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  • Question 1 - A 38-year-old man weighing 100 kg was pulled from a house fire. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man weighing 100 kg was pulled from a house fire. He was intubated by the HEMS team at the scene for airway compromise (nasal soot, singed facial hair and a change in voice). He has sustained full-thickness burns to his face, anterior torso and full legs. The specialist registrar (SPR) has asked you to calculate this man’s fluids requirements for the first 24 hours.
      Which of the following is the correct volume to the nearest litre?

      Your Answer: 10 litres

      Correct Answer: 27 litres

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Parkland Formula for Fluid Resuscitation in Burns Patients

      The Parkland formula is a widely used method for estimating the amount of fluid required for a burns patient in the first 24 hours. This formula takes into account the patient’s weight and the percentage of their body that has been burned, which is determined using the Wallace Rule of Nines.

      Once the percentage of burn has been calculated, the fluid volume needed is determined by multiplying the weight of the patient in kilograms by four and then multiplying that by the percentage of burn. For example, a patient who weighs 100 kg and has a 67% burn would require 26,800 ml or 27 litres of fluid in the first 24 hours.

      It is important to note that half of the fluid is given over the first 8 hours, with the remaining half given over the next 16 hours. Additionally, the fluid should be warmed and urine output should be carefully monitored to ensure that the patient is receiving adequate hydration.

      In conclusion, understanding the Parkland formula is crucial for healthcare professionals who are treating burns patients. By accurately calculating the amount of fluid needed, healthcare providers can help prevent complications and improve patient outcomes.

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  • Question 2 - What is the definition of healing by secondary intention, which is the final...

    Incorrect

    • What is the definition of healing by secondary intention, which is the final stage of tissue response to injury involving regeneration and repair?

      Your Answer: Healing in wounds that are frequently contaminated or poorly delineated. The skin and tissues are left open for a short period of time before then being approximated

      Correct Answer: Wounds close by contraction and epithelialization due to tissue loss

      Explanation:

      Understanding Different Types of Wound Healing

      Primary Healing: This type of healing occurs in wounds that are clean and have clear-cut edges that can be closely approximated. The wound is closed with sutures, staples, or adhesive strips, and healing occurs quickly with minimal scarring.

      Secondary Healing: This type of healing occurs in wounds that are frequently contaminated or poorly delineated. The skin and tissues are left open for a short period of time before being approximated. Healing occurs by contraction and epithelialization due to tissue loss, and scarring is more significant.

      Partial Thickness Healing: This type of healing involves epithelial cells from the dermal edges, hair follicles, and sebaceous glands replicating to cover the exposed area. It occurs in wounds that only affect the top layer of skin and typically heals without scarring.

      Delayed Primary Healing: This type of healing occurs in wounds that are contaminated or have a high risk of infection. The wound is left open for a few days to allow for drainage and cleaning before being closed with sutures or staples. Healing occurs by a combination of primary and secondary healing, and scarring may be more significant.

      Keloid Scarring: This occurs when excessive scar tissue grows, forming a smooth, hard layer that extends beyond the boundaries of the original wound. Keloid scars can be itchy, painful, and may require medical treatment to reduce their appearance.

      Understanding the different types of wound healing can help individuals better care for their wounds and manage scarring.

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  • Question 3 - A young adult is admitted after being rescued from a house fire. They...

    Incorrect

    • A young adult is admitted after being rescued from a house fire. They have sustained significant burns to both upper limbs, as well as the front of their torso.
      Estimate the size of the burn in terms of percentage of body surface area.

      Your Answer: 16%

      Correct Answer: 36%

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Wallace Rule of Nines for Estimating Burn Size

      The Wallace Rule of Nines is a widely used method for estimating the size of a burn. It involves dividing the body into regions, each representing a certain percentage of the total body surface area. According to this rule, each arm represents 9%, each leg represents 18%, the head represents 9%, the front and back of the torso represent 18% each, and the genitals and the area of the patient’s palm represent 1% each.

      Once the percentage of burn is estimated using the rule of nines, it can be used in formulae such as the Parkland formula to calculate the amount of fluid replacement required for the patient. The Parkland formula is used to determine the total amount of fluid required in the first 24 hours following a burn.

      It is important to note that an accurate assessment of the percentage of body surface area affected by burns is crucial for determining the appropriate treatment and fluid replacement. Any overestimation or underestimation can lead to inadequate or excessive fluid replacement, which can have serious consequences for the patient’s recovery.

      In conclusion, understanding the Wallace Rule of Nines is essential for healthcare professionals involved in the management of burn injuries. It provides a quick and reliable method for estimating the size of a burn and determining the appropriate fluid replacement.

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  • Question 4 - You are called to the Emergency Department to help treat an intoxicated teenager...

    Incorrect

    • You are called to the Emergency Department to help treat an intoxicated teenager who has sustained a laceration on his cheek. It is decided that suturing is necessary.
      What diameter of suture material would be most suited to this task?

      Your Answer: 2/0

      Correct Answer: 5/0

      Explanation:

      Suture Sizes for Different Body Parts

      When it comes to suturing wounds, choosing the right size of suture is crucial for proper healing and minimizing scarring. Here are some common suture sizes and the body parts they are typically used on:

      – 5/0: This is the usual choice for suturing lesions on the face.
      – 6/0: This size is reserved for lesions around the eyes.
      – 4/0: Used for suturing wounds on the neck, hand, or fingers.
      – 3/0: Typically used for wounds on the lower limbs.
      – 2/0: Used for larger wounds on the lower limbs.

      By selecting the appropriate suture size for each body part, healthcare professionals can help ensure optimal healing and cosmetic outcomes for their patients.

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  • Question 5 - A 7-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department after falling off her...

    Correct

    • A 7-year-old girl is brought to the Emergency Department after falling off her scooter and hitting her face. She had a brief episode of nosebleed which stopped on its own. However, her mother is worried about her breathing, which has become congested and noisy, and her right nostril is getting more swollen. Upon examination, there is an enlarged and red nasal septum on the right side, and a fluctuating swelling can be felt upon palpation. What is the best course of action for this likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Refer to Ear, Nose and Throat (ENT) for urgent drainage

      Explanation:

      Management of Septal Haematoma: Urgent Drainage is Key

      Septal haematoma is a blood-filled cavity between the nasal cartilage and the perichondrium, commonly caused by nasal trauma and more prevalent in children. The nasal cartilage relies on the perichondrium for nutrients, and any disruption to this process can lead to necrosis of the cartilage. Urgent drainage is crucial to prevent complications such as septal abscess, necrosis, and collapse of the nasal bridge, which can result in septal fibrosis and saddle nose deformity. While oral antibiotics may be given post-drainage to prevent abscess formation, they are not a substitute for drainage. Conservative management with analgesia and nasal packing may be used in conjunction with drainage, but an urgent referral to an Ear, Nose and Throat (ENT) specialist is necessary for proper management. Therefore, urgent drainage is key in the management of septal haematoma.

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  • Question 6 - A 50-year-old man was saved from a building blaze. Consequently, he sustained burns...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man was saved from a building blaze. Consequently, he sustained burns on his entire back and left leg. What is the percentage of his total body surface area (TBSA) that has been impacted?

      Your Answer: 54%

      Correct Answer: 45%

      Explanation:

      Calculating Total Body Area Affected by Burns using the Rule of 9s

      The rule of 9s is a commonly used method for calculating the total body area affected by burns. According to this rule, the body is divided into different regions, each representing a certain percentage of the total body surface area (TBSA). For instance, the head represents 9% of the TBSA, with 4.5% for the anterior head and 4.5% for the posterior head. The anterior and posterior torso each represent 18% of the TBSA, while each arm and leg represents 9%. The genitalia/perineum represents 1% of the TBSA.

      As a rule of thumb, the patient’s palm can be used to estimate 1% of the TBSA for burns not involving whole body areas. For example, if a patient has burns on their right leg (18%), left leg (18%), and right arm (9%), the total body area affected by burns would be 45%.

      Other percentages can also be calculated using the rule of 9s. For instance, 30% would indicate burns to both legs only (18% for each leg), while 36% would indicate burns to both legs only (18% for each leg). 40% would be consistent with burns to the right leg (18%), left leg (18%), and right arm (9%). 54% would indicate burns to both arms and both legs (18% for each leg, 9% for each arm).

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  • Question 7 - A 75-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance. The patient...

    Incorrect

    • A 75-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by ambulance. The patient is accompanied by his daughter. The patient is usually bed-bound due to a history of multiple strokes and he lies on a normal mattress at home. The patient is non-verbal due to expressive aphasia and severe autism. The daughter informs the emergency medicine team that the patient usually has carers four times a day for washing, feeding and repositioning. In the last two days, the daughter has noted that her father has become more irritable and is not eating as much as he usually would. The patient is able to swallow safely and has no drug allergies.
      His observations are shown below:
      Temperature 37.2 °C
      Blood pressure 156/78 mmHg
      Heart rate 78 beats per minute
      Respiratory rate 15 breaths per minute
      Sp(O2) 98% (room air)
      Physical examination reveals a sacral pressure ulcer, 3 cm in diameter, that is erythematosus and draining a small amount of thick, white fluid. The wound is approximately 0.5 cm deep and does not extend to the bone. There is no necrotic tissue present. An electrocardiogram (ECG) shows normal sinus rhythm without ischaemic changes and QTc interval of 530 milliseconds. Blood test results are shown below:
      Investigation Result Normal value
      White cell count 14.9 × 109/l 4–11 × 109/l
      C-reactive protein 40 mg/l 0–10 mg/l
      Which of the following is the most appropriate antibiotic for this patient’s infected pressure ulcer?

      Your Answer: Ceftriaxone

      Correct Answer: Flucloxacillin

      Explanation:

      Choosing the Right Antibiotic for Infected Pressure Ulcers

      When treating an infected pressure ulcer, it is important to choose the right antibiotic based on the type of infection and the patient’s medical history. For superficial infections, oral antibiotics such as flucloxacillin are often used as they provide coverage for gram-positive bacteria commonly found on the skin surface. However, culture swabs should be taken to tailor the antibiotic treatment to the specific microbial sensitivities.

      It is important to consider the patient’s medical history when choosing an antibiotic. For example, fluoroquinolones like ciprofloxacin should be avoided in patients with a prolonged QT interval as they increase the risk of torsades de pointes. Clarithromycin should also be avoided in these patients as it can also increase the risk of this dangerous heart rhythm. Nitrofurantoin, commonly used for urinary tract infections, may not be the best choice for infected pressure ulcers as it does not provide coverage for gram-positive organisms like Staphylococcus aureus.

      Overall, choosing the right antibiotic for infected pressure ulcers requires careful consideration of the type of infection and the patient’s medical history to ensure safe and effective treatment.

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  • Question 8 - A 21-year-old man visits the Emergency Department after getting into a brawl at...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old man visits the Emergency Department after getting into a brawl at a bar, resulting in a cut on his left cheek. He is anxious about the wound leaving a scar as he works as a model, and scarring could affect his career opportunities. What is the most precise statement about wound healing by secondary intention?

      Your Answer: Repair implies the complete restitution of normal tissue architecture and function

      Correct Answer: Wound edges are initially unopposed

      Explanation:

      Understanding the Differences between Healing by Primary and Secondary Intention

      When it comes to wound healing, there are two main types: primary intention and secondary intention. The former is used for wounds with minimal tissue loss, where the edges can be easily brought together for rapid healing. The latter, on the other hand, is used for wounds with significant tissue loss, where the edges cannot be easily opposed without tension. Here are some key differences between the two types of healing:

      – Wound edges are initially unopposed in secondary intention healing, as the wound is left open for healing from the deeper layers.
      – Repair, which involves scar formation and altered tissue architecture and function, is more likely in secondary intention healing due to the extent of tissue damage.
      – Superficial healing occurs before deep healing in secondary intention healing, as granulation tissue forms and epithelialisation occurs from the wound edges.
      – Rapid wound healing is more likely in primary intention healing, as the wound edges can be easily brought together for rapid epithelialisation and minimal granulation tissue formation.
      – Scar formation is more likely in secondary intention healing, as the prolonged healing process can lead to worse scarring.

      By understanding these differences, healthcare professionals can choose the appropriate type of wound healing for their patients and help promote optimal healing outcomes.

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  • Question 9 - A 28-year-old metal worker slips onto a furnace wall. He presents with a...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old metal worker slips onto a furnace wall. He presents with a leathery lesion on his chest. It is dry and insensate with a waxy appearance. It does not blanch.
      How would you describe this burn?

      Your Answer: Full-thickness burn (third-degree burn)

      Explanation:

      Understanding Burn Classification: From Superficial to Full-Thickness Burns

      Burns can be classified based on their depth and severity. While the general public may be familiar with the ‘degree’ classification, plastic surgeons prefer to use the ‘thickness’ classification. Superficial burns, also known as first-degree burns, only affect the epidermis and are painful and red. Partial-thickness burns, or second-degree burns, penetrate deeper into the dermis layer and are more painful and prone to infection. Full-thickness burns, or third-degree burns, are painless and do not blanch due to damage to the nerves and microvasculature. The skin can be charred and leathery, with scarring likely in the long term. Fourth-degree burns involve damage to not only the skin but also the underlying muscles, tendons, or ligaments. Fifth-degree burns, which are rare and often only diagnosed at autopsy, penetrate down to the bone. It is important to understand the different classifications of burns to properly evaluate and treat them.

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  • Question 10 - You are contacted by the nurse in charge of the ward to evaluate...

    Incorrect

    • You are contacted by the nurse in charge of the ward to evaluate a patient who has been recently admitted from her nursing home with pneumonia and confusion. While bathing her, the nurses have observed a pressure sore near her sacrum and have requested for you to examine it. Upon assessment, you discover a 4 cm circular wound lateral to the sacrum with some surrounding redness. It is roughly 1-2 cm deep. The wound bed shows subcutaneous fat with some slough, but no bone, muscle, or tendon is exposed. What grade of pressure sore would be consistent with this?

      Your Answer: EPUAP Grade/Stage IV

      Correct Answer: EPUAP Grade/Stage III

      Explanation:

      Understanding EPUAP Pressure Sore Grades/Stages

      Pressure sores, also known as pressure ulcers, are a common problem for individuals who are bedridden or have limited mobility. The European Pressure Ulcer Advisory Panel (EPUAP) has established a grading system to classify pressure sores based on their severity.

      Grade I pressure sores are the mildest form and are characterised by non-blanching erythema, which means the skin is red but not broken. Grade II pressure sores are shallow open ulcers with a pink wound bed. Grade III pressure sores involve full thickness tissue loss with exposed subcutaneous fat, but not muscle or tendon. These can be shallow or deep and may include some undermining of the wound edges. Grade IV pressure sores are the most severe and involve exposed bone, muscle, or tendon.

      It is important to understand the different grades of pressure sores to properly assess and treat them. Early detection and intervention can prevent the progression of pressure sores and improve the overall health and well-being of individuals at risk.

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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Plastics (2/10) 20%
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