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  • Question 1 - A 65-year-old woman with a history of chronic alcohol abuse is diagnosed with...

    Incorrect

    • A 65-year-old woman with a history of chronic alcohol abuse is diagnosed with Korsakoff's psychosis. You have been requested to assess the patient and report your observations.
      Which of the following symptoms is typically observed in individuals with Korsakoff's psychosis?

      Your Answer: Word salad

      Correct Answer: Disordered time appreciation

      Explanation:

      Wernicke’s encephalopathy is a condition that is commonly associated with alcohol abuse and other causes of thiamine deficiency. It is characterized by a classic triad of symptoms, which include acute confusion, ophthalmoplegia (paralysis or weakness of the eye muscles), and ataxia (loss of coordination and balance). Additional possible features of this condition may include papilloedema (swelling of the optic disc), hearing loss, apathy, dysphagia (difficulty swallowing), memory impairment, and hypothermia. In the majority of cases, peripheral neuropathy (nerve damage) is also observed, typically affecting the legs.

      The condition is marked by the presence of acute capillary haemorrhages, astrocytosis (abnormal increase in astrocytes, a type of brain cell), and neuronal death in the upper brainstem and diencephalon. These abnormalities can be visualized using MRI scanning, while CT scanning is not very useful for diagnosis.

      If left untreated, most patients with Wernicke’s encephalopathy will go on to develop a Korsakoff psychosis. This condition is characterized by retrograde amnesia (difficulty remembering past events), an inability to memorize new information, disordered time appreciation, and confabulation (fabrication of false memories).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      48.3
      Seconds
  • Question 2 - A 45-year-old combat veteran, Sarah, has been diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD).
    What...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old combat veteran, Sarah, has been diagnosed with post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD).
      What is the most suitable treatment for her?

      Your Answer: Eye Movement Desensitisation and Reprocessing

      Explanation:

      Eye movement desensitization and reprocessing (EMDR) and trauma-focused cognitive-behavioral therapy (CBT) are the primary treatment options for post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD). These therapies should be provided to individuals of all ages, including children, adolescents, and adults, regardless of the time that has passed since the traumatic event. The recommended number of sessions is typically 8-12, although additional sessions may be necessary in cases involving multiple traumas, chronic disability, comorbidities, or social difficulties.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      12.8
      Seconds
  • Question 3 - A teenager comes to the Emergency Department, who is known to have a...

    Incorrect

    • A teenager comes to the Emergency Department, who is known to have a history of substance abuse. In the waiting area, they become aggressive and start demanding to be seen immediately. When this does not happen right away, they begin to shout and threaten some of the other patients in the waiting area.
      What steps should you take in this situation?

      Your Answer: Inform the alcoholic patient that their behaviour is unacceptable, and they will be asked to leave the department

      Correct Answer: Ask the reception staff to call security

      Explanation:

      In a clinical setting, the prioritization of patient safety and the safety of staff members is crucial. Violence against other patients and health professionals is not tolerated. However, it is important to consider that the patient in question may be intoxicated or experiencing delirium tremens, which could impair their insight into their own behavior.

      To address this situation, it would be wise to call local security as a precautionary measure. This action can serve as a backup if additional assistance is required. However, involving the police at this stage may escalate the situation unnecessarily and potentially agitate the patient further.

      Administering sedation to the patient without understanding their medical history or gathering more information would not be appropriate. It is essential to have a comprehensive understanding of the patient’s condition before considering any interventions.

      Similarly, asking the patient to leave the department immediately could potentially worsen the situation. It is important to approach the situation with caution and consider alternative strategies to de-escalate the situation effectively.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      7.9
      Seconds
  • Question 4 - A 35-year-old man is involved in a car crash in which his wife...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old man is involved in a car crash in which his wife is killed. He is uninjured and was released from the hospital after an evaluation the same evening as the accident. He comes back three days later with significant symptoms of anxiety and difficulty remembering the details of the accident. He describes feeling out of it and disoriented. He also reports feeling emotionally detached from the events at this point.

      What is the SINGLE most probable diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Acute stress disorder

      Explanation:

      This woman has been exposed to a highly traumatic event that likely caused intense fear and helplessness. She also witnessed the shocking death of her spouse. As a result, it is highly likely that she will develop acute stress disorder.

      Common features of acute stress disorder include a subjective feeling of detachment and a lack of emotional responsiveness. Individuals may also experience a reduction in awareness of their surroundings, often described as being in a daze. Additionally, derealization and depersonalization may occur, where individuals feel disconnected from reality or their own sense of self.

      Another symptom of acute stress disorder is dissociative amnesia, where individuals have difficulty remembering the traumatic events. They may also experience flashbacks and dreams about the event, which can be distressing and intrusive. Symptoms of anxiety or increased arousal, such as restlessness or hypervigilance, are also common.

      Typically, acute stress disorder lasts between two days and four weeks after the traumatic event. It is important to note that it usually occurs within four weeks of the traumatic event.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      8.6
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  • Question 5 - A 25-year-old woman has a history of unstable relationships, excessive anger, fluctuating moods,...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman has a history of unstable relationships, excessive anger, fluctuating moods, uncertainty about her personal identity, self-harm, and impulsive behavior that causes harm.
      Which of the following is the SINGLE MOST likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Borderline personality disorder

      Explanation:

      Borderline personality disorder is characterized by a range of clinical features. These include having unstable relationships, experiencing undue anger, and having variable moods. Individuals with this disorder often struggle with chronic boredom and may have doubts about their personal identity. They also tend to have an intolerance of being left alone and may engage in self-injury. Additionally, they exhibit impulsive behavior that can be damaging to themselves.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      12.4
      Seconds
  • Question 6 - A young man arrives at the Emergency Department with symptoms of acute alcohol...

    Incorrect

    • A young man arrives at the Emergency Department with symptoms of acute alcohol withdrawal. He is seeking admission for 'inpatient detox' and expresses a desire for medication to alleviate his discomfort.
      Which ONE of the following medications will you administer to alleviate his symptoms during his stay in the Emergency Department?

      Your Answer: Lorazepam

      Correct Answer: Diazepam

      Explanation:

      Benzodiazepines are commonly prescribed in the UK to help manage symptoms of alcohol withdrawal. Currently, only diazepam and chlordiazepoxide have been approved for this purpose. If you would like to learn more about the NICE pathway for acute alcohol withdrawal or the RCEM syllabus reference, please refer to the provided links. Additionally, information on alcohol and substance misuse can be found in the MHC1 section.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      4.9
      Seconds
  • Question 7 - A young man presents to the Emergency Department with symptoms of acute alcohol...

    Correct

    • A young man presents to the Emergency Department with symptoms of acute alcohol withdrawal. He is requesting admission for ‘inpatient detox’ and states he would like some ‘medication to alleviate his symptoms’.

      Which of the following is a reason for admitting this patient?

      Your Answer: Age under 16

      Explanation:

      NICE provides a list of reasons for admitting patients with acute alcohol withdrawal. These include individuals who are deemed to be at risk of experiencing withdrawal seizures or delirium tremens. Additionally, young people under the age of 16 who are going through acute alcohol withdrawal may also require admission. Furthermore, vulnerable individuals, such as those who are frail, have cognitive impairment or multiple comorbidities, lack social support, or have learning difficulties, may also benefit from being admitted for acute alcohol withdrawal. For more information, please refer to the NICE pathway for acute alcohol withdrawal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      1.1
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  • Question 8 - A 35-year-old man is admitted to the Clinical Decision Unit (CDU) in the...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old man is admitted to the Clinical Decision Unit (CDU) in the early hours of the morning. He was brought in by the police as he’d been causing a disturbance in the street. They were concerned that he might have medical issues that need reviewing. He is well known to the department and has a long history of multiple attendances, usually related to substance abuse. He appeared intoxicated on admission, and the decision was made to observe him overnight. He is now fully alert and orientated, and is very apologetic about his behavior the previous night. He does not want to wait to be reviewed by the doctors and wants to go home.
      What is the best course of action for you to take? Select ONE option only.

      Your Answer: Recommend that she stops drinking immediately and makes an appointment with her GP for follow up

      Correct Answer: Refer the patient for follow up in the community by the alcohol outreach team

      Explanation:

      This question is assessing various aspects, such as your ability to make decisions, manage long-term conditions, and promote patient self-care.

      The most appropriate action would be to get in touch with the community alcohol outreach team to ensure that the patient receives proper follow-up care. Additionally, it is important to assess the patient’s Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) before considering self-discharge. However, this does not indicate the need for long-term follow-up.

      Asking a family member to monitor the patient is not a safe or suitable solution, and providing intravenous fluids and nutritional advice does not address the underlying long-term issues in this case. It would be potentially dangerous to suggest that the patient stops drinking immediately.

      Overall, contacting the community alcohol outreach team for follow-up care is the best course of action in this situation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      22.9
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  • Question 9 - You assess a 30-year-old woman with a background of bipolar disorder and prior...

    Correct

    • You assess a 30-year-old woman with a background of bipolar disorder and prior instances of hostile and aggressive conduct.
      What SINGLE factor has been demonstrated to heighten the likelihood of aggression?

      Your Answer: Coercive behaviour

      Explanation:

      There are several factors that are known to increase the risk of violence from patients. These include being male, being young (under 40 years old), having poor levels of self-care, exhibiting coercive behavior, having a history of prior violent episodes, making multiple attendances to the hospital, being intoxicated with alcohol, and experiencing organic psychosis.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      6.6
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  • Question 10 - A young man presents to the Emergency Department with symptoms of acute alcohol...

    Correct

    • A young man presents to the Emergency Department with symptoms of acute alcohol withdrawal. He is requesting admission for ‘inpatient detox’ and states he would like some ‘medication to alleviate his symptoms’.
      Which of the following is NOT a reason for admitting this patient?

      Your Answer: Previous successful inpatient detox

      Explanation:

      NICE provides a list of reasons for admitting patients with acute alcohol withdrawal. These include individuals who are deemed to be at risk of experiencing withdrawal seizures or delirium tremens. Additionally, young people under the age of 16 who are going through acute alcohol withdrawal may also require admission. Furthermore, vulnerable individuals, such as those who are frail, have cognitive impairment or multiple comorbidities, lack social support, or have learning difficulties, may also benefit from being admitted for acute alcohol withdrawal. For more information, please refer to the NICE pathway for acute alcohol withdrawal.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      5.8
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  • Question 11 - You assess a client who has recently developed severe depression and contemplate the...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a client who has recently developed severe depression and contemplate the potential presence of an underlying organic factor contributing to this condition.

      Which ONE of the following could be a potential organic factor leading to depression?

      Your Answer: Thiamine deficiency

      Correct Answer: Hypercalcaemia

      Explanation:

      Hypercalcaemia is often linked to feelings of sadness and low mood, while hypocalcaemia does not typically have this association. Temporal arteritis is known to cause sudden episodes of psychosis, but it is not commonly associated with depression. On the other hand, hyperkalaemia does not have a connection to depression. Lastly, when someone experiences a deficiency in thiamine, they may exhibit symptoms of acute confusion, but depression is not typically one of these symptoms.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      21.5
      Seconds
  • Question 12 - A 35-year-old woman presents with symptoms of sleep disturbance (waking up early in...

    Incorrect

    • A 35-year-old woman presents with symptoms of sleep disturbance (waking up early in the morning) and difficulty falling asleep, mood changes throughout the day, fatigue, and absence of menstrual periods.
      What is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis for this patient?

      Your Answer: Anorexia Nervosa

      Correct Answer: Depression

      Explanation:

      In this scenario, there are similarities between hypothyroidism and perimenopause in terms of their features. However, the most frequent cause of experiencing these symptoms together is depression. Therefore, it is necessary to delve deeper into this woman’s mood to rule out depression and provide appropriate management.

      To exclude hypothyroidism as a potential cause, a TSH blood test should be conducted. Additionally, it is important to inquire about other symptoms that may align with early menopause.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      22.7
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  • Question 13 - You assess a 42-year-old individual who is being admitted for alcohol detoxification. They...

    Incorrect

    • You assess a 42-year-old individual who is being admitted for alcohol detoxification. They have been prescribed Pabrinex by one of your colleagues.
      What vitamin is included in Pabrinex?

      Your Answer: Vitamin B12

      Correct Answer: Vitamin C

      Explanation:

      Pabrinex is a supplement that includes a combination of essential vitamins. These vitamins are Thiamine (also known as vitamin B1), Riboflavin (commonly referred to as vitamin B2), Nicotinamide (which encompasses Vitamin B3, niacin, and nicotinic acid), Pyridoxine (known as vitamin B6), and Ascorbic acid (which is vitamin C). Each of these vitamins plays a crucial role in maintaining our overall health and well-being. By incorporating Pabrinex into our daily routine, we can ensure that our bodies receive the necessary nutrients to support various bodily functions.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      10.3
      Seconds
  • Question 14 - A young man arrives at the Emergency Department with symptoms of acute alcohol...

    Correct

    • A young man arrives at the Emergency Department with symptoms of acute alcohol withdrawal. He is seeking admission for 'inpatient detox' and expresses a desire for medication to alleviate his discomfort.
      Which ONE of the following medications will you administer to alleviate his symptoms during his stay in the Emergency Department?

      Your Answer: Chlordiazepoxide

      Explanation:

      Benzodiazepines are commonly prescribed in the UK to help manage symptoms of alcohol withdrawal. Currently, only diazepam and chlordiazepoxide have been approved for this purpose. If you would like to learn more about the NICE pathway for acute alcohol withdrawal or the RCEM syllabus reference, please refer to the provided links. Additionally, information on alcohol and substance misuse can be found in the MHC1 section.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      7.1
      Seconds
  • Question 15 - A 40-year-old woman comes in with tremor, anxiety, sweating, and nausea. Her observations...

    Correct

    • A 40-year-old woman comes in with tremor, anxiety, sweating, and nausea. Her observations reveal an elevated heart rate of 119 bpm. She typically consumes 2-3 large bottles of strong cider daily but has recently run out of money and hasn't had an alcoholic drink since the previous night.
      Which assessment scale should be utilized to guide the treatment of this woman's alcohol withdrawal? Select ONE option.

      Your Answer: CIWA scale

      Explanation:

      The CIWA scale, also known as the Clinical Institute Withdrawal Assessment for Alcohol scale, is a scale consisting of ten items that is utilized in the evaluation and management of alcohol withdrawal. It is currently recommended by both NICE and the Royal College of Emergency Medicine for assessing patients experiencing acute alcohol withdrawal. The maximum score on the CIWA scale is 67, with scores indicating the severity of withdrawal symptoms. A score of less than 5 suggests mild withdrawal, while a score between 6 and 20 indicates moderate withdrawal. Any score above 20 is considered severe withdrawal. The ten items evaluated on the scale encompass common symptoms and signs of alcohol withdrawal, such as nausea/vomiting, tremors, sweating, anxiety, agitation, sensory disturbances, and cognitive impairments.

      In addition to the CIWA scale, there are other screening tools available for assessing various conditions. The CAGE questionnaire is commonly used to screen for alcohol-related issues. The STEPI is utilized as a screening tool for early symptoms of the schizophrenia prodrome. The EPDS is an evidence-based questionnaire that can be employed to screen for postnatal depression. Lastly, the SCOFF questionnaire is a screening tool used to identify the possible presence of eating disorders.

      For further information on the assessment and management of acute alcohol withdrawal, the NICE pathway is a valuable resource. The RCEM syllabus also provides relevant information on this topic. Additionally, the MHC1 module on alcohol and substance misuse offers further reading material for those interested in this subject.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      4.8
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  • Question 16 - A 32-year-old musician is currently participating in a community withdrawal program for a...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old musician is currently participating in a community withdrawal program for a substance misuse issue. He has been attempting to quit for more than a year and consistently attends a community support group for his problem. The healthcare team in charge of his treatment have prescribed him Acamprosate to aid with his withdrawal.
      What substance is he most likely trying to withdraw from?

      Your Answer: Alcohol

      Explanation:

      Acamprosate, also known as Campral, is a medication used in the treatment of alcohol dependence. It is believed to work by stabilizing a chemical pathway in the brain that is disrupted during alcohol withdrawal. For optimal results, Acamprosate should be used alongside psychosocial support, as it helps reduce alcohol consumption and promote abstinence.

      When starting treatment with Acamprosate, it is important to begin as soon as possible after assisted withdrawal. The typical dosage is 1998 mg (666 mg three times a day), unless the patient weighs less than 60 kg, in which case a maximum of 1332 mg per day should be prescribed.

      Generally, Acamprosate is prescribed for up to 6 months. However, for those who benefit from the medication and wish to continue, it can be taken for a longer duration. If drinking persists 4-6 weeks after starting the drug, it should be discontinued.

      Patients who are prescribed Acamprosate should be closely monitored, with regular check-ins at least once a month for the first six months. If the medication is continued beyond six months, the frequency of check-ins can be reduced but should still occur at regular intervals.

      While routine blood tests are not mandatory, they can be considered if there is a need to monitor liver function recovery or as a motivational tool to show patients their progress.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      5.5
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  • Question 17 - A 30-year-old woman with a history of schizophrenia is brought to the Emergency...

    Incorrect

    • A 30-year-old woman with a history of schizophrenia is brought to the Emergency Department. She is exhibiting signs of acute psychosis.
      Which ONE of the following statements is TRUE regarding schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: Women generally present younger than men

      Correct Answer: 10% of patients go on to commit suicide

      Explanation:

      The occurrence of schizophrenia is consistent across all social classes. It affects individuals from all walks of life without discrimination. The likelihood of developing schizophrenia over one’s lifetime is 1%, and this probability remains the same for both men and women. However, it is worth noting that men tend to experience the onset of symptoms at a younger age compared to women, with the average age of onset falling between 15 and 45 years.

      There is a recognized genetic predisposition for schizophrenia, meaning that certain individuals may have a higher likelihood of developing the condition due to their genetic makeup. The risk of schizophrenia affecting first-degree relatives, such as siblings or parents, is approximately 10%. Furthermore, the risk of children being affected by schizophrenia increases to 40%.

      When considering the impact of genetics on schizophrenia, it is interesting to note that monozygotic twins, who share identical genetic material, have a concordance rate of around 50%. This suggests that genetic factors play a significant role in the development of the condition.

      Tragically, approximately 10% of individuals suffering from schizophrenia ultimately die by suicide, particularly during the early stages of the illness. This highlights the importance of providing appropriate support and intervention to individuals with schizophrenia to prevent such devastating outcomes.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      23.5
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  • Question 18 - You review a child with a history of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)...

    Correct

    • You review a child with a history of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) who is currently experiencing severe symptoms. He hands you a note to read that expresses his thoughts about his condition. However, you struggle to comprehend it as it is excessively verbose and highly disorganized.
      Which ONE of the following cognitive impairments is he exhibiting?

      Your Answer: Graphorrhea

      Explanation:

      Graphorrhoea is a communication disorder characterized by an excessive use of words and a tendency to ramble in written work. It is similar to word salad, but specifically occurs in written form. This condition is often observed in individuals with schizophrenia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      41.5
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  • Question 19 - A 32-year-old woman has been brought into the Emergency Department by the Police...

    Incorrect

    • A 32-year-old woman has been brought into the Emergency Department by the Police with unusual behavior. She has been brought in under 'section'. She is known to suffer from bipolar disorder, but her friend states that she hasn't been taking her medications recently. She became agitated, violent, and aggressive after being approached by the Police and is now handcuffed. She is saying that she hears voices and that she can read people's minds. She is refusing oral medications.
      According to the NICE guidelines for short-term management of violent and aggressive patients, what should be used as the first-line for rapid tranquilization of this patient?

      Your Answer: Lorazepam plus olanzapine

      Correct Answer: Haloperidol plus promethazine

      Explanation:

      Rapid tranquillisation involves the administration of medication through injection when oral medication is not feasible or appropriate and immediate sedation is necessary. The current guidelines from NICE recommend two options for rapid tranquillisation in adults: intramuscular lorazepam alone or a combination of intramuscular haloperidol and intramuscular promethazine. The choice of medication depends on various factors such as advanced statements, potential intoxication, previous responses to these medications, interactions with other drugs, and existing physical health conditions or pregnancy.

      If there is insufficient information to determine the appropriate medication or if the individual has not taken antipsychotic medication before, intramuscular lorazepam is recommended. However, if there is evidence of cardiovascular disease or a prolonged QT interval, or if an electrocardiogram has not been conducted, the combination of intramuscular haloperidol and intramuscular promethazine should be avoided, and intramuscular lorazepam should be used instead.

      If there is a partial response to intramuscular lorazepam, a second dose should be considered. If there is no response to intramuscular lorazepam, then intramuscular haloperidol combined with intramuscular promethazine should be considered. If there is a partial response to this combination, a further dose should be considered.

      If there is no response to intramuscular haloperidol combined with intramuscular promethazine and intramuscular lorazepam has not been used yet, it should be considered. However, if intramuscular lorazepam has already been administered, it is recommended to arrange an urgent team meeting to review the situation and seek a second opinion if necessary.

      After rapid tranquillisation, the patient should be closely monitored for any side effects, and their vital signs should be regularly checked, including heart rate, blood pressure, respiratory rate, temperature, hydration level, and level of consciousness. These observations should be conducted at least hourly until there are no further concerns about the patient’s physical health.

      For more information, refer to the NICE guidance on violence and aggression: short-term management in mental health, health, and community settings.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 20 - A 45-year-old woman has visited her primary care physician and the Emergency Department...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman has visited her primary care physician and the Emergency Department a combined total of 60 times over the past six years with various complaints. In the past, she has experienced multiple episodes of pain that have affected different parts of her body. No clear cause has ever been found for any of these episodes. Last year she had a strange episode where she lost her sense of taste and smell. She was subsequently referred to a Neurologist and had a normal MRI scan of her brain. This episode resolved without explanation. Today she has presented with concerns about a tingling sensation on the right side of her body, which she would like investigated. Her only past medical history of note is migraines, for which she takes sumatriptan and ibuprofen.

      What is the single MOST likely diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Somatic symptom disorder

      Explanation:

      Somatic symptom disorder is characterized by the presence of recurrent, unexplained clinical symptoms that occur in multiple areas of the body. These symptoms typically begin before the age of 30 and persist for several years. In order to diagnose somatic symptom disorder, the following criteria must be met: experiencing pain in at least four different locations in the body, encountering at least two gastrointestinal issues, encountering one sexual dysfunction, and experiencing one pseudoneurological symptom.

      Hypochondriasis, on the other hand, involves an excessive preoccupation with the belief of having a serious illness, such as cancer. Despite undergoing thorough medical investigations and receiving reassurance from healthcare professionals, individuals with hypochondriasis continue to have an unwarranted concern about their physical health. This preoccupation is often accompanied by self-examination, self-diagnosis, and a lack of trust in the diagnoses provided by doctors.

      Munchausen syndrome is characterized by individuals intentionally feigning illness or disease in order to gain attention and sympathy from others. Unlike somatisation disorder and hypochondriasis, individuals with Munchausen syndrome deliberately produce their symptoms.

      Dissociative disorder, previously known as multiple personality disorder, encompasses a group of conditions that involve disruptions in memory, awareness, identity, and perception. The most extreme manifestation of this disorder is dissociative identity disorder, in which individuals have at least two distinct identities or personalities.

      Malingering refers to the deliberate exaggeration or fabrication of symptoms of a disease for various potential secondary gains. This behavior is often associated with seeking financial benefits, such as committing benefits fraud, or engaging in drug-seeking behaviors.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 21 - A 32-year-old woman with a history of schizophrenia describes a sensation in which...

    Correct

    • A 32-year-old woman with a history of schizophrenia describes a sensation in which she feels that other people can hear what she is thinking. She is finding the sensation very distressing.
      Which ONE of the following thought disorders is she exhibiting?

      Your Answer: Thought broadcast

      Explanation:

      Thought broadcast is one of the primary symptoms of schizophrenia identified by Schneider. This symptom refers to the patient’s belief that their thoughts can be perceived by others.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      9.2
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  • Question 22 - A 40-year-old woman comes in with tremors, anxiety, sweating, and nausea. Her vital...

    Incorrect

    • A 40-year-old woman comes in with tremors, anxiety, sweating, and nausea. Her vital signs reveal an elevated heart rate of 119 bpm. She typically consumes 2-3 large bottles of strong cider daily but has recently run out of money and has not had an alcoholic beverage since the previous evening.
      Which ONE of the following medications, not belonging to the benzodiazepine class, is commonly prescribed in the UK for the treatment of alcohol withdrawal symptoms?

      Your Answer: Phenytoin

      Correct Answer: Carbamazepine

      Explanation:

      Benzodiazepines are commonly used in the UK to manage symptoms of alcohol withdrawal. Currently, only diazepam and chlordiazepoxide have been authorized for this purpose. Other benzodiazepines like alprazolam, clobazam, and lorazepam do not currently have authorization for treating alcohol withdrawal symptoms in the UK.

      Carbamazepine is also used in the UK to manage alcohol-related withdrawal symptoms, but it does not have official authorization for this use.

      Clomethiazole, on the other hand, does have UK marketing authorization for treating alcohol withdrawal symptoms, but it is only recommended for use in a hospital setting with close supervision. The product information for clomethiazole advises caution when prescribing it to individuals with a history of addiction or outpatient alcoholics. It is also not recommended for patients who continue to drink or abuse alcohol. Combining alcohol with clomethiazole, especially in alcoholics with cirrhosis, can lead to fatal respiratory depression even with short-term use. Therefore, clomethiazole should only be used in a hospital under close supervision or, in rare cases, by specialist units on an outpatient basis with careful monitoring of the daily dosage.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
      17.9
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  • Question 23 - A teenager presents following a fall. You observe that they are dressed very...

    Incorrect

    • A teenager presents following a fall. You observe that they are dressed very casually and have a strong smell of alcohol. Looking at their medical records, you notice that they have had multiple similar presentations in the past few months. You decide to administer a screening questionnaire to assess for potential alcohol dependency.
      According to the current NICE guidelines, which of the following screening tests is recommended for this purpose?

      Your Answer: CIWA

      Correct Answer: AUDIT

      Explanation:

      The Alcohol Use Disorder Identification Test (AUDIT) has been developed by the World Health Organization as a straightforward screening tool to detect early signs of hazardous and harmful drinking, as well as mild dependence. This assessment is more comprehensive than the CAGE questionnaire and is currently recommended by NICE for identifying alcohol misuse.

      NICE, the National Institute for Health and Care Excellence, suggests the use of specific assessment tools to evaluate the nature and severity of alcohol misuse. These tools include AUDIT for identification and as a routine outcome measure, SADQ or LDQ for assessing the severity of dependence, CIWA-Ar for evaluating the severity of withdrawal symptoms, and APQ for understanding the nature and extent of problems resulting from alcohol misuse.

      For more information on this topic, you can refer to the NICE guidance titled Alcohol-use disorders: diagnosis, assessment and management of harmful drinking and alcohol dependence.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 24 - You review a 30-year-old woman with a history of a mental health disorder...

    Incorrect

    • You review a 30-year-old woman with a history of a mental health disorder and self-harming behavior. She is accompanied by the Police and has cut her arm with a sharp object. They would like you to assess her arm injuries and are concerned about her risk of future self-harm.
      When assessing this patient, which of the following features should your examination room have?

      Your Answer: A secure locking mechanism

      Correct Answer: An internal inspection window

      Explanation:

      When evaluating a disturbed or violent patient, your own safety should be the top priority. It is essential that the room you use for the examination has certain features to ensure your well-being. Firstly, there should be an internal inspection window that allows the staff to regularly check on both you and the patient. Additionally, the room should have an unimpeded exit, preferably with an outward opening door that is easy to exit through. It is also crucial to choose a room that is close to well-staffed areas, as this can provide immediate assistance if needed.

      It is highly recommended to avoid examining patients in isolated areas, as it significantly increases the risk of harm to the assessor. While the room should be comfortable, it is unnecessary to have excessive furnishings. In fact, having too much furniture and unnecessary equipment can pose a threat, as they can be used as weapons by the patient. Therefore, it is ideal to remove any excess furniture and unnecessary equipment from the room. In this case, an examination couch is not required and should be avoided, as it could potentially be used as a weapon.

      A secure locking mechanism is not necessary for the room, and it should be easily accessible to other staff members during the assessment. It is important to note that the room should not be used as a detainment area for the patient, and they should never be locked inside. By following these guidelines and ensuring the room has the recommended features, you can prioritize your safety while examining disturbed or violent patients.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 25 - You assess a 42-year-old individual who is being admitted for alcohol detoxification. They...

    Correct

    • You assess a 42-year-old individual who is being admitted for alcohol detoxification. They have been prescribed Pabrinex by one of your colleagues.
      Which of the following vitamins is not included in Pabrinex?

      Your Answer: Vitamin B12

      Explanation:

      Pabrinex is a supplement that includes a combination of essential vitamins. These vitamins are Thiamine (also known as vitamin B1), Riboflavin (commonly referred to as vitamin B2), Nicotinamide (which encompasses Vitamin B3, niacin, and nicotinic acid), Pyridoxine (known as vitamin B6), and Ascorbic acid (which is vitamin C). Each of these vitamins plays a crucial role in maintaining our overall health and well-being. By incorporating Pabrinex into our daily routine, we can ensure that our bodies receive the necessary nutrients to support various bodily functions.

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      • Mental Health
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  • Question 26 - A 25-year-old woman with a history of schizophrenia is brought to the Emergency...

    Correct

    • A 25-year-old woman with a history of schizophrenia is brought to the Emergency Department. She is exhibiting signs of acute psychosis.
      Which ONE of the following is acknowledged as a negative symptom of schizophrenia?

      Your Answer: Blunted affect

      Explanation:

      The first-rank symptoms of schizophrenia, as described by Kurt Schneider, include auditory hallucinations such as hearing 3rd person voices discussing the patient, experiencing thought echo, and receiving commentary on one’s actions. Additionally, passivity phenomena may occur, such as thought insertion, thought withdrawal, thought broadcast, and feelings of thoughts and actions being under external control. Delusions, which can be primary or secondary, are also common in schizophrenia.

      On the other hand, chronic schizophrenia is characterized by negative symptoms. These include poor motivation and self-care, social withdrawal, depression, flat and blunted affect, emotional incongruity, decreased activity, and poverty of thought and speech. These symptoms are often present in individuals with chronic schizophrenia.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 27 - A 35-year-old woman with bipolar disorder describes a feeling in which a voice...

    Correct

    • A 35-year-old woman with bipolar disorder describes a feeling in which a voice in her mind appears to vocalize her thoughts to her immediately after the thought has been generated.
      Which of the following psychological symptoms is she encountering?

      Your Answer: Écho de la pensée

      Explanation:

      Écho de la pensée, also known as thought echo, is a psychiatric symptom characterized by the perception of a voice in one’s mind that appears to vocalize thoughts immediately after they are generated.

      Thought withdrawal, on the other hand, is a delusional belief where individuals feel that their thoughts have been removed from their own consciousness without their control or consent.

      In contrast, thought insertion is a delusional conviction that someone else is influencing or manipulating their thoughts, causing difficulty in distinguishing between their own thoughts and those that have been inserted by another person.

      Folie à deux, also referred to as induced psychosis, is a specific type of delusional disorder that is shared by two or more individuals who have a close emotional relationship.

      Lastly, echophonia refers to the replication of the voice that can sometimes be heard when listening to the chest during auscultation.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 28 - A 45-year-old woman is brought in by her family due to her recent...

    Correct

    • A 45-year-old woman is brought in by her family due to her recent history of strange behavior. She is unable to recall events from a few years ago and also has difficulty answering questions about what has happened over the past few days. She attributes her poor memory to a recent car accident she was involved in. Her family reports that she drinks excessively. She also provides peculiar explanations to some other inquiries but remains friendly and polite during the consultation.
      Which of the following is the MOST LIKELY diagnosis?

      Your Answer: Korsakoff syndrome

      Explanation:

      Korsakoff syndrome is a form of dementia that occurs due to a lack of thiamine (vitamin B1) in the body. This condition is most commonly observed in individuals who have a long history of alcoholism. The main features of Korsakoff syndrome include anterograde amnesia, patchy retrograde amnesia, and confabulation. Additionally, many patients also experience difficulties with language (aphasia), movement (apraxia), recognition (agnosia), or executive functioning. It is important to note that Korsakoff syndrome often coexists with Wernicke’s encephalopathy, which is characterized by a triad of symptoms including ophthalmoplegia, altered mental state, and gait disturbance (ataxia). When both conditions are present, it is referred to as Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome (WKS).

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 29 - You assess a patient with a previous diagnosis of bipolar disorder. His family...

    Correct

    • You assess a patient with a previous diagnosis of bipolar disorder. His family members are worried about his conduct.
      What is ONE characteristic symptom of mania?

      Your Answer: Thought disorder

      Explanation:

      The flight of ideas observed in mania is considered a type of thought disorder. The primary clinical characteristics of mania include changes in mood, behavior, speech, and thought.

      In terms of mood, individuals experiencing mania often exhibit an elated mood and a sense of euphoria. They may also display irritability and hostility instead of their usual amiability. Additionally, there is an increase in enthusiasm.

      Regarding behavior, individuals in a manic state tend to be overactive and have heightened energy levels. They may lose their normal social inhibitions and engage in more risk-taking behaviors. This can also manifest as increased sexual promiscuity and libido, as well as an increased appetite.

      In terms of speech, individuals with mania often speak in a pressured and rapid manner. Their conversations may be cheerful, and they may engage in rhyming or punning.

      Lastly, in terms of thought, the flight of ideas is a prominent feature of mania and is classified as a thought disorder. Individuals may experience grandiose delusions and have an inflated sense of self-esteem. They may also struggle with poor attention and concentration.

      Overall, mania is characterized by a range of symptoms that affect mood, behavior, speech, and thought.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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  • Question 30 - You review a patient with a history of schizophrenia who is currently experiencing...

    Correct

    • You review a patient with a history of schizophrenia who is currently experiencing acute psychosis. He describes a sensation in which his train of thought is abruptly cut off completely. During the consultation, you observe that his speech is frequently interrupted by prolonged periods of silence, lasting for a minute or two.
      Which ONE of the following thought disorders is he exhibiting?

      Your Answer: Thought blocking

      Explanation:

      Thought blocking is a distressing phenomenon where one’s train of thought is abruptly halted. This occurrence is observed in various psychiatric disorders, such as schizophrenia. It manifests as sudden pauses in a person’s speech, lasting from a few seconds to even a minute or more.

    • This question is part of the following fields:

      • Mental Health
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SESSION STATS - PERFORMANCE PER SPECIALTY

Mental Health (18/30) 60%
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