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  • Question 1 - A 9-year-old boy is rushed to the emergency department following a fish bone...

    Incorrect

    • A 9-year-old boy is rushed to the emergency department following a fish bone choking incident during dinner. The patient is not experiencing any airway obstruction and has been given sufficient pain relief.

      After being referred for laryngoscopy, a fish bone is discovered in the piriform recess. What is the potential structure that could be harmed due to the location of the fish bone?

      Your Answer: Superior laryngeal nerve

      Correct Answer: Internal laryngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      Foreign objects lodged in the piriform recess can cause damage to the internal laryngeal nerve, which is in close proximity to this area. The internal laryngeal nerve is responsible for providing sensation to the laryngeal mucosa. The ansa cervicalis, external laryngeal nerve, glossopharyngeal nerve, and superior laryngeal nerve are not at high risk of injury from foreign bodies in the piriform recess.

      Anatomy of the Larynx

      The larynx is located in the front of the neck, between the third and sixth cervical vertebrae. It is made up of several cartilaginous segments, including the paired arytenoid, corniculate, and cuneiform cartilages, as well as the single thyroid, cricoid, and epiglottic cartilages. The cricoid cartilage forms a complete ring. The laryngeal cavity extends from the laryngeal inlet to the inferior border of the cricoid cartilage and is divided into three parts: the laryngeal vestibule, the laryngeal ventricle, and the infraglottic cavity.

      The vocal folds, also known as the true vocal cords, control sound production. They consist of the vocal ligament and the vocalis muscle, which is the most medial part of the thyroarytenoid muscle. The glottis is composed of the vocal folds, processes, and rima glottidis, which is the narrowest potential site within the larynx.

      The larynx is also home to several muscles, including the posterior cricoarytenoid, lateral cricoarytenoid, thyroarytenoid, transverse and oblique arytenoids, vocalis, and cricothyroid muscles. These muscles are responsible for various actions, such as abducting or adducting the vocal folds and relaxing or tensing the vocal ligament.

      The larynx receives its arterial supply from the laryngeal arteries, which are branches of the superior and inferior thyroid arteries. Venous drainage is via the superior and inferior laryngeal veins. Lymphatic drainage varies depending on the location within the larynx, with the vocal cords having no lymphatic drainage and the supraglottic and subglottic parts draining into different lymph nodes.

      Overall, understanding the anatomy of the larynx is important for proper diagnosis and treatment of various conditions affecting this structure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
      36.6
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  • Question 2 - A 35-year-old male presents to his general practitioner complaining of severe left flank...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male presents to his general practitioner complaining of severe left flank pain that comes and goes. The doctor suspects a kidney stone and refers him for a CT scan. However, before the scan, the stone ruptures through the organ wall and urine starts to leak. Which of the following organs is most likely to come into contact with the leaked urine?

      Your Answer: 1st part of the duodenum

      Correct Answer: Inferior vena cava

      Explanation:

      The ureters are situated behind the peritoneum and any damage to them can result in the accumulation of fluid in the retroperitoneal space.

      Kidney stones are most likely to get stuck in the ureter, specifically at the uretopelvic junction, pelvic brim, or vesicoureteric junction. Since the entire ureter is located behind the peritoneum, any rupture could cause urine to leak into the retroperitoneal space. This space is connected to other organs behind the peritoneum, such as the inferior vena cava.

      All the other organs mentioned are located within the peritoneum.

      The retroperitoneal structures are those that are located behind the peritoneum, which is the membrane that lines the abdominal cavity. These structures include the duodenum (2nd, 3rd, and 4th parts), ascending and descending colon, kidneys, ureters, aorta, and inferior vena cava. They are situated in the back of the abdominal cavity, close to the spine. In contrast, intraperitoneal structures are those that are located within the peritoneal cavity, such as the stomach, duodenum (1st part), jejunum, ileum, transverse colon, and sigmoid colon. It is important to note that the retroperitoneal structures are not well demonstrated in the diagram as the posterior aspect has been removed, but they are still significant in terms of their location and function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      67.6
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  • Question 3 - A 21-year-old patient visits the clinic after injuring their knee during a soccer...

    Incorrect

    • A 21-year-old patient visits the clinic after injuring their knee during a soccer game. During the examination, the physician flexes the knee to a 90-degree angle with the foot resting on the exam table. Using both hands to grasp the proximal tibia, the doctor applies an anterior force followed by a posterior force. The physician detects laxity during the anterior movement, indicating possible damage to the anterior cruciate ligament. What is the test called?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Drawer test

      Explanation:

      The drawer test is used to check for cruciate ligament rupture in the knee. The examiner flexes the hip and knee, holds the tibia, and attempts to pull it forward or backward. Excessive displacement indicates a rupture of the anterior or posterior cruciate ligament.

      Knee Injuries and Common Causes

      Knee injuries can be caused by a variety of factors, including twisting injuries, dashboard injuries, skiing accidents, and lateral blows to the knee. One common knee injury is the unhappy triad, which involves damage to the anterior cruciate ligament, medial collateral ligament, and meniscus. While the medial meniscus is classically associated with this injury, recent evidence suggests that the lateral meniscus is actually more commonly affected.

      When the anterior cruciate ligament is damaged, it may be the result of twisting injuries. Tests such as the anterior drawer test and Lachman test may be positive if this ligament is damaged. On the other hand, dashboard injuries may cause damage to the posterior cruciate ligament. Damage to the medial collateral ligament is often caused by skiing accidents or valgus stress, and can result in abnormal passive abduction of the knee. Isolated injury to the lateral collateral ligament is uncommon.

      Finally, damage to the menisci can also occur from twisting injuries. Common symptoms of meniscus damage include locking and giving way. Overall, understanding the common causes and symptoms of knee injuries can help individuals seek appropriate treatment and prevent further damage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 4 - A 25-year-old patient complains of abdominal pain and a recent alteration in bowel...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old patient complains of abdominal pain and a recent alteration in bowel movements. Upon conducting a colonic biopsy, the results reveal the presence of granulomas, inflammation lesions that extend to the submucosa and muscularis, and areas of unaffected mucosa in the rectum. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Crohn's disease

      Explanation:

      Inflammatory bowel disease should be considered in young adults with a change in bowel habit and raised inflammatory markers. Crohn’s disease has skip lesions and can affect anywhere from the mouth to anus, while ulcerative colitis affects a continuous stretch of bowel starting in the rectum. Biopsy of Crohn’s shows intramural inflammation with lymphocyte infiltration and granulomas, while ulcerative colitis only causes intramural inflammation without granulomas. Bacterial overgrowth syndrome occurs after major reconstructive bowel surgery and can cause diarrhea, flatulence, abdominal distension, and pain. Cryptosporidiosis is a protozoan infection that can cause severe colitis in immunocompromised patients with AIDS. Whipple’s disease is a rare infection caused by Tropheryma whipplei and mainly presents with symptoms of malabsorption.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 5 - To which major food group does the molecule CH3CH(NH2)COOH belong? ...

    Incorrect

    • To which major food group does the molecule CH3CH(NH2)COOH belong?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Protein

      Explanation:

      The Basics of Amino Acids and Alanine

      Amino acids are the building blocks of proteins, which are essential for the functioning of living organisms. One such amino acid is alanine, also known as CH3CH(NH2)COOH. The basic structure of an amino acid consists of an amine group (NH2) and a carboxylic acid group (COOH), which are both acidic and basic, respectively. These groups combine to give proteins a unique set of characteristics.

      Alanine is a simple amino acid with a methyl group in its R region. The formula for proteins is R-CH-NH2COOH, where R is a variable region. Amino acids combine to form dipeptides and polypeptides, which make up proteins. the basics of amino acids and their structures is crucial in the complex nature of proteins and their functions in living organisms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
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  • Question 6 - A 26-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain and vaginal...

    Incorrect

    • A 26-year-old woman presents to the emergency department with abdominal pain and vaginal bleeding. She is currently 8 weeks pregnant and has not experienced any complications thus far. During a speculum examination, an open cervical os and a small amount of bleeding are observed. An ultrasound confirms the presence of intrauterine fetal tissue, but no heartbeat is detected. The physician diagnoses an inevitable miscarriage and discusses management options with the patient. She opts for medical management using misoprostol. What is the purpose of this medication in the treatment of miscarriage?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Prostaglandin analog that causes uterine contractions

      Explanation:

      Misoprostol is a medication that mimics the effects of prostaglandins, leading to the contraction of the uterus and the expulsion of fetal tissue. It is commonly used in the medical treatment of miscarriage, but it does not have any pain-relieving properties. Pain during a miscarriage is typically managed with other medications like ibuprofen, paracetamol, and codeine. Misoprostol also does not have any effect on blood loss, which is usually light and does not require treatment. In contrast, methotrexate is a medication that destroys rapidly dividing cells and is used to manage ectopic pregnancies. Finally, it’s important to note that misoprostol does not stimulate the release of oxytocin.

      Drugs Used in Obstetrics and Gynaecology

      Syntocinon is a synthetic form of oxytocin that is utilized in the active management of the third stage of labor. It aids in the contraction of the uterus, which reduces the risk of postpartum hemorrhage. Additionally, it is used to induce labor. Ergometrine, an ergot alkaloid, is an alternative to oxytocin in the active management of the third stage of labor. It can decrease blood loss by constricting the vascular smooth muscle of the uterus. Its mechanism of action involves stimulating alpha-adrenergic, dopaminergic, and serotonergic receptors. However, it can cause coronary artery spasm as an adverse effect.

      Mifepristone is used in combination with misoprostol to terminate pregnancies. Misoprostol is a prostaglandin analog that causes uterine contractions. Mifepristone is a competitive progesterone receptor antagonist. Its mechanism of action involves blocking the effects of progesterone, which is necessary for the maintenance of pregnancy. However, it can cause menorrhagia as an adverse effect.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 7 - A 50-year-old man is admitted to the hospital after experiencing a sudden loss...

    Incorrect

    • A 50-year-old man is admitted to the hospital after experiencing a sudden loss of consciousness upon standing up from a chair. He has a medical history of asthma, migraine, atrial fibrillation, and benign prostate hypertrophy.

      The radiology reports come back normal, but his vital signs show a lying blood pressure of 120/77 mmHg and a standing blood pressure of 90/55 mmHg.

      After reviewing his medication chart, the doctor decides to discontinue a drug that may have caused his current condition.

      Which medication did the doctor discontinue?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Doxazosin

      Explanation:

      Doxazosin is known to cause postural hypotension as an adverse effect. This medication is an alpha-1 blocker and is commonly used to manage hypertension and benign prostate hypertrophy. It is important to note that doxazosin can increase the risk of postural hypotension, especially when used in combination with other antihypertensive medications. As a result, it is likely that this medication would have been discontinued.

      On the other hand, paracetamol and venlafaxine are not typically associated with a decrease in blood pressure. Instead, they may cause an increase in blood pressure.

      Prednisolone, on the other hand, is known to raise blood pressure and would not be the correct answer in this scenario.

      Adrenoceptor Antagonists: Types and Examples

      Adrenoceptor antagonists are drugs that block the action of adrenaline and noradrenaline on specific receptors in the body. There are two main types of adrenoceptor antagonists: alpha antagonists and beta antagonists. Alpha antagonists block the action of adrenaline and noradrenaline on alpha receptors, while beta antagonists block their action on beta receptors.

      Examples of alpha antagonists include doxazosin, which blocks alpha-1 receptors, and tamsulosin, which acts mainly on urogenital tract by blocking alpha-1a receptors. Yohimbine is an example of an alpha-2 antagonist, while phenoxybenzamine, previously used in peripheral arterial disease, is a non-selective alpha antagonist.

      Beta antagonists include atenolol, which blocks beta-1 receptors, and propranolol, which is a non-selective beta antagonist. Carvedilol and labetalol are examples of mixed alpha and beta antagonists.

      Overall, adrenoceptor antagonists are important drugs that can be used to treat a variety of conditions, including hypertension, heart failure, and angina.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 8 - A 38-year-old man visits his GP complaining of fevers, night sweats, and haemoptysis...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old man visits his GP complaining of fevers, night sweats, and haemoptysis that have persisted for three weeks. He recently moved to the country from Bangladesh and did not receive any childhood vaccinations. The patient's medical history is otherwise unremarkable. During the examination, the doctor notices tender bruise-like lesions on the man's anterior shins. Sputum microscopy reveals acid-fast bacilli, and the doctor prescribes isoniazid. What is the mechanism of action of this drug?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Inhibition of mycolic acid synthesis

      Explanation:

      The mechanism of isoniazid is the inhibition of mycolic acid synthesis. This is relevant to the patient’s presentation of tuberculosis, as Mycobacterium tuberculosis has mycolic acids in its cell wall. Isoniazid affects cell wall integrity by inhibiting the synthesis of mycolic acids, which are responsible for the acid-fast staining of the bacteria.

      It is important to note that the mechanisms of other antibiotics, such as fluoroquinolones and glycopeptides, are different and not relevant to this case. Rifampicin, another antibiotic used to treat tuberculosis, works by inhibiting DNA-dependent RNA polymerase.

      Tuberculosis is a bacterial infection that can be treated with a combination of drugs. Each drug has a specific mechanism of action and can also cause side-effects. Rifampicin works by inhibiting bacterial DNA dependent RNA polymerase, which prevents the transcription of DNA into mRNA. However, it is a potent liver enzyme inducer and can cause hepatitis, orange secretions, and flu-like symptoms.

      Isoniazid, on the other hand, inhibits mycolic acid synthesis. It can cause peripheral neuropathy, which can be prevented with pyridoxine (Vitamin B6). It can also cause hepatitis and agranulocytosis, but it is a liver enzyme inhibitor.

      Pyrazinamide is converted by pyrazinamidase into pyrazinoic acid, which inhibits fatty acid synthase (FAS) I. However, it can cause hyperuricaemia, leading to gout, as well as arthralgia and myalgia. It can also cause hepatitis.

      Finally, Ethambutol inhibits the enzyme arabinosyl transferase, which polymerizes arabinose into arabinan. However, it can cause optic neuritis, so it is important to check visual acuity before and during treatment. The dose also needs adjusting in patients with renal impairment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 9 - An 84-year-old man is referred to the memory clinic with progressive memory loss...

    Incorrect

    • An 84-year-old man is referred to the memory clinic with progressive memory loss and difficulty with activities of daily living. He attends the clinic with his son, who provides further collateral history, and a diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease is made. With the patient's consent, he is recruited to a study investigating the link between Alzheimer's disease and cellular processes. He is randomised to the arm of the trial investigating microtubule dysfunction.

      What is the normal function of these cell components?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Guide intracellular organelle transport

      Explanation:

      Microtubules play a crucial role in guiding intracellular transport and binding internal organelles. However, their function can be disrupted in neurodegenerative diseases like Alzheimer’s due to the hyperphosphorylation of tau proteins. Attachment proteins move up and down the microtubules, facilitating the transport of various organelles, making this the correct answer.

      Lysosomes are responsible for breaking down large proteins and polysaccharides, not microtubules.

      The Golgi apparatus modifies and packages secretory molecules, and proteins may be tagged with mannose-6-phosphate for transport to lysosomes.

      The nucleolus is where ribosome production occurs, not the microtubules.

      Microtubules: Components of the Cytoskeleton

      Microtubules are cylindrical structures found in the cytoplasm of all cells except red blood cells. They are composed of alternating α and β tubulin subunits that polymerize to form protofilaments. Microtubules are polarized, having a positive and negative end. They play a crucial role in guiding movement during intracellular transport and binding internal organelles.

      Molecular transport is facilitated by attachment proteins called dynein and kinesin, which move up and down the microtubules. Dynein moves in a retrograde fashion, down the microtubule towards the centre of the cell (+ve → -ve), while kinesin moves in an anterograde fashion, up the microtubule away from the centre, towards the periphery (-ve → +ve).

      In summary, microtubules are essential components of the cytoskeleton that help maintain cell shape and facilitate intracellular transport. Dynein and kinesin play a crucial role in molecular transport by moving up and down the microtubules.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 10 - A patient is being anaesthetised for a minor bowel surgery. Sarah, a second...

    Incorrect

    • A patient is being anaesthetised for a minor bowel surgery. Sarah, a second year medical student is present and is asked to assist the anaesthetist during intubation. The anaesthetist inserts a laryngoscope in the patient's mouth and asks Sarah to identify the larynx.

      Which one of the following anatomical landmarks corresponds to the position of the structure being identified by the student?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: C3-C6

      Explanation:

      The larynx is located in the front of the neck, specifically at the level of the vertebrae C3-C6. This area also includes important anatomical landmarks such as the Atlas and Axis vertebrae (C1-C2), the thyroid cartilage (C5), and the pulmonary hilum (T5-T7).

      Anatomy of the Larynx

      The larynx is located in the front of the neck, between the third and sixth cervical vertebrae. It is made up of several cartilaginous segments, including the paired arytenoid, corniculate, and cuneiform cartilages, as well as the single thyroid, cricoid, and epiglottic cartilages. The cricoid cartilage forms a complete ring. The laryngeal cavity extends from the laryngeal inlet to the inferior border of the cricoid cartilage and is divided into three parts: the laryngeal vestibule, the laryngeal ventricle, and the infraglottic cavity.

      The vocal folds, also known as the true vocal cords, control sound production. They consist of the vocal ligament and the vocalis muscle, which is the most medial part of the thyroarytenoid muscle. The glottis is composed of the vocal folds, processes, and rima glottidis, which is the narrowest potential site within the larynx.

      The larynx is also home to several muscles, including the posterior cricoarytenoid, lateral cricoarytenoid, thyroarytenoid, transverse and oblique arytenoids, vocalis, and cricothyroid muscles. These muscles are responsible for various actions, such as abducting or adducting the vocal folds and relaxing or tensing the vocal ligament.

      The larynx receives its arterial supply from the laryngeal arteries, which are branches of the superior and inferior thyroid arteries. Venous drainage is via the superior and inferior laryngeal veins. Lymphatic drainage varies depending on the location within the larynx, with the vocal cords having no lymphatic drainage and the supraglottic and subglottic parts draining into different lymph nodes.

      Overall, understanding the anatomy of the larynx is important for proper diagnosis and treatment of various conditions affecting this structure.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Respiratory System
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  • Question 11 - Which of the following symptoms is least commonly associated with salicylate overdose? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which of the following symptoms is least commonly associated with salicylate overdose?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Tremor

      Explanation:

      Salicylate overdose can cause a combination of respiratory alkalosis and metabolic acidosis. The respiratory center is initially stimulated, leading to hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis. However, the direct acid effects of salicylates, combined with acute renal failure, can later cause metabolic acidosis. In children, metabolic acidosis tends to be more prominent. Other symptoms of salicylate overdose include tinnitus, lethargy, sweating, pyrexia, nausea/vomiting, hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia, seizures, and coma.

      The treatment for salicylate overdose involves general measures such as airway, breathing, and circulation support, as well as administering activated charcoal. Urinary alkalinization with intravenous sodium bicarbonate can help eliminate aspirin in the urine. In severe cases, hemodialysis may be necessary. Indications for hemodialysis include a serum concentration of over 700 mg/L, metabolic acidosis that is resistant to treatment, acute renal failure, pulmonary edema, seizures, and coma.

      Salicylates can also cause the uncoupling of oxidative phosphorylation, which leads to decreased adenosine triphosphate production, increased oxygen consumption, and increased carbon dioxide and heat production. It is important to recognize the symptoms of salicylate overdose and seek prompt medical attention to prevent serious complications.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 12 - A 25-year-old female patient visits her doctor complaining of a facial rash on...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old female patient visits her doctor complaining of a facial rash on both sides, joint pain, swelling, and redness in her hands, and mouth sores. Her symptoms aggravate upon exposure to sunlight. Which substance's antibody testing is likely to assist in your diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Double stranded DNA

      Explanation:

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is a connective tissue disorder that is more common in females and typically arises between the ages of 20 and 40. SLE can cause a range of symptoms, including a malar facial rash, arthritis, pericarditis, pleuritis, kidney disease, and neurological and psychiatric symptoms. SLE is thought to occur due to autoimmune attack against intracellular substances, such as double stranded DNA, ribonucleoproteins, histones, and phospholipids. SLE patients may release greater levels of intracellular substances due to low levels of complement factor 4 (C4), which prevents their clearance by macrophages. Anti-double stranded DNA antibodies are a specific marker of SLE, but their absence does not rule out the condition. Antibodies against citrullinated proteins are uncommon in SLE and are more commonly seen in rheumatoid arthritis. Anticentromere antibodies are rarely produced in SLE patients and are usually detected in patients with CREST syndrome. The body has high tolerance to its own cell surface proteins, including Class 1 Major Histocompatibility Complexes (MHCs), which present foreign antigens on the surfaces of cells to natural killer cells, T- and B-lymphocytes.

      Understanding Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

      Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is an autoimmune disease that is much more common in females, with a ratio of 9:1 compared to males. It is also more prevalent in Afro-Caribbeans and Asian communities. The onset of SLE usually occurs between the ages of 20-40 years, and its incidence has risen substantially over the past 50 years. SLE is considered a type 3 hypersensitivity reaction and is associated with HLA B8, DR2, and DR3.

      The pathophysiology of SLE is characterized by immune system dysregulation, leading to immune complex formation. These immune complexes can deposit in any organ, including the skin, joints, kidneys, and brain. It is important to note that the incidence of SLE in black Africans is much lower than in black Americans, and the reasons for this are unclear.

      In summary, SLE is a complex autoimmune disease that affects multiple organs and is more common in females and certain ethnic groups. Understanding the pathophysiology of SLE is crucial in developing effective treatments and improving patient outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
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  • Question 13 - A 65-year-old patient reports to their physician with a complaint of taste loss....

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old patient reports to their physician with a complaint of taste loss. After taking a thorough medical history, the doctor notes no recent infections. However, the patient does mention being able to taste normally when only using the tip of their tongue, such as when licking ice cream.

      Which cranial nerve is impacted in this situation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Glossopharyngeal nerve

      Explanation:

      The loss of taste in the posterior third of the tongue is due to a problem with the glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX). This is because the patient can taste when licking the ice cream, indicating that the anterior two-thirds of the tongue are functioning normally. The facial nerve also provides taste sensation, but only to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue, so it is not responsible for the loss of taste in the posterior third. The hypoglossal nerve is not involved in taste sensation, but rather in motor innervation of the tongue. The olfactory nerve innervates the nose, not the tongue, and there is no indication of a problem with the patient’s sense of smell.

      Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.

      In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 14 - A 42-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of coughing up blood. He reports...

    Incorrect

    • A 42-year-old man visits his doctor complaining of coughing up blood. He reports experiencing excessive sweating during the night and significant weight loss in recent weeks. He had returned from a trip to Pakistan a little over a month ago. After a sputum PCR test, he is diagnosed with tuberculosis. The doctor prescribes four different antibiotics and also recommends pyridoxine to counteract a potential side effect caused by one of the antibiotics. Which antibiotic is responsible for this side effect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Isoniazid

      Explanation:

      Pyridoxine is often prescribed alongside isoniazid due to its tendency to cause vitamin B6 deficiency. This deficiency can lead to peripheral neuropathy, a common side effect of isoniazid. Rifampicin is known for causing bodily fluids to turn orange, while pyrazinamide can cause arthralgia and liver damage. Ethambutol is associated with optic neuritis.

      The Importance of Vitamin B6 in the Body

      Vitamin B6 is a type of water-soluble vitamin that belongs to the B complex group. Once it enters the body, it is converted into pyridoxal phosphate (PLP), which acts as a cofactor for various biochemical reactions such as transamination, deamination, and decarboxylation. These reactions are essential for the proper functioning of the body.

      However, a deficiency in vitamin B6 can lead to various health problems such as peripheral neuropathy and sideroblastic anemia. One of the common causes of vitamin B6 deficiency is isoniazid therapy, which is used to treat tuberculosis. Therefore, it is important to ensure that the body receives an adequate amount of vitamin B6 to maintain optimal health.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 15 - A team of pediatricians from the children's hospital would like to improve antibiotic...

    Incorrect

    • A team of pediatricians from the children's hospital would like to improve antibiotic prescribing for patients admitted with pneumonia. They have found guidance from the American Academy of Pediatrics which states that all pediatric patients with community-acquired pneumonia should receive the appropriate antibiotic therapy within the first 4 hours of admission.

      The team review how many pediatric patients with pneumonia receive the appropriate antibiotic therapy within the first 4 hours. The results show that only 60% of the pediatric patients with pneumonia receive the appropriate antibiotic therapy within the first 4 hours. The team were concerned that pediatric patients may come to harm through this inefficiency.

      The team develop a new order set on the electronic prescribing system and an alert which notifies the prescriber that the patient has been diagnosed with pneumonia.

      The team plan to repeat the project in 6 months time to assess the efficacy of their intervention.

      What type of project is this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Clinical audit

      Explanation:

      The main objective of a clinical audit is to identify areas where clinical practice falls short of the required standard and implement interventions to improve these shortcomings. In this context, the electronic prescribing and electronic prompt are crucial interventions that can be implemented.

      A case-control study is not applicable in this scenario as it involves comparing two groups based on different outcomes and identifying possible causal factors retrospectively. However, in this case, the team is only comparing the results to a defined standard and not looking for cause and effect.

      Similarly, a cohort study is not relevant as it involves comparing two groups with different characteristics over time to observe for differing outcomes. This is not the aim of the clinical audit mentioned above.

      A risk assessment is also not appropriate as it is a systematic process of evaluating the potential risks of undertaking an activity. This is not relevant to the scenario presented, which involves reviewing clinical practice against a defined standard.

      Likewise, a service evaluation is not suitable as it aims to review a clinical service for performance and outcomes, but not against any defined standards. In this scenario, a service evaluation could involve a questionnaire to patients with neutropenic sepsis on their experiences of care in the first hour.

      Understanding Clinical Audit

      Clinical audit is a process that aims to improve the quality of patient care and outcomes by systematically reviewing care against specific criteria and implementing changes. It is a quality improvement process that involves the collection and analysis of data to identify areas where improvements can be made. The process involves reviewing current practices, identifying areas for improvement, and implementing changes to improve patient care and outcomes.

      Clinical audit is an essential tool for healthcare professionals to ensure that they are providing the best possible care to their patients. It helps to identify areas where improvements can be made and provides a framework for implementing changes. The process involves a team of healthcare professionals working together to review current practices and identify areas for improvement. Once areas for improvement have been identified, changes can be implemented to improve patient care and outcomes.

      In summary, clinical audit is a quality improvement process that seeks to improve patient care and outcomes through systematic review of care against explicit criteria and the implementation of change. It is an essential tool for healthcare professionals to ensure that they are providing the best possible care to their patients. By identifying areas for improvement and implementing changes, clinical audit helps to improve patient care and outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 16 - A patient in their 50s presents to the doctor with a history of...

    Incorrect

    • A patient in their 50s presents to the doctor with a history of head trauma. During the neurological examination, the doctor performs a corneal reflex test and observes an absence of the reflex, but the patient is able to blink voluntarily. What area of the skull is likely to have a lesion?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Superior orbital fissure

      Explanation:

      The ophthalmic nerve, which is responsible for the sensation of the eyeball and the corneal reflex, passes through the superior orbital fissure. This location makes anatomical sense as it is closer to the eyes. The foramen ovale, foramen rotundum, internal acoustic meatus, and jugular foramen are incorrect options as they do not innervate the eyes or are located further away from them.

      Cranial nerves are a set of 12 nerves that emerge from the brain and control various functions of the head and neck. Each nerve has a specific function, such as smell, sight, eye movement, facial sensation, and tongue movement. Some nerves are sensory, some are motor, and some are both. A useful mnemonic to remember the order of the nerves is Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most, with S representing sensory, M representing motor, and B representing both.

      In addition to their specific functions, cranial nerves also play a role in various reflexes. These reflexes involve an afferent limb, which carries sensory information to the brain, and an efferent limb, which carries motor information from the brain to the muscles. Examples of cranial nerve reflexes include the corneal reflex, jaw jerk, gag reflex, carotid sinus reflex, pupillary light reflex, and lacrimation reflex. Understanding the functions and reflexes of the cranial nerves is important in diagnosing and treating neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 17 - As a junior doctor in orthopaedics, you come across a patient during a...

    Incorrect

    • As a junior doctor in orthopaedics, you come across a patient during a ward round who had a hemiarthroplasty 6 days ago for a broken hip. Regrettably, the patient has now contracted a bacterial infection at the surgical site. Can you identify which immune-mediated processes are at play to combat this infection?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: B cell antigen-presentation

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is B cell antigen presentation. This process helps the body produce a large number of antibodies that are specific to the invading pathogen. It’s important to note that B cells mature into plasma cells, which are responsible for antibody production.

      The other options are incorrect. Eosinophils coordinate the body’s response to parasites, while macrophages do not produce antibodies. Megakaryocytes are the precursor cells to platelets and do not participate in antigen presentation. Neutrophils do not coordinate the destruction of parasites; this is primarily the role of eosinophils.

      The adaptive immune response involves several types of cells, including helper T cells, cytotoxic T cells, B cells, and plasma cells. Helper T cells are responsible for the cell-mediated immune response and recognize antigens presented by MHC class II molecules. They express CD4, CD3, TCR, and CD28 and are a major source of IL-2. Cytotoxic T cells also participate in the cell-mediated immune response and recognize antigens presented by MHC class I molecules. They induce apoptosis in virally infected and tumor cells and express CD8 and CD3. Both helper T cells and cytotoxic T cells mediate acute and chronic organ rejection.

      B cells are the primary cells of the humoral immune response and act as antigen-presenting cells. They also mediate hyperacute organ rejection. Plasma cells are differentiated from B cells and produce large amounts of antibody specific to a particular antigen. Overall, these cells work together to mount a targeted and specific immune response to invading pathogens or abnormal cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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  • Question 18 - A 32-year-old male visits the GP complaining of a suddenly red eye. He...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old male visits the GP complaining of a suddenly red eye. He has a past medical history of chronic back pain and has tested positive for the HLA-B27 antigen. What is the probable root cause of his symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ankylosing spondylitis

      Explanation:

      Ankylosing spondylitis is a type of seronegative spondyloarthritides that often presents with various extra-articular manifestations. One of the most common ophthalmic symptoms is anterior uveitis, which is an inflammation of the anterior uveal tract. This condition can cause redness around the eye, sensitivity to light, blurred vision, and pain. The fact that the patient is a carrier for the HLA-B27 antigen is significant because it is typically associated with seronegative spondyloarthritides, and in this case, ankylosing spondylitis is the only option among the choices provided.

      Anterior uveitis, also known as iritis, is a type of inflammation that affects the iris and ciliary body in the front part of the uvea. This condition is often associated with HLA-B27 and may be linked to other conditions such as ankylosing spondylitis, reactive arthritis, ulcerative colitis, Crohn’s disease, Behcet’s disease, and sarcoidosis. Symptoms of anterior uveitis include sudden onset of eye discomfort and pain, small and irregular pupils, intense sensitivity to light, blurred vision, redness in the eye, tearing, and a ring of redness around the cornea. In severe cases, pus and inflammatory cells may accumulate in the front chamber of the eye, leading to a visible fluid level. Treatment for anterior uveitis involves urgent evaluation by an ophthalmologist, cycloplegic agents to relieve pain and photophobia, and steroid eye drops to reduce inflammation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
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  • Question 19 - A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a two-day history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old man presents to the emergency department with a two-day history of rectal bleeding. He has had diarrhoea eight times in the past 24 hours with visible blood mixed with stool. He also complains of nausea and abdominal pain. His past medical history includes ulcerative colitis, hypertension and type 2 diabetes. He is currently taking mesalazine enteric coated 800 mg twice daily, amlodipine 10mg once daily and metformin 500mg twice daily.

      Upon examination, he appears pale and has a temperature of 38ºC. His heart rate is 108/min with a blood pressure of 112/74mmHg. Abdominal exam shows generalised tenderness and guarding, but no rebound tenderness. His blood results are as follows:

      - Hb 137 g/L Male: (135-180)
      - Platelets 550 * 109/L (150 - 400)
      - WBC 14.1 * 109/L (4.0 - 11.0)
      - Na+ 144 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      - K+ 3.4 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      - Urea 8.4 mmol/L (2.0 - 7.0)
      - Creatinine 134 µmol/L (55 - 120)
      - CRP 110 mg/L (< 5)
      - ESR 45 mm/hr Men: < (age / 2)

      What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Urgent hospital admission

      Explanation:

      A severe flare-up of ulcerative colitis necessitates urgent hospital admission for IV corticosteroids. This is the correct answer as the patient’s symptoms indicate a severe flare-up according to Truelove and Witts’ severity index. The patient is experiencing more than 6 bowel movements per day with systemic upset (fever and tachycardia) and an ESR of over 30. NICE recommends urgent hospital admission for assessment and treatment with IV corticosteroids.

      If the exacerbation is mild or moderate, oral corticosteroids may be appropriate. Therefore, send home with a course of oral corticosteroids is an incorrect answer.

      Gastroenteritis requires oral rehydration therapy, but this patient’s symptoms suggest an exacerbation of ulcerative colitis. Therefore, oral rehydration therapy is an incorrect answer.

      Loperamide may be used in the management of ulcerative colitis, but urgent hospital assessment is necessary due to the patient’s hemodynamic compromise. Therefore, send home with loperamide and send home with safety net advice alone are incorrect answers.

      Ulcerative colitis can be managed through inducing and maintaining remission. The severity of the condition is classified as mild, moderate, or severe based on the number of stools per day, the amount of blood, and the presence of systemic upset. Treatment for mild-to-moderate cases of proctitis involves using topical aminosalicylate, while proctosigmoiditis and left-sided ulcerative colitis may require a combination of oral and topical medications. Severe cases should be treated in a hospital setting with intravenous steroids or ciclosporin.

      To maintain remission, patients with proctitis and proctosigmoiditis may use topical aminosalicylate alone or in combination with an oral aminosalicylate. Those with left-sided and extensive ulcerative colitis may require a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. Patients who have experienced severe relapses or multiple exacerbations may benefit from oral azathioprine or mercaptopurine. Methotrexate is not recommended for UC management, but probiotics may help prevent relapse in mild to moderate cases.

      In summary, the management of ulcerative colitis involves a combination of inducing and maintaining remission. Treatment options vary depending on the severity and location of the condition, with mild-to-moderate cases typically treated with topical aminosalicylate and severe cases requiring hospitalization and intravenous medication. Maintaining remission may involve using a combination of oral and topical medications or a low maintenance dose of an oral aminosalicylate. While methotrexate is not recommended, probiotics may be helpful in preventing relapse in mild to moderate cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
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  • Question 20 - An 88-year-old man residing in a care home is evaluated by the GP...

    Incorrect

    • An 88-year-old man residing in a care home is evaluated by the GP due to reports from staff that he has developed an itchy rash on his groin. The rash is scaly, red, and has spread across the groin and skin folds. The GP suspects a fungal infection and initiates treatment with clotrimazole. What is the mechanism of action of clotrimazole?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Affects the production of the cell wall

      Explanation:

      Clotrimazole is a medication that fights against fungal infections like vaginal thrush, athletes foot (tinea pedis), and ringworm of the groin (tinea cruris). It works by inhibiting the synthesis of ergosterol, which alters the permeability of the fungal cell wall.

      Antifungal agents are drugs used to treat fungal infections. There are several types of antifungal agents, each with a unique mechanism of action and potential adverse effects. Azoles work by inhibiting 14α-demethylase, an enzyme that produces ergosterol, a component of fungal cell membranes. However, they can also inhibit the P450 system in the liver, leading to potential liver toxicity. Amphotericin B binds with ergosterol to form a transmembrane channel that causes leakage of monovalent ions, but it can also cause nephrotoxicity and flu-like symptoms. Terbinafine inhibits squalene epoxidase, while griseofulvin interacts with microtubules to disrupt mitotic spindle. However, griseofulvin can induce the P450 system and is teratogenic. Flucytosine is converted by cytosine deaminase to 5-fluorouracil, which inhibits thymidylate synthase and disrupts fungal protein synthesis, but it can cause vomiting. Caspofungin inhibits the synthesis of beta-glucan, a major fungal cell wall component, and can cause flushing. Nystatin binds with ergosterol to form a transmembrane channel that causes leakage of monovalent ions, but it is very toxic and can only be used topically, such as for oral thrush.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
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