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Question 1
Correct
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A patient with a history of heart failure is experiencing discomfort even at rest and is unable to engage in any physical activity without symptoms. What is the New York Heart Association classification that best describes the severity of their condition?
Your Answer: NYHA Class IV
Explanation:NYHA Classification for Chronic Heart Failure
The NYHA classification is a widely used system for categorizing the severity of chronic heart failure. It is based on the symptoms experienced by the patient during physical activity. NYHA Class I indicates no symptoms and no limitations on physical activity. NYHA Class II indicates mild symptoms and slight limitations on physical activity. NYHA Class III indicates moderate symptoms and marked limitations on physical activity. Finally, NYHA Class IV indicates severe symptoms and an inability to carry out any physical activity without discomfort. This classification system is helpful in determining the appropriate treatment and management plan for patients with chronic heart failure.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Cardiovascular
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Question 2
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman comes in for a check-up. She has a history of depression and is currently taking citalopram. Despite returning from a recent trip to Italy, she complains of feeling fatigued all the time. During the examination, you notice a slightly raised red rash on the bridge of her nose and cheeks. Although she complains of having 'stiff joints,' you find no evidence of arthritis. You order some basic blood tests:
Hb 12.5 g/dl
Platelets 135 * 109/l
WBC 3.5 * 109/l
Na+ 140 mmol/l
K+ 4.2 mmol/l
Urea 3.2 mmol/l
Creatinine 80 µmol/l
Free T4 11.8 pmol/l
TSH 1.30 mu/l
CRP 8 mg/l
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Acne rosacea
Correct Answer: Systemic lupus erythematosus
Explanation:The presence of a malar rash, arthralgia, lethargy, and a history of mental health issues suggest a possible diagnosis of SLE. It is important to note that the CRP levels are usually within normal range in SLE, unlike the ESR.
Understanding Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) is an autoimmune disorder that affects multiple systems in the body. It is more common in women and people of Afro-Caribbean origin, and typically presents in early adulthood. The general features of SLE include fatigue, fever, mouth ulcers, and lymphadenopathy.
SLE can also affect the skin, causing a malar (butterfly) rash that spares the nasolabial folds, discoid rash in sun-exposed areas, photosensitivity, Raynaud’s phenomenon, livedo reticularis, and non-scarring alopecia. Musculoskeletal symptoms include arthralgia and non-erosive arthritis.
Cardiovascular manifestations of SLE include pericarditis and myocarditis, while respiratory symptoms may include pleurisy and fibrosing alveolitis. Renal involvement can lead to proteinuria and glomerulonephritis, with diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis being the most common type.
Finally, neuropsychiatric symptoms of SLE may include anxiety and depression, as well as more severe manifestations such as psychosis and seizures. Understanding the various features of SLE is important for early diagnosis and management of this complex autoimmune disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old man complains of lower back pain and 'sciatica' that has been bothering him for the past few days. He reports feeling a sudden 'pop' while lifting a heavy object, and now experiences severe pain that radiates from his back down his left leg. During the examination, he reports experiencing paraesthesia on the lateral aspect of his left foot and the posterior aspect of his thigh. Muscle strength is normal, but the left knee reflex is reduced. The straight leg raise test is positive on the left side. Which nerve root is most likely affected?
Your Answer: Lateral cutaneous nerve of the thigh
Correct Answer: L4
Explanation:Understanding Prolapsed Disc and its Features
A prolapsed lumbar disc is a common cause of lower back pain that can lead to neurological deficits. It is characterized by clear dermatomal leg pain, which is usually worse than the back pain. The pain is often aggravated when sitting. The features of the prolapsed disc depend on the site of compression. For instance, L3 nerve root compression can cause sensory loss over the anterior thigh, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test. On the other hand, L4 nerve root compression can lead to sensory loss in the anterior aspect of the knee, weak quadriceps, reduced knee reflex, and a positive femoral stretch test.
The management of prolapsed disc is similar to that of other musculoskeletal lower back pain. It involves analgesia, physiotherapy, and exercises. According to NICE, the first-line treatment for back pain without sciatica symptoms is NSAIDs +/- proton pump inhibitors, rather than neuropathic analgesia. If the symptoms persist after 4-6 weeks, referral for consideration of MRI is appropriate. Understanding the features of prolapsed disc can help in the diagnosis and management of this condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 49-year-old woman is admitted to the surgical ward with severe loin to groin abdominal pain. A CT-KUB reveals a right-sided renal calculus. When you take her medical history, she confesses that she has been feeling unwell for the past few weeks with symptoms of polyuria, polydipsia, constipation and altered mood.
Her blood tests show an estimated glomerular filtration rate of >60 ml/min, adjusted calcium of 3.1 mmol/l (2.1-2.6 mmol/l), phosphate of 0.6 mmol/l (0.8-1.4 mol/l), and parathyroid hormone of 5.1 pmol/l (1.2-5.8 pmol/l).
What is the most probable cause of her symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Primary hyperparathyroidism
Explanation:The most probable diagnosis in this case is primary hyperparathyroidism, which is caused by parathyroid adenoma or hyperplasia. The typical biochemical markers are low phosphate and high serum calcium levels. However, the parathyroid hormone level may be high or inappropriately normal. On the other hand, secondary hyperparathyroidism is caused by chronic hypocalcemia, such as in chronic kidney disease, where serum calcium levels are low or normal, but parathyroid hormone levels are high. Tertiary hyperparathyroidism is a result of autonomous parathyroid production and usually occurs in patients with end-stage renal disease. Sarcoidosis and type 1 renal tubular acidosis are rare causes of hypercalcemia.
Understanding Primary Hyperparathyroidism
Primary hyperparathyroidism is a condition commonly seen in elderly females, characterized by an unquenchable thirst and an inappropriately normal or raised parathyroid hormone level. It is usually caused by a solitary adenoma, with hyperplasia, multiple adenoma, and carcinoma being less common causes. While around 80% of patients are asymptomatic, those who do experience symptoms may have polydipsia, polyuria, depression, anorexia, nausea, constipation, peptic ulceration, pancreatitis, bone pain/fracture, renal stones, and hypertension. Primary hyperparathyroidism is also associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia (MEN I and II).
To diagnose primary hyperparathyroidism, doctors may look for raised calcium levels and low phosphate levels, as well as perform a technetium-MIBI subtraction scan. A characteristic X-ray finding of hyperparathyroidism is the pepperpot skull. Treatment options include total parathyroidectomy, conservative management, and the use of calcimimetics like cinacalcet. Calcimimetics mimic the action of calcium on tissues by allosteric activation of the calcium-sensing receptor.
In summary, primary hyperparathyroidism is a condition that can be asymptomatic or present with a range of symptoms. It is most commonly caused by a solitary adenoma and is associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia. Diagnosis involves blood tests and imaging, while treatment options include surgery and medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of worsening psoriasis. He reports feeling more stressed lately and suspects it may be contributing to his flare-up. Additionally, he has recently started taking a new medication. During the physical examination, scaly plaques on the extensor surfaces and trunk that are erythematous are observed. Which of the following medications could potentially trigger exacerbations in his condition?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lithium
Explanation:The medication lithium has been known to worsen psoriasis in some patients and can even cause psoriasis in those who did not previously have it, even at normal therapeutic levels. It is important to inform both the patient and their psychiatrist of this potential effect. Furosemide, on the other hand, does not typically worsen or cause drug-induced psoriasis, but can lead to electrolyte imbalances. Amiodarone also does not worsen or cause drug-induced psoriasis, but can cause a bluish discoloration of the skin.
Psoriasis can be worsened by various factors. These include physical trauma, consumption of alcohol, and certain medications such as beta blockers, lithium, antimalarials (chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine), NSAIDs and ACE inhibitors, and infliximab. Additionally, stopping the use of systemic steroids can also exacerbate psoriasis. It is important to note that streptococcal infection can trigger guttate psoriasis, a type of psoriasis characterized by small, drop-like lesions on the skin. Therefore, individuals with psoriasis should be aware of these exacerbating factors and take necessary precautions to manage their condition.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Dermatology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old female patient complains of a painful and red left eye that has been bothering her for a day. She reports continuous tearing from the affected eye and experiences photophobia. Upon examination, fluorescein staining reveals a small, feathery area of abnormal uptake. However, her visual acuity is 6/6 in both eyes. What is the best course of action for management?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Refer immediately to ophthalmology
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms suggest the possibility of a corneal abrasion or dendritic corneal ulcer, with photophobia being a key indicator. However, the feathery pattern observed is more indicative of herpes simplex keratitis. Urgent review by an ophthalmologist is necessary, and caution should be exercised in prescribing topical steroids as they may exacerbate the infection.
Understanding Herpes Simplex Keratitis
Herpes simplex keratitis is a condition that affects the cornea of the eye and is caused by the herpes simplex virus. The most common symptom of this condition is a dendritic corneal ulcer, which can cause a red, painful eye, photophobia, and epiphora. In some cases, visual acuity may also be decreased. Fluorescein staining may show an epithelial ulcer, which can help with diagnosis. One common treatment for this condition is topical aciclovir, which can help to reduce the severity of symptoms and prevent further damage to the cornea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 7
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old woman with age-related macular degeneration (AMD) presented to the emergency department with a painless bloodshot right eye. She was very worried about her condition. The previous day, she had received an intravitreal injection for the treatment of AMD. Upon examination, her visual acuity had not decreased further, but there was bleeding under the conjunctiva around the injection site. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Subconjunctival haemorrhage
Explanation:It is important to inform patients about the possibility of developing subconjunctival haemorrhage after receiving intravitreal injections, as it is a common iatrogenic complication. This condition causes a red eye but is not painful and typically resolves within a couple of weeks.
Understanding Subconjunctival Haemorrhage
Subconjunctival haemorrhage occurs when blood vessels bleed into the subconjunctival space, usually those that supply the conjunctiva or episclera. Trauma is the most common cause, followed by spontaneous idiopathic cases, Valsalva manoeuvres, and several systemic diseases. Although subconjunctival haemorrhages can look alarming, they are rarely an indicator of anything sinister.
Subconjunctival haemorrhages are more common in women than in men when there has been no history of trauma. The annual incidence of non-traumatic subconjunctival haemorrhages is 0.6%, and the risk increases with age as the risk factors are more common in elderly patients. Newborns are also more susceptible. The incidence of both traumatic and non-traumatic subconjunctival haemorrhages is 2.6%.
The most common causes of subconjunctival haemorrhages are trauma and contact lens usage, which are often the sole risk factor in younger patients. Other risk factors include idiopathic causes, Valsalva manoeuvre, hypertension, bleeding disorders, drugs such as aspirin, NSAIDs and anticoagulants, diabetes, arterial disease, and hyperlipidaemia.
Subconjunctival haemorrhages are mostly asymptomatic, but patients may experience mild irritation. The main sign is a flat, red patch on the conjunctiva with well-defined edges and normal conjunctiva surrounding it. Traumatic haemorrhages are most common in the temporal region, with the inferior conjunctiva as the next most commonly affected area. Vision should be normal, including acuity, visual fields, and range of eye movements. On examination, the fundus should be normal.
The diagnosis of a subconjunctival haemorrhage is a clinical one. If there is no obvious traumatic cause, check the patient’s blood pressure. If raised, refer the patient appropriately. If the patient is taking warfarin, check the INR. If raised, refer for appropriate adjustments to the dose to bring the INR back into the target range. Recurrent or spontaneous, bilateral subconjunctival haemorrhages warrant investigations for bleeding disorders or other pathology.
Reassure the patient that subconjunctival haemorrhage is a benign condition that will resolve on its own in 2 to
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 8
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old man undergoes a routine medical examination and is found to have 3+ haematuria. This is confirmed on microscopy and on a second urinalysis 9 months later. He recalls experiencing two episodes of red urine in the past year, both of which occurred during upper respiratory tract infections. There is no family history of renal disease. He has no oedema but his blood pressure is 150/100 mmHg. His plasma creatinine level is 65 μmol/l (reference range 53–106 μmol/l). What is the most likely finding on a renal biopsy?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Immunoglobulin A (IgA) nephropathy
Explanation:Common Kidney Diseases and Their Clinical Features
Immunoglobulin A (IgA) Nephropathy, Kimmelstiel Wilson Lesions, Cast Nephropathy, Minimal Change Disease, and Thin Basement Membranes are some of the common kidney diseases that affect people. Each of these diseases has unique clinical features that help in their diagnosis.
IgA Nephropathy, also known as Berger’s disease, is the most common cause of glomerulonephritis worldwide. It is characterized by predominant IgA deposition in the glomerular mesangium. Clinical features range from asymptomatic haematuria to rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis.
Kimmelstiel–Wilson Lesions, also known as nodular glomerulosclerosis, is a complication of diabetes mellitus. It is characterized by the formation of nodules of hyaline material in regions of glomerular capillary loops in the glomerulus.
Cast Nephropathy, also known as myeloma cast nephropathy, is the formation of urinary casts in the renal tubules from free immunoglobulin light chains, causing intratubular obstruction and damage, which leads to renal failure in the context of multiple myeloma.
Minimal Change Disease, also known as lipoid nephrosis or nil disease, arises from a histopathologic lesion in the glomerulus and is characterized by intense proteinuria leading to oedema and intravascular volume depletion.
Thin Basement Membranes is a group of inherited heterogeneous disorders involving the basement membranes of the kidney and frequently affecting the cochlea and eye as well. It is characterized by splitting and lamellation of the glomerular basement membrane.
In conclusion, understanding the clinical features of these common kidney diseases is crucial in their diagnosis and management.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Renal Medicine/Urology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 26-year-old female contact lens wearer arrives at the emergency department complaining of eye pain. She reports experiencing severe pain, watery eyes, and sensitivity to light in her left eye. Upon examination, her left eye appears red, but her pupil seems normal. After applying fluorescein dye, you observe a distinct area of green fluorescence under a blue light. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Corneal ulcer
Explanation:If there is corneal uptake of fluorescein, along with symptoms of ocular pain, tearing, and photophobia, it is likely that the individual has a corneal ulcer. Fluorescein, an orange dye, is applied to the surface of the eye and will appear green/yellow under a blue light if it is taken up by the corneal epithelium. While dry eye can also cause fluorescence, it typically appears as a diffuse, speckled pattern known as superficial punctate staining.
Understanding Corneal Ulcers
A corneal ulcer is a condition that occurs when there is a defect in the cornea, which is usually caused by an infection. It is important to note that corneal abrasions, on the other hand, are typically caused by physical trauma. There are several risk factors that can increase the likelihood of developing a corneal ulcer, including contact lens use and vitamin A deficiency, which is particularly common in developing countries.
The pathophysiology of corneal ulcers can vary depending on the underlying cause. Bacterial, fungal, and viral infections can all lead to the development of a corneal ulcer. In some cases, contact lens use can also be associated with a type of infection called Acanthamoeba keratitis.
Symptoms of a corneal ulcer typically include eye pain, sensitivity to light, and excessive tearing. Additionally, a focal fluorescein staining of the cornea may be present.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 10
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner with a 2-month history of fatigue and muscle weakness.
During the examination, her blood pressure is found to be 160/95 mmHg. The rest of the examination is normal. The General Practitioner decides to order routine blood tests. The results are as follows:
Investigation Result Normal value
Sodium (Na+) 151 mmol
Potassium (K+) 3.0 mmol
Bicarbonate 29 mmol/l
Urea 5.2 mmol/l
Creatinine 70.5 µmol/l
Random glucose 5.8 mmol/l
What is the most appropriate first-line investigation to make a diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Aldosterone/renin ratio
Explanation:The patient’s symptoms of hypertension, hypokalaemia, and hypernatraemia suggest a diagnosis of hyperaldosteronism, which is characterized by increased water and sodium reabsorption in the kidneys and potassium loss due to high aldosterone levels. While muscle weakness and lethargy are common symptoms, they are only present in 40% of cases. Metabolic alkalosis is another common finding. Primary hyperaldosteronism is often caused by bilateral idiopathic adrenal hyperplasia, rather than an adrenal adenoma. To diagnose hyperaldosteronism, a plasma aldosterone/renin ratio is recommended as the first-line investigation, followed by a high-resolution CT scan of the abdomen and adrenal vein sampling to differentiate between unilateral and bilateral sources of aldosterone excess. While an overnight dexamethasone suppression test is useful for diagnosing Cushing syndrome, it is not relevant in this case. Urine dipstick and formal urinalysis would be helpful in identifying renal causes of secondary hypertension, but are not necessary in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Endocrinology/Metabolic Disease
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Question 11
Incorrect
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A 75-year-old man came to the clinic with painless, blurry vision in his right eye. He reported no other ocular symptoms and had a history of bilateral cataract surgery five years ago. What is the most probable reason for his vision impairment?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Posterior capsule opacification
Explanation:Blurred vision years after cataract surgery may be caused by posterior capsule opacification, which can occur even after the cataract has been removed and an artificial lens has been implanted.
Understanding Cataracts: Causes, Symptoms, and Management
A cataract is a common eye condition that affects the lens of the eye, causing it to become cloudy and reducing the amount of light that reaches the retina. This can lead to blurred or reduced vision, making it difficult to see clearly. Cataracts are more common in women and tend to increase in incidence with age. While the normal ageing process is the most common cause, other factors such as smoking, alcohol consumption, trauma, diabetes, and long-term corticosteroid use can also contribute to the development of cataracts.
Symptoms of cataracts include reduced vision, faded colour vision, glare, and halos around lights. A defect in the red reflex is also a sign of cataracts. Diagnosis is typically made through ophthalmoscopy and slit-lamp examination, which can reveal the presence of a visible cataract.
In the early stages, age-related cataracts can be managed conservatively with stronger glasses or contact lenses and brighter lighting. However, surgery is the only effective treatment for cataracts and involves removing the cloudy lens and replacing it with an artificial one. Referral for surgery should be based on the presence of visual impairment, impact on quality of life, and patient choice. Complications following surgery can include posterior capsule opacification, retinal detachment, posterior capsule rupture, and endophthalmitis.
Overall, cataracts are a common and treatable eye condition that can significantly impact a person’s vision. Understanding the causes, symptoms, and management options can help individuals make informed decisions about their eye health.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 12
Incorrect
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A mother who refused regular prenatal check-ups delivers a male infant. During delivery, a defect is observed on the side of the belly button, revealing the intestines.
What could be the possible diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Gastroschisis
Explanation:Gastroschisis is a bowel condition where the intestines are exposed and not encased by a sac. It is not associated with cardiac and kidney diseases, unlike exomphalos. It can be diagnosed through routine ultrasound, but may be missed if the mother does not engage in antenatal care. It is not a normal variant and is not necessarily associated with prematurity.
Gastroschisis and exomphalos are both types of congenital visceral malformations. Gastroschisis refers to a defect in the anterior abdominal wall located just beside the umbilical cord. In contrast, exomphalos, also known as omphalocoele, involves the protrusion of abdominal contents through the anterior abdominal wall, which are covered by an amniotic sac formed by amniotic membrane and peritoneum.
When it comes to managing gastroschisis, vaginal delivery may be attempted, but newborns should be taken to the operating theatre as soon as possible after delivery, ideally within four hours. As for exomphalos, a caesarean section is recommended to reduce the risk of sac rupture. In cases where primary closure is difficult due to lack of space or high intra-abdominal pressure, a staged repair may be undertaken. This involves allowing the sac to granulate and epithelialise over several weeks or months, forming a shell. As the infant grows, the sac contents will eventually fit within the abdominal cavity, at which point the shell can be removed and the abdomen closed.
Overall, both gastroschisis and exomphalos require careful management to ensure the best possible outcome for the newborn. By understanding the differences between these two conditions and the appropriate steps to take, healthcare professionals can provide effective care and support to both the infant and their family.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 13
Incorrect
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A 32-year-old female patient complains of gradual tingling and numbness in her right hand's 4th and 5th fingers. The symptoms were occasional at first, but now they are persistent. She observes that the discomfort intensifies when she rests her right elbow on a surface. She remembers hitting her elbow against a door a while back. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Cubital tunnel syndrome
Explanation:Cubital tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the ulnar nerve is compressed, resulting in tingling and numbness in the fourth and fifth fingers.
The correct answer is cubital tunnel syndrome. The ulnar nerve passes through the cubital tunnel, and when it is compressed, it can cause the symptoms described, such as tingling and numbness in the fourth and fifth fingers. Treatment for this condition may involve conservative measures, but surgery may be necessary in some cases.
Carpal tunnel syndrome, on the other hand, is caused by compression of the median nerve at the wrist, leading to pain and tingling in the hand and wrist, rather than specific fingers.
De Quervain’s tenosynovitis presents differently, with pain occurring during movement of the thumb and wrist, and the radial styloid may become thickened and hardened.
Medial epicondylitis, or golfer’s elbow, causes pain in the medial elbow area, near the cubital tunnel, but it is a tendinopathy rather than nerve compression. The pain is localized to the affected area.
Understanding Cubital Tunnel Syndrome
Cubital tunnel syndrome is a condition that occurs when the ulnar nerve is compressed as it passes through the cubital tunnel. This can cause a range of symptoms, including tingling and numbness in the fourth and fifth fingers, which may start off intermittent but eventually become constant. Over time, patients may also experience weakness and muscle wasting. Pain is often worse when leaning on the affected elbow, and there may be a history of osteoarthritis or prior trauma to the area.
Diagnosis of cubital tunnel syndrome is usually made based on clinical features, although nerve conduction studies may be used in selected cases. Management of the condition typically involves avoiding aggravating activities, undergoing physiotherapy, and receiving steroid injections. In cases where these measures are not effective, surgery may be necessary. By understanding the symptoms and treatment options for cubital tunnel syndrome, patients can take steps to manage their condition and improve their quality of life.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 14
Incorrect
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Samantha is a 55-year-old woman who has been experiencing difficulty breathing. She undergoes a spirometry evaluation with the following findings: a decrease in forced vital capacity (FVC), an increase in the forced expiratory volume in one second to forced vital capacity ratio (FEV1:FVC ratio), and a decrease in the transfer factor for carbon monoxide (TLCO), indicating impaired gas exchange. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Pulmonary fibrosis
Explanation:Understanding Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis
Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF) is a chronic lung condition that causes progressive fibrosis of the interstitium of the lungs. Unlike other causes of lung fibrosis, IPF has no underlying cause. It is typically seen in patients aged 50-70 years and is more common in men.
The symptoms of IPF include progressive exertional dyspnoea, dry cough, clubbing, and bibasal fine end-inspiratory crepitations on auscultation. Diagnosis is made through spirometry, impaired gas exchange tests, and imaging such as chest x-rays and high-resolution CT scans.
Management of IPF includes pulmonary rehabilitation, but very few medications have been shown to be effective. Some evidence suggests that pirfenidone, an antifibrotic agent, may be useful in selected patients. Many patients will eventually require supplementary oxygen and a lung transplant.
The prognosis for IPF is poor, with an average life expectancy of around 3-4 years. CT scans can show advanced pulmonary fibrosis, including honeycombing. While there is no cure for IPF, early diagnosis and management can help improve quality of life and potentially prolong survival.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 15
Incorrect
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Assuming that all of the patients have COPD, which one of the following is eligible for long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT)?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Non-smoker with PaO2 of 7.8kPa with secondary polycythaemia
Explanation:Assessing the Need for Oxygen Therapy in Patients with Respiratory Conditions
When assessing the need for oxygen therapy in patients with respiratory conditions, it is important to consider various factors. For instance, NICE recommends LTOT for patients with a PaO2 between 7.3 and 8.0 kPa when stable, if they have comorbidities such as secondary polycythaemia, peripheral oedema, or pulmonary hypertension. Additionally, patients with very severe or severe airflow obstruction, cyanosis, raised jugular venous pressure, and oxygen saturations ≤92% when breathing air should also be assessed for oxygen therapy.
However, it is important to note that a non-smoker with a PaO2 of 8.2 kPa with pulmonary hypertension does not meet the criteria for oxygen therapy, while a non-smoker with FEV1 56% or a non-smoker with a PaO2 of 7.6 kPa and diabetes mellitus also do not meet the criteria for LTOT. On the other hand, a smoker with a PaO2 of 7.3 kPa may be considered for oxygen therapy, but it is important to ensure that the result has been checked twice and to warn the patient about the risks of smoking while on oxygen therapy.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 16
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman presents to her General Practitioner (GP) after experiencing daily headaches for the past week. She is usually healthy but drinks three cups of coffee a day. She describes sudden onset of severe, unilateral periorbital pain and tearing of the eye. The attacks last around 30 minutes and have all occurred in the late afternoon.
What is the most suitable treatment to be administered to this patient during an acute episode of headache?
Select the MOST appropriate treatment from the options below.Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intranasal sumatriptan
Explanation:Treatment options for Cluster Headaches
Cluster headaches are a type of headache that is more common in men and presents with intense pain localized around one eye, accompanied by lacrimation and nasal congestion. The pain can last for a few minutes up to three hours and occurs every day for a number of weeks, followed by a symptom-free period. Here are some treatment options for cluster headaches:
Intranasal Sumatriptan: People over the age of 18 with acute bouts of confirmed cluster headache may be given a subcutaneous or nasal triptan for acute attacks.
Verapamil: Verapamil may be prescribed as a preventative treatment for cluster headaches but is not used during an acute attack. It is usually only prescribed following a discussion with a neurologist or a GP with a special interest in headaches.
Carbamazepine: Carbamazepine is used in the treatment of trigeminal neuralgia, which presents with sudden attacks of severe, shooting unilateral facial pain that feels like an ‘electric shock’. However, for cluster headaches, it is not the first-line treatment.
Codeine: Patients with cluster headaches should not be offered paracetamol, non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs or opioids as acute treatment, as they are too slow to take effect.
Short-burst oxygen therapy (home oxygen): Short-burst oxygen therapy (12–15 l/min via a non-rebreathe mask) can be prescribed to reduce the length of an attack, unless it is contraindicated. However, home oxygen is contraindicated for smokers due to the risk of fire.
In conclusion, cluster headaches can be debilitating, but there are various treatment options available to manage the symptoms. It is important to consult with a healthcare professional to determine the best course of treatment for each individual.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 17
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman presents to the Emergency Department with symptoms of nausea, upper abdominal discomfort and distension. She has been taking aspirin regularly for the past 8 weeks due to a chronic back pain. She has been tested for Helicobacter pylori and was negative so the aspirin has been discontinued. A gastroscopy is performed which reveals the presence of gastritis and a benign duodenal ulcer that is not actively bleeding.
What is the most appropriate next step in managing this patient?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Start intravenous proton-pump inhibitors (PPIs)
Explanation:Treatment Options for Gastric Ulcers
Gastric ulcers can be caused by long-term use of non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) and can lead to severe symptoms requiring hospitalization. Treatment options for gastric ulcers include intravenous proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) followed by long-term oral PPIs. A repeat gastroscopy is usually carried out to ensure that the ulcer has healed. In cases where the ulcer has perforated or is malignant, a partial gastrectomy may be indicated. Retesting for H. pylori may be necessary if the patient had previously tested positive. Adrenalin injection is only indicated for bleeding gastric ulcers. Placing the patient nil by mouth is not necessary for healing the ulcer.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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Question 18
Incorrect
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A 55-year-old woman visits her primary care physician with a complaint of right eye pain that has been present for 2 days. She reports sensitivity to bright light but denies any history of eye trauma or regular use of contact lenses. The patient has a medical history of Crohn's disease and is currently taking methotrexate.
During the examination, the patient's vital signs are normal. The right eye appears red and is tearing. Fluorescein staining reveals the presence of a dendritic ulcer.
What is the recommended treatment for this patient's condition?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Topical aciclovir
Explanation:The appropriate treatment for herpes simplex keratitis is topical aciclovir. This patient’s symptoms and examination findings suggest herpes simplex keratitis, which is more common in immunosuppressed individuals. Topical aciclovir is the preferred treatment option. Artificial tears are not likely to be helpful as the patient’s eye is already watery. Oral flucloxacillin is not indicated for this condition, as it is typically used for superficial skin infections. Topical chloramphenicol is not appropriate for this patient, as it is used to treat bacterial conjunctivitis, which presents with different symptoms.
Understanding Herpes Simplex Keratitis
Herpes simplex keratitis is a condition that affects the cornea of the eye and is caused by the herpes simplex virus. The most common symptom of this condition is a dendritic corneal ulcer, which can cause a red, painful eye, photophobia, and epiphora. In some cases, visual acuity may also be decreased. Fluorescein staining may show an epithelial ulcer, which can help with diagnosis. One common treatment for this condition is topical aciclovir, which can help to reduce the severity of symptoms and prevent further damage to the cornea.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Ophthalmology
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Question 19
Incorrect
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A 65-year-old patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who continues to smoke is housebound due to his disability.
Which of the following immunisations should he receive on a yearly basis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Influenza A virus
Explanation:Common Vaccinations and Their Administration Schedule
Influenza, caused by three types of viruses, is a highly contagious respiratory tract infection. The influenza vaccination programme aims to protect those at risk of severe disease or complications. The World Health Organisation recommends the strains of influenza to include in the vaccine each year. Inactivated vaccines are available in the UK, containing two subtypes of influenza A and one of influenza B virus. The vaccine is recommended for children aged 6 months to 2 years in an at-risk group, those aged 18 years and over in an at-risk group, pregnant women, those aged 65 years and older, those in long-stay residential care homes, and carers.
Haemophilus influenzae type b (Hib) is a bacterium that can cause serious infections, including meningitis. Vaccination against Hib is administered in children as part of the 6-in-1 vaccine at 8, 12, and 16 weeks of age.
Clostridium tetani is a bacterium that causes tetanus, a serious disease that affects the nervous system. Vaccination against tetanus is administered in children as part of the 6-in-1 vaccine at 8, 12, and 16 weeks of age.
Hepatitis B is a virus that can cause liver disease. Vaccination against hepatitis B is administered in children as part of the 6-in-1 vaccine at 8, 12, and 16 weeks of age.
Streptococcus pneumoniae is a bacterium that can cause pneumonia, meningitis, and other serious infections. Pneumococcal vaccine is administered to children at 8, 16, and 18 weeks and to those at high risk due to long-term health conditions at 65 years of age or older (pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine – PPV).
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Infectious Diseases
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Question 20
Incorrect
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A 6-month-old girl has been brought in to the Emergency Department after an episode of rectal bleeding. Her parents tell you that she appears to be suffering from abdominal pain since this morning, drawing her legs up into the fetal position, and has eaten very little, which is unlike her. She vomited about three times and then passed bloody stools. When you ask for further details, the parents tell you that the stool was jelly-like red and very slimy. The parents started weaning the child one month ago and only give her baby food.
On examination, the child has right lower abdominal tenderness and her mucous membranes look dehydrated. Her capillary refill time is four seconds and you can vaguely feel some sort of mass in her right lower abdomen.
What is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Intussusception
Explanation:Common Gastrointestinal Disorders in Toddlers
Intussusception is a common gastrointestinal disorder in toddlers, typically affecting those aged 9-12 months. Symptoms include slimy or jelly-like red stools, abdominal pain, and a palpable mass or fullness. Diagnosis is made through ultrasound imaging and treatment usually involves an enema, although surgery may be necessary in complicated cases.
Pyloric stenosis is another disorder that can occur in the first few weeks of a baby’s life. It causes forceful projectile vomiting immediately after feeds and is diagnosed through ultrasound imaging. Treatment involves surgery with a pyloromyotomy.
Campylobacter-related gastroenteritis is rare in toddlers, especially considering that they typically only consume baby food.
Colorectal cancer is almost unheard of in this age group.
Hirschsprung’s disease is a congenital disorder that causes bowel obstruction, resulting in vomiting and failure to pass stools. It is typically diagnosed through a rectal biopsy and treated with surgical removal of the affected part of the bowel.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 21
Incorrect
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A 25-year-old female patient visits her GP complaining of thick, white vaginal discharge that is causing itchiness and hindering her ability to focus on her studies. She reveals that she has previously attempted to treat these symptoms with over-the-counter remedies, as she has experienced two similar episodes within the past five months. The patient is sexually active and uses both condoms and oral contraceptives. During her visit, a urine dip test is conducted, which yields negative results for pregnancy, protein, leucocytes, and nitrites. What would be the most effective course of action for managing this patient's recurring symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Oral fluconazole
Explanation:For patients experiencing recurrent vaginal candidiasis, it is recommended to consider an induction-maintenance regime of oral fluconazole. Over the counter antifungal treatments, such as clotrimazole cream, are typically effective for one-off episodes of thrush. However, in cases of recurrent symptoms, a more comprehensive treatment plan may be necessary. It is important to ensure that the patient is not taking SSRI medications or has hypersensitivity to ‘azole’ antifungal medications before prescribing fluconazole. It should be noted that IM ceftriaxone and oral ciprofloxacin are used to manage Neisseria gonorrhoea, not thrush, and oral metronidazole is used to manage bacterial vaginosis, not thrush.
Vaginal candidiasis, also known as thrush, is a common condition that many women can diagnose and treat themselves. Candida albicans is responsible for about 80% of cases, while other candida species cause the remaining 20%. Although most women have no predisposing factors, certain factors such as diabetes mellitus, antibiotics, steroids, pregnancy, and HIV can increase the likelihood of developing vaginal candidiasis. Symptoms include non-offensive discharge resembling cottage cheese, vulvitis, itching, vulval erythema, fissuring, and satellite lesions. A high vaginal swab is not routinely indicated if the clinical features are consistent with candidiasis. Treatment options include local or oral therapy, with oral fluconazole 150 mg as a single dose being the first-line treatment according to NICE Clinical Knowledge Summaries. If there are vulval symptoms, a topical imidazole may be added to an oral or intravaginal antifungal. Pregnant women should only use local treatments. Recurrent vaginal candidiasis is defined as four or more episodes per year by BASHH. Compliance with previous treatment should be checked, and a high vaginal swab for microscopy and culture should be performed to confirm the diagnosis. A blood glucose test may be necessary to exclude diabetes, and differential diagnoses such as lichen sclerosus should be ruled out. An induction-maintenance regime involving oral fluconazole may be considered. Induction involves taking oral fluconazole every three days for three doses, while maintenance involves taking oral fluconazole weekly for six months.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 22
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman with permanent atrial fibrillation is taking warfarin. She has experienced two unprovoked tonic-clonic seizures witnessed by her husband. CT scan of the brain reveals diffuse ischaemic changes in the white matter. The specialist recommends starting her on an anti-epileptic medication.
What would be the most suitable anti-epileptic drug to prescribe for this patient who is also on warfarin therapy?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Lamotrigine
Explanation:Considerations for Anti-Epileptic Drugs and Warfarin Interaction
When prescribing anti-epileptic drugs to patients taking warfarin, it is important to consider potential drug interactions. Lamotrigine is a safe option as it has no effect on liver enzymes and does not interact significantly with warfarin. However, other anti-epileptic drugs such as phenytoin, carbamazepine, primidone, and phenobarbital can affect warfarin metabolism and effectiveness. Phenytoin and warfarin have a complex interaction that may initially increase the anticoagulant effect of warfarin, then decrease it with continued phenytoin use. Warfarin also increases the level of phenytoin. Carbamazepine is a P450 enzyme inducer, which decreases the level and effect of warfarin. Phenobarbital and primidone are also enzyme inducers that decrease warfarin effectiveness. Sodium valproate, on the other hand, is a liver enzyme inhibitor. Therefore, when considering anti-epileptic drugs for patients taking warfarin, it is important to weigh the potential drug interactions and choose the appropriate medication.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Neurology
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Question 23
Incorrect
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A 12-year-old boy is presented for surgery by his mother. He has been experiencing pain in his distal right thigh for the past two weeks, which worsens when he runs. Upon examination, he is found to be overweight and has full mobility in his right knee. He can fully flex his right hip, but internal rotation causes discomfort. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Slipped upper femoral epiphysis
Explanation:Common Causes of Hip Problems in Children
Hip problems in children can be caused by a variety of conditions. Developmental dysplasia of the hip is often detected during newborn examinations and can be identified through positive Barlow’s and Ortolani’s tests, as well as unequal skin folds or leg length. Transient synovitis, also known as irritable hip, is the most common cause of hip pain in children aged 2-10 years and is associated with acute hip pain and viral infections.
Perthes disease is a degenerative condition that affects the hip joints of children between the ages of 4-8 years. It is more common in boys and can cause hip pain, stiffness, and reduced range of motion. Slipped upper femoral epiphysis is another condition that typically affects children aged 10-15 years, particularly those who are obese or male. It can cause knee or thigh pain and loss of internal rotation of the leg in flexion.
Juvenile idiopathic arthritis (JIA) is a type of arthritis that occurs in children under 16 years old and lasts for more than three months. Pauciarticular JIA, which affects four or fewer joints, is the most common type and can cause joint pain and swelling, as well as a limp. Finally, septic arthritis is an acute condition that causes hip pain and systemic upset, such as fever and severe limitation of the affected joint.
Overall, hip problems in children can have a variety of causes and should be evaluated by a healthcare professional to determine the appropriate treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 24
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman comes to her GP with bloody discharge from her left nipple. She is extremely worried as she has discovered a small lump on the same breast while examining it after noticing the discharge. She has no medical history and does not take any regular medication. She mentions that her sister had breast cancer a few years ago. She denies any injury to the area. She has never given birth and still has regular periods. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Duct papilloma
Explanation:The presence of blood-stained discharge and a small lumpy mass in this patient suggests that they may have duct papilloma. This condition typically affects middle-aged women and develops in the lactiferous ducts beneath the nipple, causing a lumpy mass and bloody discharge. While fat necrosis can also occur in women with large breasts, it is less likely in this case as the patient has not reported any trauma. Fibroadenoma, on the other hand, is not associated with bloody nipple discharge and is typically found in younger women as a firm, non-tender mass. Fibroadenosis, which causes painful and lumpy breasts, is most commonly seen in middle-aged women and may worsen before menstruation.
Breast Disorders: Common Features and Characteristics
Breast disorders are a common occurrence among women of all ages. The most common breast disorders include fibroadenoma, fibroadenosis, breast cancer, Paget’s disease of the breast, mammary duct ectasia, duct papilloma, fat necrosis, and breast abscess. Fibroadenoma is a non-tender, highly mobile lump that is common in women under the age of 30. Fibroadenosis, on the other hand, is characterized by lumpy breasts that may be painful, especially before menstruation. Breast cancer is a hard, irregular lump that may be accompanied by nipple inversion or skin tethering. Paget’s disease of the breast is associated with a reddening and thickening of the nipple/areola, while mammary duct ectasia is characterized by dilatation of the large breast ducts, which may cause a tender lump around the areola and a green nipple discharge. Duct papilloma is characterized by local areas of epithelial proliferation in large mammary ducts, while fat necrosis is more common in obese women with large breasts and may mimic breast cancer. Breast abscess, on the other hand, is more common in lactating women and is characterized by a red, hot, and tender swelling. Lipomas and sebaceous cysts may also develop around the breast tissue.
Common Features and Characteristics of Breast Disorders
Breast disorders are a common occurrence among women of all ages. The most common breast disorders include fibroadenoma, fibroadenosis, breast cancer, Paget’s disease of the breast, mammary duct ectasia, duct papilloma, fat necrosis, and breast abscess. Each of these disorders has its own unique features and characteristics that can help identify them. Understanding these features and characteristics can help women identify potential breast disorders and seek appropriate medical attention. It is important to note that while some breast disorders may be benign, others may be malignant or premalignant, and further investigation is always warranted. Regular breast exams and mammograms can also help detect breast disorders early, increasing the chances of successful treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Haematology/Oncology
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Question 25
Incorrect
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A 27-year-old man with a history of treatment resistant schizophrenia presents to the emergency department with complaints of chest pain and general malaise over the past few days. He appears uncomfortable and sweaty while lying on the bed. Which medication is the most probable cause of these symptoms?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Clozapine
Explanation:Schizophrenia that is resistant to treatment can be very challenging to manage. Clozapine, an atypical antipsychotic, is one of the most effective drugs for this condition. However, it should only be used as a second or third line medication after trying at least two other antipsychotics for 6-8 weeks, with one of them being from the atypical class. Although clozapine is highly effective, it can cause serious side effects such as weight gain, excessive salivation, agranulocytosis, neutropenia, myocarditis, and arrhythmias. In this patient’s case, there is concern that he may be experiencing myocarditis due to his underlying psychiatric condition and potential use of clozapine.
Management of Schizophrenia: NICE Guidelines
Schizophrenia is a complex mental disorder that requires careful management. In 2009, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence (NICE) published guidelines on the management of schizophrenia. According to these guidelines, oral atypical antipsychotics should be the first-line treatment for patients with schizophrenia. Additionally, cognitive behavioural therapy should be offered to all patients to help them manage their symptoms and improve their quality of life.
It is also important to pay close attention to cardiovascular risk-factor modification in patients with schizophrenia. This is because schizophrenic patients have high rates of cardiovascular disease, which is linked to antipsychotic medication and high smoking rates. Therefore, healthcare providers should work with patients to modify their lifestyle habits and reduce their risk of developing cardiovascular disease.
Overall, the NICE guidelines provide a comprehensive approach to managing schizophrenia. By following these guidelines, healthcare providers can help patients with schizophrenia achieve better outcomes and improve their overall health and well-being.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Psychiatry
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Question 26
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old man presents to his General Practitioner with difficulty breathing during physical activity and feeling excessively tired. Upon further inquiry, he reports experiencing frequent respiratory infections. The doctor suspects a diagnosis of alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency (AATD).
What test should be arranged to confirm this diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Blood test for alpha-1-antitrypsin levels
Explanation:Diagnostic Tests for Alpha-1-Antitrypsin Deficiency
Alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency (AATD) is a genetic disorder that can lead to chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) at a young age, especially in non-smokers with a family history of the condition. Here are some diagnostic tests that can help identify AATD:
Blood Test: A simple blood test can measure the levels of alpha-1-antitrypsin in the blood. Low levels of this protein can indicate AATD, especially in patients with symptoms of COPD or a family history of the condition.
CT Chest: A computed tomography (CT) scan of the chest can reveal the extent and pattern of emphysema in the lungs, which is a common complication of AATD. However, a CT scan alone cannot diagnose AATD.
Chest X-Ray: A chest X-ray (CXR) can also show signs of emphysema or bronchiectasis in patients with AATD, but it is not a definitive test for the condition.
Genetic Testing: Once AATD has been diagnosed, genetic testing can identify the specific variant of the condition that a patient has. However, genetic testing is not useful as an initial diagnostic test without first confirming low levels of alpha-1-antitrypsin in the blood.
Pulmonary Function Testing: This test measures lung function and can help assess the severity of lung disease in patients with AATD. However, it is not a diagnostic test for the condition.
In conclusion, a combination of these diagnostic tests can help identify AATD in patients with symptoms of COPD, a family history of the condition, or low levels of alpha-1-antitrypsin in the blood.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Respiratory Medicine
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Question 27
Incorrect
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A 45-year-old woman complains of a gritty sensation in her eyes and a dry mouth of several months’ duration. She has vague joint pains in her knees and ankles. Her husband mentions that she is also dyspnoeic on exertion and cannot keep up with him during their hikes.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Sjögren syndrome
Explanation:Sjögren syndrome is a condition characterized by dry eyes (keratoconjunctivitis sicca) and dryness in other areas such as the mouth, skin, or vagina. Enlargement of the salivary or parotid glands may also be present. Primary Sjögren syndrome occurs without any other autoimmune disease and is associated with HLA-B8/DR3 in about 50% of cases. Secondary Sjögren syndrome occurs in the presence of other autoimmune disorders, commonly rheumatoid arthritis (RA). Other symptoms may include arthralgia, Raynaud’s phenomenon, oesophageal dysmotility, vasculitis, polyneuropathy, and pulmonary diffusion defects and fibrosis. Diagnosis is based on the Schirmer tear test, Rose Bengal staining, and lab tests showing raised immunoglobulin levels, circulating immune complexes, and autoantibodies. Treatment is symptomatic with artificial tear and saliva replacement solutions, hydroxychloroquine, and corticosteroids if needed. Polymyositis, polyarteritis nodosa (PAN), mixed connective tissue disease (MCTD), and rheumatoid arthritis are other conditions that may present with similar symptoms but do not fit the clinical picture in this case.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Musculoskeletal
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Question 28
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman visits her doctor with complaints of dyspareunia, irregular menstrual cycles for the past 8 months, and missing 3 periods recently. She also reports experiencing sudden hot flashes for the last 4 months. The patient has a history of breast cancer and underwent chemotherapy and radiation. On examination, no abnormalities are found, and her pregnancy test is negative. What is the probable diagnosis?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Premature ovarian failure
Explanation:Premature Ovarian Insufficiency: Causes and Management
Premature ovarian insufficiency is a condition where menopausal symptoms and elevated gonadotrophin levels occur before the age of 40. It affects approximately 1 in 100 women and can be caused by various factors such as idiopathic reasons, family history, bilateral oophorectomy, radiotherapy, chemotherapy, infection, autoimmune disorders, and resistant ovary syndrome. The symptoms of premature ovarian insufficiency are similar to those of normal menopause, including hot flushes, night sweats, infertility, secondary amenorrhoea, raised FSH and LH levels, and low oestradiol.
Management of premature ovarian insufficiency involves hormone replacement therapy (HRT) or a combined oral contraceptive pill until the age of the average menopause, which is 51 years. It is important to note that HRT does not provide contraception in case spontaneous ovarian activity resumes. Early diagnosis and management of premature ovarian insufficiency can help alleviate symptoms and improve quality of life for affected women.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Reproductive Medicine
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Question 29
Incorrect
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A 6-year-old girl from a travelling community is brought to the Emergency Department with respiratory distress. Upon examination, she has a fever of 38.5ºC, stridor, and appears toxic. The medical team suspects acute epiglottitis. Which of the following pathogens is the most probable cause?
Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Haemophilus influenzae
Explanation:Incomplete immunisation may be a concern for patients belonging to travelling communities with regards to acute epiglottitis caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B.
Acute epiglottitis is a rare but serious infection caused by Haemophilus influenzae type B. It is important to recognize and treat it promptly as it can lead to airway obstruction. Although it was once considered a disease of childhood, it is now more common in adults in the UK due to the immunization program. The incidence of epiglottitis has decreased since the introduction of the Hib vaccine. Symptoms include a rapid onset, high temperature, stridor, drooling of saliva, and a tripod position where the patient leans forward and extends their neck to breathe easier. Diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but x-rays may be done to rule out a foreign body.
Immediate senior involvement is necessary, including those who can provide emergency airway support such as anaesthetics or ENT. Endotracheal intubation may be necessary to protect the airway. It is important not to examine the throat if epiglottitis is suspected due to the risk of acute airway obstruction. The diagnosis is made by direct visualization, but only senior staff who are able to intubate if necessary should perform this. Treatment includes oxygen and intravenous antibiotics.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Paediatrics
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Question 30
Incorrect
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A 50 year old woman arrives at the Emergency Department complaining of cramp-like abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting that started 4 hours ago. She describes the pain as intermittent and has experienced similar pain before, but not as severe as this time. The patient has a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, which is well-controlled with inhalers, and has been a smoker for 25 pack years.
Her vital signs are heart rate 110/min, respiratory rate 20/min, blood pressure 130/84 mmHg, temperature 38.6ºC, and oxygen saturation of 99% on room air. Upon examination, the patient appears very ill and sweaty, with some yellowing of the eyes. Palpation of the abdomen reveals tenderness in the right upper quadrant.
What is the most likely cause of this woman's symptoms?Your Answer:
Correct Answer: Ascending cholangitis
Explanation:Cholangitis can occur even in the absence of stones, although they are commonly associated with the condition. ERCP can be used to drain the biliary tree, but surgical exploration of the common bile duct may be necessary in certain cases.
Understanding Ascending Cholangitis
Ascending cholangitis is a bacterial infection that affects the biliary tree, with E. coli being the most common culprit. This condition is often associated with gallstones, which can predispose individuals to the infection. Patients with ascending cholangitis may present with Charcot’s triad, which includes fever, right upper quadrant pain, and jaundice. However, this triad is only present in 20-50% of cases. Other common symptoms include hypotension and confusion. In severe cases, Reynolds’ pentad may be observed, which includes the additional symptoms of hypotension and confusion.
To diagnose ascending cholangitis, ultrasound is typically used as a first-line investigation to look for bile duct dilation and stones. Raised inflammatory markers may also be observed. Treatment involves intravenous antibiotics and endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) after 24-48 hours to relieve any obstruction.
Overall, ascending cholangitis is a serious condition that requires prompt diagnosis and treatment. Understanding the symptoms and risk factors associated with this condition can help individuals seek medical attention early and improve their chances of a successful recovery.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Gastroenterology/Nutrition
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