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Question 1
Correct
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A 2-year-old girl presents with a hoarse cough. You suspect croup as the diagnosis. She has noticeable stridor when upset but none at rest and mild chest retractions are present. Her level of consciousness is normal, and her air entry is normal on chest examination, with no evidence of any crackles. Her SaO2 is 96% on air and does not decrease when upset.
What is this child's Westley croup score?Your Answer: 2 points
Explanation:Croup, also known as laryngo-tracheo-bronchitis, is typically caused by the parainfluenza virus. Other viruses such as rhinovirus, influenza, and respiratory syncytial viruses can also be responsible. Before the onset of stridor, there is usually a mild cold-like illness that lasts for 1-2 days. Symptoms reach their peak at 1-3 days, with the cough often being worse at night. A milder cough may persist for another 7-10 days.
A barking cough is a characteristic symptom of croup, but it does not indicate the severity of the condition. To reduce airway swelling, dexamethasone and prednisolone are commonly used. Nebulized budesonide can be an alternative if the child is experiencing vomiting. However, it’s important to note that steroids do not shorten the duration of the illness. In severe cases, nebulized adrenaline can be administered.
Hospitalization for croup is rare and typically reserved for children who are experiencing increasing respiratory distress or showing signs of drowsiness/agitation. The Westley croup score is a useful tool for assessing the child’s condition and making appropriate management decisions. Children with moderate (score 2-7) or severe croup (score >7) may require hospital admission. On the other hand, many children with mild croup (score 0-1) can be safely discharged and treated at home.
The Westley croup score is determined based on the following criteria: the presence of stridor when agitated, the severity of retractions, air entry, SaO2 levels below 92%, and the child’s conscious level. In this particular case, the child’s Westley croup score is 2 points, indicating the presence of stridor when agitated and mild retractions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ear, Nose & Throat
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Question 2
Correct
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A 65-year-old man presents with unintentional weight loss and a noticeable lump in his abdomen. A CT scan reveals a sizable tumor in the sigmoid colon.
Where is the mass most likely to be felt when palpating the surface marking?Your Answer: Left iliac fossa
Explanation:The sigmoid colon is the last segment of the colon and is primarily situated in the left iliac fossa.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Surgical Emergencies
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Question 3
Correct
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A 45 year old is brought into the emergency department after sustaining a head injury after falling from a staircase. The patient opens his eyes to voice and localises to pain. The patient's speech is slurred and he appears disoriented. What is this patient's Glasgow Coma Score (GCS)?
Your Answer: 12
Explanation:In this case, the patient opens his eyes to voice, which corresponds to a score of 3 on the eye opening component. The patient localizes to pain, indicating a purposeful motor response, which corresponds to a score of 5 on the motor response component. However, the patient’s speech is slurred and he appears disoriented, suggesting an impaired verbal response. This would correspond to a score of 4 on the verbal response component.
To calculate the GCS, we sum up the scores from each component. In this case, the patient’s GCS would be 3 + 4 + 5 = 12
Further Reading:
Indications for CT Scanning in Head Injuries (Adults):
– CT head scan should be performed within 1 hour if any of the following features are present:
– GCS < 13 on initial assessment in the ED
– GCS < 15 at 2 hours after the injury on assessment in the ED
– Suspected open or depressed skull fracture
– Any sign of basal skull fracture (haemotympanum, ‘panda’ eyes, cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the ear or nose, Battle’s sign)
– Post-traumatic seizure
– New focal neurological deficit
– > 1 episode of vomitingIndications for CT Scanning in Head Injuries (Children):
– CT head scan should be performed within 1 hour if any of the features in List 1 are present:
– Suspicion of non-accidental injury
– Post-traumatic seizure but no history of epilepsy
– GCS < 14 on initial assessment in the ED for children more than 1 year of age
– Paediatric GCS < 15 on initial assessment in the ED for children under 1 year of age
– At 2 hours after the injury, GCS < 15
– Suspected open or depressed skull fracture or tense fontanelle
– Any sign of basal skull fracture (haemotympanum, ‘panda’ eyes, cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the ear or nose, Battle’s sign)
– New focal neurological deficit
– For children under 1 year, presence of bruise, swelling or laceration of more than 5 cm on the head– CT head scan should be performed within 1 hour if none of the above features are present but two or more of the features in List 2 are present:
– Loss of consciousness lasting more than 5 minutes (witnessed)
– Abnormal drowsiness
– Three or more discrete episodes of vomiting
– Dangerous mechanism of injury (high-speed road traffic accident, fall from a height. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Trauma
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Question 4
Correct
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A 32-year-old man receives a blood transfusion and experiences a severe transfusion reaction. His condition quickly worsens, and he ultimately succumbs to this reaction. His death is reported to Serious Hazards of Transfusion (SHOT).
Which of the following is the SECOND most common cause of transfusion-related fatalities in the UK?Your Answer: TACO
Explanation:Transfusion-related lung injury (TRALI) is responsible for about one-third of all transfusion-related deaths, making it the leading cause. On the other hand, transfusion-associated circulatory overload (TACO) accounts for approximately 20% of these fatalities, making it the second leading cause. TACO occurs when a large volume of blood is rapidly infused, particularly in patients with limited cardiac reserve or chronic anemia. Elderly individuals, infants, and severely anemic patients are especially vulnerable to this reaction.
The typical signs of TACO include acute respiratory distress, rapid heart rate, high blood pressure, the appearance of acute or worsening pulmonary edema on a chest X-ray, and evidence of excessive fluid accumulation. In many cases, simply reducing the transfusion rate, positioning the patient upright, and administering diuretics will be sufficient to manage the condition. However, in more severe cases, it is necessary to halt the transfusion and consider non-invasive ventilation.
Transfusion-related acute lung injury (TRALI) is defined as new acute lung injury (ALI) that occurs during or within six hours of transfusion, not explained by another ALI risk factor. Transfusion of part of one unit of any blood product can cause TRALI.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 42 year old male is brought into the emergency department by ambulance after confessing to taking a significant overdose of amitriptyline following a recent breakup. The patient later experiences a seizure. Which of the following anticonvulsant medications should not be used in TCA overdose?
Your Answer: Phenobarbitol
Correct Answer: Phenytoin
Explanation:Patients who have taken an overdose of tricyclic antidepressants (TCAs) should not be given phenytoin.
Further Reading:
Tricyclic antidepressant (TCA) overdose is a common occurrence in emergency departments, with drugs like amitriptyline and dosulepin being particularly dangerous. TCAs work by inhibiting the reuptake of norepinephrine and serotonin in the central nervous system. In cases of toxicity, TCAs block various receptors, including alpha-adrenergic, histaminic, muscarinic, and serotonin receptors. This can lead to symptoms such as hypotension, altered mental state, signs of anticholinergic toxicity, and serotonin receptor effects.
TCAs primarily cause cardiac toxicity by blocking sodium and potassium channels. This can result in a slowing of the action potential, prolongation of the QRS complex, and bradycardia. However, the blockade of muscarinic receptors also leads to tachycardia in TCA overdose. QT prolongation and Torsades de Pointes can occur due to potassium channel blockade. TCAs can also have a toxic effect on the myocardium, causing decreased cardiac contractility and hypotension.
Early symptoms of TCA overdose are related to their anticholinergic properties and may include dry mouth, pyrexia, dilated pupils, agitation, sinus tachycardia, blurred vision, flushed skin, tremor, and confusion. Severe poisoning can lead to arrhythmias, seizures, metabolic acidosis, and coma. ECG changes commonly seen in TCA overdose include sinus tachycardia, widening of the QRS complex, prolongation of the QT interval, and an R/S ratio >0.7 in lead aVR.
Management of TCA overdose involves ensuring a patent airway, administering activated charcoal if ingestion occurred within 1 hour and the airway is intact, and considering gastric lavage for life-threatening cases within 1 hour of ingestion. Serial ECGs and blood gas analysis are important for monitoring. Intravenous fluids and correction of hypoxia are the first-line therapies. IV sodium bicarbonate is used to treat haemodynamic instability caused by TCA overdose, and benzodiazepines are the treatment of choice for seizure control. Other treatments that may be considered include glucagon, magnesium sulfate, and intravenous lipid emulsion.
There are certain things to avoid in TCA overdose, such as anti-arrhythmics like quinidine and flecainide, as they can prolonged depolarization.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Pharmacology & Poisoning
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Question 6
Incorrect
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You are with a hiking group and have ascended from an elevation of 2800m to 3400 meters over the past two days. One of your group members is experiencing difficulty breathing while at rest and has developed a dry cough. The individual's vital signs are as follows:
Blood pressure: 150/92 mmHg
Pulse: 126 bpm
Respiration rate: 28 bpm
Oxygen saturations: 86% on air
Which of the following medications would be most appropriate to administer to this individual?Your Answer: Dexamethasone
Correct Answer: Nifedipine
Explanation:Nifedipine is the preferred medication for treating high altitude pulmonary edema (HAPE). When a patient shows signs of HAPE, the best course of action is to immediately descend to a lower altitude while receiving supplemental oxygen. However, if descent is not possible, nifedipine can be used to alleviate symptoms and assist with descent. Nifedipine works by reducing the pressure in the pulmonary artery. On the other hand, dexamethasone is the preferred medication for treating acute mountain sickness and high altitude cerebral edema (HACE).
Further Reading:
High Altitude Illnesses
Altitude & Hypoxia:
– As altitude increases, atmospheric pressure decreases and inspired oxygen pressure falls.
– Hypoxia occurs at altitude due to decreased inspired oxygen.
– At 5500m, inspired oxygen is approximately half that at sea level, and at 8900m, it is less than a third.Acute Mountain Sickness (AMS):
– AMS is a clinical syndrome caused by hypoxia at altitude.
– Symptoms include headache, anorexia, sleep disturbance, nausea, dizziness, fatigue, malaise, and shortness of breath.
– Symptoms usually occur after 6-12 hours above 2500m.
– Risk factors for AMS include previous AMS, fast ascent, sleeping at altitude, and age <50 years old.
– The Lake Louise AMS score is used to assess the severity of AMS.
– Treatment involves stopping ascent, maintaining hydration, and using medication for symptom relief.
– Medications for moderate to severe symptoms include dexamethasone and acetazolamide.
– Gradual ascent, hydration, and avoiding alcohol can help prevent AMS.High Altitude Pulmonary Edema (HAPE):
– HAPE is a progression of AMS but can occur without AMS symptoms.
– It is the leading cause of death related to altitude illness.
– Risk factors for HAPE include rate of ascent, intensity of exercise, absolute altitude, and individual susceptibility.
– Symptoms include dyspnea, cough, chest tightness, poor exercise tolerance, cyanosis, low oxygen saturations, tachycardia, tachypnea, crepitations, and orthopnea.
– Management involves immediate descent, supplemental oxygen, keeping warm, and medication such as nifedipine.High Altitude Cerebral Edema (HACE):
– HACE is thought to result from vasogenic edema and increased vascular pressure.
– It occurs 2-4 days after ascent and is associated with moderate to severe AMS symptoms.
– Symptoms include headache, hallucinations, disorientation, confusion, ataxia, drowsiness, seizures, and manifestations of raised intracranial pressure.
– Immediate descent is crucial for management, and portable hyperbaric therapy may be used if descent is not possible.
– Medication for treatment includes dexamethasone and supplemental oxygen. Acetazolamide is typically used for prophylaxis. -
This question is part of the following fields:
- Environmental Emergencies
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Question 7
Correct
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A 6-month-old infant is brought in by his parents following a brief episode where it seemed that the baby looked very pale and had ceased breathing. The infant is evaluated by the pediatric registrar, who determines that a 'BRUE' has occurred. After a comprehensive examination, the pediatric team decides to release the child as he is considered 'low-risk'.
Which of the following tests should be considered before discharge?Your Answer: Pertussis swab
Explanation:The term Apparent Life-Threatening Event (ALTE) has traditionally been used to describe a specific type of event. However, in 2016, the American Academy of Paediatrics (AAP) recommended replacing this term with a new one called Brief Resolved Unexplained Event (BRUE).
An ALTE is defined as an episode that is frightening to the observer and is characterized by a combination of symptoms such as apnoea (central or occasionally obstructive), color change (usually cyanotic or pallid but occasionally erythematous or plethoric), significant change in muscle tone (usually marked limpness), choking, or gagging. In some cases, the observer may even fear that the infant has died.
On the other hand, BRUE has stricter criteria and is only applicable to episodes that occur in infants under 12 months old. A BRUE is considered brief, typically lasting 2-30 seconds but no longer than 1 minute. It must also have resolved, meaning the infant has returned to their baseline state. Additionally, it should not be explained by any identifiable medical condition and must be characterized by at least one of the following: cyanosis or pallor, absent, decreased, or irregular breathing, marked change in muscle tone (hyper- or hypotonia), or altered level of responsiveness.
To diagnose a BRUE, a full history and physical examination of the infant must be conducted, and if no explanation for the event is found, it can be classified as a BRUE. Once a BRUE is diagnosed, it can be risk-stratified to guide further management.
A BRUE is considered low risk if the infant has fully recovered, there are no concerning history or physical examination findings, and the following criteria are met: the infant is over 60 days old, born after 32 weeks gestation with a corrected gestational age over 45 weeks, no CPR was performed by a trained healthcare professional, and this was the first event that lasted less than 1 minute.
Low-risk infants can be safely discharged with early outpatient follow-up within 24 hours. However, it is important to involve the parents/caregivers in the decision-making process. They should be informed that a low-risk BRUE is unlikely to indicate a severe underlying disorder and that the event is unlikely to happen again.
Before discharge, it may be advisable to perform an ECG, observe the infant for a brief period, and conduct a pertussis swab
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatric Emergencies
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old man presents with a high temperature, difficulty breathing, diarrhea and vomiting, fatigue, and fainting. He has recently returned from a wellness retreat in France. The patient is referred to the medical team on duty and admitted to the hospital. They suspect a potential diagnosis of Legionnaires' disease.
What is the definitive test used to confirm a case of Legionnaires' disease?Your Answer: Confirmation of Legionella pneumophila urinary antigen
Correct Answer: Isolation and culture from a sputum sample
Explanation:The guidelines from the British Thoracic Society (BTS) recommend conducting investigations for Legionella infection in the following cases: severe community-acquired pneumonia, patients with specific risk factors, and during outbreaks of community-acquired pneumonia. To confirm a case, the Public Health England (PHE) requires one of the following: isolation and culture of Legionella species from clinical specimens (typically sputum), seroconversion with a four-fold increase in titre of indirect immunofluorescent antibody test (IFAT) using a validated technique, or confirmation of Legionella pneumophila urinary antigen using validated reagents or kits. The gold standard for confirmation is the isolation and culture of Legionella species, while cases of Pontiac fever are usually culture-negative. The HPA considers a case presumptive if there is a clinical diagnosis of pneumonia with a single high titre of 128 using IFAT, or a single titre of 64 in an outbreak. A positive result by direct immunofluorescence on a clinical specimen using validated monoclonal antibodies is also considered a presumptive case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A patient is experiencing upper gastrointestinal bleeding after receiving heparin. You determine that protamine sulfate should be used to reverse the anticoagulation. How much protamine sulfate is needed to neutralize 200 IU of heparin?
Your Answer: 5 mg
Correct Answer: 2 mg
Explanation:Protamine sulphate is a potent base that forms a stable salt complex with heparin, an acidic substance. This complex renders heparin inactive, making protamine sulphate a useful tool for neutralizing the effects of heparin. Additionally, protamine sulphate can be used to reverse the effects of LMWHs, although it is not as effective, providing only about two-thirds of the relative effect.
It is important to note that protamine sulphate also possesses its own weak intrinsic anticoagulant effect. This effect is believed to stem from its ability to inhibit the formation and activity of thromboplastin.
When administering protamine sulphate, it is typically done through slow intravenous injection. The dosage should be adjusted based on the amount of heparin that needs to be neutralized, the time that has passed since heparin administration, and the aPTT (activated partial thromboplastin time). As a general guideline, 1 mg of protamine can neutralize 100 IU of heparin. However, it is crucial to adhere to a maximum adult dose of 50 mg within a 10-minute period.
It is worth mentioning that protamine sulphate can have some adverse effects. It acts as a myocardial depressant, potentially leading to bradycardia (slow heart rate) and hypotension (low blood pressure). These effects may arise due to complement activation and leukotriene release.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 40-year-old construction worker comes in with a few weeks of persistent lower back pain. Despite taking the maximum dose of ibuprofen, he is still experiencing discomfort and is seeking additional pain relief. What would be the most suitable next course of treatment? Choose only ONE option.
Your Answer: Add low-dose codeine phosphate
Explanation:The current guidelines from NICE provide recommendations for managing low back pain. It is suggested to consider using oral non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) such as ibuprofen, while taking into account the potential risks of gastrointestinal, liver, and cardio-renal toxicity, as well as the person’s individual risk factors and age. When prescribing oral NSAIDs, it is important to conduct appropriate clinical assessments, monitor risk factors regularly, and consider the use of gastroprotective treatment. It is advised to prescribe the lowest effective dose of oral NSAIDs for the shortest duration possible. In cases where NSAIDs are contraindicated, not tolerated, or ineffective, weak opioids (with or without paracetamol) may be considered for managing acute low back pain. However, NICE does not recommend the use of paracetamol alone, opioids for chronic low back pain, serotonin reuptake inhibitors, serotonin-noradrenaline reuptake inhibitors, tricyclic antidepressants for non-neuropathic pain, anticonvulsants, or benzodiazepines for muscle spasm associated with acute low back pain. For more information, you can refer to the NICE guidance on low back pain and sciatica in individuals over 16 years old, as well as the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on low back pain without radiculopathy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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Question 11
Correct
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A 35-year-old presents to the emergency department with a head injury associated with alcohol intoxication. The patient has a history of being unreliable when providing information. After reviewing the patient's medical records, you discover that the patient has a pre-existing diagnosis of chronic hepatitis B infection.
Which of the following suggests the presence of chronic hepatitis B infection?Your Answer: Presence of HBsAg for for greater than 6 months
Explanation:Chronic hepatitis B infection is characterized by the persistence of serum HbsAg for a duration exceeding six months.
Further Reading:
Hepatitis B is a viral infection that is transmitted through exposure to infected blood or body fluids. It can also be passed from mother to child during childbirth. The incubation period for hepatitis B is typically 6-20 weeks. Common symptoms of hepatitis B include fever, jaundice, and elevated liver transaminases.
Complications of hepatitis B infection can include chronic hepatitis, which occurs in 5-10% of cases, fulminant liver failure, hepatocellular carcinoma, glomerulonephritis, polyarteritis nodosa, and cryoglobulinemia.
Immunization against hepatitis B is recommended for various at-risk groups, including healthcare workers, intravenous drug users, sex workers, close family contacts of infected individuals, and those with chronic liver disease or kidney disease. The vaccine contains HBsAg adsorbed onto an aluminum hydroxide adjuvant and is prepared using recombinant DNA technology. Most vaccination schedules involve three doses of the vaccine, with a booster recommended after 5 years.
Around 10-15% of adults may not respond adequately to the vaccine. Risk factors for poor response include age over 40, obesity, smoking, alcohol excess, and immunosuppression. Testing for anti-HBs levels is recommended for healthcare workers and patients with chronic kidney disease. Interpretation of anti-HBs levels can help determine the need for further vaccination or testing for infection.
In terms of serology, the presence of HBsAg indicates acute disease if present for 1-6 months, and chronic disease if present for more than 6 months. Anti-HBs indicates immunity, either through exposure or immunization. Anti-HBc indicates previous or current infection, with IgM anti-HBc appearing during acute or recent infection and IgG anti-HBc persisting. HbeAg is a marker of infectivity.
Management of hepatitis B involves notifying the Health Protection Unit for surveillance and contact tracing. Patients should be advised to avoid alcohol and take precautions to minimize transmission to partners and contacts. Referral to a gastroenterologist or hepatologist is recommended for all patients. Symptoms such as pain, nausea, and itch can be managed with appropriate drug treatment. Pegylated interferon-alpha and other antiviral medications like tenofovir and entecavir may be used to suppress viral replication in chronic carriers.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 12
Correct
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A 45-year-old woman has visited her primary care physician and the Emergency Department a combined total of 60 times over the past six years with various complaints. In the past, she has experienced multiple episodes of pain that have affected different parts of her body. No clear cause has ever been found for any of these episodes. Last year she had a strange episode where she lost her sense of taste and smell. She was subsequently referred to a Neurologist and had a normal MRI scan of her brain. This episode resolved without explanation. Today she has presented with concerns about a tingling sensation on the right side of her body, which she would like investigated. Her only past medical history of note is migraines, for which she takes sumatriptan and ibuprofen.
What is the single MOST likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Somatic symptom disorder
Explanation:Somatic symptom disorder is characterized by the presence of recurrent, unexplained clinical symptoms that occur in multiple areas of the body. These symptoms typically begin before the age of 30 and persist for several years. In order to diagnose somatic symptom disorder, the following criteria must be met: experiencing pain in at least four different locations in the body, encountering at least two gastrointestinal issues, encountering one sexual dysfunction, and experiencing one pseudoneurological symptom.
Hypochondriasis, on the other hand, involves an excessive preoccupation with the belief of having a serious illness, such as cancer. Despite undergoing thorough medical investigations and receiving reassurance from healthcare professionals, individuals with hypochondriasis continue to have an unwarranted concern about their physical health. This preoccupation is often accompanied by self-examination, self-diagnosis, and a lack of trust in the diagnoses provided by doctors.
Munchausen syndrome is characterized by individuals intentionally feigning illness or disease in order to gain attention and sympathy from others. Unlike somatisation disorder and hypochondriasis, individuals with Munchausen syndrome deliberately produce their symptoms.
Dissociative disorder, previously known as multiple personality disorder, encompasses a group of conditions that involve disruptions in memory, awareness, identity, and perception. The most extreme manifestation of this disorder is dissociative identity disorder, in which individuals have at least two distinct identities or personalities.
Malingering refers to the deliberate exaggeration or fabrication of symptoms of a disease for various potential secondary gains. This behavior is often associated with seeking financial benefits, such as committing benefits fraud, or engaging in drug-seeking behaviors.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 13
Incorrect
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You assess a client who has recently experienced a significant decline in mood and has been contemplating self-harm. Which ONE of the following characteristics is NOT indicative of depression?
Your Answer: Diurnal variation
Correct Answer: Increased reactivity
Explanation:Loss of reactivity, in contrast to heightened reactivity, is a common trait seen in individuals with depression. The clinical manifestations of depression encompass various symptoms. These include experiencing a persistent low mood, which may fluctuate throughout the day. Another prominent feature is anhedonia, which refers to a diminished ability to experience pleasure. Additionally, individuals with depression often exhibit antipathy, displaying a lack of interest or enthusiasm towards activities or people. Their speech may become slow and have a reduced volume. They may also struggle with maintaining attention and concentration. Furthermore, depression can lead to a decrease in self-esteem, accompanied by thoughts of guilt and worthlessness. Insomnia, particularly early morning waking, is a classic symptom of depression. Other common signs include a decrease in libido, low energy levels, increased fatigue, and a poor appetite resulting in weight loss.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Mental Health
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Question 14
Correct
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A 72-year-old male visits the emergency department on a weekend complaining of colicky abdominal pain and frequent episodes of diarrhea. The patient mentions that he had given a stool sample to his GP earlier in the week, but he is worried because the diarrhea has worsened. The pathology report confirms the presence of clostridium difficile toxin in the stool sample. Which of the medications the patient regularly takes are known to increase the risk of clostridium difficile diarrhea?
Your Answer: Lansoprazole
Explanation:Regular use of medications that decrease gastric acid secretion, such as proton pump inhibitors (esomeprazole, lansoprazole, omeprazole, pantoprazole, and rabeprazole) and H2 receptor antagonists like ranitidine, can increase the risk of developing clostridium difficile diarrhoea. However, it is important to note that antibiotics are the most common cause of this condition.
Further Reading:
Clostridium difficile (C.diff) is a gram positive rod commonly found in hospitals. Some strains of C.diff produce exotoxins that can cause intestinal damage, leading to pseudomembranous colitis. This infection can range from mild diarrhea to severe illness. Antibiotic-associated diarrhea is often caused by C.diff, with 20-30% of cases being attributed to this bacteria. Antibiotics such as clindamycin, cephalosporins, fluoroquinolones, and broad-spectrum penicillins are frequently associated with C.diff infection.
Clinical features of C.diff infection include diarrhea, distinctive smell, abdominal pain, raised white blood cell count, and in severe cases, toxic megacolon. In some severe cases, diarrhea may be absent due to the infection causing paralytic ileus. Diagnosis is made by detecting Clostridium difficile toxin (CDT) in the stool. There are two types of exotoxins produced by C.diff, toxin A and toxin B, which cause mucosal damage and the formation of a pseudomembrane in the colon.
Risk factors for developing C.diff infection include age over 65, antibiotic treatment, previous C.diff infection, exposure to infected individuals, proton pump inhibitor or H2 receptor antagonist use, prolonged hospitalization or residence in a nursing home, and chronic disease or immunosuppression. Complications of C.diff infection can include toxic megacolon, colon perforation, sepsis, and even death, especially in frail elderly individuals.
Management of C.diff infection involves stopping the causative antibiotic if possible, optimizing hydration with IV fluids if necessary, and assessing the severity of the infection. Treatment options vary based on severity, ranging from no antibiotics for mild cases to vancomycin or fidaxomicin for moderate cases, and hospital protocol antibiotics (such as oral vancomycin with IV metronidazole) for severe or life-threatening cases. Severe cases may require admission under gastroenterology or GI surgeons.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology & Hepatology
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Question 15
Incorrect
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A 28 year old IV drug user presents to the emergency department with complaints of feeling ill. Considering the history of IV drug abuse, there is a concern for infective endocarditis. What is the most characteristic clinical manifestation of infective endocarditis?
Your Answer: Splinter haemorrhages
Correct Answer: Fever
Explanation:The most common symptom of infective endocarditis is fever, which occurs in the majority of cases and is consistently present throughout the course of the disease. Cardiac murmurs are also frequently detected, although they may only be present in one third of patients at the initial presentation. Individuals who use intravenous drugs often develop right-sided disease affecting the tricuspid and pulmonary valves, making it challenging to detect cardiac murmurs in these cases. Splinter hemorrhages and other symptoms may also be observed.
Further Reading:
Infective endocarditis (IE) is an infection that affects the innermost layer of the heart, known as the endocardium. It is most commonly caused by bacteria, although it can also be caused by fungi or viruses. IE can be classified as acute, subacute, or chronic depending on the duration of illness. Risk factors for IE include IV drug use, valvular heart disease, prosthetic valves, structural congenital heart disease, previous episodes of IE, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, immune suppression, chronic inflammatory conditions, and poor dental hygiene.
The epidemiology of IE has changed in recent years, with Staphylococcus aureus now being the most common causative organism in most industrialized countries. Other common organisms include coagulase-negative staphylococci, streptococci, and enterococci. The distribution of causative organisms varies depending on whether the patient has a native valve, prosthetic valve, or is an IV drug user.
Clinical features of IE include fever, heart murmurs (most commonly aortic regurgitation), non-specific constitutional symptoms, petechiae, splinter hemorrhages, Osler’s nodes, Janeway’s lesions, Roth’s spots, arthritis, splenomegaly, meningism/meningitis, stroke symptoms, and pleuritic pain.
The diagnosis of IE is based on the modified Duke criteria, which require the presence of certain major and minor criteria. Major criteria include positive blood cultures with typical microorganisms and positive echocardiogram findings. Minor criteria include fever, vascular phenomena, immunological phenomena, and microbiological phenomena. Blood culture and echocardiography are key tests for diagnosing IE.
In summary, infective endocarditis is an infection of the innermost layer of the heart that is most commonly caused by bacteria. It can be classified as acute, subacute, or chronic and can be caused by a variety of risk factors. Staphylococcus aureus is now the most common causative organism in most industrialized countries. Clinical features include fever, heart murmurs, and various other symptoms. The diagnosis is based on the modified Duke criteria, which require the presence of certain major and minor criteria. Blood culture and echocardiography are important tests for diagnosing IE.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 16
Incorrect
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You evaluate a 68-year-old woman diagnosed with small-cell lung cancer.
Which ONE paraneoplastic syndrome is most frequently linked to this form of lung cancer?Your Answer: Carcinoid syndrome
Correct Answer: Ectopic ACTH production
Explanation:Ectopic production of ACTH is linked to small-cell lung cancer and can lead to Cushing’s syndrome. It can also be observed in cases of pancreatic cancer and thymoma.
Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy (HPOA) is characterized by the presence of periostitis, arthritis, and finger clubbing. On plain X-ray, subperiosteal new bone formation can be detected. This condition primarily affects the long bones and often causes pain. It is most commonly associated with squamous cell lung cancer and pulmonary adenocarcinoma.
Gynaecomastia, which is the enlargement of breast tissue in males, can occur as a result of squamous cell lung cancer. In these cases, it tends to be accompanied by pain.
Rarely, squamous cell lung cancer can cause ectopic production of TSH, leading to hyperthyroidism.
Carcinoid syndrome is a condition that arises from carcinoid tumors, which secrete serotonin and kallikreins. This syndrome manifests as episodes of flushing, diarrhea, and bronchospasm. Additionally, 50% of patients develop a secondary restrictive cardiomyopathy. Carcinoid tumors can occur in various locations, with the small intestine being the most common site. Other locations include the lungs (bronchial adenoma), rectum, appendix, and stomach.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Oncological Emergencies
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 17 year old female presents to the emergency department with a guardian, complaining of feeling unwell. She reports experiencing pain in her pelvic and lower abdominal area. The guardian reveals that they suspect she may have a tampon stuck inside her. You request permission to conduct a vaginal examination. In the event that this patient is determined to be incapable of giving consent, who among the following individuals has the authority to provide consent on her behalf?
Your Answer: Patient's parents
Correct Answer: Court Appointed Deputy
Explanation:Consent for individuals who lack capacity can be given by the person with lasting power of attorney, a court-appointed deputy, or doctors. Since the patient is an adult (>18), parental consent is not applicable. However, parents or family members can consent on behalf of an adult if they have been granted lasting power of attorney (LPA). The authorized individuals who can provide consent are the person with lasting power of attorney, court-appointed deputies, and doctors in cases involving treatment under best interests or mental health legislation. It is important to note that parental consent is only appropriate if they have LPA.
Further Reading:
Patients have the right to determine what happens to their own bodies, and for consent to be valid, certain criteria must be met. These criteria include the person being informed about the intervention, having the capacity to consent, and giving consent voluntarily and freely without any pressure or undue influence.
In order for a person to be deemed to have capacity to make a decision on a medical intervention, they must be able to understand the decision and the information provided, retain that information, weigh up the pros and cons, and communicate their decision.
Valid consent can only be provided by adults, either by the patient themselves, a person authorized under a Lasting Power of Attorney, or someone with the authority to make treatment decisions, such as a court-appointed deputy or a guardian with welfare powers.
In the UK, patients aged 16 and over are assumed to have the capacity to consent. If a patient is under 18 and appears to lack capacity, parental consent may be accepted. However, a young person of any age may consent to treatment if they are considered competent to make the decision, known as Gillick competence. Parental consent may also be given by those with parental responsibility.
The Fraser guidelines apply to the prescription of contraception to under 16’s without parental involvement. These guidelines allow doctors to provide contraceptive advice and treatment without parental consent if certain criteria are met, including the young person understanding the advice, being unable to be persuaded to inform their parents, and their best interests requiring them to receive contraceptive advice or treatment.
Competent adults have the right to refuse consent, even if it is deemed unwise or likely to result in harm. However, there are exceptions to this, such as compulsory treatment authorized by the mental health act or if the patient is under 18 and refusing treatment would put their health at serious risk.
In emergency situations where a patient is unable to give consent, treatment may be provided without consent if it is immediately necessary to save their life or prevent a serious deterioration of their condition. Any treatment decision made without consent must be in the patient’s best interests, and if a decision is time-critical and the patient is unlikely to regain capacity in time, a best interest decision should be made. The treatment provided should be the least restrictive on the patient’s future choices.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Safeguarding & Psychosocial Emergencies
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Question 18
Incorrect
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You evaluate a child with a limp and complaints of hip discomfort. An X-ray is conducted, and the diagnosis of Perthes' disease is confirmed.
Which ONE statement about this condition is accurate?Your Answer: Treatment is always surgical
Correct Answer: A positive family history is present in 10-15% of cases
Explanation:Perthes’ disease is a hip disorder that occurs in childhood due to a disruption in the blood supply to the femoral head. This leads to a lack of blood flow, causing the bone to die. The condition typically affects children between the ages of 4 and 10, with boys being more commonly affected than girls. In about 10-15% of cases, there is a family history of the disease, and approximately 15% of patients have the condition in both hips.
The progression of Perthes’ disease can be seen through characteristic changes on X-rays, which can take between 2 and 4 years to fully heal. The earliest sign is an increased density of the epiphysis (the end of the bone) and widening of the medial joint space. As the disease progresses, the epiphysis may fragment and the head of the femur may flatten. Over time, the bone gradually heals, with the dense bone being reabsorbed and replaced by new bone. This process continues until growth stops, and the bone is remodeled.
Children with Perthes’ disease typically present with hip pain and a limp. The pain can vary in severity, and clinical signs may be minor, with only a slight restriction in hip joint movement.
The treatment of Perthes’ disease is a topic of debate. Around 50% of patients can achieve good results with conservative management alone, without the need for surgery. Surgical intervention, such as osteotomy (reshaping the bone), is usually reserved for cases where the disease progresses unfavorably or when conservative treatment fails. Potential complications of Perthes’ disease include permanent hip deformity and secondary arthritis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal (non-traumatic)
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A toddler is brought in with a rash and a high fever. You suspect a potential diagnosis of bacterial meningitis.
Based on the current NICE guidelines, which of the following features is LEAST indicative of this condition?Your Answer: Bulging fontanelle
Correct Answer: Focal seizures
Explanation:NICE has emphasized that certain indications and manifestations may indicate specific diseases as the underlying cause of fever. For instance, symptoms such as neck stiffness, bulging fontanelle, decreased level of consciousness, and convulsive status epilepticus are suggestive of bacterial meningitis. On the other hand, NICE has identified focal seizures and focal neurological signs as the most indicative of herpes simplex encephalitis. For more information, you can refer to the NICE guidelines on the assessment and initial management of fever in children under 5, as well as the NICE Clinical Knowledge Summary on the management of feverish children.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 20
Correct
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A 65-year-old man comes in with a 2-hour history of left-sided weakness and difficulty speaking. A CT scan has ruled out a primary intracerebral hemorrhage, and he is being prepared for thrombolysis. According to the current NICE guidelines, which thrombolytic agent is recommended for the treatment of acute ischemic stroke?
Your Answer: Alteplase
Explanation:According to the current guidelines from NICE, alteplase is recommended as a thrombolysis treatment for acute ischaemic stroke. For more information, you can refer to the NICE guidelines on stroke and transient ischaemic attack in individuals over the age of 16.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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