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  • Question 1 - A 47-year-old woman comes to the clinic for a blood pressure check. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 47-year-old woman comes to the clinic for a blood pressure check. Upon examination, you observe several bruises on her arms. She confides in you that there have been issues at home, but she is hesitant to involve law enforcement. What is the best course of action?

      Your Answer: Draw a detailed diagram of her injuries + refer her for counselling

      Correct Answer: Give her the details of a domestic violence support group

      Explanation:

      Dealing with scenarios involving domestic violence can be challenging. It is important to seek advice from domestic violence support groups as they have specific knowledge and resources to offer practical advice on housing and financial issues. General counseling services may not be equipped to provide such support and may inadvertently blame the victim. While it is still good practice to document injuries, drawing a diagram may not be necessary if the victim is not ready to involve the police. Checking the victim’s bloods is unlikely to be relevant as the bruises are likely a result of violence by their partner. Breaking confidentiality should only be considered if there is a fear for the victim’s life, as it may put them at further risk. Phoning the partner directly is not recommended as it violates confidentiality and may lead to retribution against the victim.

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      • Consulting In General Practice
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  • Question 2 - You have a patient who is a 50-year-old heavy goods vehicle driver for...

    Incorrect

    • You have a patient who is a 50-year-old heavy goods vehicle driver for a haulage company. A few weeks ago, he was involved in an accident that caused a severe eye injury, and he has now been informed that he will never regain any vision in his left eye. He is curious about his eligibility to hold a Group 2 drivers licence. What is the DVLA's advice on holding a Group 2 licence after experiencing permanent vision loss in one eye?

      Your Answer: He can resume driving after six months as long as his uncorrected visual acuity in the other eye is at least 3/60

      Correct Answer: He cannot hold a Group 2 licence

      Explanation:

      Group 2 Licence Requirements for Vision

      Applicants for a Group 2 licence must meet certain vision requirements. Specifically, they must have at least corrected acuity of 3/60 in both eyes and no complete loss of vision in either eye. If an applicant has a complete loss of vision in one eye or corrected acuity of less than 3/60 in one eye, they are legally barred from holding a Group 2 licence. It is important for applicants to understand these requirements before applying for a Group 2 licence to ensure they meet the necessary criteria.

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      • Consulting In General Practice
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  • Question 3 - You see a 50-year-old man in morning surgery after discharge from hospital following...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 50-year-old man in morning surgery after discharge from hospital following fitting of an implantable cardioverter defibrillator (ICD).

      He had several episodes of sustained ventricular tachycardia requiring hospital admission before having the defibrillator implanted. He needs a medical certificate for work as he is a travelling salesman and has to drive for his work.

      How long should he refrain from driving a car following the fitting of an implantable defibrillator?

      Your Answer: 6 months

      Correct Answer: 2 months

      Explanation:

      Driving Restrictions for Patients with ICDs

      Patients who have received an implantable cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD) for sustained ventricular arrhythmias should be aware of driving restrictions. For the first six months after the initial implant, patients should not drive. Additionally, after any shock therapy or symptomatic anti-tachycardia pacing, patients should refrain from driving for an additional six months. It is important for patients to follow these guidelines to ensure their safety and the safety of others on the road.

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      • Consulting In General Practice
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  • Question 4 - A 50-year-old lady with type II diabetes, which has been poorly controlled with...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old lady with type II diabetes, which has been poorly controlled with metformin.

      You recently started her on gliclazide, a sulphonylurea. She had an episode late one afternoon, when she felt shaky and disorientated. She was at home at the time and her husband had to help her sit down in a chair. He took her BM, which was 4.2 and gave her a sugary drink and a biscuit, after which her symptoms quickly resolved. She had not suffered similar episodes in the past.

      Physical examination is normal and a recent HBA1c is 75 mmol/mol.

      She would like advice about driving her car.

      What will you tell her?

      Your Answer: She cannot drive for six months

      Correct Answer: She doesn't have to stop driving

      Explanation:

      DVLA Guidance for Diabetic Patients on Driving and Hypoglycaemia

      DVLA guidance exists for patients with diabetes who are controlled with oral medication that may cause hypoglycaemia. This includes medications such as sulfonylureas and glinides. The guidance doesn’t differentiate between hypoglycaemic episodes that occur while driving and those that occur at other times.

      If a patient experiences warning symptoms of a hypoglycaemic attack, it is mandatory for them to have hypoglycaemic awareness in order to be allowed to drive. However, if it is the patient’s first episode, they do not have to stop driving. It is still recommended that they refrain from driving until they are established on an appropriate dose of diabetic medication. Patients should also be encouraged to recognize their symptoms of impending hypoglycaemia, and keeping a blood glucose diary can help with this.

      The DVLA guidelines do not specify a particular blood glucose level that would produce hypoglycaemic symptoms, as this can vary between individuals. If a patient has had only one episode of disabling hypoglycaemia in the last 12 months, they do not meet the requirements for DVLA notification and can continue driving. However, if a patient has had more than one episode of hypoglycaemia requiring assistance from another person within the preceding 12 months, they are not allowed to drive.

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      • Consulting In General Practice
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  • Question 5 - You are creating a teaching presentation and need to include images in your...

    Incorrect

    • You are creating a teaching presentation and need to include images in your slides. The presentation will be for students in your class and you also plan to share it with students in another class via video-conference.
      Under what circumstances is it necessary to obtain patient consent before displaying images related to patients?

      Your Answer: Pathology slides

      Correct Answer: CT images

      Explanation:

      Patient Consent for Showing Images of Rare Skin Lesions

      It is important to obtain patient consent before displaying images of rare skin lesions. The General Medical Council (GMC) recommends seeking consent in such cases. However, in other circumstances, consent may not be necessary.

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      • Consulting In General Practice
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  • Question 6 - You are considering implementing electronic protocol based care pathways at your clinic for...

    Incorrect

    • You are considering implementing electronic protocol based care pathways at your clinic for some common conditions. You plan to introduce them for patients of all ages.
      Which of the following statements is true about electronic protocol based care pathways?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Protocols inevitably lead to the dumbing down of medicine

      Explanation:

      The Benefits of Using Protocols in Healthcare

      Good protocols are essential in healthcare as they define the exact circumstances in which they should be used. They can be helpful regardless of the grade of the staff using them and do not necessarily lead to dumbing down. In fact, clinicians who actively follow protocols may improve their knowledge and the level of care they provide. It is important to note that not all aspects of care can be recorded or controlled by protocols, but they can still be a valuable tool in enhancing confidence and career development. The course of a condition doesn’t have to be entirely predictable before a protocol can be used. By using protocols, standards, policies, and guidelines, healthcare professionals can provide consistent and effective care to their patients.

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      • Consulting In General Practice
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  • Question 7 - A 48-year-old teacher presents to you with a history of recurrent depression. She...

    Incorrect

    • A 48-year-old teacher presents to you with a history of recurrent depression. She informs you that she has an upcoming appointment with the mental health team in a few weeks and requests a sick note as she believes she will be unable to work for the remainder of the year. What is the maximum duration for which you can provide a statement of fitness for work, regardless of eligibility?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1 month

      Explanation:

      Changes to Sickness Certification

      In April 2010, the Department for Work and Pensions (DWP) introduced a new statement of fitness for work to replace the old ‘sick note’. This new statement brought about several significant changes.

      Firstly, during the first six months of sickness, the statement can only be issued for a maximum of three months. Secondly, doctors are no longer required to hold a face-to-face consultation to issue a note. Instead, another doctor’s report or a telephone consultation with the patient is sufficient.

      Thirdly, doctors are not obligated to provide a statement of fitness for work during the first seven calendar days of absence due to ill health. These changes have made sickness certification a popular topic in the AKT exam. For more information, refer to the Fit note: guidance for GPs page published by the DWP.

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      • Consulting In General Practice
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  • Question 8 - A 68-year-old woman with severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease comes to you to...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman with severe chronic obstructive pulmonary disease comes to you to discuss creating an advanced decision. She wants to make it clear to her family, carers, and medical professionals which treatments she would not want to receive if her condition worsens and she is hospitalized. Specifically, she doesn't want to be placed on a ventilator to support her breathing to sustain her life. Currently, her condition is stable.

      Which of the following statements is true regarding the advanced decision?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Refusal of any future life-sustaining treatment is valid if verbally communicated to a medical professional and documented in his clinical record by a suitably qualified medical professional

      Explanation:

      Advanced Decisions and Statements

      An advanced decision, also known as an advanced decision to refuse treatment or a living will, is a document that informs others about a patient’s wishes for future treatment refusal in case they are unable to make or communicate a decision themselves. To be valid, the specific treatment or treatments being refused must be named, and the circumstances in which the treatment should be refused should be clear. Life-sustaining treatment, such as artificial ventilation, is an example of treatment that may be refused.

      The advanced decision is made by the patient while they have the mental capacity to do so. To refuse life-sustaining treatment, the decision needs to be written down, signed by the patient, and signed by a witness. If the advanced decision is legally binding, it has precedence over best interest decisions of other people.

      For an advanced decision to be valid with regards to refusal of life-sustaining treatment, the person making the decision must be 18 years old or over with appropriate mental capacity, the treatment(s) to be refused must be clearly specified, the circumstances of refusal must be explained, it must be signed by the patient and a witness, the decision must have been made without duress, and the patient must not have said or acted in any way to contradict the advanced decision since it was made.

      On the other hand, an advanced statement is a written statement outlining a patient’s preferences, wishes, beliefs, and values regarding their future care. It is different from an advanced decision, as it doesn’t refuse any specific treatment but rather provides guidance on the patient’s overall care preferences.

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  • Question 9 - John, a 16-year-old boy, needs to undergo a medical procedure. He wants to...

    Incorrect

    • John, a 16-year-old boy, needs to undergo a medical procedure. He wants to make the decision himself without involving his parents. What is the age of consent in the UK for a young person to make their own medical decisions?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 12-years-old

      Explanation:

      Children’s Competence in Medical Decision-Making

      When children turn 16 years old, they are considered legally competent to make their own decisions regarding medical treatment. However, for children under the age of 16, an assessment of their competence must be conducted before they can make their own decisions. Once deemed competent, they can provide consent for medical examinations and treatments without requiring parental consent. This means that if a child agrees to a specific treatment, healthcare professionals do not need to seek permission from their parents. It is important to note that this only applies to medical decisions and not other legal matters, such as signing contracts or voting.

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      • Consulting In General Practice
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  • Question 10 - A patient has passed away at home.
    The pediatrician knows that the cause of...

    Incorrect

    • A patient has passed away at home.
      The pediatrician knows that the cause of death is pneumonia, but she has not seen the patient for a while and is worried that she has not seen the patient within the legal timeframe that permits her to write on the death certificate.
      What is the duration of this legal timeframe?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 5 days

      Explanation:

      Updated Guidance on Death Certification in England and Wales

      The guidance on death certification in England and Wales was recently updated in March 2022. One significant change was the extension of the period of time for seeing a patient before death from 14 days to 28 days. While this may be an important learning point for doctors, it is uncertain whether it will be tested in the RCGP exam as candidates are expected to know guidance that applies to all parts of the UK, including Scotland. Nonetheless, this information is still useful for doctors working in England and Wales. The UK government has provided guidance for doctors completing medical certificates of cause of death in these regions.

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      • Consulting In General Practice
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  • Question 11 - Which one of the following statements regarding Local Medical Committees (LMC) is accurate?...

    Incorrect

    • Which one of the following statements regarding Local Medical Committees (LMC) is accurate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: LMC members include GP Registrars

      Explanation:

      Local Medical Committees: Representing the Interests of GPs

      Local Medical Committees (LMCs) were established in 1911 as part of Lloyd George’s National Insurance Act to ensure that GPs had a say in the government’s health insurance scheme. LMCs represent the interests of GPs on a local level, while a committee within the British Medical Association (BMA) represents GPs on a national level to the government. This committee, now called the General Practitioners Committee (GPC), has the authority to negotiate with the government on matters such as pay and contracts and is recognised by the Department of Health as the GP’s sole negotiating body.

      LMCs are funded by a statutory levy on GPs and may cover the area which corresponds to one or more Clinical Commissioning Groups. LMC members are elected and include partners, salaried doctors, and GP Registrars from both GMS and PMS practices. The GPC meets annually with the representatives of the LMCs, who may submit motions for the conference. These motions may then go on to form GPC policy.

      Overall, LMCs play an important role in representing the interests of GPs on a local level and ensuring that their voices are heard in the government’s decision-making processes.

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  • Question 12 - A seasoned General Practice (GP) manager observes that GP consultations appear to have...

    Incorrect

    • A seasoned General Practice (GP) manager observes that GP consultations appear to have evolved, particularly in terms of the types of consultation and the age groups that consult the most frequently. She conducts an audit of the number and types of consultations that occurred in the past three years and compares these findings to a previous audit conducted in 2000. It is observed that there have been some significant changes, which are consistent with similar national analyses.
      What is the most probable recent trend in GP consultations concerning age groups?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Frequent attenders consult, on average, five times more than the rest of the Practice population

      Explanation:

      Changes in General Practice Consultation Trends: A Retrospective Cohort Study

      A retrospective cohort study has revealed significant changes in General Practice (GP) consultation trends, particularly in the type of consultations offered. The COVID-19 pandemic has led to a shift away from face-to-face consultations towards other means of consulting. Frequent attenders are now consulting proportionally more over time, accounting for almost half of all GP consultations and five times more than the rest of the Practice population. This trend is evident across all consultation modalities, including face-to-face. However, the proportion of consultations with frequent attenders has dropped since 2000, despite GP consultations with frequent attenders increasing from a median of 13% to 21% over the same period. Currently, one in ten GP consultations (of any type) are with frequent attenders, and these have proportionally increased in the last 20 years. Although there has been a reduction in face-to-face consultations and a significant increase in online/telephone consultations, overall appointments have continued to increase. Face-to-face consultations have reduced in number, both for GPs and other clinical staff.

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      • Consulting In General Practice
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  • Question 13 - A 57-year-old motorcyclist presents with declining vision and no glasses. He is concerned...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old motorcyclist presents with declining vision and no glasses. He is concerned about his eligibility to drive and the potential voiding of his insurance if he doesn't seek professional advice. What criteria does the DVLA use to determine if someone should be advised not to drive based on visual acuity thresholds?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The threshold for reading a number plate in good light is a distance of 5 metres

      Explanation:

      Driving and Sight Impairment

      Doctors have a responsibility to advise patients with sight impairment or severe sight impairment not to drive and to inform the DVLA. For those who are group 1 drivers (cars and motorcycles), they must be able to read a modern vehicle number plate in good light from a distance of 20 metres, or approximately 6/12 on a Snellen chart, with the use of corrective lenses if necessary. If there is any uncertainty, patients should contact the DVLA or seek an opinion from an eye specialist. It is important to follow these guidelines to ensure the safety of both the driver and others on the road.

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      • Consulting In General Practice
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  • Question 14 - A 49-year-old man holds a Group 2 licence and drives coaches for a...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old man holds a Group 2 licence and drives coaches for a holiday company. He developed a moderately severe depressive illness 12 months ago, presenting with poor memory, poor concentration and suicidal thoughts. He has been off work since then.

      He has responded well to a selective serotonin receptor inhibitor (SSRI) antidepressant and feels that the medication doesn't impair him in any way. He feels ready to return to work.

      What is the recommended duration of stability on medication for a patient with moderate depression before driving with a Group 2 licence?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 6 months

      Explanation:

      Driving with Anxiety and Depression: DVLA Guidelines

      The DVLA has specific guidelines for individuals with anxiety and depressive illnesses who wish to drive. If the illness is more than just mild, meaning it includes significant memory or concentration problems, agitation, behavioral disturbance, or suicidal thoughts, the DVLA must be informed. However, if the person is well and stable for a period of six months, driving may be permitted. It is important to note that medication must not cause side effects that interfere with alertness or concentration. If the anxiety or depression is long-standing and maintained symptom-free on doses of psychotropic medication that do not impair, driving is usually permitted. In some cases, the DVLA may require psychiatric reports. It is crucial to follow these guidelines to ensure the safety of both the driver and others on the road.

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  • Question 15 - A 54-year-old bus driver presents for routine medication review for his hypertension. Upon...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old bus driver presents for routine medication review for his hypertension. Upon reviewing his records, you discover that he was recently admitted to the hospital due to a possible seizure. His wife witnessed unusual jerking movements while he was asleep, and he is currently undergoing investigations to rule out epilepsy. The consultant neurologist has advised him not to drive, but you saw him driving his bus just three days ago. When confronted, he admits to still driving and refuses to inform DVLA as he has not received a definite diagnosis and believes there is no issue. Despite informing him of his legal duty to inform DVLA, he still refuses. As a doctor, what is your duty in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: You should contact DVLA immediately disclosing the situation to them in confidence situation without the patient's knowledge

      Explanation:

      DVLA Guidance and Doctor’s Duties in Cases of Seizures

      This case highlights the importance of following DVLA guidance when it comes to seizures. If a driver experiences a seizure, they have a duty to inform DVLA and refrain from driving until a diagnosis is made. Depending on the diagnosis, they may be required to not drive for a further period.

      According to GMC guidance, if a doctor advises a patient that they may not drive, they should suggest and arrange a second opinion for the patient. In this case, the doctor is the second opinion and a third opinion is not necessary.

      If the patient refuses to inform DVLA of their condition, the doctor has a duty to disclose the information. However, they must inform the patient prior to the disclosure and confirm in writing that the disclosure has been made. It is important for doctors to follow these guidelines to ensure the safety of both the patient and others on the road.

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  • Question 16 - What are the duties of the Caldicott guardian? ...

    Incorrect

    • What are the duties of the Caldicott guardian?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Complying with the Data Protection Act

      Explanation:

      The Caldicott Report and Patient Confidentiality

      The Caldicott report emphasizes the significance of safeguarding patient confidentiality. It outlines six principles that healthcare professionals must follow to ensure patient data is protected. These principles include justifying the purpose for using patient data, avoiding the use of patient-identifiable information unless necessary, using the minimum necessary patient-identifiable information, limiting access to patient-identifiable information to those who need it, ensuring everyone is aware of their confidentiality responsibilities, and complying with the law, particularly the Data Protection Act.

      By following these principles, healthcare professionals can maintain patient trust and confidence in the healthcare system. It is essential to prioritize patient confidentiality to ensure that sensitive information is not misused or disclosed without consent. The Caldicott report serves as a guide for healthcare professionals to uphold patient confidentiality and protect patient data.

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  • Question 17 - A 27-year-old GP trainee, who has been with the surgery for the past...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old GP trainee, who has been with the surgery for the past three months, announces that she is four months pregnant and would like to return to the practice one year after the birth of her child, then working only part time for the next two years.

      Which one of the following is true with respect to your obligations?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: You must allow her to return and she can work part time for the specified period

      Explanation:

      Maternity Leave Entitlements for Employed Women

      The rules regarding pregnancy and maternity leave are straightforward. All employed pregnant women are entitled to 52 weeks (one year) of maternity leave, regardless of their length of service with their employer. This consists of 26 weeks of ordinary maternity leave and 26 weeks of additional maternity leave. If a woman decides to return to work at the end of her leave period, she may request that her employer provide flexible working arrangements.

      Unless there are specific reasons why she cannot return to the same role, with the option of part-time work if necessary, her needs must be accommodated. It is generally not permissible to require her to return full-time or to transfer her to a different surgery.

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  • Question 18 - You see a 5-year-old girl with her mother. The girl has obvious burns...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 5-year-old girl with her mother. The girl has obvious burns on her feet. Her mother explains that hot water from the kettle splashed on her accidentally. A few days later you see her with her stepfather who says that she got into a bath that was too hot. The pattern of the burns is not consistent with either explanation.

      You are concerned and think about contacting the child protection team.

      You discuss with your colleagues and debate what should be the primary concern in this circumstance.

      Which one of the following should be your primary concern?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The wishes of the child

      Explanation:

      The Importance of Prioritizing a Child’s Best Interests

      The best interests of a child should always be the primary concern in any action taken by public or private institutions, courts, administrative authorities, or legislative bodies. It is crucial to understand that a child’s best interests and their wishes are not the same thing. While other concerns may be important, they should always be secondary to the child’s well-being.

      When answering questions related to child protection, it is essential to read the options carefully and thoroughly. It can be helpful to cover the options first and then consider which one aligns with the principle of prioritizing a child’s best interests. This approach can prevent confusion and ensure that the correct answer is chosen.

      The Child’s Best Interest Principle is a fundamental concept across all child protection jurisdictions. It emphasizes that the well-being of the child should be the primary consideration in all actions taken by institutions and authorities. By prioritizing a child’s best interests, we can ensure that they are protected and supported in the best possible way.

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  • Question 19 - A 35-year-old man comes to see you about his depression. He lost his...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man comes to see you about his depression. He lost his job six months ago and has been living on savings. He lives with his two sons who are both in school. He divorced six years ago and neither he nor his children have seen his ex-wife since. He says that he has been ignoring bills and is now running out of money, relying on food banks to feed his family. His landlord has issued an ultimatum after failing to pay rent.

      He says that his sister is in receipt of Universal Credit (UC), but he doesn't know anything about it. You have advised him to contact the Benefits Agency, but in the meantime, what can you say about Universal Credit in this man's case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He will receive extra allowance if he has a health condition which prevents him from working

      Explanation:

      Understanding Universal Credit

      Universal Credit (UC) is a monthly payment that replaces six income-related benefits, including Income-based Jobseeker’s Allowance, Income-related Employment and Support Allowance, Income Support, Child Tax Credit, Working Tax Credit, and Housing Benefit. It is available to people in and out of work. If someone is currently receiving any of these six benefits, they do not need to take any action unless there is a change in their circumstances or the Department for Work and Pensions (DWP) contacts them about moving to Universal Credit.

      A person’s monthly Universal Credit payment consists of a standard allowance and any additional amounts that apply to them, such as having children, a disability or health condition that prevents them from working, or needing help paying their rent. If a patient claims UC on health grounds, they may ask for a fit note. In cases where a patient is working but has restricted ability to work, they may request medical evidence of their health condition.

      The patient will be referred to CHDA for a Work Capability Assessment, similar to ESA. Medical evidence, such as fit notes, is required until the DWP makes a decision on their claim. No further fit notes are necessary unless the patient wishes to appeal the decision. If the patient’s appeal is unsuccessful and it is determined that they are fit for work, further fit notes should only be issued if their condition significantly worsens or they develop a new condition.

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  • Question 20 - Under what conditions would you be authorized to reveal information without the patient's...

    Incorrect

    • Under what conditions would you be authorized to reveal information without the patient's consent?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: If the patient was under the age of 18 and was sexually active

      Explanation:

      Confidentiality Guidelines for Doctors in England and Wales

      Doctors in England and Wales have a legal obligation to report suspected cases of certain infectious diseases to the local Health Protection Unit or Proper Officer of the local authority. The notification certificate should be completed immediately upon diagnosis, without waiting for laboratory confirmation. The list of notifiable diseases can be found on Public Health England’s website.

      When it comes to patients with a low IQ, confidentiality guidelines relate to their capacity to consent to disclosure of information and for what purpose that information is needed. The GMC guidance emphasizes the importance of making the care of the patient a top priority, respecting their dignity and privacy, and involving them in decisions about the disclosure of their personal information.

      In situations where a patient has thoughts about shoplifting, there is no reason to disclose information without consent. However, there are legal situations where disclosure of information is required, such as when ordered to do so by a judge or presiding officer of a court.

      When it comes to children and young people, doctors have the same duty of confidentiality as they do to adults. However, parents often need information about their children’s care to make decisions or provide support. Sharing information with parents is often in the best interests of the child, particularly if their health would benefit from special care or ongoing treatment. In cases of abusive or harmful sexual activity involving a child or young person, relevant information should be shared with appropriate agencies, such as the police or social services, to protect the child. For more guidance on children and young people, doctors can refer to the GMC’s 0-18 years guidance.

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  • Question 21 - You work in a small rural practice. You see lots of elderly patients...

    Incorrect

    • You work in a small rural practice. You see lots of elderly patients with dermatologic problems and need to refer some of them to hospital. Unfortunately this is a long way away and many elderly patients find it difficult to travel.

      You think about setting up an audiovisual telemedicine clinic. Which one of the following statements is correct about audiovisual telemedicine clinics?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: There will need to be important organisational changes to the way in which you and your colleagues in secondary care work to make telemedicine work

      Explanation:

      Considerations for Implementing Telemedicine in Secondary Care

      There are several important organizational changes that need to be made in order for telemedicine to work effectively in secondary care. However, it is important to note that telemedicine clinics may not necessarily have economic benefits, as the costs of implementing the necessary technology can be expensive. Additionally, while patients may appreciate the convenience of not having to travel to see a specialist, they may still prefer face-to-face consultations. It is also unclear whether clinical outcomes will improve with the use of telemedicine. Finally, it is important to obtain explicit consent from patients before using any video consultations for teaching purposes. These considerations should be taken into account when considering the implementation of telemedicine in secondary care.

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  • Question 22 - A client is taken off the practice list after attacking one of the...

    Incorrect

    • A client is taken off the practice list after attacking one of the receptionists. Who is accountable for arranging a different primary healthcare provider?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: The local clinical commissioning group

      Explanation:

      The responsibility of arranging alternative care falls on the local clinical commissioning group. To cater to aggressive or violent patients, several clinical commissioning groups may arrange primary care services that are tailored to their needs.

      Guidelines for Removing Patients from a Practice List

      Removing a patient from a practice list is a serious decision that should not be taken lightly. The Royal College guidelines provide clear examples of situations that may justify removal, such as unacceptable behavior like violence or deception like stealing from the practice. However, clinical matters like patient choice or critical questioning and complaints do not normally justify removal. It is important to note that removal is never justified based on age, gender, ethnic origin, religion, or sexual orientation.

      In exceptional situations where there is an ‘irretrievable breakdown’ in the doctor-patient relationship, a formal process should be agreed upon to try and rectify the problem. It is crucial to give reasons to the patient rather than unilaterally declaring an irretrievable breakdown.

      If removal is necessary, the following steps should be taken: give warning to the patient, inform the clinical commissioning group in writing, and write to the patient. It is important to note that the patient’s family should not be automatically removed, although in some cases, it may be necessary.

      Overall, removing a patient from a practice list should be a last resort and should only be done in accordance with the Royal College guidelines.

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  • Question 23 - In education literature there is much discussion over the notion of ICE (Ideas,...

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    • In education literature there is much discussion over the notion of ICE (Ideas, Concerns, and Expectation).
      Why do teachers use this phrase?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: To meet the criteria on the MRCGP marking schedule

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Patient Agenda with ICE

      Patients attend medical appointments for various reasons, and it is crucial for doctors to address their concerns and expectations to be effective communicators. This is known as the Patient Agenda, which can be explored using the Ideas, Concerns, and Expectations (ICE) instrument.

      For instance, a patient with a sore throat may have different reasons for attending. It could be due to their belief that any illness should be brought to the doctor’s attention or a worry that the sore throat is a symptom of a more severe condition.

      As doctors, it is essential to understand the patient’s agenda to provide appropriate care. However, asking patients what they think is wrong may not always yield helpful responses. Some patients may respond with You’re the doctor, you tell me, which can be uncomfortable.

      In conclusion, understanding the patient agenda and using ICE can help doctors address patients’ concerns and expectations effectively.

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  • Question 24 - What is a recognized phase in the Cycle of Change? ...

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    • What is a recognized phase in the Cycle of Change?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Recirculation

      Explanation:

      The Cycle of Change: Understanding the Stages of Personal Transformation

      The Cycle of Change is a model that illustrates the different stages individuals go through when making changes in their lives. The first stage is precontemplation, where the person is not yet aware that a problem exists. The next stage is contemplation, where the person begins to recognize the issue and considers making a change. The third stage is action, where the person takes steps towards making the change. The fourth stage is maintenance, where the person works to sustain the change. However, it is important to note that relapse can occur, which is a full return to the old behavior.

      Understanding the Cycle of Change can be helpful in personal transformation, as it allows individuals to recognize where they are in the process and what steps they need to take to move forward. By acknowledging the different stages and potential setbacks, individuals can better prepare themselves for the challenges that come with making significant changes in their lives.

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  • Question 25 - You see a 3-year-old child in your surgery with purple bruises in several...

    Incorrect

    • You see a 3-year-old child in your surgery with purple bruises in several different locations. Mum says that the child fell down stairs a week ago.

      What age are bruises that are purple in colour?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Less than 12 hours old

      Explanation:

      Inaccurate Estimation of Bruise Age

      The age of a bruise cannot be determined accurately through clinical assessment or photographs. Relying on the color of a bruise to estimate its age is an unreliable practice that should be avoided in child protection proceedings. It is important to note that there is no definitive way to determine the age of a bruise, and relying on visual cues can lead to inaccurate conclusions. Therefore, it is crucial to approach any suspected cases of child abuse with caution and rely on a thorough investigation to determine the cause of the injury.

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  • Question 26 - A 60-year-old man is admitted to hospital after an episode of mildly impaired...

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    • A 60-year-old man is admitted to hospital after an episode of mildly impaired speech and left leg weakness.

      An ECG reveals atrial fibrillation and a CT scan shows a small area of infarction in the territory of the middle cerebral artery on the right. He is started on warfarin and simvastatin and makes a full recovery within two days.

      For how long should he refrain from driving his car?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: One month

      Explanation:

      DVLA Guidelines for Drivers with Cerebrovascular Disease

      The DVLA has specific guidelines for drivers who have experienced cerebrovascular disease. If the driver holds a Group one entitlement, they may continue driving after a one-month period of recovery, provided there are no residual neurological deficits. However, if the patient had been a lorry driver, their licence would be refused or revoked for a year.

      If the driver has made a full recovery and has not suffered a seizure during or after the cerebral event, they do not need to notify the DVLA unless there is a residual neurological deficit one month after the episode. If there is a residual deficit, the driver must notify the DVLA and be subject to further checks.

      It is important to note that the DVLA guidelines state that the driver must not drive for one month after experiencing occlusive cerebrovascular disease. After this period, they may resume driving if their clinical recovery is satisfactory. Overall, it is crucial for drivers to follow these guidelines to ensure their safety and the safety of others on the road.

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  • Question 27 - A 58-year-old factory worker comes to see you for a fit note after...

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    • A 58-year-old factory worker comes to see you for a fit note after a recent bout of pneumonia. His asthma has been poorly managed in the weeks leading up to his illness and he expresses concern about his ability to return to full-time work in the near future. He mentions that his finances are tight and that friends have suggested he apply for Employment Support Allowance (ESA). He also mentions that he is hesitant to attend any Department of Work and Pensions (DWP) assessments and asks if you could provide a letter of support. What advice would you give him regarding ESA?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: If contacted by a healthcare professional from the Centre for Health and Disability Assessments (CHDA), you will need to seek consent from the patient before discussing further

      Explanation:

      Benefits System – A Guide for GPs

      ESA, or Employment and Support Allowance, is a financial support system for individuals who are unable to work due to illness or disability. It also provides personalized assistance for those who are able to work. Eligibility for ESA is determined through an assessment process, which can range from 3 months to 3 years. Claimants with severe conditions may not be called for reassessment. During the assessment phase, claimants are paid the same amount as Jobseeker’s Allowance. Medical evidence and completion of the ESA50 self-assessment form are required. If necessary, a Work Capability Assessment will be conducted by a healthcare professional. Fit notes are required until a decision is made. The ESA65B letter is used to inform claimants of the decision. GPs may be contacted for additional information, and may occasionally be asked to contribute to the ESA50 form. For individuals claiming solely due to cancer, only a portion of the ESA50 form needs to be completed.

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  • Question 28 - A 35-year-old man contacts the clinic to discuss his 'sick note'. He had...

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    • A 35-year-old man contacts the clinic to discuss his 'sick note'. He had recently injured his shoulder in a fall and self-certified for the first seven days with an SC2 note. He then saw a colleague of yours a week ago who gave him a medical certificate to cover the last week. The fit note has been marked you may be fit to return to work taking into account the following advice, has ticked amended duties and has handwritten in the comments section: to avoid heavy lifting. The fit note has been marked I will need to assess your fitness to work again at the end of this period.
      He works in a factory and some of his duties include heavy lifting but he is able to contribute effectively in his role in other areas that do not involve heavy lifting. As this is the case he has been on light duties at work for the last week. He informs you that his shoulder is now fully healed. However, his employer has requested he has a 'return to work note' stating he is fit to return to full work activities due to the previous note being marked I will need to assess your fitness to work again at the end of this period.
      What is the best course of action in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: His employer has a legal responsibility to carry out a formal occupational health assessment by private arrangement with a GP or occupational health specialist and following this it is their decision whether he is ready to return to full duties

      Explanation:

      Return to Work Note in UK Practice

      When returning to work after a period of sickness, employers may ask for a return to work note. However, it is important to note that employees do not need to sign this note. The Department for Work and Pensions (DWP) provides guidance for employers and managers, stating that employees can return to work at any time, even before the end of the sick note. This doesn’t breach Employers Liability Compulsory Insurance, as long as a suitable risk assessment has been conducted if necessary. It is important to advise patients and employers of this information and refer them to the DWP guidance. Remember, there is no need to sign a return to work note in UK practice.

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  • Question 29 - You review a 56-year-old man who complains of epigastric pain radiating to his...

    Incorrect

    • You review a 56-year-old man who complains of epigastric pain radiating to his back. He has lost 6 kg in weight in the past three months.

      On examination he has jaundiced sclera and looks emaciated. There is the suspicion of an epigastric mass on abdominal examination.

      What is the most appropriate management plan for this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: A non-urgent ultrasound should be requested

      Explanation:

      NICE Guidance for Suspected Pancreatic, Gallbladder, and Liver Cancer

      There is a growing concern about malignancy when a patient experiences weight loss, jaundice, and an abdominal mass. To address this issue, the latest NICE guidance recommends several actions.

      Firstly, for patients aged 40 and over with jaundice, healthcare professionals should refer them using a suspected cancer pathway referral for an appointment within two weeks to assess for pancreatic cancer. Secondly, for patients with an upper abdominal mass consistent with an enlarged Gallbladder, healthcare professionals should consider an urgent direct access ultrasound scan to assess for Gallbladder cancer within two weeks. Lastly, for patients with an upper abdominal mass consistent with an enlarged liver, healthcare professionals should consider an urgent direct access ultrasound scan to assess for liver cancer within two weeks.

      By following these guidelines, healthcare professionals can quickly identify and address potential cancer diagnoses, improving patient outcomes and quality of life.

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  • Question 30 - Samantha is a 35-year-old teacher with no symptoms. She mentions that her mother...

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    • Samantha is a 35-year-old teacher with no symptoms. She mentions that her mother died last year, after suffering for many years with Alzheimer's.
      Samantha has two sons, one of whom is starting college soon. She was offered a genetic test at the time her mother was diagnosed, but declined it. Now she is reconsidering.
      Which is the single, most appropriate next step?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Offer to take a blood sample from Andrew for testing

      Explanation:

      Genetic Testing Considerations

      Deciding whether or not to undergo genetic testing requires careful consideration after receiving genetic counseling. It is important to note that most laboratories will not test a sample taken in a primary care setting. Additionally, performing a neurological examination can potentially reveal unwanted genetic information.

      In cases where there is a 50% risk of inheriting an autosomal dominant condition with no effective treatment, the decision to undergo genetic testing can be particularly challenging. It is important to weigh the potential benefits and drawbacks of testing, and to consider the emotional and psychological impact of receiving a positive result. Ultimately, the decision to undergo genetic testing should be made in consultation with a healthcare professional and with a full understanding of the potential implications.

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