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Question 1
Incorrect
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A 35-year-old woman with rheumatoid arthritis presents with feelings of malaise. She has been experiencing lethargy for the past two days and has developed a severe sore throat over the last 24 hours. The patient has been taking the following medications for the past six months: paracetamol 1g QDS, naproxen 500 mg PRN, methotrexate 15 mg once weekly, folic acid 5mg once weekly, and prednisolone 5mg OD. Upon examination, she is septic with the following vital signs: respiratory rate 26/min, heart rate 120/min, blood pressure 100/67 mmHg, and temperature 37.9ºC. She is able to tolerate oral fluids and small amounts of food. Adequate fluid resuscitation and antibiotics are initiated. What should be done regarding her regular medications?
Your Answer: Hold methotrexate and start IV methylprednisolone
Correct Answer: Hold methotrexate and increase prednisolone to 10mg once daily
Explanation:The patient is likely septic and has already received antibiotics and fluids as mentioned in the question. It is important to hold her immunosuppression, which means methotrexate should not be administered. As she is on long-term steroid therapy, doubling the dose is necessary to prevent Addisonian crisis.
Once the patient has been adequately resuscitated and treated, a referral to rheumatology can be considered. However, at present, the focus should be on managing her sepsis rather than her rheumatoid arthritis.
Methotrexate is an antimetabolite that hinders the activity of dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme that is crucial for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is a significant drug that can effectively control diseases, but its side-effects can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential. Methotrexate is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, especially rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. However, it can cause adverse effects such as mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis.
Women should avoid pregnancy for at least six months after stopping methotrexate treatment, and men using methotrexate should use effective contraception for at least six months after treatment. Prescribing methotrexate requires familiarity with guidelines relating to its use. It is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. Folic acid 5mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after methotrexate dose. The starting dose of methotrexate is 7.5 mg weekly, and only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed.
It is important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia. High-dose aspirin also increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity due to reduced excretion. In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Overall, methotrexate is a potent drug that requires careful prescribing and monitoring to ensure its effectiveness and safety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 2
Correct
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A 70-year-old man with a history of chronic lymphocytic leukaemia presents to the Emergency Department with worsening proximal myopathy and bone pain in his arms and legs. Laboratory results show significantly low levels of phosphate, and urine testing reveals the presence of glycosuria despite normal serum glucose levels. What is the most likely diagnosis for this patient's symptoms?
Your Answer: Oncogenic osteomalacia
Explanation:Differential Diagnosis for Hypophosphatemia
Hypophosphatemia, or low levels of phosphate in the blood, can be caused by various conditions. Two possible causes are oncogenic osteomalacia and hypoparathyroidism. However, based on the given information, hypoparathyroidism is unlikely as there has been no surgery that could have led to secondary hypoparathyroidism.
Oncogenic osteomalacia is associated with certain tumors, including mesenchymal tumors, adenocarcinomas, and hematological malignancies. These tumors produce a phosphaturic substance, such as fibroblast growth factor 23 (FGF23), which decreases reabsorption of phosphate and production of 1,25-dihydroxy vitamin D by the kidney. This results in hypophosphatemia, causing symptoms such as rickets, osteomalacia, bone pain, muscle weakness, and fractures. Treatment involves vitamin D metabolites and phosphate supplements, and removal of the primary tumor can also improve symptoms.
Another possible cause of hypophosphatemia is X-linked hypophosphatemia, which presents with symptoms of rickets in childhood and is treated with calcitriol and phosphate supplementation. Tumour lysis syndrome, associated with induction chemotherapy, and hyperparathyroidism, associated with hypercalcemia and renal impairment, are other differential diagnoses that can be ruled out based on the given information.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 3
Incorrect
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A 50-year-old woman presents to rheumatology with newly developed Raynaud's phenomenon and no prior medical history. Upon examination, her fingers appear cool and pale, with hardened and thickened skin extending from her hands to mid-forearms. Additionally, small dilated blood vessels are present on her hands and face. Her blood test reveals a positive anti Scl-70 result. What is the leading cause of mortality associated with this condition?
Your Answer: Cardiac arrhythmia
Correct Answer: Interstitial lung disease
Explanation:The leading cause of death in systemic sclerosis is respiratory involvement, specifically interstitial lung disease and pulmonary arterial hypertension. In this case, the patient’s positive Scl-70 antibody suggests an increased risk for interstitial lung disease. While cardiac arrhythmias can occur in systemic sclerosis, they are not a significant cause of mortality. While primary biliary cirrhosis and autoimmune hepatitis can occur in this condition, they are relatively rare complications and not associated with the same mortality as interstitial lung disease. Although patients with systemic sclerosis are at higher risk of infectious complications, interstitial lung disease remains the most common cause of mortality in this condition.
Understanding Systemic Sclerosis
Systemic sclerosis is a condition that affects the skin and other connective tissues, but its cause is still unknown. It is more common in females than males, with three patterns of the disease. The first pattern is limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis, which is characterised by Raynaud’s as the first sign, scleroderma affecting the face and distal limbs, and associated with anti-centromere antibodies. A subtype of this pattern is CREST syndrome, which includes Calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, Oesophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, and Telangiectasia.
The second pattern is diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis, which affects the trunk and proximal limbs, and is associated with scl-70 antibodies. This pattern has a poor prognosis, with respiratory involvement being the most common cause of death, including interstitial lung disease and pulmonary arterial hypertension. Other complications include renal disease and hypertension, and patients with renal disease should be started on an ACE inhibitor.
The third pattern is scleroderma without internal organ involvement, which is characterised by tightening and fibrosis of the skin, manifesting as plaques or linear. Antibodies play a significant role in systemic sclerosis, with ANA positive in 90% of cases, RF positive in 30%, anti-scl-70 antibodies associated with diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis, and anti-centromere antibodies associated with limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 4
Incorrect
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A 42-year-old woman comes to the clinic complaining of tightening in her fingers, mild difficulty swallowing, and mild shortness of breath when exerting herself. She is currently taking pantoprazole for her reflux. During the examination, the doctor notices tightening of the skin in her fingers, but the rest of her skin appears normal. There is no inflammation in her joints, and the rest of her examination is unremarkable, including her chest examination. Her chest X-ray also appears normal, but there is a slight decrease in DLCO on her lung function tests. Which antibodies are indicative of the underlying diagnosis?
Your Answer: Anti-Scl-70 antibody
Correct Answer: Anti-centromere antibody
Explanation:Previously, scleroderma patients were most likely to die from renal crisis. However, the use of ACE inhibitors as a form of intensive treatment has been effective in decreasing this danger. While anti-dsDNA and Rh factor are signs of SLE, RA/Sjogrens, or other conditions, there are no indications of arthritis or skin rashes.
Understanding Systemic Sclerosis
Systemic sclerosis is a condition that affects the skin and other connective tissues, but its cause is still unknown. It is more common in females than males, with three patterns of the disease. The first pattern is limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis, which is characterised by Raynaud’s as the first sign, scleroderma affecting the face and distal limbs, and associated with anti-centromere antibodies. A subtype of this pattern is CREST syndrome, which includes Calcinosis, Raynaud’s phenomenon, Oesophageal dysmotility, Sclerodactyly, and Telangiectasia.
The second pattern is diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis, which affects the trunk and proximal limbs, and is associated with scl-70 antibodies. This pattern has a poor prognosis, with respiratory involvement being the most common cause of death, including interstitial lung disease and pulmonary arterial hypertension. Other complications include renal disease and hypertension, and patients with renal disease should be started on an ACE inhibitor.
The third pattern is scleroderma without internal organ involvement, which is characterised by tightening and fibrosis of the skin, manifesting as plaques or linear. Antibodies play a significant role in systemic sclerosis, with ANA positive in 90% of cases, RF positive in 30%, anti-scl-70 antibodies associated with diffuse cutaneous systemic sclerosis, and anti-centromere antibodies associated with limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 5
Incorrect
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A 60-year-old man with a history of Rheumatoid Arthritis and currently taking sulfasalazine is referred to the medical team by his GP due to severe and persistent flu-like symptoms and abnormal blood test results. Upon examination, his temperature is 38.3 degrees Celsius, heart rate is 104 beats per minute, respiratory rate is 31 breaths per minute, and oxygen saturation is 92% on room air. His blood test shows a hemoglobin level of 82 g/L, platelet count of 52 * 10^9/L, white blood cell count of 18 * 10^9/L, ferritin level of 50,000 ng/mL, and a positive EBV Monospot test.
Initially, he is treated for neutropenic sepsis with broad-spectrum antibiotics and is transferred to the intensive care unit for organ support. However, his condition does not improve, and he is subsequently evaluated by a hematologist who performs a bone marrow aspirate, revealing haemophagocytosis. What is the most probable underlying diagnosis?Your Answer: Parvovirus infection
Correct Answer: Macrophage activation syndrome
Explanation:The condition known as macrophage activation syndrome is identified by an overactive immune response and cytokine storm in a patient with a rheumatological condition who also has an EBV infection. There is no indication of a parvovirus infection in the scenario presented.
Understanding Macrophage Activation Syndrome
Macrophage activation syndrome is a rare condition that is linked to rheumatological disorders like rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, and juvenile idiopathic arthritis. It is characterized by a decrease in the number of blood cells and an intercurrent infection, particularly the Epstein-Barr virus. If left untreated, the disease can be fatal within two months.
To diagnose the condition, doctors may perform a bone marrow aspiration to check for haemophagocytosis, which is the key feature of the disease. Other symptoms include excessive hyperferritinemia, elevated triglycerides, deranged liver function tests, and hypofibrinogenemia.
The treatment for macrophage activation syndrome involves immunosuppression. It is important to recognize the symptoms of this rare condition and seek medical attention promptly to prevent serious complications. Proper diagnosis and treatment can help improve the prognosis for those affected by this disorder.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 6
Incorrect
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A 30-year-old woman with SLE (positive for antinuclear antibody [1:6400] and anti-dsDNA antibody) presents with a few months of feeling generally unwell, tiredness, malar rash, and marked pedal edema. She denies any history of breathlessness.
During examination, her blood pressure is 130/90 mm Hg, and her urine shows 4+ protein and 2+ hematuria. She has normal heart sounds, but reduced breath sounds at both lung bases. Blood tests reveal a creatinine level of 147, and a renal biopsy shows widespread deposition of IgG within the glomeruli.
What is the most likely cause of these findings?Your Answer: Mesangial glomerulonephritis
Correct Answer: Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis
Explanation:The renal manifestations of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) are highly variable and difficult to classify. Lupus nephritis affects a third of patients early in the disease, but is frequently unrecognised until nephritic and/or nephrotic syndrome with renal failure occur. Histologically, a number of different types of renal disease are recognised in SLE, with immune-complex mediated glomerular disease being the most common. The up to date International Society of Nephrology/Renal Pathology Society 2003 classification divides these into six different patterns. Treatment with immunosuppressive therapy is required in cases of diffuse glomerulonephritis to prevent progression to end-stage renal failure. A biopsy is indicated in those patients with abnormal urinalysis and/or reduced renal function to provide a histological classification as well as information regarding activity, chronicity and prognosis.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 7
Correct
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A 45-year-old non-smoking woman presents with weakness in her left arm (power 3/5) and left-sided facial drooping. These symptoms resolve within an hour of being examined by the admitting doctor. She has normal heart sounds, peripheral pulses, and is in sinus rhythm. As part of her workup, she undergoes blood tests and other investigations. The results show thrombocytopenia, no schistocytes, and the following values: Hb 130 g/L (115-165), WBC 9.5 ×109/L (4-11), Neutrophils 72% (40-75), Platelet 75 ×109/L (150-400), ESR 8 mm/hr (0-15), INR 1.0 (<1.4), aPTT 50 seconds (30-40 seconds), and aPTT did not normalize after addition of plasma. Urea, electrolytes, and creatinine are normal, and CT head and echocardiogram are also normal. What is the most likely cause of her symptoms?
Your Answer: Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome
Explanation:Antiphospholipid Antibody Syndrome and Thrombotic Thrombocytopenic Purpura
Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome is a condition characterized by a prothrombotic state in the body, despite laboratory tests indicating an anticoagulant state. This is caused by the presence of antiphospholipid antibodies, such as anticardiolipin and lupus anticoagulant, which lead to coagulation defects in vitro. However, in vivo, these antibodies can cause arterial and venous thromboses, as well as thrombocytopenia.
On the other hand, thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura is a severe systemic illness that presents with a classic pentad of symptoms, including microangiopathic hemolytic anemia, thrombocytopenia, renal dysfunction, neurologic abnormalities, and fever. While it is rare to find all five symptoms in a patient, the presence of any combination of these symptoms should raise suspicion for TTP.
It is important to note that protein C/S deficiency and idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura do not lead to the same symptoms as antiphospholipid antibody syndrome or TTP. Therefore, proper diagnosis and management are crucial in ensuring the best possible outcomes for patients with these conditions.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 8
Correct
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A 27-year-old woman presents with a rash on her face, neck, and trunk. The rash is ill-defined, polycyclic, erythematous, and some areas are papular with scaling. Some of the rash has healed without scarring. Exposure to sunlight exacerbates the rash. She has no other significant medical history.
Her blood tests show a hemoglobin level of 111 g/L (normal range: 115-165), a white blood cell count of 8.9 ×109/L (normal range: 4-11), neutrophils at 89% (normal range: 40-75), and a platelet count of 166 ×109/L (normal range: 150-400). Her ESR is 16 mm/hr (normal range: 0-20) and CRP is 3 mg/L (normal range: <10). Urea, electrolytes, and creatinine are normal. She tests positive for anti-nuclear antibody at a titer of 1:320, negative for anti-dsDNA antibody, positive for anti-Ro antibody, and negative for anti-La antibody.
What is the likely diagnosis?Your Answer: Subacute cutaneous lupus erythematosus
Explanation:Cutaneous Lupus Erythematosus
Cutaneous lupus erythematosus (CLE) is a skin disease that may occur as part of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) or as a separate condition without any systemic disease. There are three types of CLE: discoid lupus erythematosus (DLE), subacute cutaneous lupus erythematosus (SACLE), and acute cutaneous lupus erythematosus (ACLE). While DLE presents as well-defined scaly plaques that heal with central scarring, ACLE presents as diffuse erythema, maculopapular rash, photosensitivity, and oral ulcers.
SACLE is a classic type of CLE that is ANA positive in 60% of patients. However, only 10-15% of patients with SACLE progress to SLE with moderate disease activity. On the other hand, 80% of SACLE patients are anti-Ro antibody positive. It is important to note that while some types of CLE may progress to SLE, others may not. ACLE, for instance, often accompanies a flare of systemic disease.
In summary, the different types of CLE and their characteristics is crucial in diagnosing and managing lupus erythematosus. While some types may progress to SLE, others may not, and it is important to monitor patients closely to ensure timely intervention and treatment.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 9
Incorrect
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A 28-year-old woman visits her primary care physician after returning from a 2-week trip to India. She reports discomfort while urinating and occasionally passing cloudy urine resembling pus. Additionally, she experiences joint pain, particularly in her knees and ankles, and itchy eyes. During the examination, a psoriasis-like rash is observed on her hands.
Based on the probable diagnosis, which of the following treatments would be most appropriate for managing this condition?Your Answer: Prednisolone 40 mg po daily
Correct Answer: Doxycycline 100 mg bd
Explanation:Treatment Options for Reactive Arthritis with Keratoderma Blennorrhagica
Reactive arthritis is a type of spondyloarthritis caused by a previous gastrointestinal or urogenital infection. The possible pathogens include Chlamydia trachomatis, Yersinia, Salmonella, Shigella, Campylobacter, E. coli, Clostridium difficile, and Chlamydia pneumoniae. In this case, the patient’s social history and symptoms suggest a Chlamydia infection, which can also cause keratoderma blennorrhagica.
The treatment for reactive arthritis involves addressing the underlying infection and using NSAIDs for symptomatic relief. Doxycycline 100 mg bd is a suitable antibiotic for Chlamydia infection. Methotrexate 2.5 mg po weekly and azathioprine are not recommended for reactive arthritis and are more commonly used for other types of arthritis.
Prednisolone 40 mg po daily is not suggested for reactive arthritis, but intra-articular steroid injections can be used for those who do not respond to oral NSAIDs. Coal tar skin creams can be used to treat the psoriatic-type rash, which is more likely keratoderma blennorrhagica in this case. Topical steroids or salicylates are also effective treatments for this condition.
In summary, the treatment options for reactive arthritis with keratoderma blennorrhagica include antibiotics for the underlying infection, NSAIDs for symptomatic relief, intra-articular steroid injections for non-responsive cases, and topical creams for the skin rash.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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Question 10
Correct
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A 56-year-old woman with a history of rheumatoid arthritis is currently receiving a weekly dose of 15mg of methotrexate. During her routine check-up, her blood tests reveal a significant decrease in her cell counts, indicating methotrexate induced bone marrow failure.
Hemoglobin: 110 g/l
Platelets: 135* 109/l
White blood cells: 3 * 109/l
Neutrophils: 1.9*109/l
What is the most appropriate course of action for managing this patient's condition?Your Answer: Folinic acid
Explanation:Folinic acid is the preferred remedy for addressing the harmful effects of methotrexate.
To manage the myelosuppressive effects resulting from her methotrexate treatment, the recommended course of action is to administer folinic acid rescue therapy.
Methotrexate is an antimetabolite that hinders the activity of dihydrofolate reductase, an enzyme that is crucial for the synthesis of purines and pyrimidines. It is a significant drug that can effectively control diseases, but its side-effects can be life-threatening. Therefore, careful prescribing and close monitoring are essential. Methotrexate is commonly used to treat inflammatory arthritis, especially rheumatoid arthritis, psoriasis, and acute lymphoblastic leukaemia. However, it can cause adverse effects such as mucositis, myelosuppression, pneumonitis, pulmonary fibrosis, and liver fibrosis.
Women should avoid pregnancy for at least six months after stopping methotrexate treatment, and men using methotrexate should use effective contraception for at least six months after treatment. Prescribing methotrexate requires familiarity with guidelines relating to its use. It is taken weekly, and FBC, U&E, and LFTs need to be regularly monitored. Folic acid 5mg once weekly should be co-prescribed, taken more than 24 hours after methotrexate dose. The starting dose of methotrexate is 7.5 mg weekly, and only one strength of methotrexate tablet should be prescribed.
It is important to avoid prescribing trimethoprim or co-trimoxazole concurrently as it increases the risk of marrow aplasia. High-dose aspirin also increases the risk of methotrexate toxicity due to reduced excretion. In case of methotrexate toxicity, the treatment of choice is folinic acid. Overall, methotrexate is a potent drug that requires careful prescribing and monitoring to ensure its effectiveness and safety.
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This question is part of the following fields:
- Rheumatology
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