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  • Question 1 - Which of the following nerves passes through the inguinal canal? ...

    Correct

    • Which of the following nerves passes through the inguinal canal?

      Your Answer: Ilioinguinal nerve

      Explanation:

      The contents of the inguinal canal is the ilioinguinal nerves, the round ligament of uterus in the females and the spermatic cord with its contents in males.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      5
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - Whilst reviewing a 34 year old patient with amenorrhoea in clinic they tell...

    Correct

    • Whilst reviewing a 34 year old patient with amenorrhoea in clinic they tell you they have gained over 10kg in weight in the past 8 weeks and have noticed worsening acne. Routine bloods taken that morning show a random glucose 11.1mmol/l, normal thyroid function tests and negative pregnancy test. BP is 168/96 mmHg. You suspect Cushing's. What would the most appropriate investigation be to conform the diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Dexamethasone suppression test

      Explanation:

      In Cushing’s syndrome there is excess cortisol. Causes are broadly divided into 2 types: ACTH dependent disease: excess ACTH from the pituitary (Cushing’s disease), ectopic ACTH-producing tumours or excess ACTH administration. Non-ACTH-dependent: adrenal adenomas, adrenal carcinomas, excess glucocorticoid administration. The recommended diagnostic tests for the presence of Cushing’s syndrome are 24-hour urinary free cortisol, 1 mg overnight dexamethasone suppression test and late-night salivary cortisol. There are several other tests that may also be performed to find the cause. ACTH and cortisol measured together may show if this is ACTH dependent or not. MRI pituitary and CT abdo and pelvis may show if tumour is the cause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      52.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - What percentage of pregnancies will be uncomplicated following a single episode of reduced...

    Incorrect

    • What percentage of pregnancies will be uncomplicated following a single episode of reduced fetal movements?

      Your Answer: 25%

      Correct Answer: 70%

      Explanation:

      Reduced fetal movements can be the first indication of possible fetal abnormalities. Movements are first perceived by the mother from about 18-20 weeks gestation, increase in size and frequency until 32 weeks gestation when they plateau at about 31 movements per hour. Investigations for reduced fetal heart rate include auscultation of the fetal heart rate using a handheld doppler device, and a cardiotocograph or ultrasound if the foetus is above 28 weeks gestation. About 70% of women who experience one episode of reduced fetal movement have uncomplicated pregnancies. They are advised to report to a maternal unit if another episode occurs.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      8.2
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 22-year-old nulliparous otherwise healthy woman presents with lower abdominal pain at 16...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old nulliparous otherwise healthy woman presents with lower abdominal pain at 16 weeks of gestation. Her body temperature is 37.8 degrees Celsius. She appears to be in good health and is eating properly. Her uterus had been discovered to be retroverted but of normal size at her prior antenatal check at 11 weeks of pregnancy. Which of the following diagnoses is the most likely?

      Your Answer: Impaction of a retroverted gravid uterus.

      Correct Answer: Urinary tract infection.

      Explanation:

      Lower abdominal pain can be caused by any of the conditions listed in the answers.
      A urinary tract infection is the most likely cause.
      Unless it was an abdominal ectopic or an interstitial pregnancy, an ectopic pregnancy.
      will almost definitely have shown up before the 15th week of pregnancy.
      A retroverted gravid uterus may impinge at 15 weeks of pregnancy, however, this is unlikely to be linked to a temperature of 37.8°C.
      It’s also possible that it’s the source of acute urine retention.
      Complications of the corpus luteum cyst normally manifest themselves considerably earlier in pregnancy, and severe appendicitis is far less likely to be the source of discomfort than a urinary tract infection.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      57.9
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - What is the most common cause of premature menopause in the UK? ...

    Correct

    • What is the most common cause of premature menopause in the UK?

      Your Answer: Idiopathic

      Explanation:

      Premature menopause is most commonly idiopathic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      306.9
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - After 2yearsof marriage, a 36-year-old morbidly obese lady with a BMI of 41has...

    Correct

    • After 2yearsof marriage, a 36-year-old morbidly obese lady with a BMI of 41has been unable to conceive. Her husband's sperm analysis is normal, and he has no additional abnormalities. The fallopian tube looks to be blocked. What is the best course of action for her management?

      Your Answer: Suggest her to lose weight

      Explanation:

      This patient has been unable to conceive for over a year, and her fallopian tubes are blocked. Her body mass index is 42.
      Because she has obstructed Fallopian tubes, in-vitro fertilisation (IVF) is an alternative to getting pregnant for this patient.
      A woman with a BMI over 35, on the other hand, will need twice as many IVF rounds to conceive as a woman of normal weight.
      As a result, the greatest advise for successful IVF would be to decrease weight as the first step in management.
      Obese (BMI less than 40) patients’ IVF success chances are reduced by 25% and 50%, respectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      27.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 58-year-old postmenopausal female sees you for an initial health maintenance visit. Her...

    Incorrect

    • A 58-year-old postmenopausal female sees you for an initial health maintenance visit. Her examination is normal and she has no complaints. You perform a Papanicolaou (Pap) test, which she has not had done in 15 years. The smear is read as “negative for intraepithelial lesion and malignancy, benign endometrial cells present.” What would be the most appropriate follow-up for this finding?

      Your Answer: A repeat Pap test in 1 yea

      Correct Answer: An endometrial biopsy

      Explanation:

      This patient should have an endometrial biopsy (SOR C). Approximately 7% of postmenopausal women with benign endometrial cells on a Papanicolaou smear will have significant endometrial pathology. None of the other options listed evaluate the endometrium for pathology. An asymptomatic premenopausal woman with benign endometrial cells would not need an endometrial evaluation because underlying endometrial pathology is rare in this group.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      49.2
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - What is meant by a barr body? ...

    Correct

    • What is meant by a barr body?

      Your Answer: It is the condensed non-functioning X chromosome

      Explanation:

      Barr body is an inactive and non functioning X chromosome found in female somatic cells and is presents with a rim around the nucleus

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cell Biology
      11.9
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 30-year-old primigravida was admitted to the hospital in active labor. On admission,...

    Correct

    • A 30-year-old primigravida was admitted to the hospital in active labor. On admission, her cervix was 7 cm dilated and 100% effaced. She received epidural anesthesia and proceeded to complete cervical dilation with fetal head at +3 station within a few hours.Patient who has been pushing for 4 hours is exhausted now and says she cannot feel her contractions, nor knows when to push because of the epidural anesthesia.Patient had no complications during the pregnancy and has no chronic medical conditions. Estimated fetal weight by Leopold maneuvers is 3.4 kg (7.5 lb), patient's vital signs are normal and fetal heart rate tracing is category 1.Tocodynamometer indicates contractions every 2-3 minutes and a repeat cervical examination shows complete cervical dilation with the fetal head at +3 station, in the left occiput anterior position with no molding or caput. Among the following, which is considered the best next step in management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Perform vacuum-assisted vaginal delivery

      Explanation:

      The period from attaining a complete cervical dilation of 10 cm to fetal delivery is considered as the second stage of labor. In the given case patient have achieved an excellent fetal descent to +3 due to her average-sized infant of 3.4 kg, suitable pelvis (no fetal molding or caput, suggesting no resistance against the bony maternal pelvis), and a favorable fetal position of left occiput anterior. 
      But with no further fetal descent the patient fulfills the following criterias suggestive of second-stage arrest like:
      ≥3 hours of pushing in a primigravida without an epidural or ≥4 hours pushing with an epidural, as in this patient
      OR
      ≥2 hours of pushing in a multigravida without an epidural or ≥3 hours pushing with an epidural.

      As continued pushing without any effect will lead to complications like postpartum hemorrhage, limiting the chances of spontaneous vaginal delivery, it is better to manage this case by operative vaginal delivery procedures like vacuum-assisted delivery, to expedite delivery. maternal exhaustion, fetal distress, and maternal conditions like hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, in which the Valsalva maneuver is not recommended are the other indications for performing an operative vaginal delivery.

      Fundal pressure is the technique were external pressure is applied to the most cephalad portion of the uterus, were the applied force is directed toward the maternal pelvis. The maneuver was not found to be useful in improving the rate of spontaneous vaginal deliveries.

      Epidurals will not arrest or affect spontaneous vaginal delivery rates, instead they just lengthen the second stage of labor. Also an appropriate analgesia is a prerequisite to use in operative vaginal delivery.

      Manual rotation of an infant to a breech presentation for breech vaginal delivery is called as internal podalic version. It is contraindicated in singleton deliveries due to the high risk associated with breech vaginal delivery in regards to neonatal mortality and morbidity.

      The ideal fetal head position in vaginal delivery is occiput anterior (OA) as the flexed head in this provides a smaller diameter and facilitates the cardinal movements of labor. The occiput posterior (OP) position, in contrast to OA, presents with a larger-diameter head due to the deflexed position. So the chance for spontaneous vaginal delivery will be decreased if fetal head is rotated to OP position.

      A lack of fetal descent after ≥4 hours of pushing in a primigravida with an epidural (≥3 hours without) or ≥3 hours in a multigravida with an epidural (≥2 hours without) is defined as second stage arrest of labor.  The condition is effectively managed with operative vaginal delivery procedures like vacuum-assisted delivery. Other common indications for operative vaginal delivery are maternal exhaustion, fetal distress, and maternal conditions where the Valsalva maneuver is not recommended.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      563
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - Fetal urine production starts at what gestation? ...

    Incorrect

    • Fetal urine production starts at what gestation?

      Your Answer: 12-16 weeks

      Correct Answer: 8-11 weeks

      Explanation:

      Fetal urine contributes significantly to amniotic fluid production in the second trimester of pregnancy. As early as 8-11 weeks, urine production begins and can be observed in the fetal bladder on ultrasound scans. The urine creates a hypotonic fluid which contains increasing concentrations of urea and creatinine. By term, a foetus produces about 800 ml of urine a day, of which 250ml is eliminated through fetal swallowing.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      6.3
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - The ascending colon drains into the superior mesenteric vein (SMV). What vein does...

    Incorrect

    • The ascending colon drains into the superior mesenteric vein (SMV). What vein does the SMV drain into?

      Your Answer: Inferior vena cava

      Correct Answer: Hepatic portal vein

      Explanation:

      The superior mesenteric vein joins the splenic vein to form the hepatic portal vein.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      14.6
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - From what does the blastocyst hatch? ...

    Incorrect

    • From what does the blastocyst hatch?

      Your Answer: Corona radiata

      Correct Answer: Zona Pellucida

      Explanation:

      The blastocyst hatchs from the Zona Pellucida

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      19.6
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - A 28-year-old woman at 35 weeks gestation who is gravida 2 para 1,...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman at 35 weeks gestation who is gravida 2 para 1, presented to the labour and delivery department since she has been having regular, painful contractions over the past 3 hours. Upon interview and history-taking, it was noted that the patient has had no prenatal care during this pregnancy. She also has no chronic medical conditions, and her only surgery was a low transverse caesarean delivery 2 years ago. Upon admission, her cervix is 7 cm dilated and 100% effaced with the fetal head at +2 station. Fetal heart rate tracing is category 1. Administration of epidural analgesia was performed, and the patient was relieved from pain due to the contractions. There was also rupture of membranes which resulted in bright-red amniotic fluid. Further examination was done and her results were: Blood pressure is 130/80 mmHg, Pulse is 112/min. Which of the following is most likely considered as the cause of the fetal heart rate tracing?

      Your Answer: Intraamniotic infection

      Correct Answer: Fetal blood loss

      Explanation:

      Fetal heart rate tracings (FHR) under category I include all of the following:
      – baseline rate 110– 160 bpm
      – baseline FHR variability moderate
      – accelerations present or absent
      – late or variable decelerations absent
      – early decelerations present or absent

      The onset of fetal bleeding is marked by a tachycardia followed by a bradycardia with intermittent accelerations or decelerations. Small amounts of vaginal bleeding associated with FHR abnormalities should raise the suspicion of fetal haemorrhage. This condition demands prompt delivery and immediate reexpansion of the neonatal blood volume.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      96
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - All are true about monozygotic pregnancy, EXCEPT: ...

    Correct

    • All are true about monozygotic pregnancy, EXCEPT:

      Your Answer: The 1st commonly presents as breech

      Explanation:

      The 1st commonly presents as cephalic. Monozygotic (MZ) twins originate when a single egg is fertilized to form one zygote, which then divides into two embryos. Although they share the same genotype they are not phenotypically identical.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Genetics
      39.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding Turner's syndrome? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding Turner's syndrome?

      Your Answer: Very low urinary oestrogen titre

      Correct Answer: Buccal smear is chromatin positive

      Explanation:

      Turner syndrome patients have high FSH levels and low oestrogen levels. They have a short stature and buccal smear is chromatin negative.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Embryology
      17.2
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - Which of the following is not caused by HPV? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following is not caused by HPV?

      Your Answer: Squamous cell carcinoma of anus

      Correct Answer: Oesophageal cancer

      Explanation:

      HPV infects the squamous cells that line the inner surfaces of these organs. For this reason, most HPV-related cancers are a type of cancer called squamous cell carcinoma. Some cervical cancers come from HPV infection of gland cells in the cervix and are called adenocarcinomas.

      HPV-related cancers include:

      Cervical cancer: Virtually all cervical cancers are caused by HPV. Routine screening can prevent most cervical cancers by allowing health care providers to find and remove precancerous cells before they develop into cancer. As a result, cervical cancer incidence rates in the United States are decreasing.

      Oropharyngeal cancers: Most of these cancers, which develop in the throat (usually the tonsils or the back of the tongue), are caused by HPV (70% of those in the United States). The number of new cases is increasing each year, and oropharyngeal cancers are now the most common HPV-related cancer in the United States.

      Anal cancer: Over 90% of anal cancers are caused by HPV. The number of new cases and deaths from anal cancer are increasing each year. Anal cancer is nearly twice as common in women as in men. Learn more about anal cancer statistics.

      Penile cancer: Most penile cancers (over 60%) are caused by HPV.
      Vaginal cancer: Most vaginal cancers (75%) are caused by HPV. Learn about symptoms of, and treatment for, vaginal cancer, a rare type of cancer.

      Vulvar cancer: Most vulvar cancers (70%) are caused by HPV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      17
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 41 year old woman is referred to EPAU with spotting in early...

    Incorrect

    • A 41 year old woman is referred to EPAU with spotting in early pregnancy. What is the risk of miscarriage in women in this age group?

      Your Answer: 75%

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Miscarriage rates:
      20-24 – 9%
      25-29 – 11%
      30-34 – 15%
      35-39 – 25%
      40-44 – 51%
      >45 – 75%

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Epidemiology
      7.8
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 30 year old women who is 24 weeks pregnant attends clinic due...

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old women who is 24 weeks pregnant attends clinic due to suprapubic pain. Ultrasound shows a viable foetus and also a fibroid with a cystic fluid filled centre. What is the likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Red degeneration of fibroid

      Correct Answer: Cystic degeneration of fibroid

      Explanation:

      A fibroid is a benign tumour of the smooth muscles of the uterus also known as a leiomyoma. It has a typical whorled appearance and this may be altered following degeneration which occurs in four main types:
      1. Red degeneration, also known as carneous degeneration, of degeneration that can involve a uterine leiomyoma. While it is an uncommon type of degeneration, it is thought to be the most common form of degeneration of a leiomyoma during pregnancy. Red degeneration follows an acute disruption of the blood supply to the fibroid during growth typically in a mid-second trimester presenting as sudden onset of pain with tenderness localizing to the area of the uterus along with pyrexia and leucocytosis. On ultrasound it can have peripheral (rim).

      2. Hyaline degeneration is the most common form of degeneration that can occur in a uterine leiomyoma. It is thought to occur in up to 60% of uterine leiomyomasoccurs when the fibroid outgrows its blood supply. this may progresses to central necrosis leaving a cystic space in the centre knowns as cystic degeneration.

      3. Cystic degeneration is an uncommon type of degeneration that a uterine leiomyoma (fibroid) can undergo. This type of degeneration is thought to represent ,4% of all types of uterine leiomyoma degeneration. When the leiomyoma increases in size, the vascular supply to it becomes inadequate and leads to different types of degeneration: hyaline, cystic, myxoid, or red degeneration. Dystrophic calcification may also occur. Hyalinization is the commonest type of degeneration. Cystic degeneration is an extreme sequel of edema. Ultrasound may show a hypoechoic or heterogeneous uterine mass with cystic areas.

      4. Myxoid degeneration of leiomyoma is one of the rarer types of degeneration that can occur in a uterine leiomyoma. While this type of degeneration is generally considered rare, the highest prevalence for this type of degeneration has been reported as up to 50% of all degenerations of leiomyomas. Fibroids (i.e. uterine leiomyomas) that have undergone myxoid degeneration are filled with a gelatinous material and can be difficult to differentiate from cystic degeneration; however, they typically appear as more complex cystic masses. They appear hypocellular with a myxoid matrix.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      18.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Regarding urinary tract infection (UTI) in pregnancy. What is the most common causative...

    Correct

    • Regarding urinary tract infection (UTI) in pregnancy. What is the most common causative organism of urinary tract infection?

      Your Answer: Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      E.coli is the most common cause of UTI. Other organisms include pseudomonas, proteus and klebsiella.

      NICE guidelines: UTI in pregnancy (updated in July 2015)

      Send urine for culture and sensitivity from all women in whom UTI is suspected before starting empirical antibiotics and 7 days after antibiotic treatment is completed.
      Prescribe an antibiotic to all women with suspected UTI (awaiting culture result is not advised)
      Although local antibiotic resistance needs to be taken into account the following is advised in terms of antibiotic selection:
      1. Nitrofurantoin 50 mg QDS (or 100 mg MR BD) for 7 days.
      2. Trimethoprim 200 mg twice daily, for 7 days
      Give folic acid 5 mg OD if it is the 1st trimester
      Do not give trimethoprim if the woman is folate deficient, taking a folate antagonist, or has been treated with trimethoprim in the past year.
      3. Cefalexin 500 mg BD (or 250 mg 6qds) for 7 days

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      7
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 23-year-old gravida 1 para 0 at 36 weeks gestation presents to the...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old gravida 1 para 0 at 36 weeks gestation presents to the office complaining of ankle swelling and occasional headache for the past 2 days. She denies any abdominal pain or visual disturbances. On examination you note a fundal height of 35 cm, a fetal heart rate of 140 beats/min, 2+ lower extremity oedema, and a blood pressure of 144/92 mm Hg. A urine dipstick shows 1+ proteinuria. Which one of the following is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

      Your Answer: Immediate Caesarean delivery

      Correct Answer: Laboratory evaluation, fetal testing, and 24-hour urine for total protein

      Explanation:

      This patient most likely has preeclampsia, which is defined as an elevated blood pressure and proteinuria after 20 weeks gestation. The patient needs further evaluation, including a 24-hour urine for quantitative measurement of protein, blood pressure monitoring, and laboratory evaluation that includes haemoglobin, haematocrit, a platelet count, and serum levels of transaminase, creatinine, albumin, LDH, and uric acid- A peripheral smear and coagulation profiles also may be obtained- Antepartum fetal testing, such as a nonstress test to assess fetal well-being, would also be appropriate.

      → Ultrasonography should be done to assess for fetal intrauterine growth restriction, but only after an initial laboratory and fetal evaluation.
      → It is not necessary to start this patient on antihypertensive therapy at this point. An obstetric consultation should be considered for patients with preeclampsia.
      → Delivery is the definitive treatment for preeclampsia- The timing of delivery is determined by the gestational age of the foetus and the severity of preeclampsia in the mother. Vaginal delivery is preferred over caesarean delivery, if possible, in patients with preeclampsia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      47
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 30 year old patient is due for delivery in about two weeks....

    Incorrect

    • A 30 year old patient is due for delivery in about two weeks. She has some concerns after a family member recently gave birth to a baby with profound hearing loss due to an infection. Which of the following would you describe to her as the most common infective cause of congenital hearing loss?

      Your Answer: Rubella

      Correct Answer: Cytomegalovirus

      Explanation:

      Congenital cytomegalovirus infections are the most common cause of sensorineural hearing loss in babies. Cytomegalovirus infection during the perinatal period can be transferred to the foetus especially if the primary infection is during pregnancy. Babies born with congenital CMV are either symptomatic or develop symptoms later in life. Some of the features of CMV infection include sensorineural hearing loss, visual impairment, cerebral palsy, microcephaly and seizures. Other causes of infective congenital sensorineural hearing loss include: Rubella, HIV, Herpes Simplex Virus, Measles, Varicella Zoster virus, Mumps and West Nile Virus.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Microbiology
      23.7
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - If the presenting part of the foetus is the large fontanel, this presentation...

    Incorrect

    • If the presenting part of the foetus is the large fontanel, this presentation is known as?

      Your Answer: Vertex

      Correct Answer: Sinciput

      Explanation:

      Sinciput means the head is neither flexed nor extended. It is the area between forehead and crown and in this case the anterior fontanel is the presenting part.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Anatomy
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A sexually active young woman comes in with frothy, foul-smelling vaginal discharge. Dysuria...

    Correct

    • A sexually active young woman comes in with frothy, foul-smelling vaginal discharge. Dysuria and dyspareunia are also present. The genital region seems to be quite reddish. What is the potential danger associated with this presentation?

      Your Answer: Increased risk of cervical cancer

      Explanation:

      TV infection is associated with both LR and HR-HPV infection of the cervix, as well as with ASC-US and HSIL. The signs and symptoms of trichomoniasis are present in this patient. Trichomonas vaginalis is the reason.
      Increased vaginal discharge that is frothy, yellowish, and has an unpleasant odour are among the symptoms. It’s frequently linked to dyspareunia and dysuria. Normally, the genital area is red and painful.

      In both men and women, trichomoniasis can cause preterm labour and raise the risk of infertility. Both the patient and the partner must be treated at the same time.

      The active infection can be treated with a single oral dose of metronidazole 2 g taken with food.
      To avoid disulfiram-like symptoms, alcohol should be avoided during the first 24-48 hours after treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gynaecology
      33.5
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 21-year old female, gravida 1 para 0, term pregnancy, comes in due...

    Correct

    • A 21-year old female, gravida 1 para 0, term pregnancy, comes in due to labour for eight hours. Two hours prior to onset of contractions, her membranes have allegedly ruptured. Fetal heart rate is at 144/min. Contractions are of good quality, noted every 2-3 minutes, with a duration of 45 seconds. On examination, her cervix is fully dilated and the patient has been pushing all throughout. Vertex is palpated in the occipito-anterior (OA) position and has descended to station 2 cm below the ischial spines in the previous hour. Which of the following most likely depicts the current condition of the patient?

      Your Answer: Normal progress.

      Explanation:

      The patient’s condition can be described as a normal progress of labour. The scenario shows a normal descent of the head in the pelvic cavity, with a favourable position, and occurring within an hour of the second stage of labour. A normal second stage of labour in a nulliparous individual occurs at a maximum of two hours, which is consistent with this patient. Hence, there is no delay in the second stage.

      There is evident progress of labour in this patient, hence, obstructed labour or cephalopelvic disproportion is ruled out.

      No signs of maternal distress such as tachycardia or pyrexia is described in this patient.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      76.1
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - The Mantoux test utilises what type of hypersensitivity reaction? ...

    Correct

    • The Mantoux test utilises what type of hypersensitivity reaction?

      Your Answer: Type IV

      Explanation:

      The Mantoux test is based on type IV hypersensitivity reaction.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Immunology
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - Prenatal screening is recommended if ultrasound scan at 16 weeks confirms that the...

    Correct

    • Prenatal screening is recommended if ultrasound scan at 16 weeks confirms that the foetus is male and the mother has had an affected son previously. Choose the single most likely condition from the following list of options. 7

      Your Answer: Duchene muscular dystrophy

      Explanation:

      The condition should be an X-linked recessive condition, as it affects only male offspring. Duchene muscular dystrophy is an X-linked recessive condition. Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disorder. Spina bifida is a multifactorial condition. Down syndrome is caused by trisomy of chromosome 21. Spinal muscular atrophies are inherited in an autosomal-recessive pattern.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      7.2
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - Breast feeding stimulates the hypothalamus to produce which of the following hormones? ...

    Correct

    • Breast feeding stimulates the hypothalamus to produce which of the following hormones?

      Your Answer: Oxytocin

      Explanation:

      Breast feeding facilitates the production of Oxytocin by the hypothalamus which is stored and secreted by the posterior pituitary.
      Ergometrine is an ergoline derivative that can be used to increase uterine tone.
      Atosiban is an antagonist of Oxytocin receptors
      ADH is another posterior pituitary hormone.
      Prostaglandin E2 plays an important role in cervical ripening.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Management
      4.8
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - All of the following organs are involved in oestrogen production except: ...

    Incorrect

    • All of the following organs are involved in oestrogen production except:

      Your Answer: Corpus luteum

      Correct Answer: Anterior pituitary

      Explanation:

      Oestrogen can be produced by variety of organs including the corpus leuteum, placenta, adrenal glands and testes. However it is not produced by the anterior pituitary. The anterior pituitary produces LH and FSH which in turn causes oestrogen secretion.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrinology
      7.3
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - Which of the following microorganisms is considered the most frequently associated with septic...

    Correct

    • Which of the following microorganisms is considered the most frequently associated with septic shock in obstetrics and gynecology?

      Your Answer: Escherichia coli

      Explanation:

      Organisms frequently associated with obstetric sepsis include: beta haemolytic streptococci, Gram-negative rods such as Escherichia coli, Streptococcus pneumoniae and influenza A and B.

      E. coli is the most common sepsis pathogen in pregnancy.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      16.1
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 28-year-old woman presents for an antenatal visit in her first pregnancy. The...

    Incorrect

    • A 28-year-old woman presents for an antenatal visit in her first pregnancy. The pregnancy has been progressing normally thus far. Her routine mid-trimester ultrasound examination, performed at 18 weeks of gestation, shows that the placenta occupies the lower part of the uterus. It is noted that the placenta is reaching to within 1 cm of the internal cervical os. The patient is wondering what this means for her pregnancy and what needs to be done about it. Which one of the following would be the most appropriate management?

      Your Answer: Recommend delivery by Caesarean section.

      Correct Answer: Repeat the ultrasound at 34 weeks of gestation.

      Explanation:

      This patient is presenting with a low-lying placenta at 18 weeks of gestation. This is a common finding on ultrasound at 18-20 weeks. If there is not bleeding, there is an 80-90% chance that by late pregnancy, the placenta will have moved and is no longer occupying the lower uterine segment. For this reason, the repeat ultrasound examination is usually performed at 32-34 weeks of gestation. Further discussions about management can then be made after obtaining those results.

      Leaving the repeat ultrasound until term would be inappropriate as intervention would be needed prior. If the placenta praevia is still present, it is typically advisable to deliver prior to term.

      Cardiotocographic (CT) fetal heart rate monitoring is not required in the absence of bleeding or other symptoms.

      Delivery by Caesarean section would not be necessary if the placenta was no longer praevia by the time the repeat ultrasound is done.

      Repeat ultrasound examination at 22 weeks of gestation would also unnecessary and inappropriate as it is too close in time for the change to occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Obstetrics
      89.1
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Anatomy (1/3) 33%
Endocrinology (2/3) 67%
Clinical Management (2/5) 40%
Obstetrics (4/8) 50%
Gynaecology (2/4) 50%
Cell Biology (1/1) 100%
Embryology (0/2) 0%
Genetics (1/1) 100%
Epidemiology (0/1) 0%
Microbiology (0/1) 0%
Immunology (1/1) 100%
Passmed