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  • Question 1 - A teenager is diagnosed with a condition that you identify as a notifiable...

    Correct

    • A teenager is diagnosed with a condition that you identify as a notifiable infection. You fill out the notification form and reach out to the local health protection team.
      Which of the following is the LEAST probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Ophthalmia neonatorum

      Explanation:

      Public Health England (PHE) has a primary goal of promptly identifying potential disease outbreaks and epidemics. While accuracy of diagnosis is important, it is not the main focus. Since 1968, clinical suspicion of a notifiable infection has been sufficient for reporting.
      Registered medical practitioners (RMPs) are legally obligated to notify the designated proper officer at their local council or local health protection team (HPT) if they suspect cases of certain infectious diseases.
      The Health Protection (Notification) Regulations 2010 specify the diseases that RMPs must report to the proper officers at local authorities. These diseases include acute encephalitis, acute infectious hepatitis, acute meningitis, acute poliomyelitis, anthrax, botulism, brucellosis, cholera, COVID-19, diphtheria, enteric fever (typhoid or paratyphoid fever), food poisoning, haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS), infectious bloody diarrhoea, invasive group A streptococcal disease, Legionnaires’ disease, leprosy, malaria, measles, meningococcal septicaemia, mumps, plague, rabies, rubella, severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS), scarlet fever, smallpox, tetanus, tuberculosis, typhus, viral haemorrhagic fever (VHF), whooping cough, and yellow fever. However, as of April 2010, ophthalmia neonatorum is no longer considered a notifiable disease in the UK.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      20.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - You evaluate a 30-year-old woman with a confirmed diagnosis of HIV. She inquires...

    Correct

    • You evaluate a 30-year-old woman with a confirmed diagnosis of HIV. She inquires about her diagnosis and has some questions for you.
      Choose from the options provided below the ONE CD4 count that indicates advanced HIV disease (also referred to as AIDS).

      Your Answer: 200 cells/mm3

      Explanation:

      A normal CD4 count ranges from 500-1000 cells/mm3. In individuals diagnosed with HIV, the CD4 count is typically monitored every 3-6 months. It is important to note that the CD4 count can fluctuate on a daily basis and can be influenced by the timing of the blood test as well as the presence of other infections or illnesses.

      When the CD4 count falls below 350 cells/mm3, it is recommended to consider starting antiretroviral therapy. A CD4 count below 200 cells/mm3 is indicative of advanced HIV disease, also known as AIDS defining.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      10.5
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A 70 year old male who underwent aortic valve replacement 2 months ago...

    Correct

    • A 70 year old male who underwent aortic valve replacement 2 months ago presents to the emergency department with a 4 day history of fever, fatigue, and overall malaise. The initial observations are as follows:

      Temperature: 38.7ºC
      Pulse rate: 126 bpm
      Blood pressure: 132/76 mmHg
      Respiration rate: 24 bpm
      Oxygen saturation: 96% on room air

      During the examination, splinter hemorrhages are observed on the patient's fingernails, leading to a suspicion of infective endocarditis. What is the most likely causative organism in this particular case?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus

      Explanation:

      In this case, a 70-year-old male who recently underwent aortic valve replacement is presenting with symptoms of fever, fatigue, and overall malaise. Upon examination, splinter hemorrhages are observed on the patient’s fingernails, which raises suspicion of infective endocarditis. Given the patient’s history and symptoms, the most likely causative organism in this particular case is Staphylococcus.

      Further Reading:

      Infective endocarditis (IE) is an infection that affects the innermost layer of the heart, known as the endocardium. It is most commonly caused by bacteria, although it can also be caused by fungi or viruses. IE can be classified as acute, subacute, or chronic depending on the duration of illness. Risk factors for IE include IV drug use, valvular heart disease, prosthetic valves, structural congenital heart disease, previous episodes of IE, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, immune suppression, chronic inflammatory conditions, and poor dental hygiene.

      The epidemiology of IE has changed in recent years, with Staphylococcus aureus now being the most common causative organism in most industrialized countries. Other common organisms include coagulase-negative staphylococci, streptococci, and enterococci. The distribution of causative organisms varies depending on whether the patient has a native valve, prosthetic valve, or is an IV drug user.

      Clinical features of IE include fever, heart murmurs (most commonly aortic regurgitation), non-specific constitutional symptoms, petechiae, splinter hemorrhages, Osler’s nodes, Janeway’s lesions, Roth’s spots, arthritis, splenomegaly, meningism/meningitis, stroke symptoms, and pleuritic pain.

      The diagnosis of IE is based on the modified Duke criteria, which require the presence of certain major and minor criteria. Major criteria include positive blood cultures with typical microorganisms and positive echocardiogram findings. Minor criteria include fever, vascular phenomena, immunological phenomena, and microbiological phenomena. Blood culture and echocardiography are key tests for diagnosing IE.

      In summary, infective endocarditis is an infection of the innermost layer of the heart that is most commonly caused by bacteria. It can be classified as acute, subacute, or chronic and can be caused by a variety of risk factors. Staphylococcus aureus is now the most common causative organism in most industrialized countries. Clinical features include fever, heart murmurs, and various other symptoms. The diagnosis is based on the modified Duke criteria, which require the presence of certain major and minor criteria. Blood culture and echocardiography are important tests for diagnosing IE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      22.8
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  • Question 4 - A patient with a previous complaint of upper abdominal pain and frequent bowel...

    Correct

    • A patient with a previous complaint of upper abdominal pain and frequent bowel movements is diagnosed with a tapeworm infection. The infection was acquired after consuming a pork dish that was contaminated with the parasite.

      Which of the following organisms is the most probable cause of this infestation?

      Your Answer: Taenia solium

      Explanation:

      Two types of tapeworms, Taenia solium and Taenia saginata, can infest humans. Infestation occurs when people consume meat from intermediate hosts that contain the parasite’s tissue stages. Tapeworms compete for nutrients and infestation is often without symptoms. However, in more severe cases, individuals may experience epigastric pain, diarrhea, and vomiting. Diagnosis involves identifying characteristic eggs in the patient’s stool.

      Taenia solium infestation can also lead to a condition called cysticercosis. This occurs when larval cysts infiltrate and spread throughout the lung, liver, eye, or brain. Cysticercosis presents with neurological symptoms, seizures, and impaired vision. Confirmation of cysticercosis involves the presence of antibodies and imaging tests such as chest X-rays and CT brain scans.

      The treatment for tapeworm infestation is highly effective and involves the use of medications like niclosamide or praziquantel. However, it is important to seek specialist advice when managing Taenia infections in the central nervous system, as severe inflammatory reactions can occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      12.4
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  • Question 5 - You are asked to evaluate a 14 year old who has arrived at...

    Correct

    • You are asked to evaluate a 14 year old who has arrived at the emergency department with a sore throat, fatigue, and fever lasting for 5 days. After conducting your examination, you inform the patient that you suspect she may have mononucleosis.

      Which of the following is a commonly known complication of mononucleosis?

      Your Answer: Splenic rupture

      Explanation:

      Glandular fever, also known as infectious mononucleosis, can lead to a rare but potentially life-threatening complication called splenic rupture. Although splenomegaly (enlarged spleen) is common in glandular fever, it often does not cause any symptoms and cannot be felt during a physical examination. However, this increases the risk of splenic rupture, which can occur spontaneously or with minimal trauma. The spleen typically reaches its maximum size around two weeks into the illness before gradually shrinking. To prevent splenic rupture, patients are advised to avoid heavy lifting and contact sports for at least one month from the onset of the illness. Other complications of glandular fever include prolonged fatigue, mild hepatitis leading to jaundice, thrombocytopenia (low platelet count) with an increased risk of bleeding, neurological conditions such as Guillain-Barré syndrome, optic neuritis, Bell’s palsy, myocarditis, and nephritis.

      Further Reading:

      Glandular fever, also known as infectious mononucleosis or mono, is a clinical syndrome characterized by symptoms such as sore throat, fever, and swollen lymph nodes. It is primarily caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), with other viruses and infections accounting for the remaining cases. Glandular fever is transmitted through infected saliva and primarily affects adolescents and young adults. The incubation period is 4-8 weeks.

      The majority of EBV infections are asymptomatic, with over 95% of adults worldwide having evidence of prior infection. Clinical features of glandular fever include fever, sore throat, exudative tonsillitis, lymphadenopathy, and prodromal symptoms such as fatigue and headache. Splenomegaly (enlarged spleen) and hepatomegaly (enlarged liver) may also be present, and a non-pruritic macular rash can sometimes occur.

      Glandular fever can lead to complications such as splenic rupture, which increases the risk of rupture in the spleen. Approximately 50% of splenic ruptures associated with glandular fever are spontaneous, while the other 50% follow trauma. Diagnosis of glandular fever involves various investigations, including viral serology for EBV, monospot test, and liver function tests. Additional serology tests may be conducted if EBV testing is negative.

      Management of glandular fever involves supportive care and symptomatic relief with simple analgesia. Antiviral medication has not been shown to be beneficial. It is important to identify patients at risk of serious complications, such as airway obstruction, splenic rupture, and dehydration, and provide appropriate management. Patients can be advised to return to normal activities as soon as possible, avoiding heavy lifting and contact sports for the first month to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.

      Rare but serious complications associated with glandular fever include hepatitis, upper airway obstruction, cardiac complications, renal complications, neurological complications, haematological complications, chronic fatigue, and an increased risk of lymphoproliferative cancers and multiple sclerosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      6.5
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A 45 year old patient is brought to the emergency department (ED) by...

    Incorrect

    • A 45 year old patient is brought to the emergency department (ED) by a family member. The patient began experiencing coughing symptoms ten days ago, but within the past 48 hours, they have developed a high fever, difficulty breathing during mild exertion, and the family reports that the patient appears confused. It is noted that the patient is currently taking azathioprine for the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis.

      Upon assessing the patient's vital signs, you decide to initiate the sepsis 6 pathway. What is the recommended timeframe for implementing the 'sepsis six'?

      Your Answer: 30 minutes

      Correct Answer: 1 hour

      Explanation:

      The sepsis 6 pathway is a time-sensitive protocol that should be started promptly and all 6 initial steps should be completed within 1 hour. It is important not to confuse the sepsis 6 pathway with the 6 hour care bundle. Time is of the essence when managing septic patients, and initiating the sepsis 6 pathway immediately has been proven to enhance survival rates in sepsis patients.

      Further Reading:

      There are multiple definitions of sepsis, leading to confusion among healthcare professionals. The Sepsis 3 definition describes sepsis as life-threatening organ dysfunction caused by a dysregulated host response to infection. The Sepsis 2 definition includes infection plus two or more SIRS criteria. The NICE definition states that sepsis is a clinical syndrome triggered by the presence of infection in the blood, activating the body’s immune and coagulation systems. The Sepsis Trust defines sepsis as a dysregulated host response to infection mediated by the immune system, resulting in organ dysfunction, shock, and potentially death.

      The confusion surrounding sepsis terminology is further compounded by the different versions of sepsis definitions, known as Sepsis 1, Sepsis 2, and Sepsis 3. The UK organizations RCEM and NICE have not fully adopted the changes introduced in Sepsis 3, causing additional confusion. While Sepsis 3 introduces the use of SOFA scores and abandons SIRS criteria, NICE and the Sepsis Trust have rejected the use of SOFA scores and continue to rely on SIRS criteria. This discrepancy creates challenges for emergency department doctors in both exams and daily clinical practice.

      To provide some clarity, RCEM now recommends referring to national standards organizations such as NICE, SIGN, BTS, or others relevant to the area. The Sepsis Trust, in collaboration with RCEM and NICE, has published a toolkit that serves as a definitive reference point for sepsis management based on the sepsis 3 update.

      There is a consensus internationally that the terms SIRS and severe sepsis are outdated and should be abandoned. Instead, the terms sepsis and septic shock should be used. NICE defines septic shock as a life-threatening condition characterized by low blood pressure despite adequate fluid replacement and organ dysfunction or failure. Sepsis 3 defines septic shock as persisting hypotension requiring vasopressors to maintain a mean arterial pressure of 65 mmHg or more, along with a serum lactate level greater than 2 mmol/l despite adequate volume resuscitation.

      NICE encourages clinicians to adopt an approach of considering sepsis in all patients, rather than relying solely on strict definitions. Early warning or flag systems can help identify patients with possible sepsis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      16.2
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  • Question 7 - You review a 30-year-old woman with a known diagnosis of HIV. She asks...

    Incorrect

    • You review a 30-year-old woman with a known diagnosis of HIV. She asks you some questions about her diagnosis.
      What is the median incubation period from HIV infection until the development of advanced HIV disease (also referred to as AIDS)?

      Your Answer: 2 years

      Correct Answer: 10 years

      Explanation:

      The estimated median incubation period from HIV infection to the onset of advanced HIV disease, also known as AIDS, is around ten years.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      5.7
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  • Question 8 - A 25-year-old bartender presents to the emergency department complaining of feeling unwell for...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old bartender presents to the emergency department complaining of feeling unwell for the past week. He has been experiencing muscle aches, headaches, and fatigue. This morning, he woke up with a severely sore throat and noticed the presence of pus in the back of his throat. Upon examination, the patient has a temperature of 38.4ºC and both tonsils are covered in white exudate. Additionally, he has tender enlarged cervical lymph nodes and tenderness in the left and right upper quadrants of his abdomen, with a palpable liver edge.

      What is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?

      Your Answer: Epstein-Barr virus

      Explanation:

      This individual is experiencing early symptoms such as tiredness, swollen tonsils with discharge, enlarged lymph nodes, and an enlarged liver. Additionally, they fall within the typical age group for developing glandular fever (infectious mononucleosis). Epstein-Barr virus (EBV) is responsible for the majority of glandular fever cases.

      Further Reading:

      Glandular fever, also known as infectious mononucleosis or mono, is a clinical syndrome characterized by symptoms such as sore throat, fever, and swollen lymph nodes. It is primarily caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), with other viruses and infections accounting for the remaining cases. Glandular fever is transmitted through infected saliva and primarily affects adolescents and young adults. The incubation period is 4-8 weeks.

      The majority of EBV infections are asymptomatic, with over 95% of adults worldwide having evidence of prior infection. Clinical features of glandular fever include fever, sore throat, exudative tonsillitis, lymphadenopathy, and prodromal symptoms such as fatigue and headache. Splenomegaly (enlarged spleen) and hepatomegaly (enlarged liver) may also be present, and a non-pruritic macular rash can sometimes occur.

      Glandular fever can lead to complications such as splenic rupture, which increases the risk of rupture in the spleen. Approximately 50% of splenic ruptures associated with glandular fever are spontaneous, while the other 50% follow trauma. Diagnosis of glandular fever involves various investigations, including viral serology for EBV, monospot test, and liver function tests. Additional serology tests may be conducted if EBV testing is negative.

      Management of glandular fever involves supportive care and symptomatic relief with simple analgesia. Antiviral medication has not been shown to be beneficial. It is important to identify patients at risk of serious complications, such as airway obstruction, splenic rupture, and dehydration, and provide appropriate management. Patients can be advised to return to normal activities as soon as possible, avoiding heavy lifting and contact sports for the first month to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.

      Rare but serious complications associated with glandular fever include hepatitis, upper airway obstruction, cardiac complications, renal complications, neurological complications, haematological complications, chronic fatigue, and an increased risk of lymphoproliferative cancers and multiple sclerosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      45.6
      Seconds
  • Question 9 - A 35 year old female presents to the emergency department complaining of loose...

    Correct

    • A 35 year old female presents to the emergency department complaining of loose watery stools, abdominal cramps, and intermittent vomiting for the past 48 hours. The patient mentions that several of her coworkers have been absent from work due to a stomach virus. Based on these symptoms and history, what is the most probable causative organism for this patient's condition?

      Your Answer: Norovirus

      Explanation:

      Norovirus is the leading cause of gastroenteritis in adults in the UK. Viruses are responsible for the majority of cases of infectious diarrhea, with norovirus being the most common culprit in adults. Among young children, rotavirus is the primary pathogen, although its prevalence has decreased since the introduction of a rotavirus vaccine. As of 2023, rotavirus remains the most common cause of viral gastroenteritis in children.

      Further Reading:

      Gastroenteritis is a transient disorder characterized by the sudden onset of diarrhea, with or without vomiting. It is caused by enteric infections with viruses, bacteria, or parasites. The most common viral causes of gastroenteritis in adults include norovirus, rotavirus, and adenovirus. Bacterial pathogens such as Campylobacter jejuni and coli, Escherichia coli, Clostridium perfringens, Bacillus cereus, Staphylococcus aureus, Salmonella typhi and paratyphi, and Shigella dysenteriae, flexneri, boydii, and sonnei can also cause gastroenteritis. Parasites such as Cryptosporidium, Entamoeba histolytica, and Giardia intestinalis or Giardia lamblia can also lead to diarrhea.

      Diagnosis of gastroenteritis is usually based on clinical symptoms, and investigations are not required in many cases. However, stool culture may be indicated in certain situations, such as when the patient is systemically unwell or immunocompromised, has acute painful diarrhea or blood in the stool suggesting dysentery, has recently taken antibiotics or acid-suppressing medications, or has not resolved diarrhea by day 7 or has recurrent diarrhea.

      Management of gastroenteritis in adults typically involves advice on oral rehydration. Intravenous rehydration and more intensive treatment may be necessary for patients who are systemically unwell, exhibit severe dehydration, or have intractable vomiting or high-output diarrhea. Antibiotics are not routinely required unless a specific organism is identified that requires treatment. Antidiarrheal drugs, antiemetics, and probiotics are not routinely recommended.

      Complications of gastroenteritis can occur, particularly in young children, the elderly, pregnant women, and immunocompromised individuals. These complications include dehydration, electrolyte disturbance, acute kidney injury, haemorrhagic colitis, haemolytic uraemic syndrome, reactive arthritis, Reiter’s syndrome, aortitis, osteomyelitis, sepsis, toxic megacolon, pancreatitis, sclerosing cholangitis, liver cirrhosis, weight loss, chronic diarrhea, irritable bowel syndrome, inflammatory bowel disease, acquired lactose intolerance, Guillain-Barré syndrome, meningitis, invasive entamoeba infection, and liver abscesses.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 10 - A 15 year old arrives at the emergency department complaining of a sore...

    Incorrect

    • A 15 year old arrives at the emergency department complaining of a sore throat, swollen glands, and feeling tired for the past 2 weeks. Upon examination, you inform the patient that you suspect they have mononucleosis.

      What would be the most suitable course of action?

      Your Answer: Discharge with prescription for aciclovir

      Correct Answer: Discharge with advise on analgesia

      Explanation:

      Glandular fever is typically treated with conservative management. It is a self-limiting illness that usually resolves within 2-4 weeks and can be effectively managed with over-the-counter pain relievers. Patients should also be informed about the expected duration of the illness, ways to minimize transmission, precautions to prevent complications like splenic rupture, and provided with appropriate support and guidance. These measures are outlined in the following notes.

      Further Reading:

      Glandular fever, also known as infectious mononucleosis or mono, is a clinical syndrome characterized by symptoms such as sore throat, fever, and swollen lymph nodes. It is primarily caused by the Epstein-Barr virus (EBV), with other viruses and infections accounting for the remaining cases. Glandular fever is transmitted through infected saliva and primarily affects adolescents and young adults. The incubation period is 4-8 weeks.

      The majority of EBV infections are asymptomatic, with over 95% of adults worldwide having evidence of prior infection. Clinical features of glandular fever include fever, sore throat, exudative tonsillitis, lymphadenopathy, and prodromal symptoms such as fatigue and headache. Splenomegaly (enlarged spleen) and hepatomegaly (enlarged liver) may also be present, and a non-pruritic macular rash can sometimes occur.

      Glandular fever can lead to complications such as splenic rupture, which increases the risk of rupture in the spleen. Approximately 50% of splenic ruptures associated with glandular fever are spontaneous, while the other 50% follow trauma. Diagnosis of glandular fever involves various investigations, including viral serology for EBV, monospot test, and liver function tests. Additional serology tests may be conducted if EBV testing is negative.

      Management of glandular fever involves supportive care and symptomatic relief with simple analgesia. Antiviral medication has not been shown to be beneficial. It is important to identify patients at risk of serious complications, such as airway obstruction, splenic rupture, and dehydration, and provide appropriate management. Patients can be advised to return to normal activities as soon as possible, avoiding heavy lifting and contact sports for the first month to reduce the risk of splenic rupture.

      Rare but serious complications associated with glandular fever include hepatitis, upper airway obstruction, cardiac complications, renal complications, neurological complications, haematological complications, chronic fatigue, and an increased risk of lymphoproliferative cancers and multiple sclerosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      9.6
      Seconds
  • Question 11 - A 45-year-old woman is brought to the hospital with a high temperature, cough,...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman is brought to the hospital with a high temperature, cough, and difficulty breathing. After conducting additional tests, she is diagnosed with a reportable illness. You fill out the notification form and reach out to the local health protection team.

      What is the most probable diagnosis in this case?

      Your Answer: Legionnaires’ disease

      Explanation:

      Public Health England (PHE) has the primary goal of promptly identifying potential disease outbreaks and epidemics. While accuracy of diagnosis is not the main focus, clinical suspicion of a notifiable infection has been sufficient since 1968.

      Registered medical practitioners (RMPs) are legally obligated to inform the designated proper officer at their local council or local health protection team (HPT) about suspected cases of specific infectious diseases.

      The Health Protection (Notification) Regulations 2010 outline the diseases that RMPs must report to the proper officers at local authorities. These diseases include acute encephalitis, acute infectious hepatitis, acute meningitis, acute poliomyelitis, anthrax, botulism, brucellosis, cholera, COVID-19, diphtheria, enteric fever (typhoid or paratyphoid fever), food poisoning, haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS), infectious bloody diarrhoea, invasive group A streptococcal disease, Legionnaires’ disease, leprosy, malaria, measles, meningococcal septicaemia, mumps, plague, rabies, rubella, severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS), scarlet fever, smallpox, tetanus, tuberculosis, typhus, viral haemorrhagic fever (VHF), whooping cough, and yellow fever.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0.6
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  • Question 12 - A 3-year-old girl presents with a temperature of 39 degrees. She appears fussy,...

    Incorrect

    • A 3-year-old girl presents with a temperature of 39 degrees. She appears fussy, and a non-blanching rash is observed on her abdomen. Tragically, she passes away later that day from Meningococcal septicaemia.

      To whom should a report be submitted?

      Your Answer: NHS England

      Correct Answer: Consultant in Communicable Disease Control

      Explanation:

      Registered medical practitioners in England and Wales are legally obligated to inform a designated official from the Local Authority if they suspect a patient has contracted specific infectious diseases. For more information on which diseases and their causative organisms require reporting, please refer to the following resource: Notifiable diseases and causative organisms: how to report.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      16.9
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  • Question 13 - A 6-year-old girl comes to her pediatrician complaining of a headache, neck stiffness,...

    Incorrect

    • A 6-year-old girl comes to her pediatrician complaining of a headache, neck stiffness, and sensitivity to light. Her vital signs are as follows: heart rate 124, blood pressure 86/43, respiratory rate 30, oxygen saturation 95%, and temperature 39.5oC. She has recently developed a rash of small red spots on her legs that do not fade when pressed.
      What is the MOST suitable next course of action in managing this patient?

      Your Answer: Give IV benzylpenicillin 900 mg

      Correct Answer: Give IM benzylpenicillin 600 mg

      Explanation:

      In a child with a non-blanching rash, it is important to consider the possibility of meningococcal septicaemia. This is especially true if the child appears unwell, has purpura (lesions larger than 2 mm in diameter), a capillary refill time of more than 3 seconds, or neck stiffness. In the UK, most cases of meningococcal septicaemia are caused by Neisseria meningitidis group B.

      In this particular case, the child is clearly very sick and showing signs of septic shock. It is crucial to administer a single dose of benzylpenicillin without delay and arrange for immediate transfer to the nearest Emergency Department via ambulance.

      The recommended doses of benzylpenicillin based on age are as follows:
      – Infants under 1 year of age: 300 mg of IM or IV benzylpenicillin
      – Children aged 1 to 9 years: 600 mg of IM or IV benzylpenicillin
      – Children and adults aged 10 years or older: 1.2 g of IM or IV benzylpenicillin.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
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  • Question 14 - A child under your supervision is diagnosed with a reportable illness.
    Which of the...

    Correct

    • A child under your supervision is diagnosed with a reportable illness.
      Which of the following is NOT currently a reportable illness?

      Your Answer: HIV

      Explanation:

      HIV is currently not considered a notifiable disease. The Health Protection (Notification) Regulations require the reporting of certain diseases, but HIV is not included in this list. The diseases that are currently considered notifiable include acute encephalitis, acute infectious hepatitis, acute meningitis, acute poliomyelitis, anthrax, botulism, brucellosis, cholera, COVID-19, diphtheria, enteric fever (typhoid or paratyphoid fever), food poisoning, haemolytic uraemic syndrome (HUS), infectious bloody diarrhea, invasive group A streptococcal disease, Legionnaires’ Disease, leprosy, malaria, measles, meningococcal septicaemia, mumps, plague, rabies, rubella, SARS, scarlet fever, smallpox, tetanus, tuberculosis, typhus, viral haemorrhagic fever (VHF), whooping cough, and yellow fever. If you want to learn more about notifiable diseases and the organisms that cause them, you can refer to the Notifiable diseases and causative organisms: how to report resource.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0.5
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  • Question 15 - You are asked to evaluate a 7-year-old boy who has arrived at the...

    Incorrect

    • You are asked to evaluate a 7-year-old boy who has arrived at the emergency department with a widespread maculopapular rash. The patient and his family have recently returned from a trip to Mexico. The mother is uncertain about the vaccinations the patient has received, and you have no access to medical records as the family relocated to the US from Mexico 8 months ago and have not yet registered with a primary care physician. You suspect Measles. What guidance should you provide to the patient's mother regarding school attendance?

      Your Answer: Exclude for 21 days from onset of symptoms

      Correct Answer: Exclude for 5 days from onset of rash

      Explanation:

      Children who have been diagnosed with Rubella, also known as German measles, should be advised to stay away from school for a period of 5 days from the onset of the rash. It is important to be familiar with the guidelines for excluding children from school due to infectious diseases that present with a rash.

      Further Reading:

      Rubella, also known as German measles, is a viral infection caused by the togavirus. It used to be more common before the introduction of the MMR vaccine, but now it is rare. Outbreaks of rubella are more common during the winter and spring seasons. The incubation period for rubella is 14-21 days, and individuals are infectious from 7 days before symptoms appear to 4-5 days after the onset of the rash.

      The features of rubella include a prodrome, which may include symptoms such as low-grade fever. The rash associated with rubella is maculopapular and initially appears on the face before spreading to the whole body. The rash usually fades by the 3-5 day. Lymphadenopathy, specifically suboccipital and postauricular, is also commonly seen in rubella cases.

      Complications of rubella can include arthritis, thrombocytopenia, encephalitis, and myocarditis. However, these complications are rare. Rubella can be particularly dangerous if contracted during pregnancy, as it can lead to congenital rubella syndrome. The risk of fetal damage is highest during the first 8-10 weeks of pregnancy, with a risk as high as 90%. Fetal damage is rare after 16 weeks. Congenital rubella syndrome can result in various complications such as sensorineural deafness, congenital cataracts, congenital heart disease, growth retardation, hepatosplenomegaly, purpuric skin lesions, ‘salt and pepper’ chorioretinitis, microphthalmia, and cerebral palsy.

      Diagnosis of rubella can be made by testing for raised IgM antibodies in women who have recently been exposed to the virus. Serological or PCR testing is the gold standard investigation for rubella. A testing kit can be obtained from the Local Health Protection Unit (HPU).

      There is no specific treatment for rubella. Antipyretics can be used to manage fever. It is advised to exclude individuals with rubella from school for 5 days from the onset of the rash. Infection during pregnancy should prompt referral to obstetrics. Rubella is a notifiable disease, meaning that it requires notification of the local authority or UKHSA health protection team.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      5.9
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  • Question 16 - A 25-year-old engineering student returns from a hiking trip in South America with...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old engineering student returns from a hiking trip in South America with a high temperature, body pains, and shivering. After further examination, they are diagnosed with malaria.

      Which of the following statements about malaria is correct?

      Your Answer: Plasmodium vivax is usually treated with quinine

      Correct Answer: Haemoglobinuria and renal failure following treatment is suggestive of Plasmodium falciparum

      Explanation:

      Plasmodium ovale has the longest incubation period, which can extend up to 40 days. On the other hand, Plasmodium falciparum has a shorter incubation period of 7-14 days. The transmission of malaria occurs through the female mosquitoes belonging to the Anopheles genus.

      Blackwater fever, which is caused by Plasmodium falciparum, can be indicated by the presence of haemoglobinuria and renal failure following treatment. This condition is a result of an autoimmune reaction between the parasite and quinine, leading to haemolysis, haemoglobinuria, jaundice, and renal failure. It is a potentially fatal complication. The diagnosis of malaria is typically done using the Indirect Fluorescence Antibody Test (IFAT).

      Currently, the recommended treatment for P. falciparum malaria is artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT). This involves combining fast-acting artemisinin-based compounds with a drug from a different class. Some companion drugs used in ACT include lumefantrine, mefloquine, amodiaquine, sulfadoxine/pyrimethamine, piperaquine, and chlorproguanil/dapsone. Artemisinin derivatives such as dihydroartemisinin, artesunate, and artemether are also used.

      In cases where artemisinin combination therapy is not available, oral quinine or atovaquone with proguanil hydrochloride can be used as an alternative. However, quinine is highly effective but not well-tolerated in prolonged treatment, so it is usually combined with another drug, typically oral doxycycline (or clindamycin in pregnant women and young children).

      Severe or complicated falciparum malaria requires management in a high dependency unit or intensive care setting. Intravenous artesunate is recommended for all patients with severe or complicated falciparum malaria, or those at high risk of developing severe disease (e.g., if more than 2% of red blood cells are parasitized), or if the patient is unable to take oral treatment. After a minimum of 24 hours of intravenous artesunate treatment and improvement in the patient’s condition, a full course of artemisinin combination therapy should be administered orally.

      The benign malarias, namely P. vivax, P. malariae, and P. ovale,

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      27.4
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  • Question 17 - A 28-year-old medical student has experienced a needlestick injury while working in the...

    Correct

    • A 28-year-old medical student has experienced a needlestick injury while working in the Emergency Department.
      Select from the list of options below the single correct seroconversion rate for the specified pathogen.

      Your Answer: 0.3% for percutaneous exposure to HIV-infected blood

      Explanation:

      The estimated rates of seroconversion are provided below:

      – Percutaneous exposure of a non-immune individual to an HBeAg positive contact results in a seroconversion rate of approximately 30%.

      – When exposed to HCV-infected blood with detectable RNA through percutaneous means, the seroconversion rate ranges from 0.5% to 1.8%.

      – Mucocutaneous exposure to HIV-infected blood leads to a seroconversion rate of 0.1%.

      – Lastly, percutaneous exposure to HIV-infected blood results in a seroconversion rate of 0.3%.

      Please note that these rates are estimates and may vary depending on individual circumstances.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      8.9
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  • Question 18 - A 70-year-old patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of fever, fatigue, and...

    Correct

    • A 70-year-old patient arrives at the emergency department complaining of fever, fatigue, and loss of appetite for the past 3 weeks. During the examination, you observe a pansystolic murmur that was not detected during a pre-operative assessment for a cholecystectomy 4 months ago. You start considering the likelihood of infective endocarditis. Which of the following symptoms is commonly associated with infective endocarditis?

      Your Answer: Janeway lesions

      Explanation:

      Infective endocarditis is a condition that can be identified by certain signs, although none of them are definitive proof of the disease. The most reliable indicators are the presence of a heart murmur and a fever. However, there are other signs that are commonly associated with infective endocarditis, including splinter hemorrhages, Osler’s nodes, Janeway lesions, and Roth spots. It is important to note that these signs can also appear in other conditions, and they are not always present in patients with infective endocarditis. In fact, each of these signs is typically found in less than a third of patients diagnosed with the disease.

      Further Reading:

      Infective endocarditis (IE) is an infection that affects the innermost layer of the heart, known as the endocardium. It is most commonly caused by bacteria, although it can also be caused by fungi or viruses. IE can be classified as acute, subacute, or chronic depending on the duration of illness. Risk factors for IE include IV drug use, valvular heart disease, prosthetic valves, structural congenital heart disease, previous episodes of IE, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, immune suppression, chronic inflammatory conditions, and poor dental hygiene.

      The epidemiology of IE has changed in recent years, with Staphylococcus aureus now being the most common causative organism in most industrialized countries. Other common organisms include coagulase-negative staphylococci, streptococci, and enterococci. The distribution of causative organisms varies depending on whether the patient has a native valve, prosthetic valve, or is an IV drug user.

      Clinical features of IE include fever, heart murmurs (most commonly aortic regurgitation), non-specific constitutional symptoms, petechiae, splinter hemorrhages, Osler’s nodes, Janeway’s lesions, Roth’s spots, arthritis, splenomegaly, meningism/meningitis, stroke symptoms, and pleuritic pain.

      The diagnosis of IE is based on the modified Duke criteria, which require the presence of certain major and minor criteria. Major criteria include positive blood cultures with typical microorganisms and positive echocardiogram findings. Minor criteria include fever, vascular phenomena, immunological phenomena, and microbiological phenomena. Blood culture and echocardiography are key tests for diagnosing IE.

      In summary, infective endocarditis is an infection of the innermost layer of the heart that is most commonly caused by bacteria. It can be classified as acute, subacute, or chronic and can be caused by a variety of risk factors. Staphylococcus aureus is now the most common causative organism in most industrialized countries. Clinical features include fever, heart murmurs, and various other symptoms. The diagnosis is based on the modified Duke criteria, which require the presence of certain major and minor criteria. Blood culture and echocardiography are important tests for diagnosing IE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0.8
      Seconds
  • Question 19 - A 25-year-old engineering student returns from a hiking trip in South America with...

    Incorrect

    • A 25-year-old engineering student returns from a hiking trip in South America with a high temperature, body aches, and shivering. After further examination, they are diagnosed with Plasmodium falciparum malaria.

      Which of the following statements about Plasmodium falciparum malaria is correct?

      Your Answer: Sporozoites invade the red blood cells of the host

      Correct Answer: There may be a continuous fever

      Explanation:

      Plasmodium falciparum malaria is transmitted by female mosquitoes of the Anopheles genus. The Aedes genus, on the other hand, is responsible for spreading diseases like dengue fever and yellow fever. The parasite enters hepatocytes and undergoes asexual reproduction, resulting in the release of merozoites into the bloodstream. These merozoites then invade the red blood cells of the host. The incubation period for Plasmodium falciparum malaria ranges from 7 to 14 days.

      The main symptom of malaria is known as the malarial paroxysm, which consists of a cyclical pattern of cold chills, followed by a stage of intense heat, and finally a period of profuse sweating as the fever subsides. However, some individuals may experience a continuous fever instead.

      Currently, the recommended treatment for P. falciparum malaria is artemisinin-based combination therapy (ACT). This involves combining fast-acting artemisinin-based compounds with drugs from a different class. Companion drugs used in ACT include lumefantrine, mefloquine, amodiaquine, sulfadoxine/pyrimethamine, piperaquine, and chlorproguanil/dapsone. Artemisinin derivatives such as dihydroartemisinin, artesunate, and artemether are also used.

      If artemisinin combination therapy is not available, oral quinine or atovaquone with proguanil hydrochloride can be used as an alternative. However, quinine is not well-tolerated for prolonged treatment and should be combined with another drug, typically oral doxycycline (or clindamycin for pregnant women and young children).

      Severe or complicated cases of falciparum malaria require specialized care in a high dependency unit or intensive care setting. Intravenous artesunate is recommended for all patients with severe or complicated falciparum malaria, as well as those at high risk of developing severe disease (e.g., if more than 2% of red blood cells are parasitized) or if the patient is unable to take oral treatment. After a minimum of 24 hours of intravenous artesunate treatment and improvement in the patient’s condition, a full course of artemisinin combination therapy should be administered orally.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      2.9
      Seconds
  • Question 20 - A 25-year-old woman presents with a 5-day history of a painful throat, high...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman presents with a 5-day history of a painful throat, high temperature, diarrhea, and muscle aches. Her temperature today is 38.6°C. Approximately 8 months ago, she began misusing intravenous drugs and acknowledges sharing needles. During the examination, you confirm the existence of lymph node swelling in the neck and armpits. Additionally, she has developed a widespread rash consisting of small raised bumps on her chest and abdomen.

      Select from the options below the most probable diagnosis.

      Your Answer: HIV seroconversion illness

      Explanation:

      This man is at high risk of contracting HIV due to his history of intravenous drug abuse and sharing needles. If a patient has a flu-like illness and a history of risk factors, it is important to suspect that they may be experiencing an HIV seroconversion illness.

      Around 20-60% of individuals who contract HIV go through a seroconversion illness. This typically occurs within 1 to 6 weeks after exposure and presents with symptoms similar to the flu. Common clinical features include fever, malaise, myalgia, pharyngitis, diarrhea, headaches, maculopapular rash, lymphadenopathy, and neuralgia.

      During this stage of the disease, antibody tests will show negative results. However, a diagnosis of HIV can still be made by conducting a P24 antigen test or measuring HIV RNA levels. CD4 and CD8 counts are usually within the normal range at this stage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      12.5
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  • Question 21 - A young toddler is brought in by his father with a high temperature...

    Incorrect

    • A young toddler is brought in by his father with a high temperature at home. The triage nurse measures his temperature again as part of her initial evaluation.

      Which SINGLE statement regarding temperature measurement in young children is accurate?

      Your Answer: Reported parental perception of a fever should not be considered valid until it has been confirmed by a healthcare professional

      Correct Answer: The rectal route should not be used to measure temperature

      Explanation:

      Reported parental perception of a fever should be regarded as valid and taken seriously by healthcare professionals.

      For infants under the age of 4 weeks, it is recommended to measure body temperature using an electronic thermometer in the axilla.

      In children aged 4 weeks to 5 years, body temperature can be measured using one of the following methods: an electronic thermometer in the axilla, a chemical dot thermometer in the axilla, or an infra-red tympanic thermometer.

      It is important to note that oral and rectal routes should not be utilized for temperature measurement in this age group. Additionally, forehead chemical thermometers are not reliable and should be avoided.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      48.2
      Seconds
  • Question 22 - A patient who has recently come back from a journey to South America...

    Correct

    • A patient who has recently come back from a journey to South America arrives with seizures and visual impairment. After conducting several tests, including a brain CT scan, the diagnosis of cysticercosis is established.
      What is the most probable organism responsible for this condition?

      Your Answer: Taenia solium

      Explanation:

      Two types of tapeworms, Taenia solium and Taenia saginata, can infest humans. Infestation occurs when people consume meat from intermediate hosts that contain the parasite’s tissue stages. Tapeworms compete for nutrients and infestation is often without symptoms. However, in more severe cases, individuals may experience epigastric pain, diarrhea, and vomiting. Diagnosis involves identifying characteristic eggs in the patient’s stool.

      Taenia solium infestation can also lead to a condition called cysticercosis. This occurs when larval cysts infiltrate and spread throughout the lung, liver, eye, or brain. Cysticercosis presents with neurological symptoms, seizures, and impaired vision. Confirmation of cysticercosis involves the presence of antibodies and imaging tests such as chest X-rays and CT brain scans.

      The treatment for tapeworm infestation is highly effective and involves the use of medications like niclosamide or praziquantel. However, it is important to seek specialist advice when managing Taenia infections in the central nervous system, as severe inflammatory reactions can occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      8.9
      Seconds
  • Question 23 - A 2-month-old baby is brought in by his mother with a reported high...

    Incorrect

    • A 2-month-old baby is brought in by his mother with a reported high temperature at home. The triage nurse measures his temperature again as part of her initial assessment.

      Which of the following is recommended by NICE as an appropriate method of measuring body temperature in this age group?

      Your Answer: Infra-red tympanic thermometer

      Correct Answer: Electronic thermometer in the axilla

      Explanation:

      In infants who are less than 4 weeks old, it is recommended to measure their body temperature using an electronic thermometer placed in the armpit.

      For children between the ages of 4 weeks and 5 years, there are several methods that can be used to measure body temperature. These include using an electronic thermometer in the armpit, a chemical dot thermometer in the armpit, or an infra-red tympanic thermometer.

      It is important to note that measuring temperature orally or rectally should be avoided in this age group. Additionally, forehead chemical thermometers are not reliable and should not be used.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      0.9
      Seconds
  • Question 24 - A 32 year old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of abdominal...

    Correct

    • A 32 year old woman arrives at the emergency department complaining of abdominal pain, fever, and yellowing of her skin and eyes. Upon examination, it is evident that she is clinically jaundiced. The patient has a history of intravenous drug use. You suspect she may have acute hepatitis B infection. Which of the following serology results would best support this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: HBsAg positive and anti-HBc IgM positive

      Explanation:

      The presence of serum HBsAg for more than 6 months indicates chronic HBV infection. HBeAg can be detected in the serum during the early stages of acute infection and some chronic infections. Higher levels of virus replication are usually associated with the presence of HBeAg, making individuals with chronic HBV more infectious. If HBeAg is cleared, anti-HBe is typically detected, indicating lower infectivity. The presence of anti-HBe, along with a decline in HBV-DNA, suggests control of viral replication and the likelihood of resolving acute hepatitis B. The presence of anti-HBc indicates current or past HBV infection, appearing at the onset of symptoms in acute infection and persisting for life. However, it may be absent in the early stages of acute infection. Anti-HBc IgM indicates recent HBV infection within the last six months and can help differentiate between acute and chronic infection. Over time, it is gradually replaced by IgG anti-HBc. IgG anti-HBc generally persists for life and indicates past infection. Anti-HBs indicates recovery from and immunity to HBV. If anti-HBs is present without anti-HBc, it suggests immunization. The quantification of anti-HBs is used to measure the response to vaccination.

      Further Reading:

      Hepatitis B is a viral infection that is transmitted through exposure to infected blood or body fluids. It can also be passed from mother to child during childbirth. The incubation period for hepatitis B is typically 6-20 weeks. Common symptoms of hepatitis B include fever, jaundice, and elevated liver transaminases.

      Complications of hepatitis B infection can include chronic hepatitis, which occurs in 5-10% of cases, fulminant liver failure, hepatocellular carcinoma, glomerulonephritis, polyarteritis nodosa, and cryoglobulinemia.

      Immunization against hepatitis B is recommended for various at-risk groups, including healthcare workers, intravenous drug users, sex workers, close family contacts of infected individuals, and those with chronic liver disease or kidney disease. The vaccine contains HBsAg adsorbed onto an aluminum hydroxide adjuvant and is prepared using recombinant DNA technology. Most vaccination schedules involve three doses of the vaccine, with a booster recommended after 5 years.

      Around 10-15% of adults may not respond adequately to the vaccine. Risk factors for poor response include age over 40, obesity, smoking, alcohol excess, and immunosuppression. Testing for anti-HBs levels is recommended for healthcare workers and patients with chronic kidney disease. Interpretation of anti-HBs levels can help determine the need for further vaccination or testing for infection.

      In terms of serology, the presence of HBsAg indicates acute disease if present for 1-6 months, and chronic disease if present for more than 6 months. Anti-HBs indicates immunity, either through exposure or immunization. Anti-HBc indicates previous or current infection, with IgM anti-HBc appearing during acute or recent infection and IgG anti-HBc persisting. HbeAg is a marker of infectivity.

      Management of hepatitis B involves notifying the Health Protection Unit for surveillance and contact tracing. Patients should be advised to avoid alcohol and take precautions to minimize transmission to partners and contacts. Referral to a gastroenterologist or hepatologist is recommended for all patients. Symptoms such as pain, nausea, and itch can be managed with appropriate drug treatment. Pegylated interferon-alpha and other antiviral medications like tenofovir and entecavir may be used to suppress viral replication in chronic carriers.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      30.4
      Seconds
  • Question 25 - A 65 year old presents to the emergency department with a 3 week...

    Incorrect

    • A 65 year old presents to the emergency department with a 3 week history of feeling generally fatigued. You observe that the patient has been undergoing yearly echocardiograms to monitor aortic stenosis. The patient informs you that he had a tooth extraction around 10 days prior to the onset of his symptoms. You suspect that infective endocarditis may be the cause. What organism is most likely responsible for this case?

      Your Answer: Staphylococcus saprophyticus

      Correct Answer: Streptococcus viridans

      Explanation:

      Based on the patient’s symptoms and medical history, the most likely organism responsible for this case of infective endocarditis is Streptococcus viridans. This is because the patient has a history of aortic stenosis, which is a risk factor for developing infective endocarditis. Additionally, the patient had a tooth extraction prior to the onset of symptoms, which can introduce bacteria into the bloodstream and increase the risk of infective endocarditis. Streptococcus viridans is a common cause of infective endocarditis, particularly in patients with underlying heart valve disease.

      Further Reading:

      Infective endocarditis (IE) is an infection that affects the innermost layer of the heart, known as the endocardium. It is most commonly caused by bacteria, although it can also be caused by fungi or viruses. IE can be classified as acute, subacute, or chronic depending on the duration of illness. Risk factors for IE include IV drug use, valvular heart disease, prosthetic valves, structural congenital heart disease, previous episodes of IE, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, immune suppression, chronic inflammatory conditions, and poor dental hygiene.

      The epidemiology of IE has changed in recent years, with Staphylococcus aureus now being the most common causative organism in most industrialized countries. Other common organisms include coagulase-negative staphylococci, streptococci, and enterococci. The distribution of causative organisms varies depending on whether the patient has a native valve, prosthetic valve, or is an IV drug user.

      Clinical features of IE include fever, heart murmurs (most commonly aortic regurgitation), non-specific constitutional symptoms, petechiae, splinter hemorrhages, Osler’s nodes, Janeway’s lesions, Roth’s spots, arthritis, splenomegaly, meningism/meningitis, stroke symptoms, and pleuritic pain.

      The diagnosis of IE is based on the modified Duke criteria, which require the presence of certain major and minor criteria. Major criteria include positive blood cultures with typical microorganisms and positive echocardiogram findings. Minor criteria include fever, vascular phenomena, immunological phenomena, and microbiological phenomena. Blood culture and echocardiography are key tests for diagnosing IE.

      In summary, infective endocarditis is an infection of the innermost layer of the heart that is most commonly caused by bacteria. It can be classified as acute, subacute, or chronic and can be caused by a variety of risk factors. Staphylococcus aureus is now the most common causative organism in most industrialized countries. Clinical features include fever, heart murmurs, and various other symptoms. The diagnosis is based on the modified Duke criteria, which require the presence of certain major and minor criteria. Blood culture and echocardiography are important tests for diagnosing IE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      11
      Seconds
  • Question 26 - A 28 year old IV drug user presents to the emergency department with...

    Incorrect

    • A 28 year old IV drug user presents to the emergency department with complaints of feeling ill. Considering the history of IV drug abuse, there is a concern for infective endocarditis. What is the most characteristic clinical manifestation of infective endocarditis?

      Your Answer: Janeway lesions

      Correct Answer: Fever

      Explanation:

      The most common symptom of infective endocarditis is fever, which occurs in the majority of cases and is consistently present throughout the course of the disease. Cardiac murmurs are also frequently detected, although they may only be present in one third of patients at the initial presentation. Individuals who use intravenous drugs often develop right-sided disease affecting the tricuspid and pulmonary valves, making it challenging to detect cardiac murmurs in these cases. Splinter hemorrhages and other symptoms may also be observed.

      Further Reading:

      Infective endocarditis (IE) is an infection that affects the innermost layer of the heart, known as the endocardium. It is most commonly caused by bacteria, although it can also be caused by fungi or viruses. IE can be classified as acute, subacute, or chronic depending on the duration of illness. Risk factors for IE include IV drug use, valvular heart disease, prosthetic valves, structural congenital heart disease, previous episodes of IE, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, immune suppression, chronic inflammatory conditions, and poor dental hygiene.

      The epidemiology of IE has changed in recent years, with Staphylococcus aureus now being the most common causative organism in most industrialized countries. Other common organisms include coagulase-negative staphylococci, streptococci, and enterococci. The distribution of causative organisms varies depending on whether the patient has a native valve, prosthetic valve, or is an IV drug user.

      Clinical features of IE include fever, heart murmurs (most commonly aortic regurgitation), non-specific constitutional symptoms, petechiae, splinter hemorrhages, Osler’s nodes, Janeway’s lesions, Roth’s spots, arthritis, splenomegaly, meningism/meningitis, stroke symptoms, and pleuritic pain.

      The diagnosis of IE is based on the modified Duke criteria, which require the presence of certain major and minor criteria. Major criteria include positive blood cultures with typical microorganisms and positive echocardiogram findings. Minor criteria include fever, vascular phenomena, immunological phenomena, and microbiological phenomena. Blood culture and echocardiography are key tests for diagnosing IE.

      In summary, infective endocarditis is an infection of the innermost layer of the heart that is most commonly caused by bacteria. It can be classified as acute, subacute, or chronic and can be caused by a variety of risk factors. Staphylococcus aureus is now the most common causative organism in most industrialized countries. Clinical features include fever, heart murmurs, and various other symptoms. The diagnosis is based on the modified Duke criteria, which require the presence of certain major and minor criteria. Blood culture and echocardiography are important tests for diagnosing IE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      2.1
      Seconds
  • Question 27 - A child with a history of stomach pain and loose stools is being...

    Correct

    • A child with a history of stomach pain and loose stools is being examined for a potential diagnosis of tapeworm infection.
      What is the most suitable test to confirm this diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Recover eggs from stool sample

      Explanation:

      Two types of tapeworms, Taenia solium and Taenia saginata, can infest humans. Infestation occurs when people consume meat from intermediate hosts that contain the parasite’s tissue stages. Tapeworms compete for nutrients and infestation is often without symptoms. However, in more severe cases, individuals may experience epigastric pain, diarrhea, and vomiting. Diagnosis involves identifying characteristic eggs in the patient’s stool.

      Taenia solium infestation can also lead to a condition called cysticercosis. This occurs when larval cysts infiltrate and spread throughout the lung, liver, eye, or brain. Cysticercosis presents with neurological symptoms, seizures, and impaired vision. Confirmation of cysticercosis involves the presence of antibodies and imaging tests such as chest X-rays and CT brain scans.

      The treatment for tapeworm infestation is highly effective and involves the use of medications like niclosamide or praziquantel. However, it is important to seek specialist advice when managing Taenia infections in the central nervous system, as severe inflammatory reactions can occur.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      3.9
      Seconds
  • Question 28 - You are requested to evaluate a 6-year-old child who has arrived at the...

    Incorrect

    • You are requested to evaluate a 6-year-old child who has arrived at the emergency department displaying irritability, conjunctivitis, fever, and a widespread rash. Upon further investigation, you discover that the patient is a refugee and has not received several vaccinations. The diagnosis of measles is confirmed.

      What guidance should you provide regarding the exclusion of this child from school due to measles?

      Your Answer: 5 days from onset of rash

      Correct Answer: 4 days from onset of rash

      Explanation:

      The current school exclusion advice for certain infectious diseases with a rash is as follows:

      – For chickenpox, children should be excluded for at least 5 days from the onset of the rash and until all blisters have crusted over.
      – In the case of measles, children should be excluded for 4 days from the onset of the rash, provided they are well enough to attend.
      – Mumps requires a 5-day exclusion after the onset of swelling.
      – Rubella, also known as German measles, requires a 5-day exclusion from the onset of the rash.
      – Scarlet fever necessitates exclusion until 24 hours after starting antibiotic treatment.

      It is important to note that school exclusion advice has undergone changes in recent years, and the information provided above reflects the updated advice as of May 2022.

      Further Reading:

      Measles is a highly contagious viral infection caused by an RNA paramyxovirus. It is primarily spread through aerosol transmission, specifically through droplets in the air. The incubation period for measles is typically 10-14 days, during which patients are infectious from 4 days before the appearance of the rash to 4 days after.

      Common complications of measles include pneumonia, otitis media (middle ear infection), and encephalopathy (brain inflammation). However, a rare but fatal complication called subacute sclerosing panencephalitis (SSPE) can also occur, typically presenting 5-10 years after the initial illness.

      The onset of measles is characterized by a prodrome, which includes symptoms such as irritability, malaise, conjunctivitis, and fever. Before the appearance of the rash, white spots known as Koplik spots can be seen on the buccal mucosa. The rash itself starts behind the ears and then spreads to the entire body, presenting as a discrete maculopapular rash that becomes blotchy and confluent.

      In terms of complications, encephalitis typically occurs 1-2 weeks after the onset of the illness. Febrile convulsions, giant cell pneumonia, keratoconjunctivitis, corneal ulceration, diarrhea, increased incidence of appendicitis, and myocarditis are also possible complications of measles.

      When managing contacts of individuals with measles, it is important to offer the MMR vaccine to children who have not been immunized against measles. The vaccine-induced measles antibody develops more rapidly than that following natural infection, so it should be administered within 72 hours of contact.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      2.2
      Seconds
  • Question 29 - A 35 year old male with a history of IV drug use presents...

    Incorrect

    • A 35 year old male with a history of IV drug use presents to the emergency department complaining of feeling generally unwell, lethargy, and having a fever for the past 2 days. The initial observations are as follows:

      - Temperature: 38.6ºC
      - Pulse rate: 124 bpm
      - Blood pressure: 126/80 mmHg
      - Respiration rate: 22 bpm
      - Oxygen saturation: 98% on room air

      During chest auscultation, an audible murmur is detected, leading to a suspicion of infective endocarditis. What is the most likely organism causing this infection?

      Your Answer: Streptococcus viridans

      Correct Answer: Staphylococcus aureus

      Explanation:

      Staphylococcus aureus is the primary organism responsible for infective endocarditis in individuals who use intravenous drugs (IVDUs). In fact, it is not only the most common cause of infective endocarditis overall, but also specifically in IVDUs. Please refer to the additional notes for more detailed information.

      Further Reading:

      Infective endocarditis (IE) is an infection that affects the innermost layer of the heart, known as the endocardium. It is most commonly caused by bacteria, although it can also be caused by fungi or viruses. IE can be classified as acute, subacute, or chronic depending on the duration of illness. Risk factors for IE include IV drug use, valvular heart disease, prosthetic valves, structural congenital heart disease, previous episodes of IE, hypertrophic cardiomyopathy, immune suppression, chronic inflammatory conditions, and poor dental hygiene.

      The epidemiology of IE has changed in recent years, with Staphylococcus aureus now being the most common causative organism in most industrialized countries. Other common organisms include coagulase-negative staphylococci, streptococci, and enterococci. The distribution of causative organisms varies depending on whether the patient has a native valve, prosthetic valve, or is an IV drug user.

      Clinical features of IE include fever, heart murmurs (most commonly aortic regurgitation), non-specific constitutional symptoms, petechiae, splinter hemorrhages, Osler’s nodes, Janeway’s lesions, Roth’s spots, arthritis, splenomegaly, meningism/meningitis, stroke symptoms, and pleuritic pain.

      The diagnosis of IE is based on the modified Duke criteria, which require the presence of certain major and minor criteria. Major criteria include positive blood cultures with typical microorganisms and positive echocardiogram findings. Minor criteria include fever, vascular phenomena, immunological phenomena, and microbiological phenomena. Blood culture and echocardiography are key tests for diagnosing IE.

      In summary, infective endocarditis is an infection of the innermost layer of the heart that is most commonly caused by bacteria. It can be classified as acute, subacute, or chronic and can be caused by a variety of risk factors. Staphylococcus aureus is now the most common causative organism in most industrialized countries. Clinical features include fever, heart murmurs, and various other symptoms. The diagnosis is based on the modified Duke criteria, which require the presence of certain major and minor criteria. Blood culture and echocardiography are important tests for diagnosing IE.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      3.5
      Seconds
  • Question 30 - A 52-year-old type 2 diabetic visits the emergency department on the weekend complaining...

    Correct

    • A 52-year-old type 2 diabetic visits the emergency department on the weekend complaining of persistent bloody diarrhea and developing a fever over the past three days. During triage, the patient's temperature is recorded as 38.5ºC. The patient mentions seeing their general practitioner on the day the symptoms started, and due to recent travel to the Middle East, a stool sample was sent for testing. Upon reviewing the pathology result, it is found that the stool sample tested positive for campylobacter. The decision is made to prescribe antibiotics. What is the most appropriate choice?

      Your Answer: Clarithromycin

      Explanation:

      According to NICE guidelines, when treating a campylobacter infection, clarithromycin is recommended as the first choice of antibiotic. Antibiotics are typically only prescribed for individuals with severe symptoms, such as a high fever, bloody or frequent diarrhea, or for those who have a weakened immune system, like this patient who has diabetes. NICE advises a dosage of clarithromycin 250-500 mg taken twice daily for a duration of 5-7 days. It is best to start treatment within 3 days of the onset of illness.

      Further Reading:

      Campylobacter jejuni is a common cause of gastrointestinal infections, particularly travellers diarrhoea. It is a gram-negative bacterium that appears as curved rods. The infection is transmitted through the feco-oral route, often through the ingestion of contaminated meat, especially poultry. The incubation period for Campylobacter jejuni is typically 1-7 days, and the illness usually lasts for about a week.

      The main symptoms of Campylobacter jejuni infection include watery, and sometimes bloody, diarrhea accompanied by abdominal cramps, fever, malaise, and headache. In some cases, complications can arise from the infection. Guillain-Barre syndrome (GBS) is one such complication that is associated with Campylobacter jejuni. Approximately 30% of GBS cases are caused by this bacterium.

      When managing Campylobacter jejuni infection, conservative measures are usually sufficient, with a focus on maintaining hydration. However, in cases where symptoms are severe, such as high fever, bloody diarrhea, or high-output diarrhea, or if the person is immunocompromised, antibiotics may be necessary. NICE recommends the use of clarithromycin, administered at a dose of 250-500 mg twice daily for 5-7 days, starting within 3 days of the onset of illness.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Infectious Diseases
      3.2
      Seconds

SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Infectious Diseases (16/30) 53%
Passmed