests reveal:
Investigation Result Normal value
Bilirubin 130 μmol/l 2–17 µmol/l
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 85 IU/l 5–30 IU/l
Ferritin 100 μg/l 10–120 µg/l
What is the most likely diagnosis based on this clinical presentation?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Wilson’s disease
Explanation:Differential diagnosis of a patient with liver disease and neurological symptoms
Wilson’s disease, haemochromatosis, alcohol-related cirrhosis, viral hepatitis, and primary sclerosing cholangitis are among the possible causes of liver disease. In the case of a patient with Kayser-Fleischer rings, the likelihood of Wilson’s disease increases, as this is a characteristic sign of copper overload due to defective incorporation of copper and caeruloplasmin. Neurological symptoms such as disinhibition, emotional lability, and chorea may also suggest Wilson’s disease, although they are not specific to it. Haemochromatosis, which is characterized by iron overload, can be ruled out if the ferritin level is normal. Alcohol-related cirrhosis is less likely if the patient denies alcohol or drug abuse, but this information may not always be reliable. Viral hepatitis is a common cause of liver disease, but in this case, there are no obvious risk factors in the history. Primary sclerosing cholangitis, which is a chronic inflammatory disease of the bile ducts, does not present with Kayser-Fleischer rings. Therefore, a careful evaluation of the patient’s clinical features, laboratory tests, and imaging studies is necessary to establish the correct diagnosis and guide the appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 82
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old female complains of abdominal pain and melaena. She has a medical history of hypertension, type 2 diabetes, and right knee osteoarthritis. Which medication could be causing her symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Diclofenac
Explanation:Causes of Peptic Ulceration and the Role of Medications
Peptic ulceration is a condition that can cause acute gastrointestinal (GI) blood loss. One of the common causes of peptic ulceration is the reduction in the production of protective mucous in the stomach, which exposes the stomach epithelium to acid. This can be a consequence of using non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as diclofenac, which is commonly used in the treatment of osteoarthritis. Steroids are also known to contribute to peptic ulceration.
On the other hand, tramadol, an opiate, does not increase the risk of GI ulceration. It is important to be aware of the potential side effects of medications and to discuss any concerns with a healthcare provider. By doing so, patients can receive appropriate treatment while minimizing the risk of adverse effects.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 83
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old yoga instructor presents to the General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of feeling constantly fatigued. During the consultation, she also mentions experiencing widespread, non-specific itching. Upon examination, the GP observes generalised excoriation, but no other significant findings. Blood tests reveal an elevated alkaline phosphatase level, leading to a suspicion of primary biliary cholangitis. What is the most specific symptom of primary biliary cholangitis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Anti-mitochondrial antibodies
Explanation:Autoantibodies and their association with autoimmune conditions
Autoimmune conditions are characterized by the body’s immune system attacking its own tissues and organs. Autoantibodies, or antibodies that target the body’s own cells, are often present in these conditions and can be used as diagnostic markers. Here are some examples of autoantibodies and their association with specific autoimmune conditions:
1. Anti-mitochondrial antibodies (type M2) are highly specific for primary biliary cholangitis, an autoimmune condition affecting the liver.
2. Anti-smooth muscle antibodies are associated with type 1 autoimmune hepatitis, a condition in which the immune system attacks the liver.
3. Anti-liver kidney microsomal antibodies are classically associated with type 2 autoimmune hepatitis, another condition affecting the liver.
4. Anti-double-stranded DNA antibodies are associated with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), a systemic autoimmune condition that can affect multiple organs.
5. p-ANCA antibodies occur in several autoimmune conditions, including microscopic polyangiitis, eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis, and primary sclerosing cholangitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 84
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman arrives at the Emergency Department after complaining of abdominal pain and black stools since last night. She reports no unintentional weight loss or fresh blood in her stool. Her medical history includes osteoarthritis treated with ibuprofen and well-controlled essential hypertension with candesartan. An upper gastrointestinal endoscopy reveals an actively bleeding gastric ulcer. What major vessel supplies blood to the affected area of her gastrointestinal tract?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Coeliac trunk
Explanation:Blood Supply to the Digestive System: Arteries and their Branches
The digestive system receives its blood supply from several arteries and their branches. The coeliac trunk, which originates from the abdominal aorta, carries the major blood supply to the stomach through its three main divisions: the left gastric artery, the common hepatic artery, and the splenic artery. The inferior mesenteric artery supplies the colon and small bowel, while the superior mesenteric artery mainly supplies the duodenum, small intestines, colon, and pancreas. The splenic artery supplies blood to the spleen and gives rise to the left gastroepiploic artery. The artery of Drummond connects the inferior and superior mesenteric arteries and is also known as the marginal artery of the colon. It is important to note that the absence of this artery is a variant and not pathological.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 85
Incorrect
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A 29-year-old Caucasian man presents with a 3-month history of diarrhoea, fatigue, and weight loss. He denies any history of alcohol or drug abuse. He frequently travels to southern India for work. Laboratory tests show mixed macrocytic anaemia with low levels of serum folate and vitamin B12. Stool examination is negative for ova and parasites. A small bowel biopsy reveals predominant mononuclear infiltration and villous destruction throughout the small intestine. What intervention is most likely to improve his symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Broad spectrum antibiotics like tetracycline and folate
Explanation:Treatment Options for Tropical Sprue: Broad Spectrum Antibiotics and Folate Supplementation
Tropical sprue is a condition commonly seen in individuals visiting or residing in tropical countries, particularly in southern India. It is characterized by chronic diarrhea, weight loss, and deficiencies in vitamin B12 and folate. Stool examination typically shows no evidence of ova and parasites, while small intestinal biopsy reveals mononuclear cell infiltration and less villous atrophy throughout the intestine.
The recommended treatment for tropical sprue involves the use of broad-spectrum antibiotics, such as tetracyclines, along with folate supplementation. This approach has been shown to effectively reverse the changes in the small intestine associated with the condition.
Other treatment options, such as antihelminthic drugs, are not effective in treating tropical sprue. Similarly, pancreatic enzyme replacement is not indicated in this condition.
It is important to note that tropical sprue should not be confused with coeliac disease, which is treated with a gluten-free diet. In coeliac disease, small intestinal biopsy typically shows severe villous atrophy and mononuclear cell infiltration in the proximal portion of the small bowel.
Finally, double-strength trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole is used in the treatment of Whipple’s disease, which is characterized by PAS-positive macrophages in the lamina propria of the small intestine.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 86
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old man presents with generalised pruritus, right upper quadrant pain and jaundice for the past month. He has a history of recurrent bloody bowel movements and painful defecation and is now being treated with sulfasalazine. His previous colonoscopy has shown superficial mucosal ulceration and inflammation, with many pseudopolyps involving the distal rectum up to the middle third of the transverse colon. On abdominal examination, the liver is slightly enlarged and tender. Total bilirubin level is 102.6 μmol/l and indirect bilirubin level 47.9 μmol/l. Alkaline phosphatase and γ-glutamyltransferase concentrations are moderately increased. Alanine aminotransferase and aspartate aminotransferase levels are mildly elevated.
Which of the following autoantibodies is most likely to be positive in this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Perinuclear antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (p-ANCA)
Explanation:Serologic Markers of Autoimmune Diseases
There are several serologic markers used to diagnose autoimmune diseases. These markers include perinuclear antineutrophil cytoplasmic antibodies (p-ANCA), anti-dsDNA antibody, antinuclear antibodies (ANA), anti-smooth muscle antibody (ASMA), and anti-Saccharomyces cerevisiae antibody (ASCA).
p-ANCA is elevated in patients with ulcerative colitis and/or primary sclerosing cholangitis (PSC). Anti-dsDNA antibody is found in systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). ANA is a sensitive, but not specific, marker for a variety of autoimmune diseases such as SLE, mixed connective tissue disorder (MCTD), and rheumatoid arthritis (RA). ASMA, ANA, and anti-liver–kidney microsomal antibody-1 (LKM-1) are serologic markers of autoimmune hepatitis. Increased levels of ASCA are often associated with Crohn’s disease.
These serologic markers are useful in diagnosing autoimmune diseases, but they are not always specific to a particular disease. Therefore, they should be used in conjunction with other diagnostic tests and clinical evaluation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 87
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman with Crohn's disease (CD) visits her primary care physician for a regular follow-up. During the examination, the doctor observes clubbing, hepatomegaly, and episcleritis, which are known signs linked with CD. What other non-intestinal symptom is commonly associated with CD?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pyoderma gangrenosum
Explanation:Extra-Intestinal Manifestations and Skin Conditions Associated with Inflammatory Bowel Disease
Inflammatory bowel disease (IBD), including Crohn’s disease (CD) and ulcerative colitis (UC), can present with extra-intestinal manifestations, with some features being more prevalent in one than the other. Joint complications are the most common, but other manifestations include eye inflammation, joint pain and stiffness, and liver and biliary tree issues. Additionally, CD can present with skin conditions such as pyoderma gangrenosum, while UC is associated with primary sclerosing cholangitis and cholangiocarcinoma.
Other skin conditions, such as necrobiosis lipoidica and palmar erythema, are not associated with IBD. Erythema multiforme is a drug-related skin rash, while lichen planus is a skin rash of unknown cause that is not associated with IBD. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of these extra-intestinal manifestations and skin conditions when evaluating patients with IBD.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 88
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old woman visits her GP complaining of fatigue and wondering if she has entered menopause. Upon conducting a blood test, the results show a Hb of 101 g/l, MCV 108.2 fl, and a B12 level of 46 ng/l. She also reports experiencing occasional changes in bowel movements. What test would be most effective in differentiating pernicious anemia from other malabsorption causes as the reason for her low B12 levels?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intrinsic factor antibodies
Explanation:Understanding Pernicious Anaemia: Diagnosis and Treatment
Pernicious anaemia is a type of macrocytic anaemia caused by a deficiency of vitamin B12. This deficiency is often due to antibodies that target either intrinsic factor or the gastric parietal cells. To diagnose pernicious anaemia, blood tests for intrinsic factor antibodies and gastric parietal cell-antibodies are necessary.
Other tests, such as the PABA test, folic acid level, serum gastrin level, and C14 breath test, are not useful in identifying pernicious anaemia. Vitamin B12 is normally absorbed in the terminal ileum, but a problem in any part of this chain may result in vitamin B12 deficiency.
Patients with pernicious anaemia require lifelong vitamin B12 injections, typically six injections over the first two weeks from diagnosis and then one every three months to maintain adequate levels. Understanding the diagnosis and treatment of pernicious anaemia is crucial for managing this condition effectively.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 89
Incorrect
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A 40-year-old man has been admitted after a severe paracetamol overdose. Despite medical intervention, he has developed liver failure. What is the most probable outcome of the liver failure?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lactic acidosis is recognised complication
Explanation:N-acetylcysteine reduces morbidity and mortality in fulminant hepatic failure
Fulminant hepatic failure is a serious condition that can lead to severe hypoglycemia and exacerbate encephalopathy in 40% of patients. This condition can develop rapidly and recur with sepsis. Lactic acidosis is also a common complication due to decreased hepatic lactate clearance, poor peripheral perfusion, and increased lactate production. Unfortunately, the prognosis for patients with fulminant hepatic failure is poor if they have a blood pH less than 7.0, prolonged prothrombin time (more than 100s), and serum creatinine more than 300 uM. Mortality is also greater in patients over 40 years of age. However, the use of intravenous N-acetylcysteine has been shown to reduce morbidity and mortality in these patients.
Overall, it is important to closely monitor patients with fulminant hepatic failure and address any complications that arise. The use of N-acetylcysteine can be a valuable tool in improving outcomes for these patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 90
Incorrect
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A 67-year-old man presents with nausea, vomiting, epigastric discomfort and weight loss over the last 2 months. On questioning, he describes postprandial fullness and loss of appetite. He denies any dysphagia, melaena or haematemesis. He has a long-standing history of heartburn. He has no other relevant past medical history. Investigations reveal iron deficiency anaemia. Endoscopy confirms gastric cancer.
What is a risk factor for gastric cancer in this 67-year-old man?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Helicobacter pylori
Explanation:Risk Factors and Protective Measures for Gastric Cancer
Gastric cancer is a prevalent form of cancer worldwide, but its incidence is decreasing. Several factors are associated with an increased risk of developing gastric cancer, including pernicious anaemia, blood group A, smoking, and a diet high in nitrate and salt. However, a diet rich in citrus fruits and leafy green vegetables can decrease the risk. Helicobacter pylori infection is a significant risk factor, with a relative risk of 5.9. However, this bacterium is not a risk factor for cancer of the gastric cardia, which is increasing and associated with long-term gastro-oesophageal reflux disease, smoking, and obesity. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) may have a protective effect in preventing gastric cancer. Blood group B and a higher education/social class are protective factors. A diet rich in fresh fruits and vegetables is also likely to be protective.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 91
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man has been experiencing burning epigastric pain and vomiting on and off for the past 4 weeks. His father was recently treated for gastric cancer. During an upper GI endoscopy, gastric biopsies were taken and tested positive for Helicobacter pylori. The patient has a penicillin allergy. What is the most suitable initial treatment for eradicating H. pylori in this individual?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Omeprazole 20 mg twice daily, clarithromycin 500 mg twice daily and metronidazole 400 mg twice daily for one week
Explanation:H. pylori infection is a common cause of peptic ulceration and increases the risk of gastric adenocarcinoma. A PPI-based triple therapy is effective in 90% of cases with low rates of re-infection. For patients not allergic to penicillin, a 7-day PPI triple therapy including omeprazole, clarithromycin, and amoxicillin is appropriate. Metronidazole is given twice daily for seven days, while levofloxacin is only used if the patient has had previous exposure to clarithromycin. Quadruple therapy, including metronidazole or clarithromycin, bismuth, tetracycline, and PPI, is second-line in H. pylori eradication and is given for two weeks. In penicillin-allergic patients, clarithromycin and metronidazole are used with a PPI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 92
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old white man presents to his doctor with concerns about fatigue and changes to his tongue. He reports no other symptoms.
The patient has been following a strict vegan diet for the past six years and has a history of Crohn's disease. He is currently receiving immunomodulation therapy for his condition. His vital signs are within normal limits.
Upon examination of his mouth, a beefy-red tongue is observed. His neurological exam is unremarkable.
What is the most suitable course of treatment for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Vitamin B12 supplementation
Explanation:Supplementation Options for Nutrient Deficiencies: A Clinical Overview
Vitamin B12 Supplementation for Deficiency
Vitamin B12 is a crucial nutrient involved in the production of red blood cells. Its deficiency can cause various clinical presentations, including glossitis, jaundice, depression, psychosis, and neurological findings like subacute combined degeneration of the spinal cord. The deficiency is commonly seen in strict vegans and patients with diseases affecting the terminal ileum. Management depends on the cause, and oral supplementation is recommended for dietary causes, while intramuscular injections are indicated for malabsorption.
Folate Supplementation for Deficiency
Folate deficiency is typically seen in patients with alcoholism and those taking anti-folate medications. However, the clinical findings of folate deficiency are different from those of vitamin B12 deficiency. Patients with folate deficiency may present with fatigue, weakness, and pallor.
Magnesium Supplementation for Hypomagnesaemia
Hypomagnesaemia is commonly seen in patients with severe diarrhoea, diuretic use, alcoholism, or long-term proton pump inhibitor use. The clinical presentation of hypomagnesaemia is variable but classically involves ataxia, paraesthesia, seizures, and tetany. Management involves magnesium replacement.
Oral Steroids for Acute Exacerbations of Crohn’s Disease
Oral steroids are indicated in patients suffering from acute exacerbations of Crohn’s disease, which typically presents with abdominal pain, diarrhoea, fatigue, and fevers.
Vitamin D Supplementation for Deficiency
Vitamin D deficiency is typically seen in patients with dark skin, fatigue, bone pain, weakness, and osteoporosis. Supplementation is recommended for patients with vitamin D deficiency.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 93
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with a sudden onset of severe abdominal pain. She suffers with osteoarthritis in both her knees and often takes codeine and ibuprofen. She admits that she often consumes an excessive amount of alcohol. On examination, she appears unwell and is tachycardic. Abdominal examination reveals diffuse tenderness with guarding and reduced bowel sounds. The computerised tomography (CT) scan of her abdomen is shown below.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis, given the clinical scenario?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Perforated peptic ulcer
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Acute Abdominal Pain: Perforated Peptic Ulcer vs Other Conditions
Acute abdominal pain is a common presentation in medical practice, and it can be caused by a variety of conditions. One of the most likely diagnoses in a patient with sudden onset of severe abdominal pain, diffuse tenderness, and guarding is a perforated peptic ulcer. This is especially true if the patient has a history of regular ibuprofen use and excess alcohol consumption without gastric protection. However, it is important to consider other potential causes of acute abdominal pain and rule them out through a thorough differential diagnosis.
Some of the other conditions that may present with acute abdominal pain include acute appendicitis, gastritis, acute cholecystitis, and small bowel obstruction with strangulation. Each of these conditions has its own characteristic symptoms and signs that can help differentiate it from a perforated peptic ulcer. For example, acute appendicitis typically presents with a gradual onset of dull umbilical pain that shifts to the right iliac fossa, while acute cholecystitis presents with right upper quadrant pain and Murphy’s sign. Gastritis may cause severe pain, but the abdomen is usually soft, and bowel sounds are not reduced. Small bowel obstruction typically presents with colicky pain, vomiting, and distension, and may be associated with a history of abdominal surgery or hernias.
In summary, while a perforated peptic ulcer is a likely diagnosis in a patient with sudden onset of severe abdominal pain, it is important to consider other potential causes and perform a thorough differential diagnosis to ensure appropriate management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 94
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman presents with sudden onset of abdominal pain and swelling. She works as a teacher and is in a committed relationship. Upon examination, her abdomen is tender, particularly in the right upper quadrant, and there is mild jaundice. She is currently taking the combined oral contraceptive pill (COCP) and has no significant medical history or regular medication use. After three days of hospitalization, her abdomen became distended and fluid thrill was detected. Laboratory tests show:
Parameter Result
Investigation Result Normal value
Haemoglobin 150 g/l 115–155 g/l
Bilirubin 51 μmol/ 2–17 μmol/
Aspartate aminotransferase (AST) 1050 IU/l 10–40 IU/l
Alanine aminotransferase (ALT) 998 IU/l 5−30 IU/l
Alkaline phosphatase (ALP) 210 IU/l 36–76 IU/l
Gamma-Glutamyl transferase (γGT) 108 IU/l 8–35 IU/l
Albumin 30 g/l 35–55 g/l
An ultrasound revealed a slightly enlarged liver with a prominent caudate lobe.
What is the most appropriate definitive treatment for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Liver transplantation
Explanation:Management of Budd-Chiari Syndrome: Liver Transplantation and Other Treatment Options
Budd-Chiari syndrome (BCS) is a condition characterized by hepatic venous outflow obstruction, resulting in hepatic dysfunction, portal hypertension, and ascites. Diagnosis is typically made through ultrasound Doppler, and risk factors include the use of the combined oral contraceptive pill and genetic mutations such as factor V Leiden. Treatment options depend on the severity of the disease, with liver transplantation being necessary in cases of fulminant BCS. For less severe cases, the European Association for the Study of the Liver (EASL) recommends a stepwise approach, starting with anticoagulation and progressing to angioplasty, thrombolysis, and transjugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunt (TIPSS) procedure if needed. Oral lactulose is used to treat hepatic encephalopathy, and anticoagulation is necessary both urgently and long-term. Therapeutic drainage of ascitic fluid and diuretic therapy with furosemide or spironolactone may also be used to manage ascites, but these treatments do not address the underlying cause of BCS.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 95
Incorrect
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A 70-year-old man presents to his general practitioner (GP) with complaints of difficulty swallowing. He mentions that solid food like meat often gets stuck in his throat. He is also beginning to lose weight and have difficulty swallowing thick liquids like soups. There is some pain on swallowing. His past medical history is significant for hypertension and depression. His current medications include amlodipine and sertraline. He has no drug allergies. He has a 30-pack-year history of smoking and drinks approximately 3–4 pints of beer per day. He is unsure of his family medical history, as he was adopted.
Physical examination is normal, and his observations are shown below:
Temperature 37.1°C
Blood pressure 145/81 mmHg
Heart rate 71 bpm
Respiratory rate 14 breaths/min
Oxygen saturation (SpO2) 97% (room air)
Which of the following is the most appropriate investigation for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Upper gastrointestinal (GI) endoscopy
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Oesophageal Pathology: Indications and Limitations
Upper gastrointestinal (GI) endoscopy is the preferred diagnostic test for patients with progressive dysphagia and odynophagia, especially those with risk factors for oesophageal malignancy. Abdominal plain film and ultrasound are rarely diagnostic and should be used sparingly, with specific indications such as inflammatory bowel disease or bowel obstruction. Chest plain film may be useful in detecting free gas in the mediastinum, but is not necessary for stable patients. Oesophageal manometry is indicated for diffuse oesophageal spasm, which presents differently from the progressive dysphagia seen in the patient described above.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 96
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man presents to his primary care doctor, complaining of difficulty swallowing solid foods and liquids for the last two months. He states that food often ‘gets stuck’ in his oesophagus and is associated with retrosternal chest pain. There is no pain on swallowing. He has no other medical problems and takes no medications. He denies recent weight loss or night sweats.
Physical examination is normal. An electrocardiogram (ECG) reveals normal sinus rhythm, without ischaemic changes. His blood tests are also normal. A diagnosis of diffuse oesophageal spasm is being considered.
Which of the following is the most appropriate investigation for this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oesophageal manometry
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms of intermittent dysphagia without odynophagia, abnormal blood tests, or constitutional symptoms suggest a diagnosis of diffuse esophageal spasm. This condition is characterized by increased simultaneous and intermittent contractions of the distal esophagus, often accompanied by retrosternal chest pain, heartburn, and globus sensation. Oesophageal manometry is the first-line investigation for diffuse esophageal spasm, revealing increased simultaneous contractions of the esophageal body with normal lower esophageal sphincter tone. Barium radiography may show a corkscrew esophagus, but it has low sensitivity for diagnosing this condition. Troponin levels would only be indicated if the patient had cardiac-related chest pain, which is unlikely given their age and normal ECG. A chest X-ray would be useful if a cardiac or respiratory condition were suspected, while a lateral cervical spine radiograph is only necessary if cervical osteophytes are thought to be the cause of difficult swallowing, which is unlikely in this young patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 97
Incorrect
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As the F1 on call, you have been summoned to attend to a 36-year-old man who has been admitted with decompensated alcoholic liver disease. Upon examination, you observe widespread stigmata of chronic liver disease with tense ascites and mild peripheral oedema. There is no indication of encephalopathy, and all vital signs are within acceptable limits. The most recent blood tests reveal a haemoglobin level of 115 g/L (120-140), a white cell count of 5.6 ×109/L (4.0-11.0), and a platelet count of 79 ×109/L (150-400), among other things. The patient is experiencing abdominal pain. What is the safest analgesic agent to prescribe to this patient?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Paracetamol
Explanation:Special Considerations for Drug Prescribing in Patients with Advanced Liver Disease
Patients with advanced liver disease require special attention when it comes to drug prescribing due to the altered pathophysiology of the liver. The liver’s poor synthetic function can lead to impaired enzyme formation, reducing the ability to excrete hepatically metabolized drugs. Concurrent use of enzyme-inducing drugs can lead to the accumulation of toxic metabolites. Additionally, reduced synthesis of blood clotting factors by a damaged liver means that these patients can often auto-anticoagulate, and drugs that interfere with the clotting process are best avoided.
Aspirin and other non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as ibuprofen and diclofenac should be avoided in liver disease patients. These drugs promote gastric irritation, increasing the likelihood of gastrointestinal bleeding, which is significantly increased if there are upper gastrointestinal varices present. NSAIDs can also promote fluid retention and worsen peripheral edema and ascites. Morphine sulfate and tramadol hydrochloride are both opioid analgesics that should only be considered in patients with advanced liver disease by hepatologists as they can promote the development of hepatic encephalopathy. Paracetamol is considered the safest analgesic to use in these patients, even in severe liver disease, as long as the doses are halved.
In conclusion, patients with advanced liver disease require special care in drug prescribing due to the altered pathophysiology of the liver. It is important to avoid drugs that interfere with the clotting process, promote gastric irritation, and worsen peripheral edema and ascites. Opioid analgesics should only be considered by hepatologists, and paracetamol is considered the safest analgesic to use in these patients.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 98
Incorrect
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What is the most likely diagnosis for a 45-year-old woman who has had severe itching for three weeks and presents to your clinic with abnormal liver function tests and a positive anti-TPO antibody?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Primary biliary cholangitis
Explanation:Autoimmune Diseases and Hepatic Disorders: A Comparison of Symptoms and Diagnostic Findings
Primary biliary cholangitis is characterized by severe itching, mild jaundice, and elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase, ALT, and AST. Anti-mitochondrial antibody is positive, and LDL and TG may be mildly elevated. Patients may also exhibit microcytic anemia and elevated anti-TPO levels, as seen in Hashimoto’s thyroiditis. In contrast, primary sclerosing cholangitis affects men and is associated with colitis due to inflammatory bowel disease. Anti-mitochondrial antibody is often negative, and p-ANCA is often positive. Addison’s disease is characterized by fatigue, weakness, weight loss, hypoglycemia, and hyperkalemia, and may coexist with other autoimmune diseases. Autoimmune hepatitis is characterized by elevated levels of ANA, anti-smooth muscle antibody, anti-mitochondrial antibody, and anti-LKM antibody, with normal or slightly elevated levels of alkaline phosphatase. Chronic viral hepatitis is indicated by elevated levels of HBs antigen and anti-HBC antibody, with anti-HBs antibody indicating a history of prior infection or vaccination.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 99
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with severe epigastric pain and vomiting. The pain radiates through to her back and began 2 hours ago while she was out with her friends in a restaurant. She has a past medical history of gallstones and asthma.
Which test should be used to confirm this woman’s diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Serum lipase
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Acute Pancreatitis
Acute pancreatitis is a condition that is commonly caused by gallstones and alcohol consumption. Its symptoms include upper abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. While serum amylase is widely used for diagnosis, serum lipase is preferred where available. Serum lactate is a useful marker for organ perfusion and can indicate the severity of the inflammatory response. A raised white cell count, particularly neutrophilia, is associated with a poorer prognosis. Serum calcium levels may also be affected, but this is not a specific test for pancreatitis. Blood glucose levels may be abnormal, with hyperglycemia being common, but this is not diagnostic of acute pancreatitis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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Question 100
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old woman presents to your Surgical Clinic referred by her General Practitioner (GP) with complaints of heartburn and indigestion that have been worsening at night. She denies any other gastrointestinal (GI) symptoms. She has a normal diet but smokes 20 cigarettes a day. On examination, you note that she is a large woman with a body mass index (BMI) of 37. Abdominal examination is unremarkable. An endoscopy is ordered, and the report is as follows:
Endoscopy – oesophagogastroduodenoscopy (OGD)
The OGD was performed with xylocaine throat spray, and intubation was uncomplicated. The oesophagus appears normal. A 5-cm hiatus hernia is observed and confirmed on J-manoeuvre. The stomach and duodenum up to D2 appear to be normal. CLO test was negative. Z-line at 45 cm.
What would be your next best step in managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Conservative therapy with weight loss, smoking cessation and dietary advice, and proton pump inhibitor (PPI) therapy
Explanation:Treatment Options for Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD)
GERD is a common condition that affects the digestive system. It occurs when stomach acid flows back into the esophagus, causing discomfort and other symptoms. There are several treatment options available for GERD, depending on the severity of the condition.
Conservative Therapy
Conservative therapy is the first line of treatment for GERD. This includes weight loss, smoking cessation, dietary advice, and proton pump inhibitor (PPI) therapy. PPIs are effective at reducing acid volume and can provide relief from symptoms. Patients should be encouraged to make lifestyle changes to improve their overall health and reduce the risk of complications.
Fundoplication
Fundoplication may be necessary for patients with severe GERD who do not respond to conservative measures. This surgical procedure involves wrapping the upper part of the stomach around the lower esophageal sphincter to strengthen it and prevent acid reflux.
Oesophageal Manometry Studies
Oesophageal manometry studies may be recommended if conservative measures and fundoplication fail. This test measures the strength and coordination of the muscles in the esophagus and can help identify any underlying issues.
24-Hour pH Studies
24-hour pH studies may also be recommended if conservative measures and fundoplication fail. This test measures the amount of acid in the esophagus over a 24-hour period and can help determine the severity of GERD.
Triple Therapy for Helicobacter Pylori
Triple therapy may be necessary if the CLO test for Helicobacter pylori is positive. This treatment involves a combination of antibiotics and PPIs to eradicate the bacteria and reduce acid production.
In conclusion, there are several treatment options available for GERD, ranging from conservative measures to surgical intervention. Patients should work closely with their healthcare provider to determine the best course of action based on their individual needs and symptoms.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology
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