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Question 1
Incorrect
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You are asked to see a 4-month-old baby girl as an emergency.
Her parents are increasingly concerned about her, she has a four day history of runny nose, and increasing difficulty in breathing, and has worsened over the past 24 hours.
She was born at 35/40 weighing 2.2 kg and bottle feeds. There were no neonatal problems. She has received the first two routine immunisations. Both parents are heavy smokers.
On examination she has a temperature of 38.3°C, with respiratory rate of 65/min and a heart rate of 150/min. She has nasal flaring, grunting and marked recession and scattered wheeze and crackles throughout both lung fields. You cannot hear any heart mumurs.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Pneumonia, bacterial
Correct Answer: Virus-induced wheeze
Explanation:Bronchiolitis: A Common Respiratory Infection in Infants
Bronchiolitis is a respiratory infection that commonly affects infants, with symptoms ranging from mild upper respiratory tract infection to severe lower respiratory tract symptoms. The infection is typically caused by respiratory syncytial virus (RSV), which leads to epidemics during the winter season. The severity of the infection is influenced by both baby and maternal factors.
Baby factors that increase the risk of severe bronchiolitis include chronic lung disease, congenital heart disease, immunodeficiency, and gastro-oesophageal reflux. On the other hand, maternal factors such as smoking and bottle feeding can also contribute to the severity of the infection. Breastfeeding, however, has been found to be partly protective against bronchiolitis.
In summary, bronchiolitis is a common respiratory infection in infants that can range from mild to severe. It is important for parents and caregivers to be aware of the risk factors that can increase the severity of the infection and take appropriate measures to prevent and manage it.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old woman develops chest pain after an argument with her 16-year-old daughter.
She is brought to the surgery where you are asked to see her. She is hyperventilating and looks very anxious. She is tender to light pressure on the front of her chest, but examination is otherwise unremarkable. Breathing room air, her oxygen saturation (finger probe) is 99%. Her ECG is normal.
What is the most appropriate course of action for this woman?Your Answer: Explain that she has had a panic attack and that her symptoms are a consequence of this. Help her to control her breathing rate, and say that you think everything will settle down and she will be able to go home.
Correct Answer: Check troponin and send with routine samples. Plan to repeat ECG in two hours. Explain that you think that there is probably nothing serious going on, but you want to make sure that she has not had a heart attack.
Explanation:Diagnosis of Panic Attack
The ECG and pulse oximetry tests were normal, and the clinical context and examination findings all point to the diagnosis of a panic attack. It is appropriate to explain the diagnosis to the patient and provide reassurance.
Psychological symptoms of an anxiety state include irritability, intolerance of noise, poor concentration/memory, fearfulness, apprehensiveness, restlessness, and continuous worrying thoughts. On the other hand, physical symptoms of an anxiety state include dry mouth, difficulty in swallowing, chest pain, shakiness, diarrhoea, urinary frequency, paraesthesiae, and hot flashes. Physical signs of an anxiety state include tenseness, sweating, shaking, pallor, restlessness, and sighing.
It is important to recognize the symptoms and signs of a panic attack to provide appropriate care and support to the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old patient with Addisons disease phones the surgery for advice.
He feels mildly unwell with a sore throat and a temperature of 37.8 degrees. There is no vomiting, no headache and no diarrhoea. He says that his children and wife have recently been unwell with a similar illness, thought to be viral in origin and that they have since fully recovered.
He asks for advice about his medication.
What would you advise?Your Answer: He should take paracetamol and phone back if the symptoms worsen or do not settle in a few days
Correct Answer: He should take double the usual dose of both fludrocortisone and hydrocortisone
Explanation:Managing Addison’s Disease: The Importance of Sick Day Rules
Managing Addison’s disease can be challenging, especially for general practitioners who may have limited exposure to its management. However, it is crucial to familiarize oneself with the sick day rules to prevent catastrophic consequences of mismanagement in primary care. The Addisons Clinical Advisory Panel has produced an excellent guide for GPs, which outlines the sick day rules that patients must follow.
The sick day rules include doubling the normal dose of hydrocortisone for a fever of more than 37.5 C or for infection/sepsis requiring antibiotics. For severe nausea often accompanied by a headache, patients should take 20 mg hydrocortisone orally and sip rehydration/electrolyte fluids. In case of vomiting, patients should use the emergency injection (100 mg hydrocortisone) immediately and call a doctor, stating Addison’s emergency. After a major injury, patients should take 20 mg hydrocortisone orally immediately to avoid shock.
It is also essential to ensure that the anaesthetist and surgical team, dentist, or endoscopist are aware of the need for extra oral medication and that they have checked the ACAP surgical guidelines for the correct level of steroid cover, available at www.addisons.org.uk/publications. By following these sick day rules, patients with Addison’s disease can manage their condition effectively and prevent any potential complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 4
Incorrect
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You are seeing a middle-aged patient in your morning clinic. You suspect he had a TIA three days ago. He has no neurological deficit at present and is otherwise well.
Which of the following does NICE advise as the next step of management?Your Answer: Arrange for specialist assessment within 7 days
Correct Answer: Arrange for specialist assessment within 24 hours
Explanation:NICE Guidelines for Suspected TIA
When suspecting a TIA has occurred within the last week, NICE advises administering aspirin 300 mg and seeking assessment within 24 hours by a stroke specialist physician. However, they no longer recommend using the ABCD2 scoring system as evidence shows it is poor at distinguishing between high and low risk of stroke after a TIA.
If the suspected TIA happened over one week ago, the patient can be referred for assessment within 7 days. Immediate admission should be considered for patients with a bleeding disorder or on an anticoagulant, those who have had more than one TIA (consider crescendo TIAs), severe carotid stenosis, suspected cardioembolic source, or lack reliable support at home to contact emergency services if further symptoms occur.
It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure proper assessment and treatment for patients with suspected TIA.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 5
Correct
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You are investigating a 70-year-old patient with suspected heart failure. The NT-proBNP result arrived today as 2200 ng/litre.
Which of the following would be the most appropriate management step?Your Answer: Refer to on-call cardiologist
Explanation:NT-proBNP Guidelines for Heart Failure Diagnosis
NICE guidelines provide clear instructions for the interpretation of NT-proBNP levels in the diagnosis of heart failure. An NT-proBNP level above 2000ng/litre indicates a poor prognosis and requires urgent referral for specialist assessment and echocardiography within 2 weeks. For levels between 400 and 2000 ng/litre, referral should be made within 6 weeks. However, an NT-proBNP level less than 400 ng/litre makes a diagnosis of heart failure less likely. It is important to keep in mind that certain factors such as obesity, Afro-Caribbean family origin, and medication use can reduce the reading. Therefore, careful consideration of these factors is necessary when interpreting NT-proBNP levels. By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can ensure timely and accurate diagnosis of heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old male is brought to see you by his mother following an episode of collapse. He tells you that on a few occasions whilst playing basketball he has had some chest pain and breathlessness, and has felt as though he were going to faint. Last night during practice he collapsed and 'blacked out' for a few seconds. On examination he has a harsh ejection systolic murmur with a palpable systolic thrill at the left sternal edge; and a prominent jerky carotid pulse. What is the underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome
Correct Answer: Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy
Explanation:Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy (HOCM) is a condition caused by left ventricular outflow tract obstruction due to septal hypertrophy. It can be inherited or sporadic, and a family history of sudden death should be considered. Symptoms include chest pain, shortness of breath, palpitations, pre-syncope, and syncope. Clinical signs include a ‘jerky’ pulse, double apex impulse, and a prominent systolic thrill with a harsh ejection systolic murmur.
Brugada syndrome is a rare inherited cardiac condition that can cause sudden cardiac death. It is caused by a genetic mutation affecting the cardiac sodium channels and is inherited in an autosomal dominant pattern.
Long-QT syndrome can be inherited or acquired and predisposes to ventricular tachycardia and sudden death. Causes include various drugs, ischaemic heart disease, and metabolic abnormalities such as hypocalcaemia.
Pericarditis can present acutely with chest pain that worsens when lying flat and with inspiration. A pericardial rub may be audible, and causes include viruses, bacteria, fungi, and systemic diseases.
Constrictive pericarditis occurs when the pericardium becomes rigid and mainly leads to signs of right heart failure. Clinical signs include a diffuse apex beat, quiet heart sounds, and Kussmaul’s sign (JVP rises with inspiration paradoxically). It can occur after an episode of acute pericarditis.
Wolff-Parkinson-White syndrome is caused by an accessory pathway that conducts between the atrium and ventricle, facilitating abnormal conduction and often presenting with supraventricular tachycardia.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 61-year-old gentleman presents to the emergency department with a persistent cough that has been troubling him for the last six months. His wife has brought him in as he has coughed up small amounts of blood on several occasions and has lost about a stone in weight over the last few months. He is a heavy smoker of 40 cigarettes a day for the last 40 years and has developed noisy breathing over the last few days. He also complains of a persistent headache and feeling a little dizzy. On examination, he has a soft stridor at rest and dilated veins on his chest wall. His oxygen saturations are 98% in room air, blood pressure is 128/88 mmHg, and pulse rate is 90 regular. He is alert, oriented, and afebrile with clear chest sounds on auscultation. What is the most appropriate management plan?
Your Answer: Refer as an urgent suspected cancer to a chest physician
Correct Answer: Admit as a medical emergency
Explanation:Superior Vena Caval Obstruction (SVCO)
Superior Vena Caval Obstruction (SVCO) is a condition where there is an obstruction of blood flow in the superior vena cava. This can be caused by extraluminal compression or thrombosis within the vein. The most common cause of SVCO is malignancy, particularly lung cancer and lymphoma. Benign causes include intrathoracic goitre and granulomatous conditions such as sarcoidosis.
The typical features of SVCO include facial/upper body oedema, facial plethora, venous distention, and increased shortness of breath. Other symptoms may include dizziness, syncopal attacks, and headache due to pressure effect. Prompt recognition of SVCO on clinical grounds and immediate referral for specialist assessment is crucial. If there is any stridor or laryngeal oedema, SVCO is considered a medical emergency.
Management of SVCO involves treatment with steroids and radiotherapy. Chemotherapy and stent insertion may also be indicated. It is important to address the underlying cause of SVCO to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 8
Incorrect
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An 80-year-old man is admitted to hospital after a fall. He denies any loss of consciousness but admits to increasing dizziness when attempting to get around his flat.
He has a past medical history of cardiac failure, type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension. His medications, which were recently altered by the hospital clinic, include bendroflumethiazide, aspirin, ramipril, gliclazide, furosemide, simvastatin and doxazosin, the latter being recently introduced.
What single observation would help establish his diagnosis?Your Answer: Lying and standing blood pressures
Correct Answer: Arterial blood gases
Explanation:Drug-induced Postural Hypotension
Drug-induced postural hypotension is a condition that can occur as a side effect of antihypertensive therapy, especially with the use of alpha-blockers. In this case, the patient’s recent introduction to doxazosin is a clue to the cause of their symptoms. Postural hypotension is characterized by a sudden drop in blood pressure when standing up, leading to dizziness, lightheadedness, and even fainting. It is important to monitor patients closely when starting new medications and adjust dosages as needed to prevent this potentially dangerous condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old male presents with a two hour history of severe pain in the left testis. He is unaware of preceding trauma and feels that the pain has increased since it began. He feels nauseated and has been pyrexial.
Whilst examining him he confesses to having a sexual relationship. On examination, he has a tender swollen left testis with a temperature of 37.5°C.
What is the most appropriate management for this patient?Your Answer: Arrange emergency admission
Correct Answer: Take FBC and MSU and await results before prescribing.
Explanation:Acute Testicular Pain in Young Males: Torsion as the Primary Concern
In young males under 20 years of age who experience sudden testicular pain, it is crucial to consider torsion as the primary diagnosis. Failure to recognize this condition can lead to irreversible damage to the testes. Therefore, the most important action is to seek immediate medical attention and admission for acute urology opinion.
Prompt treatment within six hours of symptom onset can save most testes, while delaying treatment beyond 12 hours can result in the loss of the affected testicle. Therefore, it is essential to prioritize timely diagnosis and management of testicular torsion to prevent long-term complications and preserve fertility.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 10
Correct
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A 36-year-old woman presents with complaints of generalised lethargy and weakness. She has a significant medical history of childhood asthma and vitiligo, and currently only uses a salbutamol inhaler as needed. She reports feeling constantly worn out, weak, and experiencing body aches. She also feels dizzy when standing up quickly. On examination, she appears well and has no fever, shortness of breath, or pain. Her blood pressure is 106/60, but drops to 94/56 when standing, causing brief lightheadedness. Cardiovascular, respiratory, and abdominal examinations are normal. There is no joint swelling and she walks with a normal gait. Blood tests reveal a slightly low sodium of 130 mmol/L and a slightly raised potassium of 5.5 mmol/L. Which investigation is most likely to aid in establishing a diagnosis?
Your Answer: Serum cortisol level obtained at 9 am
Explanation:Understanding Addison’s Disease
Addison’s disease is a rare condition caused by adrenal insufficiency, with the most common cause being autoimmune destruction of the adrenal glands. It affects a small percentage of the population, making it difficult to diagnose due to its vague symptoms. Patients may experience chronic fatigue, weight loss, and muscle weakness, among other symptoms. Differential diagnoses should be considered, including type 1 diabetes, eating disorders, and chronic fatigue syndrome.
Clinical examination and blood tests can provide clues to the presence of Addison’s disease. Postural hypotension, hyponatremia, and hyperkalemia are common features. A serum cortisol level done at 8-9 am can also be helpful in diagnosing the condition. Levels below 100 nanomol/L require hospital admission, while levels between 100 and 500 nanomol/L merit endocrinology referral for further investigation.
It is important to have a high degree of suspicion when considering a diagnosis of Addison’s disease, as early detection and treatment can prevent acute crises and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old male presents with increasing shortness of breath and ascites.
On examination, he is hypotensive, has an elevated JVP which rises on inspiration, (Kussmaul's sign) and has a 'knock' on auscultation of the heart.
Past history of note includes TB which was treated with aggressive quadruple therapy some three years ago.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Pericardial effusion
Correct Answer: Mitral stenosis
Explanation:Paradoxical JVP Rise in Pericardial Effusion
Pericardial effusion, which may be infective as a result of previous tuberculosis, can cause a paradoxical rise in the jugular venous pressure (JVP) during inspiration. This is in contrast to the typical fall in JVP seen with inspiration. Treatment for pericardial effusion depends on the underlying cause, with an echocardiogram being the crucial initial investigation. If the effusion is particularly large and causing haemodynamic compromise, it may need to be tapped. Additionally, re-treatment with anti-tuberculous therapy is necessary. Proper diagnosis and management of pericardial effusion are essential to prevent further complications.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man presents to the clinic for follow-up. He has been experiencing increasing difficulty with swallowing and feels like food is getting stuck shortly after he swallows. He has resorted to blending most of his meals and has lost 4 kg in weight over the past two months. He has also developed a hoarse voice recently.
The patient has a history of knee osteoarthritis and regularly takes ibuprofen. He has a BMI of 21 kg/m2 and no cervical lymphadenopathy is noted.
Laboratory results show:
- Hb 98 g/L (135-180)
- WCC 7.4 ×109/L (4.5-10)
- PLT 182 ×109/L (150-450)
- Na 137 mmol/L (135-145)
- K 4.7 mmol/L (3.5-5.5)
- Cr 115 µmol/L (70-110)
Based on these findings, you suspect an upper esophageal cancer.
What is the most important next step?Your Answer: Barium swallow
Correct Answer: Trial of omeprazole
Explanation:Urgent Referral for Upper GI Endoscopy in Suspected Oesophageal Carcinoma
This patient’s medical history is indicative of an oesophageal carcinoma in the upper third, which is commonly associated with smoking and exposure to human papillomavirus. Although there are no signs of cervical lymphadenopathy, urgent referral to a gastroenterologist for upper GI endoscopy is necessary to rule out any underlying cancer.
Barium swallow is not recommended as upper GI endoscopy is a more effective option that allows for early tissue diagnosis. Helicobacter pylori testing is only useful in cases of potential duodenal ulcer disease, which is not the case here.
Stopping ibuprofen and trying omeprazole are not appropriate options as they may delay the diagnosis of any underlying oesophageal lesion. Therefore, urgent referral for upper GI endoscopy is the best course of action in suspected cases of oesophageal carcinoma.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 13
Correct
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A 25-year-old man presents to you urgently with a facial issue. He has been feeling unwell for a few weeks since returning from a camping trip in Hampshire. He has no significant medical history and is not taking any regular medication. He initially experienced a flu-like illness with painful widespread arthralgia. He also has a rash, which has gradually increased in size and now measures approximately 5 cm in diameter on his leg. You observe a central spot surrounded by clear skin ringed by an outer erythematous area. There is local lymphadenopathy. He reports that he blacked out earlier this week. He hoped to recover from the illness, but when he developed a facial problem, he became concerned and made an appointment to see you. During the cranial nerve examination, you discover an isolated lower motor neurone facial nerve palsy. You also perform an ECG due to the loss of consciousness history, which reveals first-degree heart block. What is the underlying cause of this condition?
Your Answer: Viral infection
Explanation:Lyme Disease: A Tick-Borne Infection
Lyme disease is a bacterial infection caused by Borrelia burgdorferi, which is transmitted through tick bites. The disease was first described in Lyme, Connecticut, USA, and is also prevalent in areas such as the New Forest in Hampshire, UK. Not all patients remember being bitten, so a lack of tick bite history doesn’t rule out the disease.
Symptoms of Lyme disease include lethargy, arthralgia, and cognitive impairment, as well as lymphadenopathy, myocarditis, meningitis, cranial nerve palsies, and neuropathy. The typical rash, erythema chronicum migrans, presents as a papule that develops into a large spreading annular lesion with central fading. This rash can last up to three months, and multiple lesions can develop.
This patient has developed the typical rash and acute illness with a facial nerve palsy and evidence of myocarditis on the background of a trip to an area where infection is endemic. Serological diagnosis is needed to confirm infection, and treatment is with antibiotics active against the causative bacterium. Early treatment is essential, and treatment with antibiotics doesn’t preclude later testing. A common regime is several weeks’ treatment with doxycycline, provided treatment is started early.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 14
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man with known asthma visits your clinic with complaints of worsening wheezing over the past few hours. He seldom attends asthma clinic. During previous consultations, his best peak flow measurements have been 500 L/min. What is the indication of acute severe asthma in this patient?
Your Answer: Peak flow rate of 400L/min
Correct Answer: Heart rate 105/min
Explanation:Assessment and Severity of Acute Asthma
The British Thoracic Society provides clear guidance on the assessment and management of acute asthma. It is important to familiarize oneself with this document, as questions about the assessment and severity of acute asthma are common in exams.
Indicators of acute severe asthma include a peak expiratory flow rate of 33-50% of the patient’s best or predicted rate, a respiratory rate of 25 or greater, a heart rate of 110/min or greater, or the inability to complete sentences in one breath. The goal of oxygen therapy is to maintain SpO2 levels between 94-98%.
It is important to note that there is no fixed numerical peak flow rate for all patients to determine the severity of their asthma. It depends on their personal best reading or predicted peak flow reading. If their actual peak flow is 33-50% of this figure, it is a marker of an acute severe attack.
For example, a peak flow rate of 400 L/min in a patient with a personal best of 500 L/min equates to 80% of their best and would not be considered a marker of an acute severe attack. However, a pulse of 115 would be considered a marker of acute severe asthma because the threshold is 110/min or greater.
If any of these features of an acute severe asthma attack persist after initial treatment, the patient should be admitted.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 78-year-old man presents with a suspected right sided deep vein thrombosis (DVT). He has a history of cardiac failure and is currently taking ramipril 5 mg BD, bisoprolol 7.5 mg OD, atorvastatin 20 mg OD and furosemide 40 mg OD.
Upon examination, his right calf measures 2 cm larger than the left (when measured 10cm below the tibial tuberosity) and there is mild erythema of the skin on the right lower leg. Palpation of the back of the right calf elicits some tenderness. He also has mild bilateral pitting oedema of the feet that is symmetrical when comparing both feet.
Which of the following would earn one point when calculating his two-level DVT Wells score?Your Answer: The pitting oedema that is present in both feet
Correct Answer: The size difference of the calves
Explanation:Two-Level DVT Wells Score
A Two-Level DVT Wells score is a tool used to determine the likelihood of a deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in a patient. The score is calculated based on several factors, including cancer, recent immobilization, major surgery, tenderness along the deep venous system, leg swelling, pitting edema, non-varicose collateral superficial veins, and past medical history of DVT.
A score of one point is given for each of these factors, except for past medical history of DVT, which automatically scores one point. Two points are subtracted if another diagnosis is more likely. If the score is two points or more, the probability of a DVT is likely, while a score of one point or less indicates an unlikely probability.
It is important to note that in this case, the swelling is not greater than 3 cm and the minimal pitting is equal on both sides, which may affect the overall score and probability of a DVT.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 31-year-old woman presents to surgery with a flare-up of her ulcerative colitis.
She was seen four days ago with abdominal pain and bloody diarrhoea and has returned today as her symptoms have worsened. She currently complains that over the last two days she has been passing at least eight loose stools a day all of which have be associated with the passage of fresh blood.
On examination, her temperature is 37.4°C, pulse rate is 104 b.p.m., and blood pressure is 98/72 mmHg. Abdominal examination reveals diffuse tenderness on deep palpation but no peritonism or masses.
Blood tests performed yesterday show a modest anaemia with a haemoglobin 109 g/L (normal range 115-135), an ESR of 23 mm/hr (normal range <15) and an albumin of 35 g/L (normal range 35-50).
Which of the following parameters in this instance is an indication of severe colitis and should prompt consideration of hospital admission?Your Answer: Pulse rate
Correct Answer: Inflammatory marker levels
Explanation:Severity of Ulcerative Colitis and Hospital Admission
Severe flare-ups of inflammatory bowel disease require hospital admission and inpatient treatment due to potential complications such as toxic megacolon, perforation, sepsis, and severe bleeding. In the case of ulcerative colitis, disease severity can be determined using the Truelove-Witts criteria, which includes symptoms such as bowel movements more than six times a day, along with low hemoglobin levels, high ESR, elevated pulse rate, and fever.
A patient presenting with severe symptoms such as bloody diarrhea and systemic unwellness should be admitted immediately for in-patient assessment. The tachycardia should alert the clinician to systemic upset and prompt hospital admission to initiate treatment to guard against the development of complications. Studies have shown that untreated severe ulcerative colitis had a mortality rate of almost 25%, but with the use of corticosteroids and expert surgical input, this figure has been reduced to less than 1%.
It is important to note that approximately half of severe ulcerative colitis attacks occur as a first attack in a patient without a previous diagnosis. Moderate disease is classified as four to six stools a day (with or without blood) with minimal systemic disturbance, while mild disease is classified as less than four stools a day (with or without blood) with no systemic unwellness (no fever or tachycardia) and a normal ESR. Overall, the severity of ulcerative colitis should be carefully assessed to determine the appropriate level of care and treatment needed for the patient.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 16-year-old girl presents with complaints of feeling tired and lethargic for the past six months. She also reports experiencing generalised abdominal discomfort and constipation. Despite denying depression, her academic performance has declined this year. On examination, she appears pale and thin, with a blood pressure of 110/60 mmHg and no postural drop in BP. Her laboratory results show a Hb of 134 g/L (115-165), WBC of 4.8 ×109/L (4-11), Platelet of 290 ×109/L (150-400), ESR of 7 mm/hr (<10), Na of 131 mmol/L (135-144), K of 2.7 mmol/L (3.4-4.5), Urea of 3.0 mmol/L (3-7), Creat of 90 µmol/L (50-100), Bicarbonate of 35 mmol/L (20-28), Alkaline phosphatase of 90 IU/L (50-110), Bilirubin of 12 µmol/L (0-17), AST of 30 IU/L (5-40), and Albumin of 36 g/L (33-44). Her CXR is normal. What is the most likely underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Anorexia nervosa
Correct Answer: Pheochromocytoma
Explanation:Diagnosis Considerations for a Patient with Anorexia Nervosa
This patient is presenting with anorexia nervosa and self-induced vomiting, which can explain the low levels of sodium, potassium, and alkalosis. It is important to note that hypoalbuminemia may not be present until later stages of the disease.
When considering other potential diagnoses, Addison’s disease can cause hyponatremia and hyperkalemic acidosis, but the patient’s clinical presentation doesn’t align with this diagnosis. Additionally, there is no postural drop in blood pressure, which is not supportive of Addison’s disease.
Cushing’s disease can cause hypokalemic alkalosis, but again, the patient’s presentation doesn’t fit with this diagnosis.
Conn’s syndrome, which is associated with adrenal adenoma, can cause hypertension and hypokalemia. However, this diagnosis is not likely in this case.
In summary, the patient’s symptoms and laboratory results are consistent with a diagnosis of anorexia nervosa with self-induced vomiting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man presents with severe, left, renal, angle pain. On examination he has severe, left, renal, angle tenderness, his BP is elevated at 155/90 mmHg, and his pulse is 95. He is apyrexial. Investigations show: Haemoglobin 121 g/L (135-180) White cell count 6.1 ×109/L (4-10) Platelets 201 ×109/L (150-400) Sodium 140 mmol/L (134-143) Potassium 4.9 mmol/L (3.5-5) Creatinine 110 µmol/L (60-120) Urine blood +++ Which one of the following would be your best next step?
Your Answer: Start amoxicillin
Correct Answer: Give him an injection of IM diclofenac
Explanation:The patient is likely suffering from acute renal colic due to a calcium-containing renal stone. IM diclofenac is the initial step in management, along with increased fluid intake and arranging for a urology opinion. Antispasmodics should not be offered. Assess response to initial treatment and admit if no response within 1 hour. Offer urgent imaging to confirm diagnosis and assess likelihood of spontaneous stone passage. Offer NSAIDs for pain relief, and consider opioids if necessary. Do not offer antispasmodics. Provide written information on renal and ureteric stones.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 19
Correct
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Each of the following is a characteristic of organophosphate poisoning, except for which one?
Your Answer: Mydriasis
Explanation:Understanding Organophosphate Insecticide Poisoning
Organophosphate insecticide poisoning is a condition that occurs when an individual is exposed to insecticides containing organophosphates. This type of poisoning inhibits acetylcholinesterase, leading to an increase in nicotinic and muscarinic cholinergic neurotransmission. In warfare, sarin gas is a highly toxic synthetic organophosphorus compound that has similar effects.
The symptoms of organophosphate poisoning can be predicted by the accumulation of acetylcholine, which can be remembered using the mnemonic SLUD. These symptoms include salivation, lacrimation, urination, defecation/diarrhea, cardiovascular issues such as hypotension and bradycardia, small pupils, and muscle fasciculation.
The management of organophosphate poisoning involves the use of atropine to counteract the effects of acetylcholine accumulation. The role of pralidoxime in treating this condition is still unclear, as meta-analyses to date have failed to show any clear benefit.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 48-year-old-man presents with right sided loin pain radiating to the tip of his penis. Urinalysis shows non-visible haematuria. He has a past history of renal calculi.
On examination he is hydrated and is taking fluids orally but has not eaten anything for the past 24 hours. He has a temperature of 38.1°C.
Which of the following features in the history and examination should prompt admission to hospital?Your Answer: Fever
Correct Answer: Age of the patient
Explanation:Management of Acute Renal Colic/Renal Calculi
This case involves a patient presenting with acute renal colic, which requires careful management to determine whether hospital admission is necessary. While a past history of renal calculi is not necessarily a reason for admission, the presence of a fever should prompt hospital referral to prevent the development of sepsis. Non-visible haematuria is a common finding in acute renal colic and doesn’t influence the decision to admit. However, age should be considered, particularly in men over 60 with left-sided pain, as they may have an aortic aneurysm mimicking renal colic. If the patient is dehydrated and unable to take oral fluids due to vomiting, admission and IV fluids are necessary. In this case, the patient is drinking satisfactorily. For more information on the management of acute renal colic, refer to the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries page.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 21
Incorrect
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For which of the following should an urgent referral to the urology services be made?
Your Answer: A 61-year-old female with dysuria who on urine testing is found to have haematuria only
Correct Answer: A 38-year-old male who on insurance medical examination is found to have + haematuria on urinalysis
Explanation:Criteria for Urgent Referral to Urology
There are specific criteria for urgent referral to urology that are based on the potential risk of underlying carcinoma. These criteria include macroscopic haematuria, microscopic haematuria in subjects over 60 who have either dysuria or a raised WBC count in blood, swellings of the body of the testis, palpable renal mass, solid renal mass found on imaging, an elevated age-specific prostate-specific antigen (PSA), and a clinically suspicious penile lesion.
It is important to familiarize oneself with the current indications for urgent referral. It is worth noting that patients over 60 years old may require more urgent attention, as indicated by the criteria for microscopic haematuria. By being aware of these criteria, healthcare professionals can ensure that patients receive timely and appropriate care.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 22
Incorrect
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Whilst completing your medical reports one afternoon, you are disturbed by one of the receptionists who is shouting for help.
You run into the reception area to find the mother of a 7-month-old child shouting that her child has been stung by a bee. The practice nurse is preparing to give oxygen.
The child appears distressed and has stridor. The lips are swollen. You have made a quick ABC assessment, diagnosed anaphylaxis and decided to give adrenaline. Beside the child, your practice nurse has opened the emergency bag and you are presented with vials of epinephrine (adrenaline) 1:1000 solution.
How much of this epinephrine would you administer?Your Answer: 0.5 ml
Correct Answer: 0.05 ml
Explanation:Anaphylactic Reactions: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
Anaphylactic reactions can vary in severity and may be delayed by several hours. The most common triggers are foods, bee and wasp stings, and drugs. Symptoms may include itching, redness, and swelling. Beta-blockers can worsen the reaction by blocking the response to adrenaline. Unlike a vasovagal attack, anaphylaxis is usually accompanied by a rapid heartbeat.
Initial management of anaphylaxis involves administering high-flow oxygen, laying the patient flat, and elevating their legs to combat hypotension. If the patient is experiencing respiratory distress or shock, epinephrine should be given intramuscularly. It is recommended that practices have vials of epinephrine 1:1000 solution on hand, along with the necessary syringes and needles.
The recommended doses of epinephrine vary by age, with adults and children over 12 years receiving 0.5 ml (500 micrograms), children aged 6-12 receiving 0.3 ml (300 micrograms), and children under 6 receiving 0.15 ml (150 micrograms). Chlorpheniramine and hydrocortisone may also be given intramuscularly, but hydrocortisone is of secondary value in the initial management of anaphylaxis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 23
Incorrect
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You see a 65-year-old patient in your emergency clinic who takes Beclomethasone diproprionate 100 mcg/Formetorol fumarate 6 mcg two puffs twice daily for his asthma. He also uses salbutamol as and when required but says he has been needing two puffs four times a day for the past few days. Over the past two weeks he has been coughing thick green phlegm and feels more wheezy and says he is a lot shorter of breath than usual. He has been feeling feverish intermittently.
His symptoms are not getting better despite increasing his salbutamol. On examination, his temperature is 38.1 and his oxygen saturations are 92% in air. His chest sounds wheezy and he has crackles to the right basal region. His peak flow is 300 L/min (predicted of 610 L/min). His respiration rate is 24/minute and his pulse is 110 per minute. His blood pressure is 120/59.
What would be the most appropriate treatment option for this patient?Your Answer: Prescribe amoxicillin 500 mg three times a day for seven days
Correct Answer: Trial 500 micrograms ipratropium bromide nebulizer
Explanation:Hospital Admission Necessary for Patient with Asthma and Pneumonia
There are several indicators that suggest hospital admission is necessary for this patient. Despite already taking preventative measures for his asthma with Beclomethasone diproprionate 100 mcg/Formetorol fumarate 6 mcg, his usage of salbutamol has increased and he has a productive cough with fevers, indicating a potential bacterial infection. Additionally, his oxygen levels are low, requiring oxygen therapy and monitoring of his oxygen saturations. He is also febrile with evidence of a focal infection and tachycardic. His CRB-65 score of 2, due to his blood pressure being <60 diastolic and his age being >65, further supports the need for hospitalization. Furthermore, his peak flow is less than 50%, indicating both pneumonia and an acute asthma attack.
While other options may be reasonable, such as adjusting his medication or providing home care, this patient requires intravenous antibiotics, oxygen therapy, and monitoring of his oxygen saturations and steroids, all of which can only be provided in a hospital setting.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 24
Incorrect
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What is the recommended ratio of chest compressions to ventilations for adult cardiopulmonary arrest for a rescuer working alone, according to the Resuscitation Council (UK) guidelines?
Your Answer: 15:02
Correct Answer: 15:01
Explanation:CPR Guidelines for Adults
For adults, the recommended CPR technique involves a chest compression to ventilation ratio of 30:2. It is important to stay up-to-date with the latest guidelines provided by the Resuscitation Council (UK) as they offer useful and clearly presented algorithms. Familiarizing yourself with the latest information is crucial as the management of acute emergencies in the primary care setting is a popular subject for MRCGP AKT examination questions. You will be expected to be competent at carrying out the latest guidance, so make sure to read and understand the most recent guidelines.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 75-year old woman with diabetes and end stage renal failure is visited for a home visit. She is receiving at-home dialysis through a Tenckhoff catheter. She has been feeling increasingly unwell for the past 24 hours, experiencing vomiting and abdominal pain. She had a normal bowel movement this morning.
During the examination, she appears to be dehydrated with a blood pressure of 96/68 mmHg and a pulse rate of 108. Her temperature is 38.1℃. She experiences diffuse abdominal pain and general tenderness throughout the abdomen upon superficial palpation.
What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?Your Answer: Tenckhoff catheter exit site infection
Correct Answer: Aluminium toxicity
Explanation:Peritonitis in a Patient with Tenckhoff Catheter
This patient has a Tenckhoff catheter in-situ for peritoneal dialysis, which puts them at risk of peritonitis, most commonly caused by Staphylococci. Symptoms such as pyrexia, low BP, tachycardia, and diffuse abdominal pain make peritonitis the most likely answer. Cloudy dialysis fluid is also a common sign of peritonitis.
Aluminium toxicity is now rare due to the removal of aluminium from dialysate, which has reduced the incidence of dialysis dementia. Dialysis disequilibrium syndrome is a phenomenon that occurs with haemodialysis, not peritoneal dialysis, and is characterised by symptoms such as disorientation, headache, blurred vision, nausea, and seizures.
Hernias and exit site infections can develop at the site of the Tenckhoff catheter, but they would not typically cause systemic unwellness such as pyrexia and diffuse abdominal pain. Bowel obstruction can occur secondary to a hernia, but peritonitis is a much more likely answer in this case. Exit site infections are characterised by localised erythema and sometimes pus exudation.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 26
Correct
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A 25-year-old medical student comes to you in January complaining of flu-like symptoms. She has been experiencing an on-and-off fever for the past few weeks, but no other physical symptoms are present. Interestingly, she completed an elective period in India nine months ago. What is the most likely cause of her illness?
Your Answer: Vivax malaria
Explanation:This case highlights the significance of obtaining a thorough travel history when diagnosing illnesses. In this scenario, the patient presented with symptoms of fever, headache, weakness, vomiting, and diarrhoea. While influenza is a common cause of winter illnesses, meningococcal meningitis and trypanosomiasis did not fit the chronology, and cryptosporidium infection typically presents with watery diarrhoea within days of infection.
Upon further investigation, it was discovered that the patient had recently travelled to India, where malaria is prevalent. Falciparum malaria typically presents within three months of infection, but Vivax malaria can take up to a year to manifest. The symptoms of malaria include cyclical fever and chills, headache, weakness, vomiting, and diarrhoea, and patients may also present with splenomegaly.
Therefore, it is crucial for healthcare providers to obtain a detailed travel history when evaluating patients with symptoms of infectious diseases. This information can aid in the timely and accurate diagnosis and management of illnesses.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 13-year-old girl is diagnosed with meningococcal meningitis. She is an only child and lives at home with her mother. Her mother has a history of epilepsy treated with valproate.
What prophylaxis should be given to the mother?Your Answer: Isoniazid
Correct Answer: Rifampicin
Explanation:Choosing the Right Antibiotic for Epilepsy Patients
When it comes to choosing an antibiotic for patients with epilepsy, it’s important to consider the history of epilepsy. Rifampicin is the best option in this case, although it may reduce the effectiveness of other medications like phenytoin. Ofloxacin is an alternative, but it’s not recommended for patients with epilepsy. Ciprofloxacin is generally preferred for chemoprophylaxis, but it’s contraindicated for patients with epilepsy or conditions that increase the risk of seizures. However, in patients being treated with phenytoin, the benefits may outweigh the risks. It’s crucial to carefully consider the patient’s medical history and medication regimen before selecting an appropriate antibiotic.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 20-year-old man presents with headache and chills, accompanied by a persistent dry cough. The cough has been present for some weeks. He is off his food and feels very lethargic. Temperature is 37.8°C and he has a rash consistent with erythema multiforme.
Respiratory examination reveals scattered wheeze throughout both lung fields.
Investigations show:
Haemoglobin 119 g/L (135-180)
White cell count 10.1 ×109/L (4-10)
Platelets 189 ×109/L (150-400)
Sodium 139 mmol/L (134-143)
Potassium 4.5 mmol/L (3.5-5)
Creatinine 120 µmol/L (60-120)
ESR 62 s (<10)
CXR Left lower lobe consolidation
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Klebsiella
Correct Answer: Mycoplasma
Explanation:Mycoplasma Infection: Diagnosis and Treatment
The symptoms of a young man with a chronic course, less severe chest signs than x-ray appearance, and erythema multiforme suggest mycoplasma infection. However, culture of mycoplasma is difficult, so diagnosis is mainly done through serology and PCR. The incubation period is around three weeks, and the infection is more common in the first two decades of life, especially in summer and autumn. Macrolides like erythromycin or clarithromycin are the primary treatment, with doxycycline as an alternative. With appropriate antibiotics, full recovery without long-term sequelae is expected. For more information on mycoplasma pneumonia, refer to the BMJ Best Practice and Clinical Features and Management articles.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 29
Incorrect
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Whilst doing morning housecalls, you are phoned to visit the home of a 47-year-old man who is known to suffer from benign paroxysmal vertigo. The visit was requested by a relative on the basis of his ongoing dizziness but upon arrival, it becomes clear that he has sustained a head injury.
Whilst fixing a shelf in his garage, he became dizzy and fell to the ground.
Which of the following symptoms require immediate referral to the emergency ambulance services (i.e. 999) for emergency transportation to the emergency department?Your Answer: Blood pressure of 150/100
Correct Answer: Bleeding from the nose
Explanation:NICE’s Guidance on Head Injury Management
A base of open or depressed skull fracture or penetrating head injury requires immediate referral to the emergency ambulance (999) service. Signs of a skull fracture that warrant referral to the emergency ambulance service include clear fluid running from the ears or nose, black eye with no associated damage around the eyes, bleeding from one or both ears, and bruising behind one or both ears.
On the other hand, a positive Dix-Hallpike maneuver is simply consistent with benign positional paroxysmal vertigo. It is important to follow NICE’s guidance on head injury management to ensure prompt and appropriate care for patients with head injuries. Proper identification and referral of patients with skull fractures can prevent further complications and improve outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a 48 hour history of dysuria and visible blood in his urine. He also reports some frequency of urination. However, he denies fever, abdominal pain or loin pain and feels generally well. He mentions that his urine has gradually cleared and looks normal again since he first noticed the frank blood. On examination, he appears systemically well with a regular pulse rate of 76 and blood pressure of 138/76 mmHg. His abdomen and loins are unremarkable on palpation. A urine sample is obtained and dipstick testing reveals leucocytes ++ and blood+++. You prescribe antibiotics to cover a urinary tract infection. What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?
Your Answer: Advise him to complete the antibiotic course and seek review should he have any further visible haematuria
Correct Answer: Send a urine sample to establish accurately the presence of a urinary infection
Explanation:Urgent Referral for Painless Visible Haematuria
Male or female patients who present with painless visible haematuria should be referred urgently for specialist assessment. However, if a patient presents with dysuria and visible haematuria, it is important to establish whether there is a urinary tract infection. If an infection is present, it can be treated appropriately, and referral for further investigation of the haematuria may not be necessary.
On the other hand, if an infection is not confirmed, urgent referral is warranted to investigate the haematuria with speed. Therefore, the next most appropriate step is to establish if a urinary tract infection is present. It is crucial to identify the underlying cause of haematuria to ensure prompt and effective treatment. Early referral and assessment can help prevent potential complications and improve patient outcomes.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Urgent And Unscheduled Care
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