00
Correct
00
Incorrect
00 : 00 : 00
Session Time
00 : 00
Average Question Time ( Secs)
  • Question 1 - A young girl presents with thin grey discharge which has a fishy odour....

    Correct

    • A young girl presents with thin grey discharge which has a fishy odour. She is subsequently diagnosed with bacterial vaginosis. Her doctor explains that this is caused by an overgrowth of normal bacterial flora and that many bacteria can be responsible for this condition. The presence of which bacterium would call for a reconsideration of her diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Trichomonas vaginalis

      Explanation:

      Trichomonas vaginalis is not responsible for causing bacterial vaginosis. Instead, it causes trichomoniasis, a sexually transmitted infection that is characterized by yellow-green frothy vaginal discharge and vaginitis.

      Bacterial vaginosis (BV) is a condition where there is an overgrowth of anaerobic organisms, particularly Gardnerella vaginalis, in the vagina. This leads to a decrease in the amount of lactobacilli, which produce lactic acid, resulting in an increase in vaginal pH. BV is not a sexually transmitted infection, but it is commonly seen in sexually active women. Symptoms include a fishy-smelling vaginal discharge, although some women may not experience any symptoms at all. Diagnosis is made using Amsel’s criteria, which includes the presence of thin, white discharge, clue cells on microscopy, a vaginal pH greater than 4.5, and a positive whiff test. Treatment involves oral metronidazole for 5-7 days, with a cure rate of 70-80%. However, relapse rates are high, with over 50% of women experiencing a recurrence within 3 months. Topical metronidazole or clindamycin may be used as alternatives.

      Bacterial vaginosis during pregnancy can increase the risk of preterm labor, low birth weight, chorioamnionitis, and late miscarriage. It was previously recommended to avoid oral metronidazole in the first trimester and use topical clindamycin instead. However, recent guidelines suggest that oral metronidazole can be used throughout pregnancy. The British National Formulary (BNF) still advises against using high-dose metronidazole regimes. Clue cells, which are vaginal epithelial cells covered with bacteria, can be seen on microscopy in women with BV.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      13.9
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 55-year-old woman, who was recently diagnosed with rectal cancer, is about to...

    Incorrect

    • A 55-year-old woman, who was recently diagnosed with rectal cancer, is about to undergo an anterior resection surgery. During pre-operative discussions, she expresses her worries about experiencing pain after the surgery. You explain to her the different options available for pain relief after major bowel surgery.

      What is the recommended method of pain management after major bowel surgery?

      Your Answer: IV diclofenac

      Correct Answer: Epidural analgesia

      Explanation:

      For pain relief after major bowel surgery, epidural analgesia is the preferred method. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) like diclofenac can hinder healing and increase the risk of anastomotic leak, so they are not commonly used. While paracetamol is the initial step in the WHO pain ladder, it may not be sufficient on its own after major bowel surgery. Local anesthesia can be effective for localized pain, but it is not the optimal form of pain relief.

      The management of pain can involve the use of various drugs and techniques. The World Health Organisation and World Federation of Societies of Anaesthesiologists have developed guidelines for the use of analgesics, starting with peripherally acting drugs and progressing to weak and strong opioids. Local anaesthetics can also be used, either for anaesthesia during surgery or for postoperative pain relief. Spinal and epidural anaesthesia are other options, but have potential side effects and limitations. Transversus Abdominis Plane blocks are a newer technique that can provide wide field blockade without the need for indwelling devices. Patient Controlled Analgesia allows patients to self-administer intravenous analgesia. Opioids such as morphine and pethidine can be effective but have potential side effects and limitations. Non-opioid analgesics such as paracetamol and NSAIDs can also be used, but have their own contraindications and limitations.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      12.2
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A pregnant woman arrives at the ER with a concern about her facial...

    Incorrect

    • A pregnant woman arrives at the ER with a concern about her facial appearance since waking up this morning. What signs would indicate a diagnosis of Bell's palsy, specifically a unilateral LMN lesion of the facial nerve?

      Your Answer: Bilateral facial weakness and loss of taste in the anterior 2/3 of the tongue

      Correct Answer: Unilateral facial weakness involving the forehead and unilateral failure of eye closure

      Explanation:

      When the facial nerve is unilaterally damaged, only the same side of the face is affected because this nerve does not cross over. Despite the fact that the facial nerve also transmits taste signals from the front two-thirds of the tongue, a lower motor neuron (LMN) injury only impacts the nerve’s motor function. This results in weakened facial expression muscles. The muscles in the forehead receive some innervation from the opposite side, so a LMN injury affects the forehead, while an upper motor neuron (UMN) injury does not affect the forehead.

      The facial nerve has a nucleus located in the ventrolateral pontine tegmentum, and its axons exit the ventral pons medial to the spinal trigeminal nucleus. Lesions affecting the corticobulbar tract are known as upper motor neuron lesions, while those affecting the individual branches of the facial nerve are lower motor neuron lesions. The lower motor neurons of the facial nerve can leave from either the left or right posterior or anterior facial motor nucleus, with the temporal branch receiving input from both hemispheres of the cerebral cortex, while the zygomatic, buccal, mandibular, and cervical branches receive input from only the contralateral hemisphere.

      In the case of an upper motor neuron lesion in the left hemisphere, the right mid- and lower-face would be paralyzed, while the forehead would remain unaffected. This is because the anterior facial motor nucleus receives only contralateral cortical input, while the posterior component receives input from both hemispheres. However, a lower motor neuron lesion affecting either the left or right side would paralyze the entire side of the face, as both the anterior and posterior routes on that side would be affected. This is because the nerves no longer have a means to receive compensatory contralateral input at a downstream decussation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      17.3
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 78-year-old man reports experiencing discomfort behind his breastbone and occasional backflow of...

    Incorrect

    • A 78-year-old man reports experiencing discomfort behind his breastbone and occasional backflow of stomach acid into his mouth, especially after meals and at bedtime, causing sleep disturbance. What is a potential risk factor for GORD?

      Your Answer: Malnutrition

      Correct Answer: Smoking

      Explanation:

      Gastro-Oesophageal Reflux Disease (GORD)

      Gastro-oesophageal reflux disease (GORD) is a chronic condition where stomach acid flows back up into the oesophagus, causing discomfort and increasing the risk of oesophageal cancer. Obesity is a known risk factor for GORD, as excess weight around the abdomen increases pressure in the stomach. Hiatus hernia, which also results from increased intra-abdominal pressure, is also associated with GORD. This is because the widening of the diaphragmatic hiatus in hiatus hernia reduces the effectiveness of the lower oesophageal sphincter in preventing acid reflux.

      Smoking is another risk factor for GORD, although the exact mechanism by which it weakens the lower oesophageal sphincter is not fully understood. Interestingly, male sex does not appear to be associated with GORD. Overall, the risk factors for GORD can help individuals take steps to prevent or manage this chronic condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      8.4
      Seconds
  • Question 5 - An 80-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his physician due...

    Correct

    • An 80-year-old man is brought to the Emergency Department by his physician due to sudden confusion. The patient had been treated for a chest infection with clarithromycin recently. He has a history of atrial fibrillation and is taking warfarin as an anticoagulant. Due to his confusion, it is challenging to obtain a detailed medical history from him. However, his blood tests reveal a significantly low haemoglobin level of 56 g/L (115-160). What type of drug reaction is this indicative of?

      Your Answer: Inhibition of metabolism

      Explanation:

      Drug Interaction Causing Bleeding and Confusion

      This patient’s symptoms are a classic example of a drug interaction between clarithromycin and warfarin. While there are many medications that can interact with warfarin, antibiotics are particularly known for affecting its effectiveness. In this case, clarithromycin has inhibited the metabolism of warfarin, causing it to become more potent. As a result, the patient has experienced bleeding, most likely in the gastrointestinal tract, which has led to confusion.

      Further investigation is necessary to ensure that there is not an underlying issue, such as colon cancer, that has been unmasked by this drug interaction. It is important for healthcare providers to be aware of potential drug interactions and to monitor patients closely for any adverse effects. By doing so, they can help prevent complications and ensure that patients receive the best possible care.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Pharmacology
      17.1
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 23-year-old man presents to the emergency department with recurrent fevers. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 23-year-old man presents to the emergency department with recurrent fevers. He has a medical history of Adult-onset Still's disease.

      As the admission progresses, the patient's condition worsens, with high-grade fevers and tachycardia.

      The following blood results are obtained:

      - Hb: 112 g/L (Male: 135-180, Female: 115-160)
      - Platelets: 80 * 109/L (150-400)
      - WBC: 2.3 * 109/L (4.0-11.0)
      - CRP: 72 mg/L (<5)
      - Ferritin: 22,500 mg/mL (30-400)
      - Triglycerides: 4.9 mmol/L (<1.7)
      - Fibrinogen: 0.8 g/L (2-4)

      What cytokine is believed to play a crucial role in the pathophysiology of this likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: IL-2

      Correct Answer: Interferon-γ

      Explanation:

      Overview of Cytokines and Their Functions

      Cytokines are signaling molecules that play a crucial role in the immune system. Interleukins are a type of cytokine that are produced by various immune cells and have specific functions. IL-1, produced by macrophages, induces acute inflammation and fever. IL-2, produced by Th1 cells, stimulates the growth and differentiation of T cell responses. IL-3, produced by activated T helper cells, stimulates the differentiation and proliferation of myeloid progenitor cells. IL-4, produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the proliferation and differentiation of B cells. IL-5, also produced by Th2 cells, stimulates the production of eosinophils. IL-6, produced by macrophages and Th2 cells, stimulates the differentiation of B cells and induces fever. IL-8, produced by macrophages, promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. IL-10, produced by Th2 cells, inhibits Th1 cytokine production and is known as an anti-inflammatory cytokine. IL-12, produced by dendritic cells, macrophages, and B cells, activates NK cells and stimulates the differentiation of naive T cells into Th1 cells.

      In addition to interleukins, there are other cytokines with specific functions. Tumor necrosis factor-alpha, produced by macrophages, induces fever and promotes neutrophil chemotaxis. Interferon-gamma, produced by Th1 cells, activates macrophages. Understanding the functions of cytokines is important in developing treatments for various immune-related diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      14.8
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A 32-year-old man comes to your clinic seeking help to quit his long-term...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old man comes to your clinic seeking help to quit his long-term heroin use. He appears alert and behaves appropriately. During the examination, you observe track marks on his arm, but his pupils are normal in size, equal, and reactive.

      Which medication would be the most suitable for initiating detoxification in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Buprenorphine

      Explanation:

      Buprenorphine is the preferred first-line treatment for opioid detoxification, followed by methadone if necessary. Chlordiazepoxide is used for alcohol detoxification by replacing the GABA-enhancing effects of alcohol. Disulfiram is a maintenance medication used to reduce alcohol cravings after detoxification by causing unpleasant symptoms when alcohol is consumed. N-acetyl-cysteine (NAC) is used to treat paracetamol overdose by increasing glutathione concentration, which is necessary for the conjugation of NAPQI, a hepatotoxic substance responsible for liver damage.

      Understanding Opioid Misuse and its Management

      Opioid misuse is a serious problem that can lead to various complications and health risks. Opioids are substances that bind to opioid receptors, including natural opiates like morphine and synthetic opioids like buprenorphine and methadone. Signs of opioid misuse include rhinorrhoea, needle track marks, pinpoint pupils, drowsiness, watering eyes, and yawning.

      Complications of opioid misuse can range from viral and bacterial infections to venous thromboembolism and overdose, which can lead to respiratory depression and death. Psychological and social problems such as craving, crime, prostitution, and homelessness can also arise.

      In case of an opioid overdose, emergency management involves administering IV or IM naloxone, which has a rapid onset and relatively short duration of action. Harm reduction interventions such as needle exchange and testing for HIV, hepatitis B & C may also be offered.

      Patients with opioid dependence are usually managed by specialist drug dependence clinics or GPs with a specialist interest. Treatment options may include maintenance therapy or detoxification, with methadone or buprenorphine recommended as the first-line treatment by NICE. Compliance is monitored using urinalysis, and detoxification can last up to 4 weeks in an inpatient/residential setting and up to 12 weeks in the community. Understanding opioid misuse and its management is crucial in addressing this growing public health concern.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 8 - A 36-year-old woman has been diagnosed with breast and ovarian cancer. Her mother...

    Incorrect

    • A 36-year-old woman has been diagnosed with breast and ovarian cancer. Her mother and sister were also diagnosed with breast and ovarian cancer before the age of 40. She has no other medical history.

      During examination, a lump was found in her left breast and palpable axillary lymph nodes.

      Which investigation is the most appropriate to confirm the genetic diagnosis underlying this condition, from the options provided?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

      Explanation:

      Reverse Transcriptase PCR

      Reverse transcriptase PCR (RT-PCR) is a molecular genetic technique used to amplify RNA. This technique is useful for analyzing gene expression in the form of mRNA. The process involves converting RNA to DNA using reverse transcriptase. The resulting DNA can then be amplified using PCR.

      To begin the process, a sample of RNA is added to a test tube along with two DNA primers and a thermostable DNA polymerase (Taq). The mixture is then heated to almost boiling point, causing denaturing or uncoiling of the RNA. The mixture is then allowed to cool, and the complimentary strands of DNA pair up. As there is an excess of the primer sequences, they preferentially pair with the DNA.

      The above cycle is then repeated, with the amount of DNA doubling each time. This process allows for the amplification of the RNA, making it easier to analyze gene expression. RT-PCR is a valuable tool in molecular biology and has many applications in research, including the study of diseases and the development of new treatments.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - An 80-year-old man who frequently drinks alcohol presents to his doctor with symptoms...

    Incorrect

    • An 80-year-old man who frequently drinks alcohol presents to his doctor with symptoms of productive cough, fever, and chills. Upon examination, a chest x-ray reveals a distinct cavity in the right lower lobe with an air-fluid level. The patient's sputum is sent for culture and sensitivity, and he is prescribed clindamycin.

      After ten days, the patient reports experiencing watery diarrhea 3-4 times a day and abdominal pain. He has not experienced any fever or weight loss, and his vital signs are normal. What is the initial medication recommended for his condition?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Vancomycin

      Explanation:

      The preferred antibiotic for treating C. difficile infection is oral vancomycin. However, in the case of a patient with clinical features and radiological findings indicative of a lung abscess, who also has a history of alcohol consumption that increases the risk of aspiration and lung abscesses, clindamycin was used as a treatment. Unfortunately, this led to the development of a C. difficile infection, which can be confusing when considering the antibiotics involved in causing and treating the infection.

      Clostridium difficile is a type of bacteria that is commonly found in hospitals. It produces a toxin that can damage the intestines and cause a condition called pseudomembranous colitis. This bacteria usually develops when the normal gut flora is disrupted by broad-spectrum antibiotics, with second and third generation cephalosporins being the leading cause. Other risk factors include the use of proton pump inhibitors. Symptoms of C. difficile infection include diarrhea, abdominal pain, and a raised white blood cell count. The severity of the infection can be determined using the Public Health England severity scale.

      To diagnose C. difficile infection, a stool sample is tested for the presence of the C. difficile toxin. Treatment involves reviewing current antibiotic therapy and stopping antibiotics if possible. For a first episode of infection, oral vancomycin is the first-line therapy for 10 days, followed by oral fidaxomicin as second-line therapy and oral vancomycin with or without IV metronidazole as third-line therapy. Recurrent infections may require different treatment options, such as oral fidaxomicin within 12 weeks of symptom resolution or oral vancomycin or fidaxomicin after 12 weeks of symptom resolution. In life-threatening cases, oral vancomycin and IV metronidazole may be used, and surgery may be considered with specialist advice. Other therapies, such as bezlotoxumab and fecal microbiota transplant, may also be considered for preventing recurrences in certain cases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Gastrointestinal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 10 - A medical researcher is conducting a meta-analysis of opioid use for chronic pain...

    Incorrect

    • A medical researcher is conducting a meta-analysis of opioid use for chronic pain in elderly patients. She needs a visual representation to demonstrate the presence of publication bias.

      Which of the following plots would be the most appropriate?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Funnel plot

      Explanation:

      Funnel plots are utilized in meta-analyses to indicate publication bias, making it the most appropriate option. Forest plots, on the other hand, are used to present the strength of evidence of individual trials. Box-and-whisker plots are used to display the minimum, quartiles, median, and maximum of a set of data, while histograms are used to represent continuous data grouped into categories.

      Understanding Funnel Plots in Meta-Analyses

      Funnel plots are graphical representations used to identify publication bias in meta-analyses. These plots typically display treatment effects on the horizontal axis and study size on the vertical axis. The shape of the funnel plot can provide insight into the presence of publication bias. A symmetrical, inverted funnel shape suggests that publication bias is unlikely. On the other hand, an asymmetrical funnel shape indicates a relationship between treatment effect and study size, which may be due to publication bias or systematic differences between smaller and larger studies (known as small study effects).

      In summary, funnel plots are a useful tool for identifying potential publication bias in meta-analyses. By examining the shape of the plot, researchers can gain insight into the relationship between treatment effect and study size, and determine whether further investigation is necessary to ensure the validity of their findings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 45-year-old patient has a cardiac output of 6 L/min and a heart...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old patient has a cardiac output of 6 L/min and a heart rate of 60/min. Her end-diastolic left ventricular volume is 200ml. What is her left ventricular ejection fraction (LVEF)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 50%

      Explanation:

      Cardiovascular physiology involves the study of the functions and processes of the heart and blood vessels. One important measure of heart function is the left ventricular ejection fraction, which is calculated by dividing the stroke volume (the amount of blood pumped out of the left ventricle with each heartbeat) by the end diastolic LV volume (the amount of blood in the left ventricle at the end of diastole) and multiplying by 100%. Another key measure is cardiac output, which is the amount of blood pumped by the heart per minute and is calculated by multiplying stroke volume by heart rate.

      Pulse pressure is another important measure of cardiovascular function, which is the difference between systolic pressure (the highest pressure in the arteries during a heartbeat) and diastolic pressure (the lowest pressure in the arteries between heartbeats). Factors that can increase pulse pressure include a less compliant aorta (which can occur with age) and increased stroke volume.

      Finally, systemic vascular resistance is a measure of the resistance to blood flow in the systemic circulation and is calculated by dividing mean arterial pressure (the average pressure in the arteries during a heartbeat) by cardiac output. Understanding these measures of cardiovascular function is important for diagnosing and treating cardiovascular diseases.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - The following statements about the femoral nerve are all true except for one....

    Incorrect

    • The following statements about the femoral nerve are all true except for one. Which statement is incorrect?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: It supplies adductor longus

      Explanation:

      The obturator nerve supplies the adductor longus.

      The femoral nerve is a nerve that originates from the spinal roots L2, L3, and L4. It provides innervation to several muscles in the thigh, including the pectineus, sartorius, quadriceps femoris, and vastus lateralis, medialis, and intermedius. Additionally, it branches off into the medial cutaneous nerve of the thigh, saphenous nerve, and intermediate cutaneous nerve of the thigh. The femoral nerve passes through the psoas major muscle and exits the pelvis by going under the inguinal ligament. It then enters the femoral triangle, which is located lateral to the femoral artery and vein.

      To remember the femoral nerve’s supply, a helpful mnemonic is don’t MISVQ scan for PE. This stands for the medial cutaneous nerve of the thigh, intermediate cutaneous nerve of the thigh, saphenous nerve, vastus, quadriceps femoris, and sartorius, with the addition of the pectineus muscle. Overall, the femoral nerve plays an important role in the motor and sensory functions of the thigh.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 13 - At what level does the inferior thyroid artery penetrate the thyroid gland? ...

    Incorrect

    • At what level does the inferior thyroid artery penetrate the thyroid gland?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: C6

      Explanation:

      Surface Anatomy of the Neck: Identifying Structures and Corresponding Levels

      The neck is a complex region of the body that contains numerous structures and landmarks. By understanding the surface anatomy of the neck, healthcare professionals can accurately identify and locate important structures during physical examinations and medical procedures.

      In the midline of the neck, several structures can be felt from top to bottom. These include the hyoid at the level of C3, the notch of the thyroid cartilage at C4, and the cricoid cartilage at C6. The lower border of the cricoid cartilage is particularly significant as it corresponds to several important structures, including the junction of the larynx and trachea, the junction of the pharynx and esophagus, and the level at which the inferior thyroid artery enters the thyroid gland. Additionally, the vertebral artery enters the transverse foramen in the 6th cervical vertebrae at this level, and the superior belly of the omohyoid muscle crosses the carotid sheath. The middle cervical sympathetic ganglion is also located at this level, as well as the carotid tubercle, which can be used to compress the carotid artery.

      Overall, understanding the surface anatomy of the neck is crucial for healthcare professionals to accurately identify and locate important structures during physical examinations and medical procedures.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A 16-year-old girl is playing volleyball and suffers an anterior dislocation of her...

    Incorrect

    • A 16-year-old girl is playing volleyball and suffers an anterior dislocation of her right shoulder. She is taken to the Emergency department where her humerus is reduced under sedation. Which area should be tested for sensation to determine the nerve that is most likely to have been affected during the dislocation?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Regimental badge distribution

      Explanation:

      Nerve Damage from Shoulder Dislocation

      Shoulder dislocation can cause damage to the axillary nerve, which is responsible for supplying sensation to the upper part of the arm. This nerve is the most likely to be affected during a dislocation. The axillary nerve also controls the deltoid muscle, which can be examined to assess motor sensation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 68-year-old woman is referred to haematology via the 2-week wait pathway due...

    Incorrect

    • A 68-year-old woman is referred to haematology via the 2-week wait pathway due to worsening thoracic back pain that started 3 weeks ago. There is no history of trauma. Upon examination, the pain is exacerbated by movement and occurs even at rest and during bedtime. Her blood test results show a Hb level of 97 g/L (female normal range: 115-160 g/L), platelets of 200 * 109/L (normal range: 150-400 * 109/L), and WBC count of 4.0 * 109/L (normal range: 4.0-11.0 * 109/L). Additionally, her calcium level is 2.9 mmol/L (normal range: 2.1-2.6 mmol/L), phosphate level is 1.2 mmol/L (normal range: 0.8-1.4 mmol/L), magnesium level is 0.8 mmol/L (normal range: 0.7-1.0 mmol/L), TSH level is 5.0 mU/L (normal range: 0.5-5.5 mU/L), and free thyroxine (T4) level is 16 pmol/L (normal range: 9.0-18 pmol/L). Based on the likely diagnosis, what is the underlying pathophysiology that causes hypercalcemia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Increased osteoclast activity in response to cytokines

      Explanation:

      Increased osteoclast activity in response to cytokines released by myeloma cells is the primary cause of hypercalcaemia in multiple myeloma, which typically affects individuals aged 60-70 years and presents with bone pain or pathological fractures from osteolytic lesions. Hypercalcaemia in kidney failure is associated with hyperphosphataemia and does not cause bone pain. Elevated calcitriol levels are linked to granulomatous disorders like sarcoidosis and tuberculosis, which do not typically cause bone pain. Rebound hypercalcaemia occurs after rhabdomyolysis, which usually results from a fall and long lie. Although primary hyperparathyroidism is a common cause of hypercalcaemia and can lead to bone pain or pathological fractures, it is not associated with anaemia.

      Understanding Multiple Myeloma: Features and Investigations

      Multiple myeloma is a type of cancer that affects the plasma cells in the bone marrow. It is most commonly found in patients aged 60-70 years. The disease is characterized by a range of symptoms, which can be remembered using the mnemonic CRABBI. These include hypercalcemia, renal damage, anemia, bleeding, bone lesions, and increased susceptibility to infection. Other features of multiple myeloma include amyloidosis, carpal tunnel syndrome, neuropathy, and hyperviscosity.

      To diagnose multiple myeloma, a range of investigations are required. Blood tests can reveal anemia, renal failure, and hypercalcemia. Protein electrophoresis can detect raised levels of monoclonal IgA/IgG proteins in the serum, while bone marrow aspiration can confirm the diagnosis if the number of plasma cells is significantly raised. Imaging studies, such as whole-body MRI or X-rays, can be used to detect osteolytic lesions.

      The diagnostic criteria for multiple myeloma require one major and one minor criteria or three minor criteria in an individual who has signs or symptoms of the disease. Major criteria include the presence of plasmacytoma, 30% plasma cells in a bone marrow sample, or elevated levels of M protein in the blood or urine. Minor criteria include 10% to 30% plasma cells in a bone marrow sample, minor elevations in the level of M protein in the blood or urine, osteolytic lesions, or low levels of antibodies in the blood. Understanding the features and investigations of multiple myeloma is crucial for early detection and effective treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 16 - An ECG is performed on a 60-year-old patient in the cardiology ward. On...

    Incorrect

    • An ECG is performed on a 60-year-old patient in the cardiology ward. On the ECG there are regular p waves present, and a QRS complex is associated with each p wave. The PR interval is 0.26 seconds. There are no missed p waves.

      What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: 1st degree heart block

      Explanation:

      Understanding Heart Blocks: Types and Features

      Heart blocks are a type of cardiac conduction disorder that can lead to serious complications such as syncope and heart failure. There are three types of heart blocks: first degree, second degree, and third degree (complete) heart block.

      First degree heart block is characterized by a prolonged PR interval of more than 0.2 seconds. Second degree heart block can be further divided into two types: type 1 (Mobitz I, Wenckebach) and type 2 (Mobitz II). Type 1 is characterized by a progressive prolongation of the PR interval until a dropped beat occurs, while type 2 has a constant PR interval but the P wave is often not followed by a QRS complex.

      Third degree (complete) heart block is the most severe type of heart block, where there is no association between the P waves and QRS complexes. This can lead to a regular bradycardia with a heart rate of 30-50 bpm, wide pulse pressure, and cannon waves in the neck JVP. Additionally, variable intensity of S1 can be observed.

      It is important to recognize the features of heart blocks and differentiate between the types in order to provide appropriate management and prevent complications. Regular monitoring and follow-up with a healthcare provider is recommended for individuals with heart blocks.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 17 - A 35-year-old male presents with gynaecomastia. He is later diagnosed with a testicular...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old male presents with gynaecomastia. He is later diagnosed with a testicular germ cell tumour.

      What is the underlying mechanism that causes this type of cancer to present with gynaecomastia?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Testicular tumours secrete beta-HCG, which increases oestrogen levels, promoting the proliferation of breast tissue

      Explanation:

      Gynaecomastia can be caused by testicular cancer, specifically seminoma that secretes beta-HCG. This hormone acts as a tumour marker for testicular germ cell cancer and increases oestrogen levels, leading to an imbalance of oestrogen to androgen ratio. This imbalance promotes the growth of breast tissue, resulting in gynaecomastia.

      Alpha-fetoprotein is another tumour marker for testicular cancer, but it does not affect oestrogen levels or breast glandular tissue. It is important to note that gynaecomastia is a separate condition from metastatic testicular cancer in the breast.

      Testicular involution, or shrinkage of the testes, is not a common symptom of testicular cancer. Instead, patients typically present with a painless swelling or nodule in the testis.

      Elevated testosterone levels are not associated with testicular cancer, as they would prevent the growth of breast tissue and gynaecomastia.

      Understanding Gynaecomastia: Causes and Drug Triggers

      Gynaecomastia is a condition characterized by the abnormal growth of breast tissue in males, often caused by an increased ratio of oestrogen to androgen. It is important to distinguish the causes of gynaecomastia from those of galactorrhoea, which is caused by the actions of prolactin on breast tissue.

      Physiological changes during puberty can lead to gynaecomastia, but it can also be caused by syndromes with androgen deficiency such as Kallmann and Klinefelter’s, testicular failure due to mumps, liver disease, testicular cancer, and hyperthyroidism. Additionally, haemodialysis and ectopic tumour secretion can also trigger gynaecomastia.

      Drug-induced gynaecomastia is also a common cause, with spironolactone being the most frequent trigger. Other drugs that can cause gynaecomastia include cimetidine, digoxin, cannabis, finasteride, GnRH agonists like goserelin and buserelin, oestrogens, and anabolic steroids. However, it is important to note that very rare drug causes of gynaecomastia include tricyclics, isoniazid, calcium channel blockers, heroin, busulfan, and methyldopa.

      In summary, understanding the causes and drug triggers of gynaecomastia is crucial in diagnosing and treating this condition.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 18 - A 35-year-old man visits the physician's clinic with indications of premature ejaculation, which...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man visits the physician's clinic with indications of premature ejaculation, which is believed to be caused by hypersensitivity of the reflex arc.

      Can you identify the correct description of this reflex arc?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ejaculation is controlled by the sympathetic nervous system at the L1 level

      Explanation:

      The correct statement is that ejaculation is controlled by the sympathetic nervous system at the L1 level. This is because the preganglionic sympathetic cell bodies responsible for ejaculation are located in the central autonomic region of the T12-L1 segments. It is important to note that erection is controlled by the parasympathetic nervous system at the S2-S4 level, and not by the pudendal nerve, which is responsible for supplying sensation to the penis.

      Anatomy of the Sympathetic Nervous System

      The sympathetic nervous system is responsible for the fight or flight response in the body. The preganglionic efferent neurons of this system are located in the lateral horn of the grey matter of the spinal cord in the thoraco-lumbar regions. These neurons leave the spinal cord at levels T1-L2 and pass to the sympathetic chain. The sympathetic chain lies on the vertebral column and runs from the base of the skull to the coccyx. It is connected to every spinal nerve through lateral branches, which then pass to structures that receive sympathetic innervation at the periphery.

      The sympathetic ganglia are also an important part of this system. The superior cervical ganglion lies anterior to C2 and C3, while the middle cervical ganglion (if present) is located at C6. The stellate ganglion is found anterior to the transverse process of C7 and lies posterior to the subclavian artery, vertebral artery, and cervical pleura. The thoracic ganglia are segmentally arranged, and there are usually four lumbar ganglia.

      Interruption of the head and neck supply of the sympathetic nerves can result in an ipsilateral Horners syndrome. For the treatment of hyperhidrosis, sympathetic denervation can be achieved by removing the second and third thoracic ganglia with their rami. However, removal of T1 is not performed as it can cause a Horners syndrome. In patients with vascular disease of the lower limbs, a lumbar sympathetomy may be performed either radiologically or surgically. The ganglia of L2 and below are disrupted, but if L1 is removed, ejaculation may be compromised, and little additional benefit is conferred as the preganglionic fibres do not arise below L2.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - Most of the signals carried within the brain of a developing child are...

    Incorrect

    • Most of the signals carried within the brain of a developing child are excitatory, with a neurotransmitter causing activation of the postsynaptic neuron. Glutamate is the most important excitatory neurotransmitter within the developing brain.

      Which of the following receptors can only be activated by glutamate if the postsynaptic neuron is already depolarised?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: NMDA receptor

      Explanation:

      Glutamate is an amino acid that is not considered essential as it can be produced by the body. It plays a crucial role in metabolism, particularly in the clearance of excess nitrogen from the body. Glutamate can also act as an energy source in the cell and is used in the synthesis of the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA. However, loss of the enzyme responsible for this conversion can result in stiff person syndrome, a neurological disorder characterized by muscle stiffness and spasms. Glutamate also acts as an excitatory neurotransmitter in the central nervous system and plays a role in long-term potentiation, which is important in memory and learning. However, high levels of glutamate may contribute to excitotoxicity following a stroke. Glutamate can bind to various receptors, including NMDA, AMPA, Kainate, and Metabotropic types I, II, and III, to have actions on the postsynaptic membrane.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - Which muscles are responsible for flexing the knee joint? ...

    Incorrect

    • Which muscles are responsible for flexing the knee joint?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Semitendinosus

      Explanation:

      The Flexors of the Knee Joint and Other Related Muscles

      The muscles responsible for flexing the knee joint are the biceps femoris, semimembranosus, semitendinosus, and gastrocnemius. On the other hand, the quadriceps femoris and sartorius muscles are involved in hip flexion, although the latter is weak despite being the longest muscle in the body. Lastly, the soleus muscle is responsible for ankle plantar flexion.

      In summary, the flexors of the knee joint are composed of four muscles, while other related muscles are involved in hip flexion and ankle plantar flexion. the functions of these muscles is essential in diagnosing and treating injuries or conditions that affect the lower extremities.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 21 - A 35-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after being...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man is brought to the emergency department by ambulance after being found unresponsive at his home. He is vomiting, confused, and drowsy with pinpoint pupils. The patient is only responsive to pain, has a respiratory rate of 6/min with shallow breaths, a blood pressure of 65/90mmHg, and a heart rate of 50bpm. It is suspected that he has overdosed. What receptor does the drug class likely agonize?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mu, delta and kappa receptors

      Explanation:

      Understanding Opioids: Types, Receptors, and Clinical Uses

      Opioids are a class of chemical compounds that act upon opioid receptors located within the central nervous system (CNS). These receptors are G-protein coupled receptors that have numerous actions throughout the body. There are three clinically relevant groups of opioid receptors: mu (µ), kappa (κ), and delta (δ) receptors. Endogenous opioids, such as endorphins, dynorphins, and enkephalins, are produced by specific cells within the CNS and their actions depend on whether µ-receptors or δ-receptors and κ-receptors are their main target.

      Drugs targeted at opioid receptors are the largest group of analgesic drugs and form the second and third steps of the WHO pain ladder of managing analgesia. The choice of which opioid drug to use depends on the patient’s needs and the clinical scenario. The first step of the pain ladder involves non-opioids such as paracetamol and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs. The second step involves weak opioids such as codeine and tramadol, while the third step involves strong opioids such as morphine, oxycodone, methadone, and fentanyl.

      The strength, routes of administration, common uses, and significant side effects of these opioid drugs vary. Weak opioids have moderate analgesic effects without exposing the patient to as many serious adverse effects associated with strong opioids. Strong opioids have powerful analgesic effects but are also more liable to cause opioid-related side effects such as sedation, respiratory depression, constipation, urinary retention, and addiction. The sedative effects of opioids are also useful in anesthesia with potent drugs used as part of induction of a general anesthetic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A 54-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of fever and night sweats...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old man comes to the clinic complaining of fever and night sweats that have been ongoing for several months. He reports a weight loss of 8 kg during this time and smokes half a pack of cigarettes per day. His temperature is 38 ºC, and he has splenomegaly on physical examination. No lymphadenopathy is observed. Laboratory results show a leukocyte count of 60 * 109, and a low leukocyte alkaline phosphatase level.

      What is the most likely finding in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: t(9;22) translocation

      Explanation:

      Genetics of Haematological Malignancies

      Haematological malignancies are cancers that affect the blood, bone marrow, and lymphatic system. These cancers are often associated with specific genetic abnormalities, such as translocations. Here are some common translocations and their associated haematological malignancies:

      – Philadelphia chromosome (t(9;22)): This translocation is present in more than 95% of patients with chronic myeloid leukaemia (CML). It results in the fusion of the Abelson proto-oncogene with the BCR gene on chromosome 22, creating the BCR-ABL gene. This gene codes for a fusion protein with excessive tyrosine kinase activity, which is a poor prognostic indicator in acute lymphoblastic leukaemia (ALL).

      – t(15;17): This translocation is seen in acute promyelocytic leukaemia (M3) and involves the fusion of the PML and RAR-alpha genes.

      – t(8;14): Burkitt’s lymphoma is associated with this translocation, which involves the translocation of the MYC oncogene to an immunoglobulin gene.

      – t(11;14): Mantle cell lymphoma is associated with the deregulation of the cyclin D1 (BCL-1) gene.

      – t(14;18): Follicular lymphoma is associated with increased BCL-2 transcription due to this translocation.

      Understanding the genetic abnormalities associated with haematological malignancies is important for diagnosis, prognosis, and treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - What does the first heart sound indicate in terms of cardiac activity? ...

    Incorrect

    • What does the first heart sound indicate in terms of cardiac activity?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Closing of the mitral/tricuspid valves

      Explanation:

      Valvular Sounds and the Cardiac Cycle

      Valvular sounds are the audible representation of the closure of the heart valves. The first heart sound occurs during systole, when the pressure in the ventricles increases and the mitral and tricuspid valves close, forcing blood through the aorta or pulmonary artery. As the ventricles empty and their pressure drops, the aortic or pulmonary valves close, creating the second heart sound. During diastole, the ventricles relax and their pressure decreases even further. When this pressure falls below that of the atria, the mitral and tricuspid valves open once again.

      the cardiac cycle and the sounds associated with it is crucial in diagnosing and treating heart conditions. By listening to the timing and quality of the valvular sounds, healthcare professionals can identify abnormalities in the heart’s function and structure. Additionally, monitoring changes in these sounds over time can help track the progression of certain conditions and guide treatment decisions.

      In summary, the valvular sounds of the heart represent the opening and closing of the heart valves during the cardiac cycle. These sounds are important indicators of heart health and can provide valuable information for healthcare professionals in diagnosing and treating heart conditions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 30-year-old male and his partner visit the fertility clinic after attempting to...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old male and his partner visit the fertility clinic after attempting to conceive for the past year and a half. During the evaluation, the husband undergoes a semen analysis which reveals a low sperm count. What is the cellular composition of sperm cells?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Haploid

      Explanation:

      Haploid cells have one set of chromosomes, diploid cells have two sets, and triploid cells have three sets.

      The Process of Spermatogenesis

      The process of spermatogenesis is essential for the continuation of our species. It involves diploid mitosis followed by haploid meiosis, resulting in the production of a haploid sperm cell. Unlike females, males have a constant supply of gametes due to the continuous occurrence of spermatogenesis.

      Human gametes are haploid cells that contain 23 chromosomes, each of which is individual and one of a pair. Spermatogonial cells undergo constant mitosis, and when they reach the luminal compartment, they become primary spermatocytes. These cells then undergo two stages of meiosis, forming a secondary spermatocyte and then a spermatid. The spermatids migrate to the apex/lumen, where they undergo spermatogenesis, the final maturation and differentiation of the sperm, before being released as sperm cells.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Reproductive System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 6-year-old girl presents with proteinuria, oedema, hypoalbuminaemia, hyperlipidaemia. A diagnosis of nephrotic...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl presents with proteinuria, oedema, hypoalbuminaemia, hyperlipidaemia. A diagnosis of nephrotic syndrome secondary to minimal change disease is made.

      What is the most suitable medication for treatment in this case?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Steroids

      Explanation:

      Prednisolone is the optimal treatment for minimal change glomerulonephritis presenting with nephrotic syndrome, while the other medications mentioned are not appropriate options.

      Minimal change disease is a condition that typically presents as nephrotic syndrome, with children accounting for 75% of cases and adults accounting for 25%. While most cases are idiopathic, a cause can be found in around 10-20% of cases, such as drugs like NSAIDs and rifampicin, Hodgkin’s lymphoma, thymoma, or infectious mononucleosis. The pathophysiology of the disease involves T-cell and cytokine-mediated damage to the glomerular basement membrane, resulting in polyanion loss and a reduction of electrostatic charge, which increases glomerular permeability to serum albumin.

      The features of minimal change disease include nephrotic syndrome, normotension (hypertension is rare), and highly selective proteinuria, where only intermediate-sized proteins like albumin and transferrin leak through the glomerulus. Renal biopsy shows normal glomeruli on light microscopy, while electron microscopy shows fusion of podocytes and effacement of foot processes.

      Management of minimal change disease involves oral corticosteroids, which are effective in 80% of cases. For steroid-resistant cases, cyclophosphamide is the next step. The prognosis for the disease is generally good, although relapse is common. Roughly one-third of patients have just one episode, one-third have infrequent relapses, and one-third have frequent relapses that stop before adulthood.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 25-year-old male has come to the clinic complaining of a low-grade fever...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old male has come to the clinic complaining of a low-grade fever and a small, painless lesion on his penis that is red and raw. He also has inguinal lymphadenopathy. He admits to having unprotected vaginal sex while on vacation four weeks ago. What is the probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Primary syphilis

      Explanation:

      Syphilis and its Symptoms

      Syphilis is a sexually transmitted infection caused by Treponema pallidum. The primary stage of syphilis is characterized by a painless chancre that appears three to six weeks after contact. This ulcer is highly infectious and continuously sheds motile spirochetes. After six weeks, the lesion may resolve, leading the patient to believe they are cured. However, without treatment, the spirochaete remains in the body and can lead to secondary syphilis.

      It is important to note that painful genital ulcers are typically caused by herpes simplex virus and H. ducreyi, while painless ulcers are caused by T. pallidum and Chlamydia trachomatis. HPV, on the other hand, typically causes genital warts, with strains six and 11 causing warts and strains 16 and 18 being associated with cervical cancer.

      Secondary syphilis is a disseminated disease that can cause a maculopapular rash, which may involve the palms and soles. This rash is known as keratoderma blennorrhagicum (KB) and can sometimes present in patients with reactive arthritis. Additionally, patients with secondary syphilis may present with condylomata lata, which are white fleshy lesions on the genitals and signify the most infectious stage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A new medication for treating high blood pressure is currently in phase III...

    Incorrect

    • A new medication for treating high blood pressure is currently in phase III of development. The study has established a margin, represented by -delta to +delta, for the mean reduction in blood pressure. If the confidence interval of the difference between the new medication and the current standard treatment, ramipril, falls within this margin, the trial will be considered successful. What type of study design is this?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Equivalence trial

      Explanation:

      When a new drug is introduced, there are various study design options available. One of these options is a placebo-controlled trial, which can provide strong evidence but may be considered unethical if established treatments are available. Additionally, it does not offer a comparison with standard treatments. Therefore, if a drug is to be compared to an existing treatment, a statistician must determine whether the trial is intended to show superiority, equivalence, or non-inferiority.

      Superiority trials may seem like the natural aim of a trial, but they require a large sample size to demonstrate a significant benefit over an existing treatment. On the other hand, equivalence trials define an equivalence margin (-delta to +delta) on a specified outcome. If the confidence interval of the difference between the two drugs falls within the equivalence margin, the drugs may be assumed to have a similar effect. Non-inferiority trials are similar to equivalence trials, but only the lower confidence interval needs to fall within the equivalence margin (i.e. -delta). These trials require smaller sample sizes. Once a drug has been shown to be non-inferior, large studies may be conducted to demonstrate superiority.

      It is important to note that drug companies may not necessarily aim to show superiority over an existing product. If they can demonstrate that their product is equivalent or even non-inferior, they may compete on price or convenience.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - A 20-year-old male patient complains of lethargy and night sweats. During examination, left...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old male patient complains of lethargy and night sweats. During examination, left supraclavicular lymphadenopathy is detected. A biopsy of the left supraclavicular lymph node is performed by a surgical registrar, and the pathologist identifies Reed-Sternberg cells on the subsequent histology sections. What is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hodgkin's lymphoma

      Explanation:

      Hodgkin’s disease is characterized by the presence of Reed-Sternberg cells in histological examination.

      Causes of Generalised Lymphadenopathy

      Generalised lymphadenopathy refers to the enlargement of multiple lymph nodes throughout the body. There are various causes of this condition, including infectious, neoplastic, and autoimmune conditions. Infectious causes include infectious mononucleosis, HIV, eczema with secondary infection, rubella, toxoplasmosis, CMV, tuberculosis, and roseola infantum. Neoplastic causes include leukaemia and lymphoma. Autoimmune conditions such as SLE and rheumatoid arthritis, graft versus host disease, and sarcoidosis can also cause generalised lymphadenopathy. Additionally, certain drugs like phenytoin and to a lesser extent allopurinol and isoniazid can also lead to this condition. It is important to identify the underlying cause of generalised lymphadenopathy to determine the appropriate treatment.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 25-year-old woman visits her GP, reporting excessive urination and constant thirst for...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old woman visits her GP, reporting excessive urination and constant thirst for the past few months. She has a history of bipolar disorder and is taking lithium. The symptoms suggest nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, which occurs when the kidneys fail to respond to vasopressin. What is the primary site in the kidney responsible for most of the water reabsorption?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Proximal tubule

      Explanation:

      The proximal tubule is responsible for reabsorbing the majority of water in the kidneys. However, in cases of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, which is often a result of taking lithium, the collecting ducts do not properly respond to antidiuretic hormone (ADH). This means that even with increased ADH, aquaporin-2 channels are not inserted in the collecting ducts, resulting in decreased water reabsorption.

      The Loop of Henle and its Role in Renal Physiology

      The Loop of Henle is a crucial component of the renal system, located in the juxtamedullary nephrons and running deep into the medulla. Approximately 60 litres of water containing 9000 mmol sodium enters the descending limb of the loop of Henle in 24 hours. The osmolarity of fluid changes and is greatest at the tip of the papilla. The thin ascending limb is impermeable to water, but highly permeable to sodium and chloride ions. This loss means that at the beginning of the thick ascending limb the fluid is hypo osmotic compared with adjacent interstitial fluid. In the thick ascending limb, the reabsorption of sodium and chloride ions occurs by both facilitated and passive diffusion pathways. The loops of Henle are co-located with vasa recta, which have similar solute compositions to the surrounding extracellular fluid, preventing the diffusion and subsequent removal of this hypertonic fluid. The energy-dependent reabsorption of sodium and chloride in the thick ascending limb helps to maintain this osmotic gradient. Overall, the Loop of Henle plays a crucial role in regulating the concentration of solutes in the renal system.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - As a medical student in a cardiology clinic, you encounter a 54-year-old woman...

    Incorrect

    • As a medical student in a cardiology clinic, you encounter a 54-year-old woman who has been diagnosed with atrial fibrillation by her GP after experiencing chest pain for 12 hours. She informs you that she had a blood clot in her early 30s following lower limb surgery and was previously treated with warfarin. Her CHA2DS2‑VASc score is 3. What is the first-line anticoagulant recommended to prevent future stroke in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Edoxaban

      Explanation:

      According to the 2021 NICE guidelines on preventing stroke in individuals with atrial fibrillation, DOACs should be the first-line anticoagulant therapy offered. The correct answer is ‘edoxaban’. ‘Aspirin’ is not appropriate for managing atrial fibrillation as it is an antiplatelet agent. ‘Low molecular weight heparin’ and ‘unfractionated heparin’ are not recommended for long-term anticoagulation in this case as they require subcutaneous injections.

      Atrial fibrillation (AF) is a condition that requires careful management, including the use of anticoagulation therapy. The latest guidelines from NICE recommend assessing the need for anticoagulation in all patients with a history of AF, regardless of whether they are currently experiencing symptoms. The CHA2DS2-VASc scoring system is used to determine the most appropriate anticoagulation strategy, with a score of 2 or more indicating the need for anticoagulation. However, it is important to ensure a transthoracic echocardiogram has been done to exclude valvular heart disease, which is an absolute indication for anticoagulation.

      When considering anticoagulation therapy, doctors must also assess the patient’s bleeding risk. NICE recommends using the ORBIT scoring system to formalize this risk assessment, taking into account factors such as haemoglobin levels, age, bleeding history, renal impairment, and treatment with antiplatelet agents. While there are no formal rules on how to act on the ORBIT score, individual patient factors should be considered. The risk of bleeding increases with a higher ORBIT score, with a score of 4-7 indicating a high risk of bleeding.

      For many years, warfarin was the anticoagulant of choice for AF. However, the development of direct oral anticoagulants (DOACs) has changed this. DOACs have the advantage of not requiring regular blood tests to check the INR and are now recommended as the first-line anticoagulant for patients with AF. The recommended DOACs for reducing stroke risk in AF are apixaban, dabigatran, edoxaban, and rivaroxaban. Warfarin is now used second-line, in patients where a DOAC is contraindicated or not tolerated. Aspirin is not recommended for reducing stroke risk in patients with AF.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 31 - A 57-year-old man is diagnosed with angina and prescribed medications for symptom control...

    Incorrect

    • A 57-year-old man is diagnosed with angina and prescribed medications for symptom control and secondary prevention. The doctor advises him to make dietary changes to address excess fat in the blood that can lead to angina. During the explanation, the doctor asks which apolipoprotein macrophages recognize to uptake lipids under normal circumstances?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: ApoB100

      Explanation:

      Understanding Atherosclerosis and its Complications

      Atherosclerosis is a complex process that occurs over several years. It begins with endothelial dysfunction triggered by factors such as smoking, hypertension, and hyperglycemia. This leads to changes in the endothelium, including inflammation, oxidation, proliferation, and reduced nitric oxide bioavailability. As a result, low-density lipoprotein (LDL) particles infiltrate the subendothelial space, and monocytes migrate from the blood and differentiate into macrophages. These macrophages then phagocytose oxidized LDL, slowly turning into large ‘foam cells’. Smooth muscle proliferation and migration from the tunica media into the intima result in the formation of a fibrous capsule covering the fatty plaque.

      Once a plaque has formed, it can cause several complications. For example, it can form a physical blockage in the lumen of the coronary artery, leading to reduced blood flow and oxygen to the myocardium, resulting in angina. Alternatively, the plaque may rupture, potentially causing a complete occlusion of the coronary artery and resulting in a myocardial infarction. It is essential to understand the process of atherosclerosis and its complications to prevent and manage cardiovascular diseases effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 32 - A 24-year-old man visits his GP complaining of haematuria and flank pain that...

    Incorrect

    • A 24-year-old man visits his GP complaining of haematuria and flank pain that has persisted for 2 weeks despite taking nitrofurantoin. He developed these symptoms after a mild upper respiratory tract infection. He has no fever and feels generally well.

      The urine dip test reveals:
      Protein ++
      Red blood cells +++

      The patient is referred to a nephrologist who suggests a renal biopsy. The biopsy results show mesangiocapillary deposition of IgA on immunofluorescent staining.

      What is the mechanism by which this immunoglobulin is transported across the interior of cells?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Transcytosis

      Explanation:

      Immunoglobulins, also known as antibodies, are proteins produced by the immune system to help fight off infections and diseases. There are five types of immunoglobulins found in the body, each with their own unique characteristics.

      IgG is the most abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and plays a crucial role in enhancing phagocytosis of bacteria and viruses. It also fixes complement and can be passed to the fetal circulation.

      IgA is the most commonly produced immunoglobulin in the body and is found in the secretions of digestive, respiratory, and urogenital tracts and systems. It provides localized protection on mucous membranes and is transported across the interior of the cell via transcytosis.

      IgM is the first immunoglobulin to be secreted in response to an infection and fixes complement, but does not pass to the fetal circulation. It is also responsible for producing anti-A, B blood antibodies.

      IgD’s role in the immune system is largely unknown, but it is involved in the activation of B cells.

      IgE is the least abundant type of immunoglobulin in blood serum and is responsible for mediating type 1 hypersensitivity reactions. It provides immunity to parasites such as helminths and binds to Fc receptors found on the surface of mast cells and basophils.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 33 - A 54-year-old factory worker gets his arm caught in a metal grinder and...

    Incorrect

    • A 54-year-old factory worker gets his arm caught in a metal grinder and is rushed to the ER. Upon examination, he displays an inability to extend his metacarpophalangeal joints and abduct his shoulder. Additionally, he experiences weakness in his elbow and wrist. What specific injury has occurred?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Posterior cord of brachial plexus

      Explanation:

      Lesion of the posterior cord results in the impairment of the axillary and radial nerve, which are responsible for innervating various muscles such as the deltoid, triceps, brachioradialis, wrist extensors, finger extensors, subscapularis, teres minor, and latissimus dorsi.

      Brachial Plexus Cords and their Origins

      The brachial plexus cords are categorized based on their position in relation to the axillary artery. These cords pass over the first rib near the lung’s dome and under the clavicle, just behind the subclavian artery. The lateral cord is formed by the anterior divisions of the upper and middle trunks and gives rise to the lateral pectoral nerve, which originates from C5, C6, and C7. The medial cord is formed by the anterior division of the lower trunk and gives rise to the medial pectoral nerve, the medial brachial cutaneous nerve, and the medial antebrachial cutaneous nerve, which originate from C8, T1, and C8, T1, respectively. The posterior cord is formed by the posterior divisions of the three trunks (C5-T1) and gives rise to the upper and lower subscapular nerves, the thoracodorsal nerve to the latissimus dorsi (also known as the middle subscapular nerve), and the axillary and radial nerves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 34 - What type of epithelial cells can be found in the choroid plexus? ...

    Incorrect

    • What type of epithelial cells can be found in the choroid plexus?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Ependymal cells

      Explanation:

      Cells in the Central Nervous System

      Ependymal cells are responsible for the production of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in the choroid plexus, which is a highly vascular tissue found in all CNS ventricles. These cells are specialised for secretion and have apical microvilli. Enterochromaffin cells, on the other hand, are catecholamine-secreting cells found in the adrenal medulla. Mesangial cells are supporting cells of the glomerulus, while mesothelial cells form a monolayer that comprises the pleura, peritoneum, and pericardium. Lastly, microglial cells are phagocytic glial cells of the CNS. Each of these cells plays a unique role in the central nervous system and contributes to its overall function.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Histology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 35 - A 27-year-old woman had an open appendectomy 3 days ago and has been...

    Incorrect

    • A 27-year-old woman had an open appendectomy 3 days ago and has been experiencing abdominal pain and nausea since then. She has also lost her appetite and has not had a bowel movement. On examination, her abdomen is slightly distended and tender to the touch, but her incision wound looks normal. Her vital signs are stable with a normal temperature, blood pressure, heart rate, and respiratory rate. What is the most probable complication causing her symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Paralytic ileus

      Explanation:

      Paralytic ileus is a frequent complication that can occur after gastrointestinal surgery, often presenting with symptoms of pseudo-obstruction such as constipation, nausea and vomiting, abdominal discomfort and distension.

      Adhesional small bowel obstruction is less likely as a complication in the first few days after surgery, and typically presents with more severe symptoms such as vomiting, tenderness, and distension. It is also more commonly seen several weeks to years after abdominal surgery.

      Anastomotic leak is a rare but serious complication that can occur when there is a surgical join in the bowel. It is characterized by symptoms such as abdominal pain, fever, and tachycardia, and requires prompt identification and treatment to prevent sepsis and organ failure.

      Infection is another potential complication, but in this case, there were no signs of infection at the wound site such as erythema, pus, or induration. Symptoms of an infected wound may include abdominal pain, fever, and signs of sepsis.

      Postoperative ileus, also known as paralytic ileus, is a common complication that can occur after bowel surgery, particularly if the bowel has been extensively handled. This condition is characterized by reduced bowel peristalsis, which can lead to pseudo-obstruction. Symptoms of postoperative ileus include abdominal distention, bloating, pain, nausea, vomiting, inability to pass flatus, and difficulty tolerating an oral diet. It is important to check for deranged electrolytes, such as potassium, magnesium, and phosphate, as they can contribute to the development of postoperative ileus.

      The management of postoperative ileus typically involves nil-by-mouth initially, which may progress to small sips of clear fluids. If vomiting occurs, a nasogastric tube may be necessary. Intravenous fluids are administered to maintain normovolaemic, and additives may be used to correct any electrolyte disturbances. In severe or prolonged cases, total parenteral nutrition may be required. Overall, postoperative ileus is a common complication that requires careful management to ensure a successful recovery.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 36 - A 4-year-old boy is presented to the GP by his father. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 4-year-old boy is presented to the GP by his father. He has developed a rash around his mouth and nose over the past few days. It started as a flat red patch at the corner of his mouth but quickly progressed to a blistering rash that oozes fluid. During today's examination, the rash appears to have a crusty, golden appearance on the surface. The child is healthy otherwise and has no prior history of skin problems. Based on this history and examination, what is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Impetigo

      Explanation:

      The most likely diagnosis based on the history and examination is impetigo or eczema herpeticum, which can have similar presentations and are difficult to differentiate clinically. However, since the child has no prior history of skin conditions, eczema herpeticum is less probable. Therefore, option 2 is the correct answer.

      Option 1: Atopic eczema would not manifest with a yellowish crust.

      Option 3: Chickenpox would not exhibit this particular progression.

      Understanding Impetigo: Causes, Symptoms, and Management

      Impetigo is a common bacterial skin infection that is caused by either Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. It can occur as a primary infection or as a complication of an existing skin condition such as eczema. Impetigo is most common in children, especially during warm weather. The infection can develop anywhere on the body, but it tends to occur on the face, flexures, and limbs not covered by clothing.

      The infection spreads through direct contact with discharges from the scabs of an infected person. The bacteria invade the skin through minor abrasions and then spread to other sites by scratching. Infection is spread mainly by the hands, but indirect spread via toys, clothing, equipment, and the environment may occur. The incubation period is between 4 to 10 days.

      Symptoms of impetigo include ‘golden’, crusted skin lesions typically found around the mouth. It is highly contagious, and children should be excluded from school until the lesions are crusted and healed or 48 hours after commencing antibiotic treatment.

      Management of impetigo depends on the extent of the disease. Limited, localized disease can be treated with hydrogen peroxide 1% cream or topical antibiotic creams such as fusidic acid or mupirocin. MRSA is not susceptible to either fusidic acid or retapamulin, so topical mupirocin should be used in this situation. Extensive disease may require oral flucloxacillin or oral erythromycin if penicillin-allergic. The use of hydrogen peroxide 1% cream was recommended by NICE and Public Health England in 2020 to cut antibiotic resistance. The evidence base shows it is just as effective at treating non-bullous impetigo as a topical antibiotic.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Musculoskeletal System And Skin
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 37 - A 20-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of abdominal pain, nausea,...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. She reports having a cough and fever for the past few days. Upon examination, she has dry mucous membranes and her breath has a fruity odor. Her vital signs are as follows: blood pressure 95/55 mmHg, heart rate 120/min, respiratory rate 29/min, temperature 37.8ºC (100ºF), and oxygen saturation 98% on room air. Laboratory results show:

      - Sodium (Na+): 124 mmol/L (135 - 145)
      - Potassium (K+): 5.5 mmol/L (3.5 - 5.0)
      - Bicarbonate: 13 mmol/L (22 - 29)
      - Serum glucose: 30 mmol/L (4 - 7.8)
      - pH: 7.15 (7.35 - 7.45)
      - Serum ketones: 3.5 mmol/L (0 - 0.6)

      What is the most likely cause of the increased ketones in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Lipolysis

      Explanation:

      DKA is a condition that arises due to uncontrolled lipolysis, leading to an excess of free fatty acids that are converted to ketone bodies. This life-threatening complication of diabetes is characterized by elevated levels of blood glucose, ketones, and acidosis, with symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, dehydration, and fruity breath odor. DKA is commonly observed in type 1 diabetes mellitus and can be triggered by non-compliance with treatment or an infection. Insulin deficiency and increased levels of counterregulatory hormones cause lipolysis in adipose tissue, leading to the release of free fatty acids that undergo hepatic oxidation to form ketone bodies. In DKA, increased gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis occur due to insulin deficiency and counterregulatory hormones, leading to the synthesis of glucose from non-carbohydrate precursors and breakdown of glycogen, respectively. Glycolysis is not involved in DKA as it does not lead to the breakdown of fatty acids.

      Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious complication of type 1 diabetes mellitus, accounting for around 6% of cases. It can also occur in rare cases of extreme stress in patients with type 2 diabetes mellitus. DKA is caused by uncontrolled lipolysis, resulting in an excess of free fatty acids that are converted to ketone bodies. The most common precipitating factors of DKA are infection, missed insulin doses, and myocardial infarction. Symptoms include abdominal pain, polyuria, polydipsia, dehydration, Kussmaul respiration, and breath that smells like acetone. Diagnostic criteria include glucose levels above 11 mmol/l or known diabetes mellitus, pH below 7.3, bicarbonate below 15 mmol/l, and ketones above 3 mmol/l or urine ketones ++ on dipstick.

      Management of DKA involves fluid replacement, insulin, and correction of electrolyte disturbance. Fluid replacement is necessary as most patients with DKA are deplete around 5-8 litres. Isotonic saline is used initially, even if the patient is severely acidotic. Insulin is administered through an intravenous infusion, and correction of electrolyte disturbance is necessary. Long-acting insulin should be continued, while short-acting insulin should be stopped. Complications may occur from DKA itself or the treatment, such as gastric stasis, thromboembolism, arrhythmias, acute respiratory distress syndrome, acute kidney injury, and cerebral edema. Children and young adults are particularly vulnerable to cerebral edema following fluid resuscitation in DKA and often need 1:1 nursing to monitor neuro-observations, headache, irritability, visual disturbance, focal neurology, etc.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Endocrine System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 38 - In the proximal third of the upper arm, where is the musculocutaneous nerve...

    Incorrect

    • In the proximal third of the upper arm, where is the musculocutaneous nerve situated?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Between the biceps brachii and brachialis muscles

      Explanation:

      The biceps and brachialis muscles are located on either side of the musculocutaneous nerve.

      The Musculocutaneous Nerve: Function and Pathway

      The musculocutaneous nerve is a nerve branch that originates from the lateral cord of the brachial plexus. Its pathway involves penetrating the coracobrachialis muscle and passing obliquely between the biceps brachii and the brachialis to the lateral side of the arm. Above the elbow, it pierces the deep fascia lateral to the tendon of the biceps brachii and continues into the forearm as the lateral cutaneous nerve of the forearm.

      The musculocutaneous nerve innervates the coracobrachialis, biceps brachii, and brachialis muscles. Injury to this nerve can cause weakness in flexion at the shoulder and elbow. Understanding the function and pathway of the musculocutaneous nerve is important in diagnosing and treating injuries or conditions that affect this nerve.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 39 - What is the composition of enzymes found in lysosomes? ...

    Incorrect

    • What is the composition of enzymes found in lysosomes?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Acid hydrolases

      Explanation:

      Lysosomes: The Digestive System of the Cell

      Lysosomes are organelles that come from the Golgi apparatus and are enclosed by a membrane. They are responsible for breaking down various biological macromolecules such as proteins, nucleic acids, carbohydrates, and lipids. Lysosomes contain acid hydrolases, which are enzymes that cleave chemical bonds by adding water and function at an acidic pH of around 5. They are involved in digesting foreign agents that are internalized by the cell and breaking down other cellular organelles like mitochondria, allowing for their components to be recycled.

      The acidic pH within lysosomes is maintained by a proton pump in the lysosomal membrane, which imports protons from the cytosol coupled to ATP hydrolysis. This acidic environment is necessary for the activity of the acid hydrolases. D-amino acid oxidases and peroxidases are not found in lysosomes but in peroxisomes. Alcohol dehydrogenases and ATPases are not involved in digestion but in other cellular functions. Alcohol dehydrogenases catalyze the interconversion between alcohols and aldehydes or ketones with the reduction of NAD+ to NADH, while ATPases catalyze the breakdown of ATP into ADP and a phosphate ion, releasing energy for the cell’s functions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Basic Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 40 - A 13-year-old boy comes to the clinic with his mother complaining of ear...

    Incorrect

    • A 13-year-old boy comes to the clinic with his mother complaining of ear pain. He experienced the pain last night and was unable to sleep. As a result, he stayed home from school today. He reports that sounds are muffled on the affected side. During the examination, he has a fever. Otoscopy reveals a bulging tympanic membrane with visible fluid level, indicating a middle ear infection. The nerve to tensor tympani arises from which nerve?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Mandibular nerve

      Explanation:

      The mandibular nerve is the correct answer. It is the only division of the trigeminal nerve that carries motor fibers. The vestibulocochlear nerve is the eighth cranial nerve and has two components for balance and hearing. The glossopharyngeal nerve is the ninth cranial nerve and has various functions, including taste and sensation from the tongue, pharyngeal wall, and tonsils. The maxillary nerve carries only sensory fibers. The facial nerve is the seventh cranial nerve and supplies the muscles of facial expression and taste from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue. Tensor tympani is a muscle that dampens loud noises and is innervated through the nerve to tensor tympani, which arises from the mandibular nerve. The patient’s ear pain is likely due to otitis media, which is confirmed on otoscopy.

      The trigeminal nerve is the main sensory nerve of the head and also innervates the muscles of mastication. It has sensory distribution to the scalp, face, oral cavity, nose and sinuses, and dura mater, and motor distribution to the muscles of mastication, mylohyoid, anterior belly of digastric, tensor tympani, and tensor palati. The nerve originates at the pons and has three branches: ophthalmic, maxillary, and mandibular. The ophthalmic and maxillary branches are sensory only, while the mandibular branch is both sensory and motor. The nerve innervates various muscles, including the masseter, temporalis, and pterygoids.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 41 - A 49-year-old male has sustained a facial burn at work. During the morning...

    Incorrect

    • A 49-year-old male has sustained a facial burn at work. During the morning ward round, it is observed in the surgeon's notes that the facial artery has good arterial blood supply, leading to hope for satisfactory healing. What is the name of the major artery that the facial artery branches off from?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: External carotid artery

      Explanation:

      The facial artery is the primary source of blood supply to the face, originating from the external carotid artery after the lingual artery. It follows a winding path and terminates as the angular artery at the inner corner of the eye.

      The internal carotid artery provides blood to the front and middle parts of the brain, while the vertebral artery, a branch of the subclavian artery, supplies the spinal cord, cerebellum, and back part of the brain. The brachiocephalic artery supplies the right side of the head and arm, giving rise to the subclavian and common carotid arteries on the right side.

      Anatomy of the External Carotid Artery

      The external carotid artery begins on the side of the pharynx and runs in front of the internal carotid artery, behind the posterior belly of digastric and stylohyoid muscles. It is covered by sternocleidomastoid muscle and passed by hypoglossal nerves, lingual and facial veins. The artery then enters the parotid gland and divides into its terminal branches within the gland.

      To locate the external carotid artery, an imaginary line can be drawn from the bifurcation of the common carotid artery behind the angle of the jaw to a point in front of the tragus of the ear.

      The external carotid artery has six branches, with three in front, two behind, and one deep. The three branches in front are the superior thyroid, lingual, and facial arteries. The two branches behind are the occipital and posterior auricular arteries. The deep branch is the ascending pharyngeal artery. The external carotid artery terminates by dividing into the superficial temporal and maxillary arteries within the parotid gland.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Cardiovascular System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 42 - A 14-year-old boy arrives at the emergency department with his mother. He has...

    Incorrect

    • A 14-year-old boy arrives at the emergency department with his mother. He has been experiencing severe headaches upon waking for the past two mornings. The pain subsides when he gets out of bed, but he has been feeling nauseated and has vomited three times this morning. There is no history of trauma. Upon ophthalmoscopy, bilateral papilloedema is observed. A CT head scan reveals a mass invading the fourth ventricle. Although the mass is reducing the diameter of the median aperture, it does not completely block it. What is the space into which cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) flows from the fourth ventricle through the median aperture (foramen of Magendie)?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Cisterna magna

      Explanation:

      The correct answer is the cisterna magna, which is a subarachnoid cistern located between the cerebellum and medulla. The fourth ventricle receives CSF from the third ventricle via the cerebral aqueduct (of Sylvius) and CSF can leave the fourth ventricle through one of four openings, including the median aperture (foramen of Magendie) that drains CSF into the cisterna magna. CSF is circulated throughout the subarachnoid space, but it is not present in the extradural or subdural spaces. The third ventricle communicates with the lateral ventricles anteriorly via the interventricular foramina and with the fourth ventricle posteriorly via the cerebral aqueduct (of Sylvius). The superior sagittal sinus is a large venous sinus that allows the absorption of CSF. A patient with symptoms and signs suggestive of raised ICP may have various causes, including mass lesions and neoplasms.

      Cerebrospinal Fluid: Circulation and Composition

      Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is a clear, colorless liquid that fills the space between the arachnoid mater and pia mater, covering the surface of the brain. The total volume of CSF in the brain is approximately 150ml, and it is produced by the ependymal cells in the choroid plexus or blood vessels. The majority of CSF is produced by the choroid plexus, accounting for 70% of the total volume. The remaining 30% is produced by blood vessels. The CSF is reabsorbed via the arachnoid granulations, which project into the venous sinuses.

      The circulation of CSF starts from the lateral ventricles, which are connected to the third ventricle via the foramen of Munro. From the third ventricle, the CSF flows through the cerebral aqueduct (aqueduct of Sylvius) to reach the fourth ventricle via the foramina of Magendie and Luschka. The CSF then enters the subarachnoid space, where it circulates around the brain and spinal cord. Finally, the CSF is reabsorbed into the venous system via arachnoid granulations into the superior sagittal sinus.

      The composition of CSF is essential for its proper functioning. The glucose level in CSF is between 50-80 mg/dl, while the protein level is between 15-40 mg/dl. Red blood cells are not present in CSF, and the white blood cell count is usually less than 3 cells/mm3. Understanding the circulation and composition of CSF is crucial for diagnosing and treating various neurological disorders.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 43 - A 67-year-old woman visits her general practitioner complaining of pelvic pain, weight loss,...

    Incorrect

    • A 67-year-old woman visits her general practitioner complaining of pelvic pain, weight loss, and vaginal bleeding that has persisted for 3 months. She has been menopausal for 15 years and is not currently taking any medication. Upon examination, no abnormalities are found in her abdomen or pelvis, and she is referred to a gynaecologist for urgent evaluation. Unfortunately, the patient is diagnosed with endometrial cancer that has spread to the fundus of her uterus.

      Which lymph node region is most likely to be affected by metastatic spread in this patient?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Para-aortic nodes

      Explanation:

      The para-aortic lymph nodes are responsible for draining the uterine fundus. This is because the ovaries develop in the abdomen and move down the posterior abdominal wall during fetal development, and their lymphatic drainage comes from the para-aortic nodes. Therefore, lymphatic spread is most likely to occur in this location.

      The inferior mesenteric nodes are not responsible for draining the uterine fundus, as they primarily drain hindgut structures from the transverse colon down to the rectum.

      Similarly, the internal iliac nodes are not responsible for draining the uterine fundus, as they primarily drain the inferior portion of the rectum, the anal canal above the pectinate line, and the pelvic viscera.

      The posterior mediastinal chain is also not responsible for draining the uterine fundus, as it primarily drains the oesophagus, mediastinum, and posterior surface of the diaphragm.

      Lymphatic Drainage of Female Reproductive Organs

      The lymphatic drainage of the female reproductive organs is a complex system that involves multiple nodal stations. The ovaries drain to the para-aortic lymphatics via the gonadal vessels. The uterine fundus has a lymphatic drainage that runs with the ovarian vessels and may thus drain to the para-aortic nodes. Some drainage may also pass along the round ligament to the inguinal nodes. The body of the uterus drains through lymphatics contained within the broad ligament to the iliac lymph nodes. The cervix drains into three potential nodal stations; laterally through the broad ligament to the external iliac nodes, along the lymphatics of the uterosacral fold to the presacral nodes and posterolaterally along lymphatics lying alongside the uterine vessels to the internal iliac nodes. Understanding the lymphatic drainage of the female reproductive organs is important for the diagnosis and treatment of gynecological cancers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 44 - A 20-year-old rugby player presents with a sore throat, followed by severe malaise,...

    Incorrect

    • A 20-year-old rugby player presents with a sore throat, followed by severe malaise, high fever, and confusion two days later. He had a splenectomy three years ago after rupturing his spleen during a rugby match. The consultant suspects that he may have septicaemia.

      Which organism poses the highest risk to patients who have had their spleen removed?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae

      Explanation:

      Increased Infection Risk for Patients without a Spleen

      Patients who have had their spleen removed have a weakened immune system, making them less capable of fighting off encapsulated bacteria. This puts them at a higher risk of infection from Streptococcus pneumoniae, Neisseria meningitidis, Haemophilus influenzae, and Escherichia coli. While it is recommended for these patients to receive vaccinations and sometimes antibiotics, there is still a significant risk of overwhelming post-splenectomy infection (OPSI), with a lifetime risk as high as 4%. Therefore, it is important for patients without a spleen to take extra precautions to prevent infections and seek medical attention promptly if they experience any symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Clinical Sciences
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 45 - Your coworker Dr S approaches you and requests your assistance. She has been...

    Incorrect

    • Your coworker Dr S approaches you and requests your assistance. She has been experiencing dysuria, frequent urination, and has also observed a small amount of blood in her urine. She asks if you could prescribe her a course of Trimethoprim as it has worked for her in the past. She mentions that her GP practice is always overcrowded and this would be a time-saver for everyone. What would be the most appropriate action to take?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Explain that it would be unprofessional for you to prescribe for a friend and suggests she sees her own GP

      Explanation:

      GMC Guidelines on Prescribing for Friends, Family, and Colleagues

      The General Medical Council (GMC) has issued guidelines on prescribing and managing medicines and devices. According to the guidelines, doctors should avoid prescribing medication for themselves or individuals with whom they have a close personal relationship. The GMC expects all medical professionals to adhere to these guidelines.

      The GMC’s guidance on prescribing and managing medicines and devices is clear in its stance on treating friends, family, and colleagues. The council believes that doctors should avoid prescribing medication for themselves or individuals with whom they have a close personal relationship. This is to ensure that medical professionals maintain a high level of objectivity and impartiality when treating patients. The GMC expects all medical professionals to follow these guidelines to ensure that they provide the best possible care to their patients.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • General Principles
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 46 - A 38-year-old female visits her doctor complaining of tingling sensations around her mouth...

    Incorrect

    • A 38-year-old female visits her doctor complaining of tingling sensations around her mouth and frequent muscle cramps. During the blood pressure check, her wrist and fingers start to cramp and flex. Despite these symptoms, she appears to be in good health.

      What condition is the most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypocalcaemia

      Explanation:

      Hypocalcaemia is characterized by perioral paraesthesia, cramps, tetany, and convulsions. The female in this scenario is displaying these symptoms, along with a positive Trousseau’s sign and potentially a positive Chvostek’s sign. Hypocalcaemia is commonly caused by hyperparathyroidism, vitamin D deficiency, or phosphate infusions.

      Hyperkalaemia is when there is an elevated level of potassium in the blood, which can be caused by chronic kidney disease, dehydration, and certain medications such as spironolactone. Symptoms may include muscle weakness, heart palpitations, and nausea and vomiting.

      Hypermagnesaemia is rare and can cause decreased respiratory rate, muscle weakness, and decreased reflexes. It may be caused by renal failure, excessive dietary intake, or increased cell destruction.

      Hypokalaemia is relatively common and can cause weakness, fatigue, and muscle cramps. It may be caused by diuretic use, low dietary intake, or vomiting.

      Hyponatraemia may also cause cramps, but typically presents with nausea and vomiting, fatigue, confusion, and in severe cases, seizures or coma. Causes may include syndrome of inappropriate ADH release (SIADH), excessive fluid intake, and certain medications such as diuretics, SSRIs, and antipsychotics.

      Hypocalcaemia: Symptoms and Signs

      Hypocalcaemia is a condition characterized by low levels of calcium in the blood. As calcium is essential for proper muscle and nerve function, many of the symptoms and signs of hypocalcaemia are related to neuromuscular excitability. The most common features of hypocalcaemia include muscle twitching, cramping, and spasms, as well as perioral paraesthesia. In chronic cases, patients may experience depression and cataracts. An electrocardiogram (ECG) may show a prolonged QT interval.

      Two specific signs that are commonly used to diagnose hypocalcaemia are Trousseau’s sign and Chvostek’s sign. Trousseau’s sign is observed when the brachial artery is occluded by inflating the blood pressure cuff and maintaining pressure above systolic. This causes wrist flexion and fingers to be drawn together, which is seen in around 95% of patients with hypocalcaemia and around 1% of normocalcaemic people. Chvostek’s sign is observed when tapping over the parotid gland causes facial muscles to twitch. This sign is seen in around 70% of patients with hypocalcaemia and around 10% of normocalcaemic people. Overall, hypocalcaemia can cause a range of symptoms and signs that are related to neuromuscular excitability, and specific diagnostic signs can be used to confirm the diagnosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Renal System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 47 - A 45-year-old patient arrives at the Emergency department with a one-week history of...

    Incorrect

    • A 45-year-old patient arrives at the Emergency department with a one-week history of increasing fatigue, nosebleeds, and swollen gums. The admitting physician suspects the possibility of acute leukemia and seeks consultation with their senior colleague. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: He is more likely to be cured than if he was diagnosed with a chronic leukaemia

      Explanation:

      Leukaemia Types and Prognosis

      As with high-grade lymphomas, acute leukaemias have a higher chance of being cured than chronic leukaemias. However, chronic leukaemias such as CLL may not require treatment at the time of diagnosis and may not cause death for many years. Acute leukaemias, on the other hand, have a higher initial mortality rate.

      The diagnosis of acute leukaemia can be made if the blasts account for more than 20% of the bone marrow or peripheral blood, or if there is a blast count with a recognized cytogenetic abnormality associated with AML. Gum hypertrophy is more commonly associated with AML, especially acute monocytic leukaemia.

      Females generally have a better prognosis than males when it comes to acute leukaemias. ALL most commonly arises from B-lymphocyte populations, while AML arising from pre-existing conditions such as the myeloproliferative neoplasms is associated with a poorer prognosis than that arising de novo.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Haematology And Oncology
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 48 - A 35-year-old man suffers a hemisection of the spinal cord at the level...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man suffers a hemisection of the spinal cord at the level T5 due to a stabbing in his back. You conduct an evaluation of the patient's sensory function, including temperature, vibration, and fine touch, as well as muscle strength. What signs would you anticipate observing?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Contralateral loss of temperature, ipsilateral loss of fine touch and vibration, ipsilateral spastic paresis

      Explanation:

      The spinothalamic tract carries sensory fibers for pain and temperature and decussates at the same level as the nerve root entering the spinal cord. As a result, contralateral temperature loss occurs. The dorsal column medial lemniscus carries sensory fibers for fine touch, vibration, and unconscious proprioception. It decussates at the medulla, leading to ipsilateral loss of fine touch and vibration. The corticospinal tract is a descending tract that has already decussated at the medulla and is responsible for inhibiting muscle movement. If affected in the spinal cord, it causes an upper motor neuron lesion on the ipsilateral side.

      The spinal cord is a central structure located within the vertebral column that provides it with structural support. It extends rostrally to the medulla oblongata of the brain and tapers caudally at the L1-2 level, where it is anchored to the first coccygeal vertebrae by the filum terminale. The cord is characterised by cervico-lumbar enlargements that correspond to the brachial and lumbar plexuses. It is incompletely divided into two symmetrical halves by a dorsal median sulcus and ventral median fissure, with grey matter surrounding a central canal that is continuous with the ventricular system of the CNS. Afferent fibres entering through the dorsal roots usually terminate near their point of entry but may travel for varying distances in Lissauer’s tract. The key point to remember is that the anatomy of the cord will dictate the clinical presentation in cases of injury, which can be caused by trauma, neoplasia, inflammatory diseases, vascular issues, or infection.

      One important condition to remember is Brown-Sequard syndrome, which is caused by hemisection of the cord and produces ipsilateral loss of proprioception and upper motor neuron signs, as well as contralateral loss of pain and temperature sensation. Lesions below L1 tend to present with lower motor neuron signs. It is important to keep a clinical perspective in mind when revising CNS anatomy and to understand the ways in which the spinal cord can become injured, as this will help in diagnosing and treating patients with spinal cord injuries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 49 - A 76-year-old man is scheduled for an internal carotid artery endarterectomy. During the...

    Incorrect

    • A 76-year-old man is scheduled for an internal carotid artery endarterectomy. During the dissection, which nervous structure is most vulnerable?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Hypoglossal nerve

      Explanation:

      The carotid endarterectomy procedure poses a risk to several nerves, including the hypoglossal nerve, greater auricular nerve, and superior laryngeal nerve. The dissection of the sternocleidomastoid muscle, ligation of the common facial vein, and exposure of the common and internal carotid arteries can all potentially damage these nerves. However, the sympathetic chain located posteriorly is less susceptible to injury during this operation.

      The internal carotid artery originates from the common carotid artery near the upper border of the thyroid cartilage and travels upwards to enter the skull through the carotid canal. It then passes through the cavernous sinus and divides into the anterior and middle cerebral arteries. In the neck, it is surrounded by various structures such as the longus capitis, pre-vertebral fascia, sympathetic chain, and superior laryngeal nerve. It is also closely related to the external carotid artery, the wall of the pharynx, the ascending pharyngeal artery, the internal jugular vein, the vagus nerve, the sternocleidomastoid muscle, the lingual and facial veins, and the hypoglossal nerve. Inside the cranial cavity, the internal carotid artery bends forwards in the cavernous sinus and is closely related to several nerves such as the oculomotor, trochlear, ophthalmic, and maxillary nerves. It terminates below the anterior perforated substance by dividing into the anterior and middle cerebral arteries and gives off several branches such as the ophthalmic artery, posterior communicating artery, anterior choroid artery, meningeal arteries, and hypophyseal arteries.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      0
      Seconds
  • Question 50 - A 22-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of weakness in...

    Incorrect

    • A 22-year-old man presents to the emergency department with complaints of weakness in his right wrist. He reports heavy drinking the previous night and falling asleep with his arm hanging over a chair's armrest. Upon examination, there is weakness in the extensor muscles of the forearm, and a radial nerve palsy is diagnosed. A neurologist later uses an electromyogram, which indicates the presence of axonotmesis in the radial nerve.

      What is a reasonable expectation for the patient's recovery?

      Your Answer:

      Correct Answer: Full recovery of function in 12 months

      Explanation:

      When a nerve is crushed, it can lead to axonotmesis, which is a serious injury. However, in most cases, patients can fully recover from this type of injury, but the process is slow.

      The radial nerve of the patient in this case was compressed for a long time due to falling asleep on an armrest, resulting in axonotmesis. Although complete recovery is probable, it can take up to a year for the axons to regenerate.

      Nerve injuries can be classified into three types: neuropraxia, axonotmesis, and neurotmesis. Neuropraxia occurs when the nerve is intact but its electrical conduction is affected. However, full recovery is possible, and autonomic function is preserved. Wallerian degeneration, which is the degeneration of axons distal to the site of injury, does not occur. Axonotmesis, on the other hand, happens when the axon is damaged, but the myelin sheath is preserved, and the connective tissue framework is not affected. Wallerian degeneration occurs in this type of injury. Lastly, neurotmesis is the most severe type of nerve injury, where there is a disruption of the axon, myelin sheath, and surrounding connective tissue. Wallerian degeneration also occurs in this type of injury.

      Wallerian degeneration typically begins 24-36 hours following the injury. Axons are excitable before degeneration occurs, and the myelin sheath degenerates and is phagocytosed by tissue macrophages. Neuronal repair may only occur physiologically where nerves are in direct contact. However, nerve regeneration may be hampered when a large defect is present, and it may not occur at all or result in the formation of a neuroma. If nerve regrowth occurs, it typically happens at a rate of 1mm per day.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Neurological System
      0
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

General Principles (1/3) 33%
Neurological System (0/1) 0%
Gastrointestinal System (0/1) 0%
Pharmacology (1/1) 100%
Passmed